DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions.

Choose the best

answer to each question.

’Culture’ is the emergent product of the micro rules of behaviour followed by individuals, and it plays a role in the economic
performance of organisations and nations. While observations on the connection between culture and macroeconomic
performance go back at least to the turn of the last century and the writings of the German sociologist Max Weber, cultural
explanations for economic outcomes fell out of favour in the 1950s and 60s for two reasons. The first was political
correctness. Culture frightens scholars. It has a sulfuric odour of race and inheritance, an air of immutability. The second
reason was the dominance of Neoclassical economics; culture has little place in a world of perfect rationality, and to the
extent that it does, cultural rules must be self-interested, optimising strategies, because otherwise, people would not use
them.

Fortunately, fears over political correctness have faded as scholars have shown that it is possible to have discussions about
culture that are both scientifically fruitful, and respectful of the diversity of humankind. One must avoid the relativist trap and
not shy away from statements about why the norms of one culture might be more supportive of economic development than
those of another, but at the same time, one can recognise that there is no one cultural formula for economic success. In a
world in which cultures as varied as Japan’s and Norway’s are among the most economically successful, such claims of one
perfect formula are easily dismissed. Likewise, the rise of behavioural economics has reduced the influence of Neoclassical
assumptions and brought the cultural horse inside the economic stable.

The multibillion-dollar question then is, which norms support economic development, and which norms don’t. Various
researchers have proposed typologies of cultural rules which fall into three broad categories.

In the first are norms related to individual behaviour, including those supporting a strong work ethic, individual accountability,
and a belief that you are the protagonist of your own life and not at the whim of gods or Big Men. Fatalism reduces personal
incentives. Economically successful cultures appear to strike a balance between optimism that improvement is possible, and
realism about one’s current situation.

In the second category are norms related to cooperative behaviour. Foremost is a belief that life is not a zero-sum-game
(where one person has to lose for another to win) and that there are payoffs to cooperation. Societies that believe in a fixed
pie of wealth have a difficult time engendering cooperation and tend to be low in mutual trust.

The third category contains norms related to innovation. Thus, cultures that look to rational scientific explanations of the
world rather than religious or magical explanations tend to be more innovative. Likewise, a culture needs to be tolerant of
heresy and experimentation, as strict orthodoxy stifles innovation. Finally, it is important the culture be supportive of
competition and celebrate achievement, since overly egalitarian cultures reduce the incentives for risk taking.

One final norm is important to all three categories: how people view time. Cultures that live for today have problems ranging
from low work ethic, to an inability to engage in complex cooperation and low levels of investment in innovation. In contrast,
cultures that have an ethic of investing for tomorrow tend to value work, demonstrate a willingness to sacrifice short-term
pleasures for long-term gain, and enjoy high levels of cooperation.

Q1. Which of the following explains how the cultural horse was brought inside the economic stable?

a) Behavioural economics weakens the Neoclassical assumptions thereby making culture relevant again.

b) Behavioural economics doesn’t apply to a world where cultural rules must be self-interested.

c) Behavioural economics has proven that culture is still relevant in a world of perfect rationality.

d) Behavioural economics has proved that we live in a world of perfect rationality.

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 357
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 351
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 343
% of students who attempted this question 45.62
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 77.84

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

’Culture’ is the emergent product of the micro rules of behaviour followed by individuals, and it plays a role in the economic
performance of organisations and nations. While observations on the connection between culture and macroeconomic
performance go back at least to the turn of the last century and the writings of the German sociologist Max Weber, cultural
explanations for economic outcomes fell out of favour in the 1950s and 60s for two reasons. The first was political
correctness. Culture frightens scholars. It has a sulfuric odour of race and inheritance, an air of immutability. The second
reason was the dominance of Neoclassical economics; culture has little place in a world of perfect rationality, and to the
extent that it does, cultural rules must be self-interested, optimising strategies, because otherwise, people would not use
them.

Fortunately, fears over political correctness have faded as scholars have shown that it is possible to have discussions about
culture that are both scientifically fruitful, and respectful of the diversity of humankind. One must avoid the relativist trap and
not shy away from statements about why the norms of one culture might be more supportive of economic development than
those of another, but at the same time, one can recognise that there is no one cultural formula for economic success. In a
world in which cultures as varied as Japan’s and Norway’s are among the most economically successful, such claims of one
perfect formula are easily dismissed. Likewise, the rise of behavioural economics has reduced the influence of Neoclassical
assumptions and brought the cultural horse inside the economic stable.

The multibillion-dollar question then is, which norms support economic development, and which norms don’t. Various
researchers have proposed typologies of cultural rules which fall into three broad categories.

In the first are norms related to individual behaviour, including those supporting a strong work ethic, individual accountability,
and a belief that you are the protagonist of your own life and not at the whim of gods or Big Men. Fatalism reduces personal
incentives. Economically successful cultures appear to strike a balance between optimism that improvement is possible, and
realism about one’s current situation.

In the second category are norms related to cooperative behaviour. Foremost is a belief that life is not a zero-sum-game
(where one person has to lose for another to win) and that there are payoffs to cooperation. Societies that believe in a fixed
pie of wealth have a difficult time engendering cooperation and tend to be low in mutual trust.

The third category contains norms related to innovation. Thus, cultures that look to rational scientific explanations of the
world rather than religious or magical explanations tend to be more innovative. Likewise, a culture needs to be tolerant of
heresy and experimentation, as strict orthodoxy stifles innovation. Finally, it is important the culture be supportive of
competition and celebrate achievement, since overly egalitarian cultures reduce the incentives for risk taking.

One final norm is important to all three categories: how people view time. Cultures that live for today have problems ranging
from low work ethic, to an inability to engage in complex cooperation and low levels of investment in innovation. In contrast,
cultures that have an ethic of investing for tomorrow tend to value work, demonstrate a willingness to sacrifice short-term
pleasures for long-term gain, and enjoy high levels of cooperation.

Q2. Which of the following statements furthers the author’s conclusion about the relation between innovation and people’s
perception of time?

a) People innovate for a better present.

b) Goal-oriented cultures lag in innovation.

c) Innovation can be achieved when people sacrifice their present for the future.

d) The work-ethic of people varies with their plans for present and future.

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 687
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 146
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 144
% of students who attempted this question 43.78
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 65.45

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DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

’Culture’ is the emergent product of the micro rules of behaviour followed by individuals, and it plays a role in the economic
performance of organisations and nations. While observations on the connection between culture and macroeconomic
performance go back at least to the turn of the last century and the writings of the German sociologist Max Weber, cultural
explanations for economic outcomes fell out of favour in the 1950s and 60s for two reasons. The first was political
correctness. Culture frightens scholars. It has a sulfuric odour of race and inheritance, an air of immutability. The second
reason was the dominance of Neoclassical economics; culture has little place in a world of perfect rationality, and to the
extent that it does, cultural rules must be self-interested, optimising strategies, because otherwise, people would not use
them.

Fortunately, fears over political correctness have faded as scholars have shown that it is possible to have discussions about
culture that are both scientifically fruitful, and respectful of the diversity of humankind. One must avoid the relativist trap and
not shy away from statements about why the norms of one culture might be more supportive of economic development than
those of another, but at the same time, one can recognise that there is no one cultural formula for economic success. In a
world in which cultures as varied as Japan’s and Norway’s are among the most economically successful, such claims of one
perfect formula are easily dismissed. Likewise, the rise of behavioural economics has reduced the influence of Neoclassical
assumptions and brought the cultural horse inside the economic stable.

The multibillion-dollar question then is, which norms support economic development, and which norms don’t. Various
researchers have proposed typologies of cultural rules which fall into three broad categories.

In the first are norms related to individual behaviour, including those supporting a strong work ethic, individual accountability,
and a belief that you are the protagonist of your own life and not at the whim of gods or Big Men. Fatalism reduces personal
incentives. Economically successful cultures appear to strike a balance between optimism that improvement is possible, and
realism about one’s current situation.

In the second category are norms related to cooperative behaviour. Foremost is a belief that life is not a zero-sum-game
(where one person has to lose for another to win) and that there are payoffs to cooperation. Societies that believe in a fixed
pie of wealth have a difficult time engendering cooperation and tend to be low in mutual trust.

The third category contains norms related to innovation. Thus, cultures that look to rational scientific explanations of the
world rather than religious or magical explanations tend to be more innovative. Likewise, a culture needs to be tolerant of
heresy and experimentation, as strict orthodoxy stifles innovation. Finally, it is important the culture be supportive of
competition and celebrate achievement, since overly egalitarian cultures reduce the incentives for risk taking.

One final norm is important to all three categories: how people view time. Cultures that live for today have problems ranging
from low work ethic, to an inability to engage in complex cooperation and low levels of investment in innovation. In contrast,
cultures that have an ethic of investing for tomorrow tend to value work, demonstrate a willingness to sacrifice short-term
pleasures for long-term gain, and enjoy high levels of cooperation.

Q3. Which of the following is true about cultures conducive to economic success?

a) While these cultures are optimistic and cooperative, they don’t shy away from rationality and realism.

b) Although these cultures don’t invest in the future, they encourage rationality and cooperation to improve the quality of
the present.

c) While these cultures are egalitarian, they believe in the merits of competition and innovation.

d) While these cultures are optimistic about their future and believe in cooperation, they enjoy the short-term pleasures of
the present.

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 21
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 117
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 114
% of students who attempted this question 33.68
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 67.12

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DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

’Culture’ is the emergent product of the micro rules of behaviour followed by individuals, and it plays a role in the economic
performance of organisations and nations. While observations on the connection between culture and macroeconomic
performance go back at least to the turn of the last century and the writings of the German sociologist Max Weber, cultural
explanations for economic outcomes fell out of favour in the 1950s and 60s for two reasons. The first was political
correctness. Culture frightens scholars. It has a sulfuric odour of race and inheritance, an air of immutability. The second
reason was the dominance of Neoclassical economics; culture has little place in a world of perfect rationality, and to the
extent that it does, cultural rules must be self-interested, optimising strategies, because otherwise, people would not use
them.

Fortunately, fears over political correctness have faded as scholars have shown that it is possible to have discussions about
culture that are both scientifically fruitful, and respectful of the diversity of humankind. One must avoid the relativist trap and
not shy away from statements about why the norms of one culture might be more supportive of economic development than
those of another, but at the same time, one can recognise that there is no one cultural formula for economic success. In a
world in which cultures as varied as Japan’s and Norway’s are among the most economically successful, such claims of one
perfect formula are easily dismissed. Likewise, the rise of behavioural economics has reduced the influence of Neoclassical
assumptions and brought the cultural horse inside the economic stable.

The multibillion-dollar question then is, which norms support economic development, and which norms don’t. Various
researchers have proposed typologies of cultural rules which fall into three broad categories.

In the first are norms related to individual behaviour, including those supporting a strong work ethic, individual accountability,
and a belief that you are the protagonist of your own life and not at the whim of gods or Big Men. Fatalism reduces personal
incentives. Economically successful cultures appear to strike a balance between optimism that improvement is possible, and
realism about one’s current situation.

In the second category are norms related to cooperative behaviour. Foremost is a belief that life is not a zero-sum-game
(where one person has to lose for another to win) and that there are payoffs to cooperation. Societies that believe in a fixed
pie of wealth have a difficult time engendering cooperation and tend to be low in mutual trust.
The third category contains norms related to innovation. Thus, cultures that look to rational scientific explanations of the
world rather than religious or magical explanations tend to be more innovative. Likewise, a culture needs to be tolerant of
heresy and experimentation, as strict orthodoxy stifles innovation. Finally, it is important the culture be supportive of
competition and celebrate achievement, since overly egalitarian cultures reduce the incentives for risk taking.

One final norm is important to all three categories: how people view time. Cultures that live for today have problems ranging
from low work ethic, to an inability to engage in complex cooperation and low levels of investment in innovation. In contrast,
cultures that have an ethic of investing for tomorrow tend to value work, demonstrate a willingness to sacrifice short-term
pleasures for long-term gain, and enjoy high levels of cooperation.

Q4. Which of the following best summarises why cultural explanations for economic outcomes fell out of favour in the
1950s and 60s?

a) It wasn’t politically correct to explain economic outcomes using culture whose rules are valid only in a perfectly rational
world.

b) It was politically incorrect to frame explanations around culture whose place in a rational world was questionable.

c) The sensitivity towards race and inheritance decreased and so did the constraints on cultural rules to be more optimal.

d) Culture has negative connotations and was deemed ideal only in a world of perfect rationality.

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 19
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 87
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 83
% of students who attempted this question 38.47
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 59.84

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DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

’Culture’ is the emergent product of the micro rules of behaviour followed by individuals, and it plays a role in the economic
performance of organisations and nations. While observations on the connection between culture and macroeconomic
performance go back at least to the turn of the last century and the writings of the German sociologist Max Weber, cultural
explanations for economic outcomes fell out of favour in the 1950s and 60s for two reasons. The first was political
correctness. Culture frightens scholars. It has a sulfuric odour of race and inheritance, an air of immutability. The second
reason was the dominance of Neoclassical economics; culture has little place in a world of perfect rationality, and to the
extent that it does, cultural rules must be self-interested, optimising strategies, because otherwise, people would not use
them.

Fortunately, fears over political correctness have faded as scholars have shown that it is possible to have discussions about
culture that are both scientifically fruitful, and respectful of the diversity of humankind. One must avoid the relativist trap and
not shy away from statements about why the norms of one culture might be more supportive of economic development than
those of another, but at the same time, one can recognise that there is no one cultural formula for economic success. In a
world in which cultures as varied as Japan’s and Norway’s are among the most economically successful, such claims of one
perfect formula are easily dismissed. Likewise, the rise of behavioural economics has reduced the influence of Neoclassical
assumptions and brought the cultural horse inside the economic stable.

The multibillion-dollar question then is, which norms support economic development, and which norms don’t. Various
researchers have proposed typologies of cultural rules which fall into three broad categories.

In the first are norms related to individual behaviour, including those supporting a strong work ethic, individual accountability,
and a belief that you are the protagonist of your own life and not at the whim of gods or Big Men. Fatalism reduces personal
incentives. Economically successful cultures appear to strike a balance between optimism that improvement is possible, and
realism about one’s current situation.

In the second category are norms related to cooperative behaviour. Foremost is a belief that life is not a zero-sum-game
(where one person has to lose for another to win) and that there are payoffs to cooperation. Societies that believe in a fixed
pie of wealth have a difficult time engendering cooperation and tend to be low in mutual trust.

The third category contains norms related to innovation. Thus, cultures that look to rational scientific explanations of the
world rather than religious or magical explanations tend to be more innovative. Likewise, a culture needs to be tolerant of
heresy and experimentation, as strict orthodoxy stifles innovation. Finally, it is important the culture be supportive of
competition and celebrate achievement, since overly egalitarian cultures reduce the incentives for risk taking.

One final norm is important to all three categories: how people view time. Cultures that live for today have problems ranging
from low work ethic, to an inability to engage in complex cooperation and low levels of investment in innovation. In contrast,
cultures that have an ethic of investing for tomorrow tend to value work, demonstrate a willingness to sacrifice short-term
pleasures for long-term gain, and enjoy high levels of cooperation.

Q5. Japan and Norway were cited to demonstrate which aspect of economic success?

a) Without a distinctive culture, a country cannot be economically successful.

b) Some cultures may be more instrumental than others in influencing economic success.

c) One cannot credit one specific culture for supporting economic development.

d) Cultures that vary from the norm produce economic success.

