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L&T Infotech

This document contains a summary of 25 multiple choice questions covering various math and logic problems. The questions assess skills in ratios, averages, probability, time/speed/distance word problems, and logical reasoning. The correct answers to the questions are provided as multiple choice options. Additionally, there are 5 logic puzzles involving rules for creating perfume blends from combinations of essences and assigning 9 individuals to 3 committees with certain constraints. The document tests a wide range of mathematical and logical thinking abilities.

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pratiksha gupta
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
499 views24 pages

L&T Infotech

This document contains a summary of 25 multiple choice questions covering various math and logic problems. The questions assess skills in ratios, averages, probability, time/speed/distance word problems, and logical reasoning. The correct answers to the questions are provided as multiple choice options. Additionally, there are 5 logic puzzles involving rules for creating perfume blends from combinations of essences and assigning 9 individuals to 3 committees with certain constraints. The document tests a wide range of mathematical and logical thinking abilities.

Uploaded by

pratiksha gupta
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOC, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 24

SECTION 1

1. If n = 1 + x, where x is the product of four consecutive positive integers,


then which of the following is/are true?
1. n is even 2. n is prime 3. n is a perfect cube 4. n is
odd.

2. A ladder is touching a wall and the base of the ladder is 15 m away from
the wall. When the ladder is pulled away from the wall by 2 m, it becomes
parallel to the ground. Find the distance of the initial point of contact of the
ladder and the wall from the ground.
1. 10m 2. 8m 3. 12m 4. 17 m

3. Find the number of numbers from 1 to 100 that are divisible by 2 or 3 or


5.
1. 68 2. 74 3. 71 4. 103

4. In a party of 40 people, everyone shakes hands with all the other persons
exactly once. What is the total number of handshakes happening?
1. 780 2. 820 3. 40! 4. None of these

5. 273 – 272 – 271 is the same as


1. 269 2. 270 3. 271 4.272

6. How many 3 digit even numbers can be formed such that if one of the
digits is 5, then the next digit is 7?
1. 5 2. 9 3. 365 4. 15

7. Find the least number which when divided by 5 and 9 will leave
remainders of 3 and 7 respectively.
1. 47 2. 88 3. 43 4. 92

8. In a 300m race, A beats B by 24m or 6 seconds. Find the time taken by A


to finish the race.
1. 75 sec 2. 81 sec 3. 69 sec 4. 60 sec

9. A tank can be filled in x hours, but because of a leak, it takes 40 hours to


fill the tank. Find x if the leak can empty the tank in 60 hours.
1. 30 2. 24 3. 36 4. 20

10. X, Y and Z have a total of Rs.224 with them. If their shares are increased
by Rs.5, 9 and 2 respectively, then the ratio of their amounts is 3:2:1. Find
the original amount with Y.
1. Rs.71 2. Rs.115 3. Rs.38 4. Rs.120

11. A number is decreased by 20% and then increased by 40%.Find the


percentage change in the number.
1. 20 2. 12 3. 60 4. 40

12. The price of 4 apples and 6 mangoes is Rs.62 and the price of 6 apples
and 4 mangoes is Rs.58. Find the price of 3 apples and 5 mangoes.
1. Rs.45 2. Rs.34 3. Rs.60 4. Rs.50

13. A die and a coin are tossed simultaneously. The probability that the die
showing a prime number and the coin showing a head is
1. ½ 2. 1/3 3. 2/3 4. ¼

14. In what ratio should a class with average marks 34 be mixed with a class
with average 22, so that the average of the mixed class is 31.
1. 1:3 2. 3:1 3. 2:5 4. 5:7

15. Find the value of [(0.8)3 – (0.2)3]/[(0.8)2 + 0.16 + (0.2)2].


1. 1 2. 0.6 3. 0.64 4. 0.5

16. Find the number of divisors of 36 excluding 1 and 36.


1. 13 2. 11 3. 10 4. 7

17. Find the greatest


1. 21/2 2. 41/4 3. 61/6 4. 31/3

18. In how many ways can a person put 4 letters in 4 envelopes such that
exactly three letters are in their respective envelopes?
1. 23 2. 18 3. 1 4. 0

19. How many numbers can be formed between 200 and 1200, using the
digits 0, 1, 2 and 3, such that there is no repetition?
1. 48 2. 16 3. 32 4. 14
20. If 6x2 + 6y2 = 13xy, find x:y.
1. 2:3 2. 3:2 3. 1:2 4. 4:5