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 2
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 172
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 171
% of students who attempted this question 47.04
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 76.61

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DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

’Culture’ is the emergent product of the micro rules of behaviour followed by individuals, and it plays a role in the economic
performance of organisations and nations. While observations on the connection between culture and macroeconomic
performance go back at least to the turn of the last century and the writings of the German sociologist Max Weber, cultural
explanations for economic outcomes fell out of favour in the 1950s and 60s for two reasons. The first was political
correctness. Culture frightens scholars. It has a sulfuric odour of race and inheritance, an air of immutability. The second
reason was the dominance of Neoclassical economics; culture has little place in a world of perfect rationality, and to the
extent that it does, cultural rules must be self-interested, optimising strategies, because otherwise, people would not use
them.

Fortunately, fears over political correctness have faded as scholars have shown that it is possible to have discussions about
culture that are both scientifically fruitful, and respectful of the diversity of humankind. One must avoid the relativist trap and
not shy away from statements about why the norms of one culture might be more supportive of economic development than
those of another, but at the same time, one can recognise that there is no one cultural formula for economic success. In a
world in which cultures as varied as Japan’s and Norway’s are among the most economically successful, such claims of one
perfect formula are easily dismissed. Likewise, the rise of behavioural economics has reduced the influence of Neoclassical
assumptions and brought the cultural horse inside the economic stable.

The multibillion-dollar question then is, which norms support economic development, and which norms don’t. Various
researchers have proposed typologies of cultural rules which fall into three broad categories.

In the first are norms related to individual behaviour, including those supporting a strong work ethic, individual accountability,
and a belief that you are the protagonist of your own life and not at the whim of gods or Big Men. Fatalism reduces personal
incentives. Economically successful cultures appear to strike a balance between optimism that improvement is possible, and
realism about one’s current situation.

In the second category are norms related to cooperative behaviour. Foremost is a belief that life is not a zero-sum-game
(where one person has to lose for another to win) and that there are payoffs to cooperation. Societies that believe in a fixed
pie of wealth have a difficult time engendering cooperation and tend to be low in mutual trust.

The third category contains norms related to innovation. Thus, cultures that look to rational scientific explanations of the
world rather than religious or magical explanations tend to be more innovative. Likewise, a culture needs to be tolerant of
heresy and experimentation, as strict orthodoxy stifles innovation. Finally, it is important the culture be supportive of
competition and celebrate achievement, since overly egalitarian cultures reduce the incentives for risk taking.

One final norm is important to all three categories: how people view time. Cultures that live for today have problems ranging
from low work ethic, to an inability to engage in complex cooperation and low levels of investment in innovation. In contrast,
cultures that have an ethic of investing for tomorrow tend to value work, demonstrate a willingness to sacrifice short-term
pleasures for long-term gain, and enjoy high levels of cooperation.

Q6. Which of the following demonstrates the norms of a non-zero-sum-game related to cooperative behaviour?

a) In trading, one person’s gains are another person’s losses.

b) In a war between two kingdoms, the area lost by one kingdom is that gained by the other.

c) In betting, the winner’s payoff comes from what the loser bets.

d) In a village, a successful farmer can share his practices with the rest to raise the yield of their farmlands.

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 2
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 69
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 65
% of students who attempted this question 41.94
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 67.54

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DIRECTIONS for questions 7 to 9: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

Many wonder what separates the two iconic brands, Marvel and DC. DC characters are not defined by a singular artistic
voice influencing all the rest, but that’s what happened under Jack Kirby’s leadership of the entire Marvel brand. Those 10
years where he created most of the characters in the ’60s, provide the core for what every artist and writer has built their
process upon, including the movies today. There’s a kinetic energy and a chaotic energy that embodies Marvel’s stuff.
DC is the foremost component of where the DNA of what makes a superhero came from. They did the very first superhero
in Superman, and the first great embodiment of the dark superhero in Batman, and of course the first female superhero in
Wonder Woman. All those key things are lined up by them. With Marvel, it’s clear that Spider-Man is not the same kind of
hero as Superman; Cap has similarities, but he has differences as well, and has been used in very interesting ways that stop
him from being a clone of any DC counterpart. The Marvel characters are all over the place in terms of what makes them
unique, and there’s a hip energy that’s been instilled in them since their creation. Every other superhero company follows the
mould of having their heroes follow those archetypes that DC embodies, but Marvel broke away.

Marvel has indeed been known for its kitschy and (in artist terms) "kinetic" style, whereas DC is known for its more mythic
and almost religious reverence of the superhero archetype. That same stylistic divergence has clearly influenced the
cinematic side of things, as DC is defined by more "high art" visions like The Dark Knight Trilogy or the Zack Snyder Trilogy,
while Marvel Studios has built itself around quirky and kitschy adventures like Iron Man, Guardians of the Galaxy and Thor.
Clearly, one formula has been more lucrative at the box-office than the other when it comes to delivering fun movie
experiences to audiences, leaving DC with a major roadblock that only Wonder Woman has been able to scale.

Q7. All the following can be inferred from the last line of the passage EXCEPT:

a) Marvel movies have done well in terms of movie revenues.

b) Movie-watchers prefer watching quirky, kitschy adventures of their superheroes to high art visions. Your
answer is incorrect

c) Only fun movies make money at the box office.

d) Wonder Woman has done well for DC movie revenues.

Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 0
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 157
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 155
% of students who attempted this question 59.15
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 68.05

Video Solution

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 7 to 9: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

Many wonder what separates the two iconic brands, Marvel and DC. DC characters are not defined by a singular artistic
voice influencing all the rest, but that’s what happened under Jack Kirby’s leadership of the entire Marvel brand. Those 10
years where he created most of the characters in the ’60s, provide the core for what every artist and writer has built their
process upon, including the movies today. There’s a kinetic energy and a chaotic energy that embodies Marvel’s stuff.

DC is the foremost component of where the DNA of what makes a superhero came from. They did the very first superhero
in Superman, and the first great embodiment of the dark superhero in Batman, and of course the first female superhero in
Wonder Woman. All those key things are lined up by them. With Marvel, it’s clear that Spider-Man is not the same kind of
hero as Superman; Cap has similarities, but he has differences as well, and has been used in very interesting ways that stop
him from being a clone of any DC counterpart. The Marvel characters are all over the place in terms of what makes them
unique, and there’s a hip energy that’s been instilled in them since their creation. Every other superhero company follows the
mould of having their heroes follow those archetypes that DC embodies, but Marvel broke away.

Marvel has indeed been known for its kitschy and (in artist terms) "kinetic" style, whereas DC is known for its more mythic
and almost religious reverence of the superhero archetype. That same stylistic divergence has clearly influenced the
cinematic side of things, as DC is defined by more "high art" visions like The Dark Knight Trilogy or the Zack Snyder Trilogy,
while Marvel Studios has built itself around quirky and kitschy adventures like Iron Man, Guardians of the Galaxy and Thor.
Clearly, one formula has been more lucrative at the box-office than the other when it comes to delivering fun movie
experiences to audiences, leaving DC with a major roadblock that only Wonder Woman has been able to scale.

Q8. The difference between Marvel and DC character depictions based on the evidence given in the passage is that

a) DC’s archetypes are fluid whereas Marvel’s characters rigidly follow the original archetypes.

b) DC characters are archetypal whereas Marvel characters are hippy with diverse traits.

c) DC superheroes are dark whereas the Marvel superheroes are quirky.

d) DC characters are mythological whereas Marvel characters are depicted to be more humanistic.

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 0
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 75
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 75
% of students who attempted this question 56.39
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 68

Video Solution

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 7 to 9: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

Many wonder what separates the two iconic brands, Marvel and DC. DC characters are not defined by a singular artistic
voice influencing all the rest, but that’s what happened under Jack Kirby’s leadership of the entire Marvel brand. Those 10
years where he created most of the characters in the ’60s, provide the core for what every artist and writer has built their
process upon, including the movies today. There’s a kinetic energy and a chaotic energy that embodies Marvel’s stuff.

DC is the foremost component of where the DNA of what makes a superhero came from. They did the very first superhero
in Superman, and the first great embodiment of the dark superhero in Batman, and of course the first female superhero in
Wonder Woman. All those key things are lined up by them. With Marvel, it’s clear that Spider-Man is not the same kind of
hero as Superman; Cap has similarities, but he has differences as well, and has been used in very interesting ways that stop
him from being a clone of any DC counterpart. The Marvel characters are all over the place in terms of what makes them
unique, and there’s a hip energy that’s been instilled in them since their creation. Every other superhero company follows the
mould of having their heroes follow those archetypes that DC embodies, but Marvel broke away.

Marvel has indeed been known for its kitschy and (in artist terms) "kinetic" style, whereas DC is known for its more mythic
and almost religious reverence of the superhero archetype. That same stylistic divergence has clearly influenced the
cinematic side of things, as DC is defined by more "high art" visions like The Dark Knight Trilogy or the Zack Snyder Trilogy,
while Marvel Studios has built itself around quirky and kitschy adventures like Iron Man, Guardians of the Galaxy and Thor.
Clearly, one formula has been more lucrative at the box-office than the other when it comes to delivering fun movie
experiences to audiences, leaving DC with a major roadblock that only Wonder Woman has been able to scale.

Q9. Which of the following can be understood from the opinions expressed in the passage?

a) DC embodies a veneration for the superhero template.

b) DC characters carry the stamp of a singular artistic voice that misses kinetic energy.

c) Breaking away from the mould of DC led to Marvel’s commercial success.

d) DC is popular for its superheroes whereas Marvel is popular for the adventures of its characters.

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 325
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 225
Difficulty Level E
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 225
% of students who attempted this question 49.12
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 17.83

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DIRECTIONS for questions 10 to 15: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

How well do you remember the dinners you enjoyed with your friends, the ones where you left feeling as if you had eaten
more than you could manage? Or in the opposite direction, the meals where you didn’t order a pudding, because nobody
else did?

Perhaps you can blame social cues for eating too much or too little. Several decades of research shows that we eat more in
company, and we follow what and how others eat.

But how exactly do our companions affect what we eat, and can we tap into these social influences to cut down on fats and
sugar, and even lose weight?

A series of diary studies by health psychologist John de Castro in the 1980s alerted us to social influences in eating. By
1994, de Castro collected diaries of over 500 people recording their meals and the social context of how they ate them – in
company, or alone.

To his surprise, people ate more in groups than when they were by themselves. Experiments by other scientists also found
that people ate 40% more ice-cream and 10% more macaroni and beef in company than when alone. De Castro named the
phenomenon ‘social facilitation’ and described it as the “single most important and all-pervasive influence on eating yet
identified”.

What expands our palate when we eat with someone else? Hunger, mood, or distracting social interactions were all
discounted by de Castro and other scientists. Their studies reveal that we extend our meal times when we eat in a group,
and we eat more in those extra minutes. Careful observation in a range of eateries showed that bigger groups do enjoy
longer meals. And when meal time is fixed, larger parties no longer eat more than smaller ones.

It seems very plausible that when we dine with our friends, we might linger, and therefore reach for yet another slice of
cheesecake.

When we anticipate a group meal, we even order more food individually. This was revealed from observations in an Italian
restaurant: the larger a dining party, the more pastas and desserts each diner ordered. Social meals appear to make us
hungrier, and it appears that we decide that we will indulge even before we order. Such observations led C Peter Herman, a
food scientist, to propose his ‘feast hypothesis’: indulgence is part and parcel of social meals, and that we socialise partially
so that we can all eat more without the guilt of overindulgence.

But sometimes we do eat less in company. Our drive to indulge can be tamed by the need to behave. We could manage our
impression by eating according to social norms. Or we might observe how others are eating and follow their lead, a
behaviour called social modelling.

So far, very few studies have considered why we might have evolved to eat according to social context. Perhaps heeding
social norms and not eating more than others might have facilitated food-sharing among our hunter-gatherer ancestors. And
eating like others could help children develop preferences for safe and nutritious foods, and therefore avoid potentially
dangerous foods.

Q10. Which of the following is the most apt example of social modelling?

a) A dinner you enjoyed with your friends, where you left feeling as if you had eaten more than you could manage.

b) A dinner in which you ordered a pudding because everybody else did. Your answer is correct

c) A dinner at a conference where you did not eat well because of social norms.

d) A dinner with your family in which you ate less so that others could eat more.

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time taken by you to answer this question 16
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 192
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 195
% of students who attempted this question 61.6
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 44.98

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 10 to 15: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

How well do you remember the dinners you enjoyed with your friends, the ones where you left feeling as if you had eaten
more than you could manage? Or in the opposite direction, the meals where you didn’t order a pudding, because nobody
else did?

Perhaps you can blame social cues for eating too much or too little. Several decades of research shows that we eat more in
company, and we follow what and how others eat.

But how exactly do our companions affect what we eat, and can we tap into these social influences to cut down on fats and
sugar, and even lose weight?

A series of diary studies by health psychologist John de Castro in the 1980s alerted us to social influences in eating. By
1994, de Castro collected diaries of over 500 people recording their meals and the social context of how they ate them – in
company, or alone.

To his surprise, people ate more in groups than when they were by themselves. Experiments by other scientists also found
that people ate 40% more ice-cream and 10% more macaroni and beef in company than when alone. De Castro named the
phenomenon ‘social facilitation’ and described it as the “single most important and all-pervasive influence on eating yet
identified”.

What expands our palate when we eat with someone else? Hunger, mood, or distracting social interactions were all
discounted by de Castro and other scientists. Their studies reveal that we extend our meal times when we eat in a group,
and we eat more in those extra minutes. Careful observation in a range of eateries showed that bigger groups do enjoy
longer meals. And when meal time is fixed, larger parties no longer eat more than smaller ones.

It seems very plausible that when we dine with our friends, we might linger, and therefore reach for yet another slice of
cheesecake.

When we anticipate a group meal, we even order more food individually. This was revealed from observations in an Italian
restaurant: the larger a dining party, the more pastas and desserts each diner ordered. Social meals appear to make us
hungrier, and it appears that we decide that we will indulge even before we order. Such observations led C Peter Herman, a
food scientist, to propose his ‘feast hypothesis’: indulgence is part and parcel of social meals, and that we socialise partially
so that we can all eat more without the guilt of overindulgence.

But sometimes we do eat less in company. Our drive to indulge can be tamed by the need to behave. We could manage our
impression by eating according to social norms. Or we might observe how others are eating and follow their lead, a
behaviour called social modelling.

So far, very few studies have considered why we might have evolved to eat according to social context. Perhaps heeding
social norms and not eating more than others might have facilitated food-sharing among our hunter-gatherer ancestors. And
eating like others could help children develop preferences for safe and nutritious foods, and therefore avoid potentially
dangerous foods.

Q11. Which of the following steps will Herman most probably recommend based on his research for a person trying to
reduce his food intake?

a) Eat with people who eat lesser than him.

b) Fix the time that he spends on eating everyday. Your answer is incorrect

c) Avoid social meals.

d) Do not eat with large groups only when he is ravenous.

Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 117
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 100
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 103
 Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
% of students who attempted this question 57.28
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 48.67

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DIRECTIONS for questions 10 to 15: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

How well do you remember the dinners you enjoyed with your friends, the ones where you left feeling as if you had eaten
more than you could manage? Or in the opposite direction, the meals where you didn’t order a pudding, because nobody
else did?

Perhaps you can blame social cues for eating too much or too little. Several decades of research shows that we eat more in
company, and we follow what and how others eat.

But how exactly do our companions affect what we eat, and can we tap into these social influences to cut down on fats and
sugar, and even lose weight?

A series of diary studies by health psychologist John de Castro in the 1980s alerted us to social influences in eating. By
1994, de Castro collected diaries of over 500 people recording their meals and the social context of how they ate them – in
company, or alone.