21. Walking at 3/4th of his regular speed, Sanjay is 16 minutes late in


reaching the office. Find the usual time that he takes to reach the office.
1. 48 min 2. 60 min 3. 36 min 4. 42 min

22. A train moves at a constant speed of 120 km/hr for one km and at 40
km/hr for the next km. Find the average speed of the train.
1. 60 kmph 2. 80 kmph 3. 64 kmph 4. 90 kmph

23. A can finish a piece of work in 10, while B can finish it in 20 days. They
start working together and after 5 days, A leaves the job. Find the number of
days in which B will finish the remaining work.
1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 5

24. At what exact time between 5 and 6 will the two hands of a clock be at
an angle of 1800.
1. 5.45 2. 5.56 3. 5.58
4. None of these

25. An integer is chosen at random from 1 to 100. Find the probability that it
is a multiple of 5 or 8.
1. 3/10 2. 7/20 3. 2/5 4. ½

26. A ship went on a voyage. After it had traveled 180 miles a plane started
with 10 times the speed of the ship. Find the distance when they meet from
starting point.
1. 190 2 .200 3. 210 4. 220

27. Three friends divided some bullets equally. After all of them shot 4
bullets the total number of bullets remaining is equal to the bullets each had
after division. Find the original number divided.
1. 24 2. 20 3. 16 4. 18

28. A hotel has 10 floors. Which floor is above the floor below the floor,
below the floor above the floor, below the floor above the fifth?
1. 4th 2. 5th 3. 6th 4. 7th
29. Two trains starting at same time, one from Bangalore to Mysore and
other in opposite direction arrive at their destination 1 hr and 4 hours
respectively after passing each other. How much faster is one train from
other?
1. 4 times 2. thrice 3. twice 4. Cannot be
determined

30. Father's age is three years more than three times the son's age. After
three years, father's age will be ten years more than twice the son's age.
What is the father's present age?
1. 30 2. 33 3. 36 4. 39
Section 2
Each question consists of five statements followed by options consisting of
three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which
indicates a valid argument, that is, where the third statement is a conclusion
drawn from the preceding two statements

31.A. Apples are not sweets.


B. Some apples are sweet.
C. All sweets are tasty.
D. Some apples are not tasty.
E. No apple is tasty.
1. CEA 2. BDC 3. CBD 4. EAC

32. A. Some towns in India are polluted.


B. All polluted towns should be destroyed.
C. Town Meghana should be destroyed.
D. Town Meghana is polluted.
E. Some towns in India should be destroyed.
1. BDE 2. BAE 3. ADE 4. CDB

33. A. No patriot is a criminal.


B. Bundledas is not a criminal.
C. Bundledas is a patriot.
D. Bogusdas is not a patriot.
E. Bogusdas is a criminal.
1. ACB 2. ABC 3. ADE 4. ABE

34. A. Ant eaters like ants.


B. Boys are ant eaters.
C. Balaram is an ant eater.
D. Balaram likes ants.
E. Balaram may eat ants.
1. DCA 2. ADC 3. ABE 4. ACD
35. A. Modern industry is technology driven.
B. BTI is a modern industry.
C. BTI is technology driven.
D. BTI may be technology driven.
E. Technology driven industry is modem.
1. ABC 2. ABD 3. BCA 4. EBC

Directions for questions 36 to 40 - Two or more essences out of a stock


of five essences-- L, M, N, O, and P are used in making all perfumes by a
manufacturer. He has learned that for a blend of essences to be agreeable
it should comply with all the rules listed below.
 A perfume containing L, should also contain the essence N, and the
quantity of N should be twice as that of L.
 A perfume containing M, must also have O as one of its components
and they should be in equal proportion.
 A single perfume should never contain N as well as O.
 O and P should not be used together.
 A perfume containing the essence P should contain P in such a
proportion that the total amount of P present should be greater than
the total amount of the other essence or essences used.

36.Among the following which is an agreeable formula for a


perfume?

A. One part L, one part P


B. Two parts M, two parts L
C. Three parts N, three parts L
D. Four parts O, four parts M

37.Adding more amount of essence N will make which of the


following perfumes agreeable?

1. One part L, one part N, five parts P


2. Two parts M, two parts N, two parts P
3. One part M, one part N, one part P
4. Two parts M, one part N, four parts P

38.Among the following, the addition of which combination would


make an disagreeable perfume containing two parts N and one
part P agreeable?

1.One part M 2.Two parts N 3.One part O


4.Two parts P

39.Among the following which combination cannot be used together


in an agreeable perfume containing two or more essences?

1.L and M 2.L and N 3.L and P 4.M and O

40. Among the below mentioned formulas, which can be made


agreeable by the eliminating some or all of one essence ?

1.One part L, one part M, one part N, four parts P

2.One part L, two parts N, one part O, four parts P

3.One part L, one part M, one part O, one part P

4.Two parts L, two parts N, one part O, two parts P .

Directions for questions 41 to 45 - Nine individuals - Z, Y, X, W, V, U, T, S


and R - are the only candidates, who can serve on three committees-- A, B
and C, and each candidate should serve on exactly one of the committees.

Committee A should consist of exactly one member more than committee B.

It is possible that there are no members of committee C.


Among Z, Y and X none can serve on committee A.
Among W, V and U none can serve on committee B.
Among T, S and R none can serve on committee C.
41.In case T and Z are the individuals serving on committee B, how
many of the nine individuals should serve on committee C?

1. 3 2. 4 3. 5 4. 6

42.Of the nine individuals, the largest number that can serve together on
committee C is
1. 9 2. 8 3. 7 4. 6

43.In case R is the only individual serving on committee B, which among


the following should serve on committee A?
1. V and U
2. V and T
3. U and S
4. T and S

44.In case any of the nine individuals serves on committee C, which


among the following should be the candidate to serve on committee
A?
1. Z 2. Y 3. W 4. T

45.In case T, S and X are the only individuals serving on committee B,


the total membership of committee C should be:
1. Z and Y
2. Z and W
3. Y and V
4. Y and U
Directions for 46 to 50:.
a) Seeta,Rajinder and Surinder are children of Mr. and Mrs.Maudgil
b) Renu,Raja and Sunil are children of Mr. and Mrs.Bhaskar
c) Sunil and Seeta are married and Ashok and Sanjay are their children
d) Geeta and Rakesh are children of Mr. and Mrs.Jain
e) Geeta is married to surinder and has three children named Rita,Sonu
and Raju.

46.. How is Rajinder related to Raju?


a)brother b)uncle c)brother in law d)cousin

47..How is Rajinder related to Ashok?


a)brother in law b)father in law c)cousin d)uncle

48. .How is Rakesh related to Surinder?


a)brother b)cousin c)uncle d)maternal uncle

49. How is Rakesh related to Raju?


a)brother b)cousin c)uncle d)maternal uncle

50.What is Sanjay's surname?


a)Bhaskar b)Jain c)Maudgil d)Surinder

51. Complete the series:


        5, 20, 24, 6, 2, 8, ?

1. 28 2. 16 3. 12 4. 34
52. Next number in the series is
      1 , 2 , 4 , 13 , 31 , 112 , ?

1. 224 2. 240 3. 155 4. 266

53. There is a 4 inch cube painted on all sides.


    This is cut down into smaller cubes of length 1 inch.
    What is the no of cubes which have no painted sides.

1. 6 2. 8 9. 10 4. 16

54. A chain is broken into three pieces of equal lengths containing 3 links
each. It is taken to a blacksmith to join into a single continuous one. How
many links are to to be opened to make it ?

1. 5 2. 4 3. 3 4. 2

55. A family X went for a vacation.


    Unfortunately it rained for 13 days when they were there.
    But whenever it rained in the mornings, they had clear afternoons and vice
versa.
    In all they enjoyed 11 mornings and 12 afternoons.
    How many days did they stay there totally?

1. 18 2. 21 3. 23 4. 20

56. Fifty minutes ago if it was four times as many minutes past three o'clock,
how many minutes is it to six o'clock?
  1. 22 2. 24 3. 26 4. 28

57. Everyday in his business a merchant had to weigh amounts from 1 kg to


121kgs, to the nearest kg. What are the minimum number of weights
required ?

1. 9 2. 120 3.5 4. 27
58. There are 600 tennis players
4% wear wrist band on one wrist
Of the remaining, 25% wear wrist bands on both hands
How many players don't wear a wrist band?

1. 340 2. 360 3. 412 4. 432

59. In a class, except 18 all are above 50 years.15 are below 50 years of age.
How many people are there?

1. 30 2. 33 3. 36 4. None of these

60. A square plate of some size is cut at four corners. Equal squares of the
same size are cut and is formed as open box. If this open box carries 128 ml
of oil. What is the size of the side of the plate?