To his surprise, people ate more in groups than when they were by themselves. Experiments by other scientists also found
that people ate 40% more ice-cream and 10% more macaroni and beef in company than when alone. De Castro named the
phenomenon ‘social facilitation’ and described it as the “single most important and all-pervasive influence on eating yet
identified”.

What expands our palate when we eat with someone else? Hunger, mood, or distracting social interactions were all
discounted by de Castro and other scientists. Their studies reveal that we extend our meal times when we eat in a group,
and we eat more in those extra minutes. Careful observation in a range of eateries showed that bigger groups do enjoy
longer meals. And when meal time is fixed, larger parties no longer eat more than smaller ones.

It seems very plausible that when we dine with our friends, we might linger, and therefore reach for yet another slice of
cheesecake.

When we anticipate a group meal, we even order more food individually. This was revealed from observations in an Italian
restaurant: the larger a dining party, the more pastas and desserts each diner ordered. Social meals appear to make us
hungrier, and it appears that we decide that we will indulge even before we order. Such observations led C Peter Herman, a
food scientist, to propose his ‘feast hypothesis’: indulgence is part and parcel of social meals, and that we socialise partially
so that we can all eat more without the guilt of overindulgence.

But sometimes we do eat less in company. Our drive to indulge can be tamed by the need to behave. We could manage our
impression by eating according to social norms. Or we might observe how others are eating and follow their lead, a
behaviour called social modelling.

So far, very few studies have considered why we might have evolved to eat according to social context. Perhaps heeding
social norms and not eating more than others might have facilitated food-sharing among our hunter-gatherer ancestors. And
eating like others could help children develop preferences for safe and nutritious foods, and therefore avoid potentially
dangerous foods.

Q12. As can be inferred from the passage, 'social facilitation' can best be defined as

a) the most important and all-pervasive influence on eating yet identified.

b) the quantity of food that people eat when dining in groups depends on the size of the group, provided there is
no constraint on time.

c) the quantity of food that people eat when dining in groups is more than that when dining alone, provided there
is no constraint on time. Your answer is correct

d) people eat more when they have more time to eat.

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time taken by you to answer this question 18
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 79
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 79
% of students who attempted this question 59.34
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 67.66

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 10 to 15: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

How well do you remember the dinners you enjoyed with your friends, the ones where you left feeling as if you had eaten
more than you could manage? Or in the opposite direction, the meals where you didn’t order a pudding, because nobody
else did?

Perhaps you can blame social cues for eating too much or too little. Several decades of research shows that we eat more in
company, and we follow what and how others eat.

But how exactly do our companions affect what we eat, and can we tap into these social influences to cut down on fats and
sugar, and even lose weight?

A series of diary studies by health psychologist John de Castro in the 1980s alerted us to social influences in eating. By
1994, de Castro collected diaries of over 500 people recording their meals and the social context of how they ate them – in
company, or alone.

To his surprise, people ate more in groups than when they were by themselves. Experiments by other scientists also found
that people ate 40% more ice-cream and 10% more macaroni and beef in company than when alone. De Castro named the
phenomenon ‘social facilitation’ and described it as the “single most important and all-pervasive influence on eating yet
identified”.

What expands our palate when we eat with someone else? Hunger, mood, or distracting social interactions were all
discounted by de Castro and other scientists. Their studies reveal that we extend our meal times when we eat in a group,
and we eat more in those extra minutes. Careful observation in a range of eateries showed that bigger groups do enjoy
longer meals. And when meal time is fixed, larger parties no longer eat more than smaller ones.

It seems very plausible that when we dine with our friends, we might linger, and therefore reach for yet another slice of
cheesecake.

When we anticipate a group meal, we even order more food individually. This was revealed from observations in an Italian
restaurant: the larger a dining party, the more pastas and desserts each diner ordered. Social meals appear to make us
hungrier, and it appears that we decide that we will indulge even before we order. Such observations led C Peter Herman, a
food scientist, to propose his ‘feast hypothesis’: indulgence is part and parcel of social meals, and that we socialise partially
so that we can all eat more without the guilt of overindulgence.

But sometimes we do eat less in company. Our drive to indulge can be tamed by the need to behave. We could manage our
impression by eating according to social norms. Or we might observe how others are eating and follow their lead, a
behaviour called social modelling.

So far, very few studies have considered why we might have evolved to eat according to social context. Perhaps heeding
social norms and not eating more than others might have facilitated food-sharing among our hunter-gatherer ancestors. And
eating like others could help children develop preferences for safe and nutritious foods, and therefore avoid potentially
dangerous foods.

Q13. The difference between Herman's hypothesis and de Castro's research findings is that

a) the size of the dining group plays a part in the former but not in the latter. Your answer is incorrect

b) indulgence is inevitable in social meals according to the former but not according to the latter.

c) food wastage is more in social meals according to the former but not so according to the latter.

d) the former considers eating in large groups, while the latter considers eating in smaller groups.

Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 325

Avg. time spent on this question by all students 123

Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 122
 Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
% of students who attempted this question 53.05
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 65.34

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 10 to 15: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

How well do you remember the dinners you enjoyed with your friends, the ones where you left feeling as if you had eaten
more than you could manage? Or in the opposite direction, the meals where you didn’t order a pudding, because nobody
else did?

Perhaps you can blame social cues for eating too much or too little. Several decades of research shows that we eat more in
company, and we follow what and how others eat.

But how exactly do our companions affect what we eat, and can we tap into these social influences to cut down on fats and
sugar, and even lose weight?

A series of diary studies by health psychologist John de Castro in the 1980s alerted us to social influences in eating. By
1994, de Castro collected diaries of over 500 people recording their meals and the social context of how they ate them – in
company, or alone.

To his surprise, people ate more in groups than when they were by themselves. Experiments by other scientists also found
that people ate 40% more ice-cream and 10% more macaroni and beef in company than when alone. De Castro named the
phenomenon ‘social facilitation’ and described it as the “single most important and all-pervasive influence on eating yet
identified”.

What expands our palate when we eat with someone else? Hunger, mood, or distracting social interactions were all
discounted by de Castro and other scientists. Their studies reveal that we extend our meal times when we eat in a group,
and we eat more in those extra minutes. Careful observation in a range of eateries showed that bigger groups do enjoy
longer meals. And when meal time is fixed, larger parties no longer eat more than smaller ones.

It seems very plausible that when we dine with our friends, we might linger, and therefore reach for yet another slice of
cheesecake.
When we anticipate a group meal, we even order more food individually. This was revealed from observations in an Italian
restaurant: the larger a dining party, the more pastas and desserts each diner ordered. Social meals appear to make us
hungrier, and it appears that we decide that we will indulge even before we order. Such observations led C Peter Herman, a
food scientist, to propose his ‘feast hypothesis’: indulgence is part and parcel of social meals, and that we socialise partially
so that we can all eat more without the guilt of overindulgence.

But sometimes we do eat less in company. Our drive to indulge can be tamed by the need to behave. We could manage our
impression by eating according to social norms. Or we might observe how others are eating and follow their lead, a
behaviour called social modelling.

So far, very few studies have considered why we might have evolved to eat according to social context. Perhaps heeding
social norms and not eating more than others might have facilitated food-sharing among our hunter-gatherer ancestors. And
eating like others could help children develop preferences for safe and nutritious foods, and therefore avoid potentially
dangerous foods.

Q14. The explanations provided in the last para regarding evolution of eating according to social context highlights which of
the following aspects of social dining?

I.
The drive to indulge is tamed by the need to
behave.

II.
One might observe how others are eating and follow their
lead.

III.
One can eat more without the guilt of overindulgence when dining
socially.

a) Only I

b) Only II and III

c) Only I and III

d) Only I and II Your answer is correct

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time taken by you to answer this question 0
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 86
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 87
% of students who attempted this question 51.89
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 79.08

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 10 to 15: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

How well do you remember the dinners you enjoyed with your friends, the ones where you left feeling as if you had eaten
more than you could manage? Or in the opposite direction, the meals where you didn’t order a pudding, because nobody
else did?

Perhaps you can blame social cues for eating too much or too little. Several decades of research shows that we eat more in
company, and we follow what and how others eat.

But how exactly do our companions affect what we eat, and can we tap into these social influences to cut down on fats and
sugar, and even lose weight?

A series of diary studies by health psychologist John de Castro in the 1980s alerted us to social influences in eating. By
1994, de Castro collected diaries of over 500 people recording their meals and the social context of how they ate them – in
company, or alone.

To his surprise, people ate more in groups than when they were by themselves. Experiments by other scientists also found
that people ate 40% more ice-cream and 10% more macaroni and beef in company than when alone. De Castro named the
phenomenon ‘social facilitation’ and described it as the “single most important and all-pervasive influence on eating yet
identified”.

What expands our palate when we eat with someone else? Hunger, mood, or distracting social interactions were all
discounted by de Castro and other scientists. Their studies reveal that we extend our meal times when we eat in a group,
and we eat more in those extra minutes. Careful observation in a range of eateries showed that bigger groups do enjoy
longer meals. And when meal time is fixed, larger parties no longer eat more than smaller ones.

It seems very plausible that when we dine with our friends, we might linger, and therefore reach for yet another slice of
cheesecake.

When we anticipate a group meal, we even order more food individually. This was revealed from observations in an Italian
restaurant: the larger a dining party, the more pastas and desserts each diner ordered. Social meals appear to make us
hungrier, and it appears that we decide that we will indulge even before we order. Such observations led C Peter Herman, a
food scientist, to propose his ‘feast hypothesis’: indulgence is part and parcel of social meals, and that we socialise partially
so that we can all eat more without the guilt of overindulgence.

But sometimes we do eat less in company. Our drive to indulge can be tamed by the need to behave. We could manage our
impression by eating according to social norms. Or we might observe how others are eating and follow their lead, a
behaviour called social modelling.

So far, very few studies have considered why we might have evolved to eat according to social context. Perhaps heeding
social norms and not eating more than others might have facilitated food-sharing among our hunter-gatherer ancestors. And
eating like others could help children develop preferences for safe and nutritious foods, and therefore avoid potentially
dangerous foods.

Q15. Which of the following statements is true regarding social modelling and social facilitation?

a) Social modelling is a possible explanation for the phenomenon of social facilitation. Your answer is incorrect

b) Social facilitation is a possible explanation for social modelling.

c) Social modelling is an example of the phenomenon of social facilitation.

d) None of the above

Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 0
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 59
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 58
% of students who attempted this question 43.11
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 40.75

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DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 18: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

Gemeinschaft and gesellschaft are both sociological theories developed by German sociologist Ferdinand Tonnies
describing two normal types of human association. Gemeinschaft is a social association in which the individuals are inclined
towards social community rather than their individual wants and needs. Gesellschaft is a civil society in which the individual
needs are given more importance than the social association.

“Gemeinschaft” is a German word which is translated as “community” and mainly emphasizes common mores wherein the
individuals believe in appropriate behaviour and responsibility of each other to the association instead of focusing on
individual interests and needs. Ferdinand Tonnies believed that family was the perfect epitome of gemeinschaft. On the
other hand, gesellschaft translated as “society” mainly focuses on individual interests rather than large association. Modern
businesses, managers, workers, and owners are a good example of a gesellschaft association.

Gemeinschaft emphasizes community ties in which personal relationships and families are given more importance. In
contrast, gesellschaft emphasizes more on secondary relationships instead of families and personal relationships. While
Gesellschaft is characterized by a more elaborate division of labour, Gemeinschaft typically derives from a moderate division
of labour.

Gemeinschaft is identified by small, localized societies as opposed to gesellschaft which is characterized by complex,
impersonal societies. The communities in the gemeinschaft theory have strong social bonds, shared values, and benefits. In
gesellschaft communities, social ties are impersonal, instrumental, and narrow. Talcott Parsons, a renowned American
sociologist, further described gemeinschaft as a collective orientation and gesellschaft as self-orientation.

The gemeinschaft association occurs in small cities where the individuals focus more on the social community interests than
their own self interests. The idea is to focus on the “will of all”. The group values and norms regulate the gemeinschaft
community. Gesellschaft can be seen in very large cities where individuals are self-centric. The gesellschaft society doesn’t
believe in social ties and group values as individual needs are given more importance than anything else.

Q16. All the following regarding the differences between Gemeinschaft and Gesellschaft are true EXCEPT:

a) Gemeinschaft represents a socio-centric attitude whereas Gesellschaft represents an egocentric attitude.

b) Gemeinschaft emphasizes common mores whereas Gesellschaft doesn’t involve shared mores.

c) Gemeinschaft encompasses values instrumental in personal success whereas Gesellschaft involves the
growth and nurturing of secondary ties and relationships.

d) Gemeinschaft works well in small, localized societies where Gesellschaft is more of a theme in complex,
impersonal societies.

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 0
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 150
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 145
% of students who attempted this question 38.24
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 76.63

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 18: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

Gemeinschaft and gesellschaft are both sociological theories developed by German sociologist Ferdinand Tonnies
describing two normal types of human association. Gemeinschaft is a social association in which the individuals are inclined
towards social community rather than their individual wants and needs. Gesellschaft is a civil society in which the individual
needs are given more importance than the social association.

“Gemeinschaft” is a German word which is translated as “community” and mainly emphasizes common mores wherein the
individuals believe in appropriate behaviour and responsibility of each other to the association instead of focusing on
individual interests and needs. Ferdinand Tonnies believed that family was the perfect epitome of gemeinschaft. On the
other hand, gesellschaft translated as “society” mainly focuses on individual interests rather than large association. Modern
businesses, managers, workers, and owners are a good example of a gesellschaft association.

Gemeinschaft emphasizes community ties in which personal relationships and families are given more importance. In
contrast, gesellschaft emphasizes more on secondary relationships instead of families and personal relationships. While
Gesellschaft is characterized by a more elaborate division of labour, Gemeinschaft typically derives from a moderate division
of labour.

Gemeinschaft is identified by small, localized societies as opposed to gesellschaft which is characterized by complex,
impersonal societies. The communities in the gemeinschaft theory have strong social bonds, shared values, and benefits. In
gesellschaft communities, social ties are impersonal, instrumental, and narrow. Talcott Parsons, a renowned American
sociologist, further described gemeinschaft as a collective orientation and gesellschaft as self-orientation.

The gemeinschaft association occurs in small cities where the individuals focus more on the social community interests than
their own self interests. The idea is to focus on the “will of all”. The group values and norms regulate the gemeinschaft
community. Gesellschaft can be seen in very large cities where individuals are self-centric. The gesellschaft society doesn’t
believe in social ties and group values as individual needs are given more importance than anything else.

Q17. Which of the following models deviates from the author’s view of what Gemeinschaft is?
 a) A sports team where members are only invested in the overall accomplishments of the team.

b) A farm community where individuals share their spoils of harvest and celebrate all festivals together.

c) A non-profit organisation where volunteers believe in the spirit of healthy teamwork and group ethos thereby
building a strong brand.

d) A family business run by all the siblings who are interested only in their share of profits.

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 275
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 223
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 219
% of students who attempted this question 38.31
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 85.49

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DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 18: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of three questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

Gemeinschaft and gesellschaft are both sociological theories developed by German sociologist Ferdinand Tonnies
describing two normal types of human association. Gemeinschaft is a social association in which the individuals are inclined
towards social community rather than their individual wants and needs. Gesellschaft is a civil society in which the individual
needs are given more importance than the social association.

“Gemeinschaft” is a German word which is translated as “community” and mainly emphasizes common mores wherein the
individuals believe in appropriate behaviour and responsibility of each other to the association instead of focusing on
individual interests and needs. Ferdinand Tonnies believed that family was the perfect epitome of gemeinschaft. On the
other hand, gesellschaft translated as “society” mainly focuses on individual interests rather than large association. Modern
businesses, managers, workers, and owners are a good example of a gesellschaft association.

Gemeinschaft emphasizes community ties in which personal relationships and families are given more importance. In
contrast, gesellschaft emphasizes more on secondary relationships instead of families and personal relationships. While
Gesellschaft is characterized by a more elaborate division of labour, Gemeinschaft typically derives from a moderate division
of labour.

Gemeinschaft is identified by small, localized societies as opposed to gesellschaft which is characterized by complex,
impersonal societies. The communities in the gemeinschaft theory have strong social bonds, shared values, and benefits. In
gesellschaft communities, social ties are impersonal, instrumental, and narrow. Talcott Parsons, a renowned American
sociologist, further described gemeinschaft as a collective orientation and gesellschaft as self-orientation.

The gemeinschaft association occurs in small cities where the individuals focus more on the social community interests than
their own self interests. The idea is to focus on the “will of all”. The group values and norms regulate the gemeinschaft
community. Gesellschaft can be seen in very large cities where individuals are self-centric. The gesellschaft society doesn’t
believe in social ties and group values as individual needs are given more importance than anything else.

Q18. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with based on the viewpoints expressed in the passage?

a) The gemeinschaft association can occur in small cities because social community interests come ahead of
self-interest there.

b) Those living in small cities resonate Gesellschaft because of the presence of familial connect.

c) Focusing on communities is harder in smaller cities than in complex, large cities.

d) Gesellschaft depicts a more amorphous form of hierarchy than gemeinschaft does.

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 0
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 61
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 59
% of students who attempted this question 35.06
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 85.73

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DIRECTIONS for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
DIRECTIONS for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

Two high-profile men in the tennis world recently tried to set back women players a few decades. Raymond Moore, during
the Indian Wells tournament, said that female tennis stars “ride on the coattails of the men”. He has since resigned as the
tournament’s director and CEO. Then Novak Djokovic, a Grand Slam winner, added that male tennis players should earn
more prize money than women because their matches attract more viewers. But don’t worry, he has respect for female
athletes who face added challenges such as “the hormones and different stuff.” He has since apologized on his Facebook
page to “anyone who has taken this the wrong way” — the classic non-apology apology — and said in a news conference
that he is “for equality in the sport.” These misogynist comments are particularly troublesome because tennis is a sport
which has been uniquely progressive on gender equality.

In tennis’ four major tournaments, women now earn the same amount of prize money as men. The pay situation in tennis is
not perfect — prizes at women’s tournaments are still less than at men’s tournaments. But compared to other sports, such
as professional golf, where the prize money for men is more than five times higher than that for women, tennis is a feminist
paradise.

Many men will say that since sports is entertainment, players should be paid based on the number of spectators they attract.
If women received equal opportunities to train or to attract sponsorship and media coverage, that argument would be more
convincing. But since female athletes simply don’t receive the same investment, it’s impossible to know how popular
women’s sports could be if given the “male” treatment.

Those disadvantages aside, women’s tennis has a respectable following. In 2015, the U.S. Open women’s tournament sold
out more quickly than the men’s event and in 2013 and 2014, the women’s finals had higher ratings.

But perhaps, as many male sports fans point out, female players deserve less money because they are lesser athletes.
Most men are physically stronger than women, but luckily most sports don’t consist of picking up a heavy boulder and
grunting loudly. Being a good athlete also involves skill, agility, leadership and mental strength. Women’s tennis has become
so popular precisely because instead of the smashes and aces that characterize male matches, the ladies hold long, nerve-
wracking rallies that make for more compelling TV.

The true root of any justification for a return to unequal pay is sexism. For proof, look at how men speak publicly about
female athletes. Because Serena Williams is strong and black, her body is seen as a threat, not an asset. One journalist
wrote that she is “built like one of the monster trucks that crushes Volkswagens at sports arenas.” Because Canadian tennis
star Eugenie Bouchard is svelte and blonde, she was asked by a male interviewer to twirl her skirt after winning a January
match at the Australian Open.

Forty-three years after Billie Jean King helped secure equal pay at the U.S. Open, women still don’t receive equal treatment.
It’s a shame that the game’s male athletes would rather use twisted logic to roll back women’s rights than celebrate their
sport’s progressive stance on gender.

Q19. Which of the following is the ‘progressive stance’ the author refers to in the last line of the passage?

a) Sexism in all its forms is banned at tennis tournaments.

b) The prize money for the four major tennis tournaments is equal for men and women. Your answer is correct

c) Media gives the same coverage to male and female tennis stars.

d) In tennis, the women’s matches enjoy higher ratings.

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time taken by you to answer this question 0
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 169
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 169
% of students who attempted this question 49.88
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 64.59

Video Solution

Text Solution
undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

Two high-profile men in the tennis world recently tried to set back women players a few decades. Raymond Moore, during
the Indian Wells tournament, said that female tennis stars “ride on the coattails of the men”. He has since resigned as the
tournament’s director and CEO. Then Novak Djokovic, a Grand Slam winner, added that male tennis players should earn
more prize money than women because their matches attract more viewers. But don’t worry, he has respect for female
athletes who face added challenges such as “the hormones and different stuff.” He has since apologized on his Facebook
page to “anyone who has taken this the wrong way” — the classic non-apology apology — and said in a news conference
that he is “for equality in the sport.” These misogynist comments are particularly troublesome because tennis is a sport
which has been uniquely progressive on gender equality.

In tennis’ four major tournaments, women now earn the same amount of prize money as men. The pay situation in tennis is
not perfect — prizes at women’s tournaments are still less than at men’s tournaments. But compared to other sports, such
as professional golf, where the prize money for men is more than five times higher than that for women, tennis is a feminist
paradise.

Many men will say that since sports is entertainment, players should be paid based on the number of spectators they attract.
If women received equal opportunities to train or to attract sponsorship and media coverage, that argument would be more
convincing. But since female athletes simply don’t receive the same investment, it’s impossible to know how popular
women’s sports could be if given the “male” treatment.

Those disadvantages aside, women’s tennis has a respectable following. In 2015, the U.S. Open women’s tournament sold
out more quickly than the men’s event and in 2013 and 2014, the women’s finals had higher ratings.

But perhaps, as many male sports fans point out, female players deserve less money because they are lesser athletes.
Most men are physically stronger than women, but luckily most sports don’t consist of picking up a heavy boulder and
grunting loudly. Being a good athlete also involves skill, agility, leadership and mental strength. Women’s tennis has become
so popular precisely because instead of the smashes and aces that characterize male matches, the ladies hold long, nerve-
wracking rallies that make for more compelling TV.

The true root of any justification for a return to unequal pay is sexism. For proof, look at how men speak publicly about
female athletes. Because Serena Williams is strong and black, her body is seen as a threat, not an asset. One journalist
wrote that she is “built like one of the monster trucks that crushes Volkswagens at sports arenas.” Because Canadian tennis
star Eugenie Bouchard is svelte and blonde, she was asked by a male interviewer to twirl her skirt after winning a January
match at the Australian Open.

Forty-three years after Billie Jean King helped secure equal pay at the U.S. Open, women still don’t receive equal treatment.
It’s a shame that the game’s male athletes would rather use twisted logic to roll back women’s rights than celebrate their
sport’s progressive stance on gender.

Q20. To counter the argument that pay should be proportional to spectatorship, the author mentions all the below
EXCEPT?

a) Equal opportunity to train

b) Equal opportunity to attract sponsorship

c) Media coverage

d) Uniquely progressive nature of tennis. Your answer is correct

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time taken by you to answer this question 0
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 42
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 42
% of students who attempted this question 53.25
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 90.7

Video Solution

Text Solution

undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.
Two high-profile men in the tennis world recently tried to set back women players a few decades. Raymond Moore, during
the Indian Wells tournament, said that female tennis stars “ride on the coattails of the men”. He has since resigned as the
tournament’s director and CEO. Then Novak Djokovic, a Grand Slam winner, added that male tennis players should earn
more prize money than women because their matches attract more viewers. But don’t worry, he has respect for female
athletes who face added challenges such as “the hormones and different stuff.” He has since apologized on his Facebook
page to “anyone who has taken this the wrong way” — the classic non-apology apology — and said in a news conference
that he is “for equality in the sport.” These misogynist comments are particularly troublesome because tennis is a sport
which has been uniquely progressive on gender equality.

In tennis’ four major tournaments, women now earn the same amount of prize money as men. The pay situation in tennis is
not perfect — prizes at women’s tournaments are still less than at men’s tournaments. But compared to other sports, such
as professional golf, where the prize money for men is more than five times higher than that for women, tennis is a feminist
paradise.

Many men will say that since sports is entertainment, players should be paid based on the number of spectators they attract.
If women received equal opportunities to train or to attract sponsorship and media coverage, that argument would be more
convincing. But since female athletes simply don’t receive the same investment, it’s impossible to know how popular
women’s sports could be if given the “male” treatment.

Those disadvantages aside, women’s tennis has a respectable following. In 2015, the U.S. Open women’s tournament sold
out more quickly than the men’s event and in 2013 and 2014, the women’s finals had higher ratings.

But perhaps, as many male sports fans point out, female players deserve less money because they are lesser athletes.
Most men are physically stronger than women, but luckily most sports don’t consist of picking up a heavy boulder and
grunting loudly. Being a good athlete also involves skill, agility, leadership and mental strength. Women’s tennis has become
so popular precisely because instead of the smashes and aces that characterize male matches, the ladies hold long, nerve-
wracking rallies that make for more compelling TV.

The true root of any justification for a return to unequal pay is sexism. For proof, look at how men speak publicly about
female athletes. Because Serena Williams is strong and black, her body is seen as a threat, not an asset. One journalist
wrote that she is “built like one of the monster trucks that crushes Volkswagens at sports arenas.” Because Canadian tennis
star Eugenie Bouchard is svelte and blonde, she was asked by a male interviewer to twirl her skirt after winning a January
match at the Australian Open.

Forty-three years after Billie Jean King helped secure equal pay at the U.S. Open, women still don’t receive equal treatment.
It’s a shame that the game’s male athletes would rather use twisted logic to roll back women’s rights than celebrate their
sport’s progressive stance on gender.

Q21. By saying that female tennis stars ride on the coattails of men, Raymond Moore probably implies that they

a) reap the benefits of the stardom of male tennis stars. Your answer is correct

b) cannot compete with the male tennis stars for attention.

c) do not benefit as much as male tennis stars.

d) do not get the spotlight because of male tennis stars.

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time taken by you to answer this question 194
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 138
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 133
% of students who attempted this question 48.37
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 81.37

Video Solution

Text Solution
undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

Two high-profile men in the tennis world recently tried to set back women players a few decades. Raymond Moore, during
the Indian Wells tournament, said that female tennis stars “ride on the coattails of the men”. He has since resigned as the
tournament’s director and CEO. Then Novak Djokovic, a Grand Slam winner, added that male tennis players should earn
more prize money than women because their matches attract more viewers. But don’t worry, he has respect for female
athletes who face added challenges such as “the hormones and different stuff.” He has since apologized on his Facebook
page to “anyone who has taken this the wrong way” — the classic non-apology apology — and said in a news conference
that he is “for equality in the sport.” These misogynist comments are particularly troublesome because tennis is a sport
which has been uniquely progressive on gender equality.

In tennis’ four major tournaments, women now earn the same amount of prize money as men. The pay situation in tennis is
not perfect — prizes at women’s tournaments are still less than at men’s tournaments. But compared to other sports, such
as professional golf, where the prize money for men is more than five times higher than that for women, tennis is a feminist
paradise.

Many men will say that since sports is entertainment, players should be paid based on the number of spectators they attract.
If women received equal opportunities to train or to attract sponsorship and media coverage, that argument would be more
convincing. But since female athletes simply don’t receive the same investment, it’s impossible to know how popular
women’s sports could be if given the “male” treatment.

Those disadvantages aside, women’s tennis has a respectable following. In 2015, the U.S. Open women’s tournament sold
out more quickly than the men’s event and in 2013 and 2014, the women’s finals had higher ratings.

But perhaps, as many male sports fans point out, female players deserve less money because they are lesser athletes.
Most men are physically stronger than women, but luckily most sports don’t consist of picking up a heavy boulder and
grunting loudly. Being a good athlete also involves skill, agility, leadership and mental strength. Women’s tennis has become
so popular precisely because instead of the smashes and aces that characterize male matches, the ladies hold long, nerve-
wracking rallies that make for more compelling TV.

The true root of any justification for a return to unequal pay is sexism. For proof, look at how men speak publicly about
female athletes. Because Serena Williams is strong and black, her body is seen as a threat, not an asset. One journalist
wrote that she is “built like one of the monster trucks that crushes Volkswagens at sports arenas.” Because Canadian tennis
star Eugenie Bouchard is svelte and blonde, she was asked by a male interviewer to twirl her skirt after winning a January
match at the Australian Open.
Forty-three years after Billie Jean King helped secure equal pay at the U.S. Open, women still don’t receive equal treatment.
It’s a shame that the game’s male athletes would rather use twisted logic to roll back women’s rights than celebrate their
sport’s progressive stance on gender.

Q22. By using the phrase ‘the classic non-apology apology’, the author implied that Djokovic

a) admitted he was wrong on social media and not at a press conference.

b) apologised only to those who took his comments the wrong way.

c) didn’t apologise for the real issue - commenting upon the female athletes’ hormones.

d) offered only a superficial apology which didn’t include admission of his being wrong. Your answer is correct

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time taken by you to answer this question 16
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 74
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 71
% of students who attempted this question 51.7
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 79.92

Video Solution

Text Solution

undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

Two high-profile men in the tennis world recently tried to set back women players a few decades. Raymond Moore, during
the Indian Wells tournament, said that female tennis stars “ride on the coattails of the men”. He has since resigned as the
tournament’s director and CEO. Then Novak Djokovic, a Grand Slam winner, added that male tennis players should earn
more prize money than women because their matches attract more viewers. But don’t worry, he has respect for female
athletes who face added challenges such as “the hormones and different stuff.” He has since apologized on his Facebook
page to “anyone who has taken this the wrong way” — the classic non-apology apology — and said in a news conference
that he is “for equality in the sport.” These misogynist comments are particularly troublesome because tennis is a sport
which has been uniquely progressive on gender equality.

In tennis’ four major tournaments, women now earn the same amount of prize money as men. The pay situation in tennis is
not perfect — prizes at women’s tournaments are still less than at men’s tournaments. But compared to other sports, such
as professional golf, where the prize money for men is more than five times higher than that for women, tennis is a feminist
paradise.

Many men will say that since sports is entertainment, players should be paid based on the number of spectators they attract.
If women received equal opportunities to train or to attract sponsorship and media coverage, that argument would be more
convincing. But since female athletes simply don’t receive the same investment, it’s impossible to know how popular
women’s sports could be if given the “male” treatment.

Those disadvantages aside, women’s tennis has a respectable following. In 2015, the U.S. Open women’s tournament sold
out more quickly than the men’s event and in 2013 and 2014, the women’s finals had higher ratings.

But perhaps, as many male sports fans point out, female players deserve less money because they are lesser athletes.
Most men are physically stronger than women, but luckily most sports don’t consist of picking up a heavy boulder and
grunting loudly. Being a good athlete also involves skill, agility, leadership and mental strength. Women’s tennis has become
so popular precisely because instead of the smashes and aces that characterize male matches, the ladies hold long, nerve-
wracking rallies that make for more compelling TV.

The true root of any justification for a return to unequal pay is sexism. For proof, look at how men speak publicly about
female athletes. Because Serena Williams is strong and black, her body is seen as a threat, not an asset. One journalist
wrote that she is “built like one of the monster trucks that crushes Volkswagens at sports arenas.” Because Canadian tennis
star Eugenie Bouchard is svelte and blonde, she was asked by a male interviewer to twirl her skirt after winning a January
match at the Australian Open.

Forty-three years after Billie Jean King helped secure equal pay at the U.S. Open, women still don’t receive equal treatment.
It’s a shame that the game’s male athletes would rather use twisted logic to roll back women’s rights than celebrate their
sport’s progressive stance on gender.

Q23. The author backs his impression of ‘how men speak publicly about female athletes’ by citing which of the following
proofs?

a) Serena is compared to monster trucks while Eugenie is asked to twirl her skirt. Your answer is correct

b) Unequal pay is still the norm in sport.

c) Tennis tournaments outside the top four still have a bigger prize for men.

d) Sexist male interviewers are employed to interview female winners.

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time taken by you to answer this question 0
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 71
Difficulty Level M
70
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right

% of students who attempted this question 51.15

% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 92.3

Video Solution

Text Solution
undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best
answer to each question.

Two high-profile men in the tennis world recently tried to set back women players a few decades. Raymond Moore, during
the Indian Wells tournament, said that female tennis stars “ride on the coattails of the men”. He has since resigned as the
tournament’s director and CEO. Then Novak Djokovic, a Grand Slam winner, added that male tennis players should earn
more prize money than women because their matches attract more viewers. But don’t worry, he has respect for female
athletes who face added challenges such as “the hormones and different stuff.” He has since apologized on his Facebook
page to “anyone who has taken this the wrong way” — the classic non-apology apology — and said in a news conference
that he is “for equality in the sport.” These misogynist comments are particularly troublesome because tennis is a sport
which has been uniquely progressive on gender equality.

In tennis’ four major tournaments, women now earn the same amount of prize money as men. The pay situation in tennis is
not perfect — prizes at women’s tournaments are still less than at men’s tournaments. But compared to other sports, such
as professional golf, where the prize money for men is more than five times higher than that for women, tennis is a feminist
paradise.

Many men will say that since sports is entertainment, players should be paid based on the number of spectators they attract.
If women received equal opportunities to train or to attract sponsorship and media coverage, that argument would be more
convincing. But since female athletes simply don’t receive the same investment, it’s impossible to know how popular
women’s sports could be if given the “male” treatment.

Those disadvantages aside, women’s tennis has a respectable following. In 2015, the U.S. Open women’s tournament sold
out more quickly than the men’s event and in 2013 and 2014, the women’s finals had higher ratings.

But perhaps, as many male sports fans point out, female players deserve less money because they are lesser athletes.
Most men are physically stronger than women, but luckily most sports don’t consist of picking up a heavy boulder and
grunting loudly. Being a good athlete also involves skill, agility, leadership and mental strength. Women’s tennis has become
so popular precisely because instead of the smashes and aces that characterize male matches, the ladies hold long, nerve-
wracking rallies that make for more compelling TV.

The true root of any justification for a return to unequal pay is sexism. For proof, look at how men speak publicly about
female athletes. Because Serena Williams is strong and black, her body is seen as a threat, not an asset. One journalist
wrote that she is “built like one of the monster trucks that crushes Volkswagens at sports arenas.” Because Canadian tennis
star Eugenie Bouchard is svelte and blonde, she was asked by a male interviewer to twirl her skirt after winning a January
match at the Australian Open.

Forty-three years after Billie Jean King helped secure equal pay at the U.S. Open, women still don’t receive equal treatment.
It’s a shame that the game’s male athletes would rather use twisted logic to roll back women’s rights than celebrate their
sport’s progressive stance on gender.

Q24. The author counters the argument of male sports fans that ‘female players deserve less money because they are
lesser athletes’ by pointing out that

a) the money is a reflection not of athletic ability but of star power.

b) being a good athlete involves physical as well as mental abilities.

c) TRP ratings and how fast the tickets are sold determine the pay.

d) longer matches make for more compelling TV and hence, deserve higher pay. Your answer is incorrect

Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 0
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 66
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 63
% of students who attempted this question 49.63
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 69.7

Video Solution

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undefined

Q25. DIRECTIONS for questions 25 and 26: Five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) are given in each of the following
questions. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph and one sentence is the
odd one out. Decide on the proper logical order for the sentences and key in the sequence offour numbers as your
answer, even as you omit the contextually unrelated sentence.
 1.
Ministers point with pride to the C$174 billion ($169 billion) in export revenues from sales of minerals, oil and gas in
2013 and to the fact that Canada is home to more than half of the world's publicly listed exploration and mining
companies.

2.
It seems that the miners' experience in dealing with local communities is making them more sensitive to their concerns
about corruption and other ills.

3.
Under the banner of “responsible resource development”, his government has done its best to ease the way for
minerals firms, at home and abroad, including directing some foreign aid to countries where Canadian firms wanted to
drill.

4.
The prime minister, Stephen Harper, has also boasted of Canada as an “emerging energy super-
power”.

5.
Few governments have aligned their interests so closely to those of their country's energy and mining firms as
Canada's Conservative administration.

Your Answer:2435 Your answer is incorrect

Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 406
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 175
Difficulty Level VD
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 168
% of students who attempted this question 31.57
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 21.71

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undefined

Q26. DIRECTIONS for questions 25 and 26: Five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) are given in each of the following
questions. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph and one sentence is the
odd one out. Decide on the proper logical order for the sentences and key in the sequence offour numbers as your
answer, even as you omit the contextually unrelated sentence.
 1.
Two armies of the Seventh Coalition – a British-led Allied army under the command of the Duke of Wellington and a
Prussian army under the command of Gebhard Leberecht von Blücher – were cantoned close to the north-eastern
border of France.

2.
Upon Napoleon's return to power in France in March 1815, many states that had opposed him formed the Seventh
Coalition, and began to mobilize armies.

3.
On 16 June 1815, Napoleon attacked the bulk of the Prussian army at the Battle of Ligny with his main force; a portion
of the French army simultaneously attacked the Allied army at the Battle of Quatre Bras – forcing Wellington to
withdraw north of Waterloo on the 17th.

4.
Napoleon was making plans to attack them separately in the hope of destroying them before they could join in a co-
ordinated invasion of France with other members of the coalition.

5.
The defeat at Waterloo ended Napoleon's rule as Emperor of the French, and marked the end of his Hundred Days
return from exile.

Your Answer:4235 Your answer is incorrect

Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 310
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 155
Difficulty Level VD
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 163
% of students who attempted this question 28.66
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 35.74

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undefined

Q27. DIRECTIONS for questions 27 and 28: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence
has been left incomplete. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate
way.

Although people use both sides of the brain, one side or the other generally tends to be dominant in each individual. Of
course, the ideal would be to cultivate and develop the ability to have good crossover between both sides of the brain so that
a person could first sense what the situation called for and then use the appropriate tool to deal with it.
___________________________________________
 a) As we become aware of the different capacities of the brain, we can consciously use our minds to meet
specific needs in more effective ways.

b) The left side of the brain deals with words, with parts and specifics, with analysis (to break apart), with
sequential thinking; while the right side of the brain deals with pictures, with wholes, with synthesis (to put
together), with simultaneous and holistic thinking.

c) But people tend to stay in the “comfort zone” of their dominant hemisphere and process every situation
according to either a right or left brain preference. Your answer is correct

d) Admittedly this description is oversimplified and new studies will undoubtedly throw more light on brain
functioning.

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time taken by you to answer this question 128
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 84
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 82
% of students who attempted this question 47.79
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 61.69

Video Solution

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undefined

Q28. DIRECTIONS for questions 27 and 28: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence
has been left incomplete. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate
way.

Do you wonder what went through Oleg Shuplyak’s mind when he first sat down to create his very first oil painting? Did the
idea of creating a second layer on top of the first just come to him one day? Who knows! All we know is that he gave us
mesmerizing optical illusions that play with our minds. His brilliance in creating not one, but two pictures in the same
painting is astounding. It is as if he has created a “two in one” oil painting. The artist is well known for placing a second
image behind the characters, objects, coloring, and objects of the first image. From the first image, protrudes a second
image of the faces of famous people such as Zeus, Uncle Sam, Charles Darwin, John Lennon, and more.
_________________________________________________

a) In the instance the second image is not visible, squint your eyes and move back until you can see it.

b) It was at the Lviv Polytechnic Institute where the conniving artist learned to compose a picture and articulately
position images inside it; where he learnt to befuddle the viewers and confuse them further.

c) In some of his oil paintings, the second image is clearly visible.

d) Oleg Shupliak’s optical illusions will compel you to stare at them for a long time, not because of how brilliantly
they are created, but because what each illusion contains.

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 345
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 105
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 101
% of students who attempted this question 36.35
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 53.85

Video Solution

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Q29. DIRECTIONS for questions 29 and 30: The sentences given in each of the following questions, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the
sentences and key in the sequence of five numbers as your answer, in the input box given below the question.

1.
The letter is written in the brain, sparked to life by some sudden chemical reaction, two compounds arcing across
synapses and reacting like lead and acid in an automobile battery.

2.
They come in starbursts and waterfalls and explosions and they race away on parallel tracks, jostling, competing,
fighting for supremacy.

3.
Nobody knows how long it takes thoughts to
form.
 4.
But, instead of sending twelve dumb volts to a turn signal, the brain floods the body with all kinds of subtle adjustments
all at once because thoughts don’t necessarily happen one at a time.

5.
People talk about electrical impulses racing through the nerves at a fraction of the speed of light, but that's mere
transmission, like mail delivery.

Your Answer:32514 Your answer is incorrect

Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 37
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 197
Difficulty Level VD
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 196
% of students who attempted this question 36.41
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 20.32

Video Solution

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Q30. DIRECTIONS for questions 29 and 30: The sentences given in each of the following questions, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the
sentences and key in the sequence of five numbers as your answer, in the input box given below the question.

1.
It used to be an acute infection, something that most people could get treated fairly quickly before they had a chance to
infect many others.

2.
The most famous flu pandemic was quite tame in the spring of 1918 but over the summer the virus underwent strange
transformations killing 40 million people over the next six months.

3.
Now, epidemics tip because of the extraordinary efforts of a few select carriers but they also tip when something
happens to transform the epidemic agent itself.

4.
In Baltimore, when the city's public clinics suffered cutbacks, the nature of the syphilis affecting the city's poor
neighbourhoods changed.

5.
But with the cutbacks, syphilis increasingly became a chronic disease, and the disease's carriers had three or four or
five times longer to pass on their infection.

Your Answer:2135 Your answer is incorrect

Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 0
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 114
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 125
% of students who attempted this question 32.84
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 6.16

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Q31. DIRECTIONS for questions 31 and 32: Each of the following questions consists of a highlighted sentence followed by
the context from where the sentence may have been drawn. The context given provides exactly three successive
paragraphs, which may or may not have any other paragraph preceeding or succeeding them. The paragraphs have a total
of four blanks numbered as (2), (3), (4) and (5). Choose the number of the blank where the highlighted sentence can best be
reinserted and key in that number in the input box provided below the context.

Further:

If you think that the highlighted sentence does not belong in the given context altogether, then key in the number0 as your
answer in the input box.

If you think that the highlighted sentence precedes or is upstream of the first of the three paras reproduced below, then key
in the number 1 as your answer in the input box.

If you think that the highlighted sentence succeeds or is downstream of the last of the three paras reproduced below, then
key in the number 6 as your answer in the input box.

Dissociation is commonly displayed on a continuum.

In psychology, dissociation is any of a wide array of experiences from mild detachment from immediate surroundings to
more severe detachment from physical and emotional experiences. ________________(2)_________________ The major
characteristic of all dissociative phenomena involves a detachment from reality, rather than a loss of reality as in psychosis.

________________(3)_________________ In mild cases, dissociation can be regarded as a coping mechanism or defense

mechanisms in seeking to master, minimize or tolerate stress – including boredom or conflict. At the non-pathological end of
the continuum, dissociation describes common events such as daydreaming. Further along the continuum are non-
pathological altered states of consciousness.

________________(4)_________________ More pathological dissociation involves dissociative disorders, including

dissociative fugue and depersonalization disorder with or without alterations in personal identity.
________________(5)_________________ These alterations can include: a sense that self or the world is unreal
(depersonalization and derealization); a loss of memory (amnesia); forgetting identity or assuming a new self (fugue); and
fragmentation of identity into separate streams of consciousness (dissociative identity disorder) and complex post-traumatic
stress disorder.

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 0
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 84
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 81
% of students who attempted this question 22.71
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 59.48

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undefined

Q32. DIRECTIONS for questions 31 and 32: Each of the following questions consists of a highlighted sentence followed by
the context from where the sentence may have been drawn. The context given provides exactly three successive
paragraphs, which may or may not have any other paragraph preceeding or succeeding them. The paragraphs have a total
of four blanks numbered as (2), (3), (4) and (5). Choose the number of the blank where the highlighted sentence can best be
reinserted and key in that number in the input box provided below the context.

Further:

If you think that the highlighted sentence does not belong in the given context altogether, then key in the number0 as your
answer in the input box.

If you think that the highlighted sentence precedes or is upstream of the first of the three paras reproduced below, then key
in the number 1 as your answer in the input box.

If you think that the highlighted sentence succeeds or is downstream of the last of the three paras reproduced below, then
key in the number 6 as your answer in the input box.

Life style is no longer simply a manifestation of class position.

During Elizabethan times, the term “gentleman” referred to a whole way of life, not simply an accident of birth.
________________(2)_________________ Appropriate lineage may have been a prerequisite, but to be a gentleman, one
had to live in a certain style: be better educated, have better manners, wear better clothes than the masses; to engage in
certain recreations (and not others); to live in a large, well-furnished house; to maintain a certain aloofness with
subordinates; in short, never to lose sight of his class “superiority”.

________________(3)_________________ The merchant class had its own preferred life style and the peasantry still
another. These life styles, like that of the gentleman, were pieced together out of many different components, ranging from
residence, occupation and dress to jargon, gesture and religion.

________________(4)_________________ Today we still create our life styles by forming a mosaic of components. But
much has changed. ________________(5)_________________ Classes themselves are breaking up into smaller units.
Economic factors are declining in importance. Thus today it is not so much one's class base as one's ties with a subcult that
determine the individual's style of life.

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 0
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 62
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 60
% of students who attempted this question 24.67
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 66.22

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Q33. DIRECTIONS for questions 33 and 34: Read each of the following paragraphs and answer the question given below
it.

For every pleasure, it should not be difficult to see that the ‘how’ matters more than the ‘what’. Furthermore, the highest
pleasures do not merely use our distinctively human capacities, they use them for a valuable end. Someone who goes to the
opera to be seen in a new dress is not experiencing the higher pleasures of music but indulging the lower pleasures of
vanity. Someone who reads Dr Seuss with a careful ear for language gets a higher pleasure than someone who
mechanically recites The Waste Land (1922) without any understanding of what T S Eliot was doing.

Choose the option that best captures the author’s position.

a) Pleasures are meaningless when one focuses on the ‘what’ more than the ‘how’ like reading TS Eliot
mechanically or going to the opera to show-off a new dress.

b) Higher pleasures are about ‘how’ rather than ‘what’ and the highest pleasures are beyond the human
capacities.

c) How one experiences pleasure is more important than what one experiences, but more importantly, the higher
pleasures attach greater value to the human capacities.

d) How is more important than what for any pleasure; subsequently, the highest pleasures use human capacities
for higher purposes.

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 113
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 122
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 123
% of students who attempted this question 34.57
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 26.7

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Q34. DIRECTIONS for questions 33 and 34: Read each of the following paragraphs and answer the question given below
it.

The human mind has two fundamental psychological motifs. Descartes’s proclamation, “I think, therefore I am,” illustrates
one, while Melville’s statement, “Ahab never thinks, he just feels, feels, feels,” exemplifies the other. Our Rationalist
inclinations make us want certainty (objective truth), while the Romantic in us basks in emotional subjectivity. Psychology
and neuroscience recognize this distinction: cognition and emotion are the two major categories of mind that researchers
study. But things were not always quite like this. Rational thought has always been treated as a product of the mind, and
emotions were traditionally viewed as belonging to the body.

Which of the following represents the essence of the para in the best possible way?

a) The human mind oscillates between rational inclinations and emotional romanticism, a distinction that drives
psychology and neuroscience research.

b) Cognition as a product of the mind is distinct from emotion which was once considered a product of the body;
psychology and neuroscience now recognize both as distinct products of the mind.

c) While rational thought was always associated with the mind, emotions, traditionally considered a product of
the body, was brought into the fold of human mind only recently.

d) At the core of the human mind is a conflict between certainty and subjectivity, one a product of the mind and
the other, a product of the body.

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 88
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 138
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 139
% of students who attempted this question 26.61
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 57.84

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DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a test, there are 98 questions and each question carries either 2 marks or 5 marks. Any student who answers a 2-mark
question incorrectly is given a penalty of 1 mark and any student who answers a 5-mark question incorrectly is given a
penalty of 2 marks. No marks were either awarded or deducted for any question left unattempted. In the test, each 5-mark
question is preceded by exactly two 2-mark questions and succeeded by exactly two 2-mark questions.

There is at least one 5-mark question in the test.

Q1. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

If a student correctly answers the fifth question and every fifth question after that, and did not attempt any other question,
how many marks will he score?

a) 54

b) 56 Your answer is correct

c) 53

d) 55

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time taken by you to answer this question 56
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 233
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 234
% of students who attempted this question 36.82
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 72.57

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DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a test, there are 98 questions and each question carries either 2 marks or 5 marks. Any student who answers a 2-mark
question incorrectly is given a penalty of 1 mark and any student who answers a 5-mark question incorrectly is given a
penalty of 2 marks. No marks were either awarded or deducted for any question left unattempted. In the test, each 5-mark
question is preceded by exactly two 2-mark questions and succeeded by exactly two 2-mark questions.

There is at least one 5-mark question in the test.

Q2. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

A student correctly answers the first question and every nth question after that, and did not attempt any other question. If he
scored 40 marks in the test, what is the value of n?

a) 6

b) 7
 c) 8

d) 9 Your answer is incorrect

Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 12
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 222
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 235
% of students who attempted this question 25.17
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 50.28

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DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a test, there are 98 questions and each question carries either 2 marks or 5 marks. Any student who answers a 2-mark
question incorrectly is given a penalty of 1 mark and any student who answers a 5-mark question incorrectly is given a
penalty of 2 marks. No marks were either awarded or deducted for any question left unattempted. In the test, each 5-mark
question is preceded by exactly two 2-mark questions and succeeded by exactly two 2-mark questions.

There is at least one 5-mark question in the test.

Q3. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Ram correctly answered the first question and every fourth question after that, and did not attempt any other question.
Kalyan answered the first n questions correctly and did not attempt any other question. If both the students scored the same
marks, what is the value of n?
 a) 21

b) 27

c) 24

d) 25

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 272
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 170
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 177
% of students who attempted this question 19.89
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 49.82

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DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a test, there are 98 questions and each question carries either 2 marks or 5 marks. Any student who answers a 2-mark
question incorrectly is given a penalty of 1 mark and any student who answers a 5-mark question incorrectly is given a
penalty of 2 marks. No marks were either awarded or deducted for any question left unattempted. In the test, each 5-mark
question is preceded by exactly two 2-mark questions and succeeded by exactly two 2-mark questions.

There is at least one 5-mark question in the test.

Q4. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Robert correctly answered the first question and every nth question after that, and did not attempt any other question. Bill
answered the first n questions correctly and the remaining questions incorrectly. If Robert scored 5 marks more than Bill,
which of the following can be the value of n?

a) 30
 a) 30

b) 31

c) 32

d) 33

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 166
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 171
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 186
% of students who attempted this question 4.57
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 44.76

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DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In the Football World Cup, England played against Brazil in the finals. The match was played for exactly 93 minutes. During
the match, England was leading (i.e., England had scored at least one goal more than Brazil) for a total of 35 minutes, Brazil
was leading for a total of 22 minutes and none of the two teams were leading for a total of 36 minutes. Further, a total of six
goals were scored during the match. The first goal was scored at the end of the 21st minute from the start of the match, the
second goal, at the end of the 41st minute, the third goal, at the end of the 46th minute, the fourth goal at the end of 56th
minute, the fifth goal at the end of 71st minute and the sixth goal, at the end of the 86th minute.

Q5. DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

What is the maximum number of goals scored consecutively by any team?

a) 2
 b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 101
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 286
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 309
% of students who attempted this question 27.69
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 45.9

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DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In the Football World Cup, England played against Brazil in the finals. The match was played for exactly 93 minutes. During
the match, England was leading (i.e., England had scored at least one goal more than Brazil) for a total of 35 minutes, Brazil
was leading for a total of 22 minutes and none of the two teams were leading for a total of 36 minutes. Further, a total of six
goals were scored during the match. The first goal was scored at the end of the 21st minute from the start of the match, the
second goal, at the end of the 41st minute, the third goal, at the end of the 46th minute, the fourth goal at the end of 56th
minute, the fifth goal at the end of 71st minute and the sixth goal, at the end of the 86th minute.

Q6. DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Which of the following could have been the score at some point during the match?

a) Brazil: 1 – England: 0

b) Brazil: 3 – England: 2

c) Brazil: 2 – England: 1

d) Brazil: 3 – England: 1

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 158
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 73
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 67
% of students who attempted this question 25.29
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 58.78

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In the Football World Cup, England played against Brazil in the finals. The match was played for exactly 93 minutes. During
the match, England was leading (i.e., England had scored at least one goal more than Brazil) for a total of 35 minutes, Brazil
was leading for a total of 22 minutes and none of the two teams were leading for a total of 36 minutes. Further, a total of six
goals were scored during the match. The first goal was scored at the end of the 21st minute from the start of the match, the
second goal, at the end of the 41st minute, the third goal, at the end of the 46th minute, the fourth goal at the end of 56th
minute, the fifth goal at the end of 71st minute and the sixth goal, at the end of the 86th minute.

Q7. DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

The six goals were scored by Ronaldo, Neymar, Gerrard, Lahm, Cech and Belluschi. Gerrard scored before Ronaldo and
Cech, while Belluschi scored immediately after Neymar. Exactly two players scored after Ronaldo did but before Lahm did.
Ronaldo and Lahm belong to different teams.

Who among the following scored a goal for England?

a) Gerrard

b) Cech

c) Lahm

d) Cannot be determined

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 314
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 156
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 159
% of students who attempted this question 19.21
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 58.42

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In the Football World Cup, England played against Brazil in the finals. The match was played for exactly 93 minutes. During
the match, England was leading (i.e., England had scored at least one goal more than Brazil) for a total of 35 minutes, Brazil
was leading for a total of 22 minutes and none of the two teams were leading for a total of 36 minutes. Further, a total of six
goals were scored during the match. The first goal was scored at the end of the 21st minute from the start of the match, the
second goal, at the end of the 41st minute, the third goal, at the end of the 46th minute, the fourth goal at the end of 56th
minute, the fifth goal at the end of 71st minute and the sixth goal, at the end of the 86th minute.

Q8. DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

The six goals were scored by Ronaldo, Neymar, Gerrard, Lahm, Cech and Belluschi. Gerrard scored before Ronaldo and
Cech, while Belluschi scored immediately after Neymar. Exactly two players scored after Ronaldo did but before Lahm did.
Ronaldo and Lahm belong to different teams.

Who among the following scored the second goal for Brazil?

a) Neymar

b) Ronaldo

c) Belluschi

d) Cannot be determined

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 269
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 104
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 91
% of students who attempted this question 17.44
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 42.31

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 12: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
 DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 12: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Ajay wanted to conduct a test for students from six sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. He prepared four questions, Q1 through
Q4, and created six tests, one for each section, using these four questions. He ensured that each of the six tests had an
equal number of questions. No two tests had the same set of questions.

It is also known that

i.
the test for section B and the test for section D have Q3 in
common.

ii.
the test for section A and the test for section E have Q4 in
common.

iii.
the test for Section F and the test for Section B both do not have
Q4.

iv.
the test for Section C does not have Q4 but has Q2, while the test for section A does not have
Q2.

Q9. DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 12: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.c

The tests for which of the following pairs of sections will definitely have at least one question in common?

a) A, B

b) B, C Your answer is correct

c) C, D

d) E, F

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time taken by you to answer this question 10
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 298
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 300
% of students who attempted this question 37.38
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 72.44

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 12: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Ajay wanted to conduct a test for students from six sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. He prepared four questions, Q1 through
 Q4, and created six tests, one for each section, using these four questions. He ensured that each of the six tests had an
equal number of questions. No two tests had the same set of questions.

It is also known that

i.
the test for section B and the test for section D have Q3 in
common.

ii.
the test for section A and the test for section E have Q4 in
common.

iii.
the test for Section F and the test for Section B both do not have
Q4.

iv.
the test for Section C does not have Q4 but has Q2, while the test for section A does not have
Q2.

Q10. DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 12: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

The test for section E will necessarily have

a) Q1.

b) Q2. Your answer is correct

c) Q3.

d) None of the above

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time taken by you to answer this question 163
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 90
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 96
% of students who attempted this question 37.59

% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 60.92

Video Solution

Text Solution
undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 12: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
 Ajay wanted to conduct a test for students from six sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. He prepared four questions, Q1 through
Q4, and created six tests, one for each section, using these four questions. He ensured that each of the six tests had an
equal number of questions. No two tests had the same set of questions.

It is also known that

i.
the test for section B and the test for section D have Q3 in
common.

ii.
the test for section A and the test for section E have Q4 in
common.

iii.
the test for Section F and the test for Section B both do not have
Q4.

iv.
the test for Section C does not have Q4 but has Q2, while the test for section A does not have
Q2.

Q11. DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 12: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Which of the following statements is sufficient to determine the questions in each of the six tests?

a) The test for section B has Q1.

b) The test for section F has Q3.

c) The test for section D has Q3.

d) The test for section C has Q3. Your answer is correct

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time taken by you to answer this question 3
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 137
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 150
% of students who attempted this question 31.26
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 45.88

Video Solution

Text Solution
undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 12: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
 Ajay wanted to conduct a test for students from six sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. He prepared four questions, Q1 through
Q4, and created six tests, one for each section, using these four questions. He ensured that each of the six tests had an
equal number of questions. No two tests had the same set of questions.

It is also known that

i.
the test for section B and the test for section D have Q3 in
common.

ii.
the test for section A and the test for section E have Q4 in
common.

iii.
the test for Section F and the test for Section B both do not have
Q4.

iv.
the test for Section C does not have Q4 but has Q2, while the test for section A does not have
Q2.

Q12. DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 12: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Which of the following questions is not present in the test for Section D but is present in the test for section A?

a) Q1 Your answer is correct

b) Q2

c) Q4

d) Q3

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time taken by you to answer this question 4
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 49
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 47
% of students who attempted this question 34.97
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 65.55

Video Solution

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 13 to 16: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Sid was playing with a common balance. He had exactly n wooden blocks numbered 1 to n, with each block having a
different weight. He also had two boxes labelled Box-A and Box-B. He placed the block numbered 1 on one side of the
balance and the block numbered 2 on the other side. If the first block was lighter than the second block, he placed the first
block in Box-A. If the first block was heavier than the second block, he placed the first block in Box-B. He then weighed the
second block against the third block and continued the process, i.e., if the second block was lighter than the third block, he
placed it in Box-A. Otherwise, he placed the second block in Box-B.

In this manner, after each weighing, he placed the lower numbered block into Box-A or Box-B, until he placed all the blocks
that he had, except for the last one.

Q13. DIRECTIONS for questions 13 to 16: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

If n = 7 and the block numbered 4 is the only block in Box-B, then which of the following can be true?

a) The block numbered 6 is the second heaviest.

b) The block numbered 5 is the third heaviest.

c) The block numbered 7 is the third heaviest.

d) More than one of the above

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 3
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 169
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 162
% of students who attempted this question 19.6
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 51.53

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DIRECTIONS for questions 13 to 16: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Sid was playing with a common balance. He had exactly n wooden blocks numbered 1 to n, with each block having a
different weight. He also had two boxes labelled Box-A and Box-B. He placed the block numbered 1 on one side of the
balance and the block numbered 2 on the other side. If the first block was lighter than the second block, he placed the first
block in Box-A. If the first block was heavier than the second block, he placed the first block in Box-B. He then weighed the
second block against the third block and continued the process, i.e., if the second block was lighter than the third block, he
placed it in Box-A. Otherwise, he placed the second block in Box-B.

In this manner, after each weighing, he placed the lower numbered block into Box-A or Box-B, until he placed all the blocks
that he had, except for the last one.

Q14. DIRECTIONS for questions 13 to 16: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

It is known that n = 10 and the blocks numbered 1, 4, 5, 6 are the only blocks in Box-A. Further, the block numbered 7 is the
fourth heaviest.

Which of the following is definitely true?

a) The block numbered 5 is the sixth heaviest.

b) The block numbered 1 is heavier than the block numbered 8.

c) The block numbered 2 is lighter than the block numbered 7.

d) None of the above.

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 14
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 153
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 163
% of students who attempted this question 13.09
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 35.36

Video Solution

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 13 to 16: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Sid was playing with a common balance. He had exactly n wooden blocks numbered 1 to n, with each block having a
different weight. He also had two boxes labelled Box-A and Box-B. He placed the block numbered 1 on one side of the
balance and the block numbered 2 on the other side. If the first block was lighter than the second block, he placed the first
block in Box-A. If the first block was heavier than the second block, he placed the first block in Box-B. He then weighed the
second block against the third block and continued the process, i.e., if the second block was lighter than the third block, he
placed it in Box-A. Otherwise, he placed the second block in Box-B.

In this manner, after each weighing, he placed the lower numbered block into Box-A or Box-B, until he placed all the blocks
that he had, except for the last one.

Q15. DIRECTIONS for questions 13 to 16: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

It is known that n = 10 and the blocks numbered 1, 4, 5, 6 are the only blocks in Box-A. Further, the block numbered 7 is the
fourth heaviest.

Which is the heaviest block?

a) Block numbered 10

b) Block numbered 6

c) Block numbered 2

d) Cannot be determined

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 56
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 128
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 114
% of students who attempted this question 13.53
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 50.72

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DIRECTIONS for questions 13 to 16: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Sid was playing with a common balance. He had exactly n wooden blocks numbered 1 to n, with each block having a
different weight. He also had two boxes labelled Box-A and Box-B. He placed the block numbered 1 on one side of the
balance and the block numbered 2 on the other side. If the first block was lighter than the second block, he placed the first
block in Box-A. If the first block was heavier than the second block, he placed the first block in Box-B. He then weighed the
second block against the third block and continued the process, i.e., if the second block was lighter than the third block, he
placed it in Box-A. Otherwise, he placed the second block in Box-B.

In this manner, after each weighing, he placed the lower numbered block into Box-A or Box-B, until he placed all the blocks
that he had, except for the last one.

Q16. DIRECTIONS for questions 13 to 16: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

If n = 10 and the blocks numbered 2, 3 and 4 are the only blocks in Box-B, which of the following cannot be the heaviest
block?

a) Block numbered 2

b) Block numbered 4
 c) Block numbered 10

d) More than one of the above

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 78
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 71
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 80
% of students who attempted this question 12.39
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 50.71

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DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a planet called Titan, there exists a continent called Pangea, which is surrounded on all sides by water. The continent
comprises eight countries – Antegria, Republia, Bahari, Centopia, Draka, Ecotopia, Graznavia and Krakozhia – located
contiguously on it, i.e., the total area of the eight countries is the same as the area of the continent. Each country is exactly
in the shape of a square, with the four edges of the square as its boundaries. The areas of the eight countries are all equal.
Any country is said to be a neighbour of another country if the two countries have one edge as a common boundary.
Further, one can travel by land between two countries only if the two countries are neighbours and it is known that one can
reach any country from any of the other countries by travelling by land (passing through one or more countries, if required).

It is also known that

i.
Republia and Ecotopia are the only neighbours of Draka, while Krakozhia is the only neighbour of Bahari but Krakozhia
is not to the West of Bahari.

ii.
Antegria and Draka are the only neighbours of Ecotopia, while Krakozhia is the only neighbour of
Centopia.

iii.
Ecotopia is directly to the North of
Republia.

iv.
Graznavia is directly to the East of Draka and no country is present directly to the South of
Graznavia.

Q17. DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 20: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Which of the following countries is a peninsula, i.e., surrounded by water on exactly three sides?
Which of the following countries is a peninsula, i.e., surrounded by water on exactly three sides?

a) Antegria

b) Republia

c) Ecotopia

d) Krakozhia

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 69
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 376
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 384
% of students who attempted this question 27.6
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 55.35

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a planet called Titan, there exists a continent called Pangea, which is surrounded on all sides by water. The continent
comprises eight countries – Antegria, Republia, Bahari, Centopia, Draka, Ecotopia, Graznavia and Krakozhia – located
contiguously on it, i.e., the total area of the eight countries is the same as the area of the continent. Each country is exactly
in the shape of a square, with the four edges of the square as its boundaries. The areas of the eight countries are all equal.
Any country is said to be a neighbour of another country if the two countries have one edge as a common boundary.
Further, one can travel by land between two countries only if the two countries are neighbours and it is known that one can
reach any country from any of the other countries by travelling by land (passing through one or more countries, if required).
 It is also known that

i.
Republia and Ecotopia are the only neighbours of Draka, while Krakozhia is the only neighbour of Bahari but Krakozhia
is not to the West of Bahari.

ii.
Antegria and Draka are the only neighbours of Ecotopia, while Krakozhia is the only neighbour of
Centopia.

iii.
Ecotopia is directly to the North of
Republia.

iv.
Graznavia is directly to the East of Draka and no country is present directly to the South of
Graznavia.

Q18. DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 20: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Which of the following countries is to the immediate South of Krakozhia?

a) Bahari

b) Centopia

c) Graznavia

d) No country is to the immediate South of Krakozhia.

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 77
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 98
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 97
% of students who attempted this question 23.26
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 34.19

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a planet called Titan, there exists a continent called Pangea, which is surrounded on all sides by water. The continent
comprises eight countries – Antegria, Republia, Bahari, Centopia, Draka, Ecotopia, Graznavia and Krakozhia – located
contiguously on it, i.e., the total area of the eight countries is the same as the area of the continent. Each country is exactly
in the shape of a square, with the four edges of the square as its boundaries. The areas of the eight countries are all equal.
Any country is said to be a neighbour of another country if the two countries have one edge as a common boundary.
Further, one can travel by land between two countries only if the two countries are neighbours and it is known that one can
reach any country from any of the other countries by travelling by land (passing through one or more countries, if required).
 It is also known that

i.
Republia and Ecotopia are the only neighbours of Draka, while Krakozhia is the only neighbour of Bahari but Krakozhia
is not to the West of Bahari.

ii.
Antegria and Draka are the only neighbours of Ecotopia, while Krakozhia is the only neighbour of
Centopia.

iii.
Ecotopia is directly to the North of
Republia.

iv.
Graznavia is directly to the East of Draka and no country is present directly to the South of
Graznavia.

Q19. DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 20: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

If a person has to travel by land from Ecotopia to Graznavia, which of the following countries must he pass through?

a) Krakozhia

b) Republia

c) Draka

d) None of the above

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 93
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 76
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 70
% of students who attempted this question 23.26
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 30.01

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a planet called Titan, there exists a continent called Pangea, which is surrounded on all sides by water. The continent
comprises eight countries – Antegria, Republia, Bahari, Centopia, Draka, Ecotopia, Graznavia and Krakozhia – located
contiguously on it, i.e., the total area of the eight countries is the same as the area of the continent. Each country is exactly
in the shape of a square, with the four edges of the square as its boundaries. The areas of the eight countries are all equal.
Any country is said to be a neighbour of another country if the two countries have one edge as a common boundary.
Further, one can travel by land between two countries only if the two countries are neighbours and it is known that one can
reach any country from any of the other countries by travelling by land (passing through one or more countries, if required).
 It is also known that

i.
Republia and Ecotopia are the only neighbours of Draka, while Krakozhia is the only neighbour of Bahari but Krakozhia
is not to the West of Bahari.

ii.
Antegria and Draka are the only neighbours of Ecotopia, while Krakozhia is the only neighbour of
Centopia.

iii.
Ecotopia is directly to the North of
Republia.

iv.
Graznavia is directly to the East of Draka and no country is present directly to the South of
Graznavia.

Q20. DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 20: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

How many of the eight countries do not have a neighbour to their South but have a neighbour to their East?

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 174
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 73
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 75
% of students who attempted this question 19.36
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 45.87

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DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Each person living in a certain city speaks exactly one language among six different languages – English, Hindi, Malayalam,
Tamil, Telugu and Marathi. The first pie chart below gives the number of persons in the city who speak each language at the
beginning of 2010. The second pie chart gives the exact percentage breakup of the number of persons who speak each
language at the beginning of 2015. It is known that, between 2010 and 2015, no person learned to speak another language
and there were no births or deaths in the city. However, some persons in the city might have moved out of the city and/or
some persons from outside the city might have moved into the city. Every person who moved into the city speaks exactly
one of the six languages.
Q21. DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

If the number of persons who speak Hindi remained the same during the given period, what is the minimum number of
persons who would have moved out of the city?

Your Answer:1200 Your answer is incorrect

Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 12
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 201
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 243
% of students who attempted this question 38.56
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 24.57

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DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Each person living in a certain city speaks exactly one language among six different languages – English, Hindi, Malayalam,
Tamil, Telugu and Marathi. The first pie chart below gives the number of persons in the city who speak each language at the
beginning of 2010. The second pie chart gives the exact percentage breakup of the number of persons who speak each
language at the beginning of 2015. It is known that, between 2010 and 2015, no person learned to speak another language
and there were no births or deaths in the city. However, some persons in the city might have moved out of the city and/or
some persons from outside the city might have moved into the city. Every person who moved into the city speaks exactly
one of the six languages.

Q22. DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

If no person moved out of the city between 2010 and 2015, what is the minimum number of people who speak Malayalam
that must have moved into the city?

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 28
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 125
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 138
% of students who attempted this question 32.33
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 9.41

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DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Each person living in a certain city speaks exactly one language among six different languages – English, Hindi, Malayalam,
Tamil, Telugu and Marathi. The first pie chart below gives the number of persons in the city who speak each language at the
beginning of 2010. The second pie chart gives the exact percentage breakup of the number of persons who speak each
language at the beginning of 2015. It is known that, between 2010 and 2015, no person learned to speak another language
and there were no births or deaths in the city. However, some persons in the city might have moved out of the city and/or
some persons from outside the city might have moved into the city. Every person who moved into the city speaks exactly
one of the six languages.

Q23. DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

If no person moved out of the city between 2010 and 2015, what is the minimum number of people that must have moved
into the city?

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 24
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 109
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 113
% of students who attempted this question 20.85
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 18.13

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DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Each person living in a certain city speaks exactly one language among six different languages – English, Hindi, Malayalam,
Tamil, Telugu and Marathi. The first pie chart below gives the number of persons in the city who speak each language at the
beginning of 2010. The second pie chart gives the exact percentage breakup of the number of persons who speak each
language at the beginning of 2015. It is known that, between 2010 and 2015, no person learned to speak another language
and there were no births or deaths in the city. However, some persons in the city might have moved out of the city and/or
some persons from outside the city might have moved into the city. Every person who moved into the city speaks exactly
one of the six languages.

Q24. DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

If no person moved into the city between 2010 and 2015, what is the minimum number of people that must have moved out
of the city?

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 39
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 81
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 100
% of students who attempted this question 15.71
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 19.25

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DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a certain kingdom, there were three kinds of people called Nothrees, Nofives and Nosevens. The peculiarity of the three
kinds of people lies in the way they count. While counting, a Nothree would skip over any multiple of 3, i.e., if he has to count
four items, he will count the four items as one, two, four and five (skipping three); if he has to count six items, he will count
the six items as one, two, four, five, seven and eight (skipping three and six).

Similarly, a Nofive would skip over any multiple of 5 while counting and a Noseven would skip over any multiple of 7 while
counting.
Q25. DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

If there were 185 marbles in a pile, what will be the number reported by a Nofive on counting this pile of marbles?

Your Answer:231 Your answer is correct

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 122
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 149
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 189
% of students who attempted this question 46.72
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 12.34

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a certain kingdom, there were three kinds of people called Nothrees, Nofives and Nosevens. The peculiarity of the three
kinds of people lies in the way they count. While counting, a Nothree would skip over any multiple of 3, i.e., if he has to count
four items, he will count the four items as one, two, four and five (skipping three); if he has to count six items, he will count
the six items as one, two, four, five, seven and eight (skipping three and six).

Similarly, a Nofive would skip over any multiple of 5 while counting and a Noseven would skip over any multiple of 7 while
counting.

Q25. DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

If there were 185 marbles in a pile, what will be the number reported by a Nofive on counting this pile of marbles?

Your Answer:231 Your answer is correct

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 122
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 149
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 189
% of students who attempted this question 46.72
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 12.34

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a certain kingdom, there were three kinds of people called Nothrees, Nofives and Nosevens. The peculiarity of the three
kinds of people lies in the way they count. While counting, a Nothree would skip over any multiple of 3, i.e., if he has to count
four items, he will count the four items as one, two, four and five (skipping three); if he has to count six items, he will count
the six items as one, two, four, five, seven and eight (skipping three and six).

Similarly, a Nofive would skip over any multiple of 5 while counting and a Noseven would skip over any multiple of 7 while
counting.

Q26. DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

On counting a pile of mangoes, the number reported by a Nothree was five more than the number reported by a Nofive.

What is the maximum number of mangoes in the pile?

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer
Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 23
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 171
Difficulty Level VD
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 196
% of students who attempted this question 25.03
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 15.1

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a certain kingdom, there were three kinds of people called Nothrees, Nofives and Nosevens. The peculiarity of the three
kinds of people lies in the way they count. While counting, a Nothree would skip over any multiple of 3, i.e., if he has to count
four items, he will count the four items as one, two, four and five (skipping three); if he has to count six items, he will count
the six items as one, two, four, five, seven and eight (skipping three and six).

Similarly, a Nofive would skip over any multiple of 5 while counting and a Noseven would skip over any multiple of 7 while
counting.

Q27. DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

On counting a pile of mangoes, the number reported by a Nothree was five more than the number reported by a Nofive.

If the number reported by the person from Nofives was two more than the number reported by a person from Nosevens,
what is the minimum number of mangoes in the pile?

Your Answer:17 Your answer is incorrect

Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
316
Time taken by you to answer this question

Avg. time spent on this question by all students 118

Difficulty Level VD
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 140
 Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
% of students who attempted this question 17.65
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 17.36

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DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a certain kingdom, there were three kinds of people called Nothrees, Nofives and Nosevens. The peculiarity of the three
kinds of people lies in the way they count. While counting, a Nothree would skip over any multiple of 3, i.e., if he has to count
four items, he will count the four items as one, two, four and five (skipping three); if he has to count six items, he will count
the six items as one, two, four, five, seven and eight (skipping three and six).

Similarly, a Nofive would skip over any multiple of 5 while counting and a Noseven would skip over any multiple of 7 while
counting.

Q28. DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

Three persons each of whom was of a different kind among Nothrees, Nofives and Nosevens counted a certain number of
cars.

Two of the three persons reported 44 and 56 cars. What will be the number reported by the third person?

Enter your answer as -1, if you think the answer cannot be determined.

Your Answer:44 Your answer is incorrect

Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 112
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 131
Difficulty Level D
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 174
% of students who attempted this question 19.05
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 12.14

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DIRECTIONS for questions 29 to 32: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Ravi, a fruit merchant, purchased and sold a certain number of apples on ten days – Day 1 through Day 10. The cost at
which he purchased each apple and the price at which he sold each apple did not change from one day to the next. He sold
all the apples that he purchased in a day on the same day. The profit percentage on any day was greater than 20% and less
than 50%. It is known that the price at which he purchased each apple and the price at which he sold each apple were both
integers.
The following bar graphs provides the total cost and total revenue from the purchase and sale of apples on certain days:

Q29. DIRECTIONS for questions 29 to 32: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

What is the total revenue from the sale of apples on Day 5?

a) Rs.438

b) Rs.424

c) Rs.432

d) Cannot be determined

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Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 262
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 222
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 265
% of students who attempted this question 19.2
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 48.35

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 29 to 32: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Ravi, a fruit merchant, purchased and sold a certain number of apples on ten days – Day 1 through Day 10. The cost at
which he purchased each apple and the price at which he sold each apple did not change from one day to the next. He sold
all the apples that he purchased in a day on the same day. The profit percentage on any day was greater than 20% and less
than 50%. It is known that the price at which he purchased each apple and the price at which he sold each apple were both
integers.

The following bar graphs provides the total cost and total revenue from the purchase and sale of apples on certain days:

Q29. DIRECTIONS for questions 29 to 32: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

What is the total revenue from the sale of apples on Day 5?

a) Rs.438

b) Rs.424

c) Rs.432

d) Cannot be determined
You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer
Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 262
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 222
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 265
% of students who attempted this question 19.2
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 48.35

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DIRECTIONS for questions 29 to 32: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Ravi, a fruit merchant, purchased and sold a certain number of apples on ten days – Day 1 through Day 10. The cost at
which he purchased each apple and the price at which he sold each apple did not change from one day to the next. He sold
all the apples that he purchased in a day on the same day. The profit percentage on any day was greater than 20% and less
than 50%. It is known that the price at which he purchased each apple and the price at which he sold each apple were both
integers.

The following bar graphs provides the total cost and total revenue from the purchase and sale of apples on certain days:
Q30. DIRECTIONS for questions 29 to 32: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

On how many days did Ravi make a profit more than Rs 120?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) Cannot be determined

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 171
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 109
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 118
% of students who attempted this question 14.67
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 60.76

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 29 to 32: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Ravi, a fruit merchant, purchased and sold a certain number of apples on ten days – Day 1 through Day 10. The cost at
which he purchased each apple and the price at which he sold each apple did not change from one day to the next. He sold
all the apples that he purchased in a day on the same day. The profit percentage on any day was greater than 20% and less
than 50%. It is known that the price at which he purchased each apple and the price at which he sold each apple were both
integers.

The following bar graphs provides the total cost and total revenue from the purchase and sale of apples on certain days:
Q31. DIRECTIONS for questions 29 to 32: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

What is the total profit made by Ravi during the ten days?

a) Rs.1280

b) Rs.1360

c) Rs.1060

d) Rs.1140

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 104
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 108
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 116
% of students who attempted this question 8.85
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 64.3

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undefined

DIRECTIONS for questions 29 to 32: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Ravi, a fruit merchant, purchased and sold a certain number of apples on ten days – Day 1 through Day 10. The cost at
which he purchased each apple and the price at which he sold each apple did not change from one day to the next. He sold
all the apples that he purchased in a day on the same day. The profit percentage on any day was greater than 20% and less
than 50%. It is known that the price at which he purchased each apple and the price at which he sold each apple were both
integers.

The following bar graphs provides the total cost and total revenue from the purchase and sale of apples on certain days:
Q32. DIRECTIONS for questions 29 to 32: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

What is the minimum number of apples that Ravi sold during the ten days?

a) 285

b) 300

c) 290

d) 280

You did not answer this question Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 94
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 116
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 98
% of students who attempted this question 7.58
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 63.96

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Q1. DIRECTIONS for question 1: Type in your answer in the input box provided in the question.

If log1001 = 3.000434, find the number of digits in 1001101.

Your Answer:3004 Your answer is incorrect

Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
Time taken by you to answer this question 122
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 196
Difficulty Level E
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 193
 Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
% of students who attempted this question 36.63
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 49.89

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Q2. DIRECTIONS for questions 2 to 4: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

The function g(x) = |x – 4| + |4.5 – x| + |4.8 – x|, where x is a real number, attains its minimum value at

a) x = 4.1

b) x = 4.4

c) x = 4.5 Your answer is correct

d) None of the above

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Q3. DIRECTIONS for questions 2 to 4: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Each of the numbers a1, a2, a3, - - - an, where n ≥ 3m is equal to 1 or –1. Suppose a1 a2 a3 + a2 a3 a4 + a3 a4 a5 + - - - + an –
3 an – 2 an – 1 + an – 2 an – 1 an + an – 1 an a1 + an a1 a2 = 0, then

a) n is a composite integer.
 b) n is a prime number.

c) n is an even number.

d) n is an odd number.

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Q4. DIRECTIONS for questions 2 to 4: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

There are five pipes P1, P2, P3, P4 and P5 which can fill a tank in 45, 30, 15, 10 and 9 minutes respectively. Exactly two of
the pipes are now converted into emptying pipes retaining the same respective flow rates. If one filling pipe and one
emptying pipe operate, the empty tank gets filled in minutes, while for another combination of a filling pipe and an
emptying pipe, the full tank gets emptied in minutes. Which of the following pipes may have been converted into
emptying pipes?

a) P1, P2

b) P2, P3

c) P3, P4

d) P4, P5

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Q5. DIRECTIONS for question 5: Type in your answer in the input box provided in the question.

If the sum of the number of zeros at the end of the factorials of each of the firstn natural numbers is 250, the factorials of
how many of these natural numbers will end with an odd number of zeros?

Your Answer:4 Your answer is incorrect

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Q6. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 8: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

If 2x + 3y > 6 and y – x > – 1, the sign of which of the following expressions can be uniquely determined?

I.
3x +
7y

II.
4x +
11y

III.
x+
y

a) Only I and II

b) Only I and III

c) Only II and III

d) I, II and III Your answer is incorrect

Show Correct Answer

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Q6. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 8: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

If 2x + 3y > 6 and y – x > – 1, the sign of which of the following expressions can be uniquely determined?

I.
3x +
7y

II.
4x +
11y

III.
x+
y

a) Only I and II

b) Only I and III

c) Only II and III

d) I, II and III Your answer is incorrect

Show Correct Answer

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
2
Time taken by you to answer this question

Avg. time spent on this question by all students 116

Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 126
 Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
% of students who attempted this question 18.71
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 31.8

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Q7. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 8: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

A graph is defined as a set of points connected by lines called edges. Each edge connects a pair of points. It is possible to
reach any point from any other point through a sequence of edges. Consider a graph with 15 points. If the number of edges
in the graph is denoted by e, then which of the following best describese?

a) 13 ≤ e ≤ 104

b) 14 ≤ e ≤ 104

c) 14 ≤ e ≤ 105

d) 13 ≤ e ≤ 105

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Q8. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 8: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

If the equation (x – k)2 + (y + k)2 = 9, represents a circle, with centre O, in the co-ordinate plane and k is a positive constant,
then which of the following is an appropriate representation of the graph in the co-ordinate plane?

a)

b)

c)

d)

Your answer is correct

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Q9. DIRECTIONS for questions 9 and 10: Type in your answer in the input box provided in the question.

In a college of 525 students, each student takes at least two items from among idly, dosa, puri and chapathi for his
breakfast. If 375 students take idly, 375 students take dosa, 375 students take puri and 375 students take chapathi for their
breakfast, the number of students who take all the four items is at most

Your Answer:371 Your answer is incorrect

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 Time spent / Accuracy Analysis
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Q10. DIRECTIONS for questions 9 and 10: Type in your answer in the input box provided in the question.

In the figure below PQRS is a square of side 30 cm as shown below.

U and V are points on QR and RS such that UQ = 12 cm and RV = 24 cm. Find the length (in cm) of the line segment which
joins the midpoints of PV and PU.
Your Answer:15 Your answer is correct
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Q11. DIRECTIONS for question 11: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

The median of a set of eight numbers is m ‘ ’. If a number larger than the largest number in the set is included, the median
increases by 4. If the largest number in the set is removed, the median becomes . Find the median, if a number smaller
than the least number in the set is included.

a) 4

b) 6

c) 8

d) Cannot be determined

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Q12. DIRECTIONS for questions 12 and 13: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

On the morning of friendship day, a teacher tookn friendship bands to her class, intending to distribute these bands among
her students. She calculated that these would be exactly sufficient, if every student of her class gave one band to every
other student in the class. However, by noon she observed that exactly two students had not turned up and hence exactly n
– 50 bands were used up. If in the afternoon, exactly one of these two students turned up, then find the number of bands
that remained unused.

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Q13. DIRECTIONS for questions 12 and 13: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

Ajay and Balu started a business together by investing some money. At the end of the first year, out of a total profit of
Rs.2000, Ajay received Rs.400 more than Balu. If Ajay had invested Rs.6000 more and Balu had invested Rs.6000 less,
Ajay would have received 25% more than what he actually received. What would have been the profit share (in Rs.) of Balu,
if Ajay’s investment and Balu’s investment had been less by Rs.3000 and Rs.7000 respectively, and the profit had
decreased by 20%?

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DIRECTIONS for questions 14 and 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Ram Kumar wanted to come down from the first floor to the ground floor of a shopping mall, whereas Kishore wanted to
climb up from the ground floor to the first floor. Both used the same escalator (a moving staircase) which was ascending
from the ground floor to the first floor and both walked towards their respective destinations at their normal speeds. Both of
them started simultaneously from the top and the bottom of the escalator respectively and crossed each other after exactly
21 seconds. If instead, Kishore had walked at 1/3rd of his normal speed while Ram Kumar maintained his normal speed,
they would have crossed each other after exactly 28 seconds from the start. Further, if both Ram Kumar and Kishore had
climbed up from the ground floor to the first floor using the same ascending escalator, walking at their normal speeds, the
number of steps taken by Kishore to reach the first floor would be 20% less than the number of steps taken by Ram Kumar
for the same.

Q14. DIRECTIONS for question 14: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.
If I were to stand still on the same escalator, how long (in seconds) would it take for the escalator to take me from the
ground floor to the first floor?

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DIRECTIONS for questions 14 and 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Ram Kumar wanted to come down from the first floor to the ground floor of a shopping mall, whereas Kishore wanted to
climb up from the ground floor to the first floor. Both used the same escalator (a moving staircase) which was ascending
from the ground floor to the first floor and both walked towards their respective destinations at their normal speeds. Both of
them started simultaneously from the top and the bottom of the escalator respectively and crossed each other after exactly
21 seconds. If instead, Kishore had walked at 1/3rd of his normal speed while Ram Kumar maintained his normal speed,
they would have crossed each other after exactly 28 seconds from the start. Further, if both Ram Kumar and Kishore had
climbed up from the ground floor to the first floor using the same ascending escalator, walking at their normal speeds, the
number of steps taken by Kishore to reach the first floor would be 20% less than the number of steps taken by Ram Kumar
for the same.

Q14. DIRECTIONS for question 14: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the question.

If I were to stand still on the same escalator, how long (in seconds) would it take for the escalator to take me from the
ground floor to the first floor?

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DIRECTIONS for questions 14 and 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Ram Kumar wanted to come down from the first floor to the ground floor of a shopping mall, whereas Kishore wanted to
climb up from the ground floor to the first floor. Both used the same escalator (a moving staircase) which was ascending
from the ground floor to the first floor and both walked towards their respective destinations at their normal speeds. Both of
them started simultaneously from the top and the bottom of the escalator respectively and crossed each other after exactly
21 seconds. If instead, Kishore had walked at 1/3rd of his normal speed while Ram Kumar maintained his normal speed,
they would have crossed each other after exactly 28 seconds from the start. Further, if both Ram Kumar and Kishore had
climbed up from the ground floor to the first floor using the same ascending escalator, walking at their normal speeds, the
number of steps taken by Kishore to reach the first floor would be 20% less than the number of steps taken by Ram Kumar
for the same.

Q15. DIRECTIONS for question 15: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Ram Kumar walked down from the first floor to the ground floor using the same escalator. However, after some time the
escalator stopped moving due to a power failure. Find the total time taken by Ram Kumar to reach the ground floor, given
that the time for which he walked on the moving escalator was the same as that for which he walked on the stationary
escalator.

a) 25 seconds

b) 37 seconds

c) 48 seconds

d) 56 seconds

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Q16. DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

If set A contains five elements and set B contains four elements, how many different onto mappings from A to B are
possible?

a) 216

b) 625

c) 240

d) None of the above

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Q17. DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Spending Rs.422, Ranjit bought 35 pens from among three varieties of pens – A, B, C. If each pen of varieties A, B, and C
costs Rs.10, Rs.8, and Rs.15 respectively, and Ranjit bought the maximum possible pens of variety C, find the total number
of pens of varieties A and B that he bought.

a) 23

b) 20

c) 15

d) 19
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Q18. DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

In a class of n students, the students who get more than 70% are awarded Distinction. Among these students, those who
get more than 90% are also awarded a Certificate of Merit. In how many possible ways could Distinction and Certificates of
Merit be secured by the students in the class?

a) 2n

b) 3n

c) 4n

d) 2n – 1

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Q19. DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

A parallelogram is divided into nine regions of equal area by drawing line segments parallel to one of its diagonals. What is
the ratio of the length of the longest of the line segments to that of the shortest?

a) :1

b) :1

c) 2 : 1

d) :1

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Q20. DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

A had a certain amount of money. B had seven times the amount that A had. A bought a certain number of gold coins and
was left with one-third the cost of a gold coin. B bought as many gold coins as he could and found that, if he had Rs.7,500
more, he could have bought one more gold coin. Find the cost of each gold coin.

a) Rs.22,500

b) Rs.10,500

c) Rs.11,250

d) Rs.15,000

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Q21. DIRECTIONS for questions 21: Type in your answer in the input box provided in the question.

The number of solutions of the equation 3p + 4q = 70, where p and q are positive integers and p > q, is

Your Answer:3 Your answer is correct

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Q22. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 34: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

A rectangular piece of paper is folded in such a way that one pair of diagonally opposite vertices coincide. If the dimensions
of the rectangle are 40 cm × 30 cm, what is the length (in cm) of the fold?

a)

b) 30

c) 37.5

d) 40

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Q23. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 34: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

M workers started a job. At the end of theith day of the job, where 1 ≤ i ≤ M, the i th worker left the job. The job was
completed when the Mth worker left. If the ith worker can do i units of work per day and the job to be done was equal to 204
units of work, find M.

a) 8
 b) 9

c) 10

d) 7

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Q24. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 34: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

If x and y are positive integers and x2 + y2 = 1800, then the maximum value ofx + y is

a) 60 Your answer is correct

b) 52

c) 64

d) 48

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Q25. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 34: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

There are 2272 students in a school. All the students stand in a row, from left to right, holding a number such that the
number with any student (except those at the ends) equals the sum of the numbers with the student on his immediate left
and the student on his immediate right. If the numbers with the 1136th and 1137th students from the left end are – 57 and 16
respectively, then find the sum of the numbers with all the students.

a) 46

b) –89

c) 130

d) –41

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Q26. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 34: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

If the areas of the six faces of a cuboid are a1, a2, ……. a6, then the volume of the cuboid is

a)

b)

c)

d)

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Q27. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 34: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

If both p and q belong to the set {1, 2, 3, 4}, find the number of equations of the form 2x − px + q = 0, which have real roots.

a) 6 Your answer is incorrect

b) 7

c) 5

d) 4

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Q28. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 34: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

In a certain class, there are two sections – A and B – with equal number of students in each section. The average height of
the students of section A is 155 cms and that of section B is 160 cms. One-fourth of the students from section B move to
section A, thereby increasing the average height of section A by 1 cm. What happens to the average height of section B
after this movement of students to section A?

a) Increases

b) Decreases

c) Does not change

d) Cannot be determined

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Q29. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 34: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Given that |x| < 1, find the value of 1 + 4x2+ 9x4 + 16x6 + 25x8 … .

a)

b)

c)

d) Your answer is correct

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Q30. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 34: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

The sum (S) of the squares of the first n natural numbers is equal to the sum of the first 2n natural numbers. What is the
remainder when S is divided by 2n?

a) 8

b) 7

c) 6

d) 5 Your answer is correct

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Q31. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 34: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Water flowing at a speed of 10 m/s, through a cylindrical pipe of length 20 m and diameter 6 cm, can fill a tank of volume V
in 2 hours. The volume of the tank that can be completely filled by water flowing at a speed of 20 m/s, through a cylindrical
pipe of length 40 m and of radius 4 cm, in 1 hour is

a) 4V.

b) .

c) . Your answer is incorrect

d) .

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Q32. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 34: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
 a)

b)

c)

d)

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Q33. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 34: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

The age of a person k years ago was half of what his age would bek years from now. The age of the same person p years
from now would be thrice of what his age was p years ago. What is the value of the ratiok : p?

a) 3 : 2

b) 2 : 3 Your answer is correct

c) 1 : 4

d) 4 : 1

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Q34. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 34: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

An alloy A contains two elements, copper and tin in the ratio 2 : 3, whereas alloy B contains the same elements in the ratio 3
: 4. If 20 kg of alloy A is mixed with 28 kg of alloy B and some pure copper to form a third alloy C, containing copper and tin in
the ratio 6 : 7, find the quantity of pure copper mixed with the alloys.

a) 4 kg Your answer is correct

b) 5 kg

c) 6 kg

d) 7 kg

Time spent / Accuracy Analysis

Time taken by you to answer this question 51
Avg. time spent on this question by all students 136
Difficulty Level M
Avg. time spent on this question by students who got this question right 132
% of students who attempted this question 27.39
% of students who got the question right of those who attempted 86.93

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