1. 17 2. 14 3.13 4. None of these.

Section 3

Choose the option that shares the same relation as the original pair

61) BIRD : NEST :: 

(A) dog : doghouse


(B) squirrel : tree
(C) beaver : dam
(D) cat : litter box

62) DOCTOR : HOSPITAL ::

(A) sports fan : stadium


(B) cow : farm
(C) professor : college
(D) criminal : jail

63) CUB : BEAR ::

(A) piano : orchestra


(B) puppy : dog
(C) cat : kitten
(D) eagle : predator

64) PITCH: SOUND::


(A) color: light
(B) mass: weight
(C) force: pressure
(D) energy: heat

65)OUTSKIRTS : TOWN
(A) water : goblet
(B) margin : page
(C) rung : ladder
(D) hangar : airplane

66)SUFFOCATE : OXYGEN ::
(A) rob : money
(B) inhibit : drives
(C) imprison : freedom
(D) starve : nutrients

67)judge : courthouse
(A) physician : hospital
(B) farmer : house
(C) clergyman : library
(D) visitor : hotel
68)APIARY : BEE
(A) museum : painting
(B) dam : water
(C) arboretum : tree
(D) forum : speech

69)HYPOTHESIS : EXPERIMENTATION
(A) reality : fantasy
(B) opinion : debate
(C) film : camera
(D) predication : conclusion

70)VAPORIZED : HEAT ::
(A) Diffused : Gas
(B) Hardened : Pressure
(C) Purified : Distillate
(D) Anodized : Metal

Find the synonym for the question word.


71. paltry
   a) insignificant b) unfair    c) average    d) slovenly
  
 72. disparage
   a) to scatter b) discriminate     c) belittle     d) waste  
   
 73. overture
   a) disclosure b) apology    c) request    d) proposal
  
 74. lethargy
   a) serenity b) listlessness c) impassivity    d) laxity  
  
75. nurture
   a) to ripen b) pamper      c) nourish d ) relieve  
  
Direction for questions 76 to 80 – Read the passage and answer the
questions that follow     
Sign has become a scientific hot button. Only in the past 20 years have
specialists in language study realized that signed languages are unique - a
speech of the hand. They offer a new way to probe how the brain generates
and understands language, and throw new light on an old scientific
controversy: whether language, complete with grammar is something that
we are born with, or whether it is a learned behavior. The current interest in
sign language has roots in the pioneering work of one rebel teacher at
Gallaudet University in Washington, D.C., the world's only liberal arts
university for deaf people.

When Bill Stokoe went to Gallaudet to teach English, the school enrolled
him in a course in signing. But Stokoe noticed something odd: among
themselves, students signed differently from his classroom teacher. Stokoe
had been taught a sort of code gestures, each movement of the hands
representing a word in English. At the time, American Sign Language (ASL)
was thought to be no more than a form of pidgin English but Stokoe
believed the "hand talk" his students used looked richer. He wondered:
Might deaf people actually have a genuine language? And could that
language be unlike any other on Earth? It was in 1955, when even deaf
people dismissed their signing as "substandard". Stokoe's idea was an
academic heresy. It is 37 years later. Stokoe - now devoting his time to
writing and editing books and journals and to producing video materials on
ASL and the deaf culture - is having lunch at a cafe near the Gallaudet
campus and explaining how he started a revolution. For decades educators
fought his idea that signed languages are natural languages like English,
French and Japanese. They assumed language must be based on speech, the
modulation of sound. But sign language is based on the movement of hands,
the modulation of space. "What I said," Stokoe explains, "is that language is
not mouth stuff- it is brain stuff."
76. The study of sign language is thought to be
A) an approach to simplifying the grammatical structure of a language
B) an attempt to clarify misunderstanding about the origin of language
C) a challenge to traditional views on the nature of language
D) a new way to took at the learning of language

77. The present growing interest in sign language was stimulated by


A) a leading specialist in the study of liberal arts
B) an English teacher in a university for the deaf
C) some senior experts in American Sign Language
D) a famous Scholar in the study of the human brain

78. According to Stokoe, sign language is


A) an international language B) a substandard language
C) an artificial language D) a genuine language

79. Most educators objected to Stokoe's idea because they thought


A) a language should be easy to use and understand
B) sign language was too artificial to be widely accepted
C) a language could only exist in the form of speech sounds
D) sign language was not extensively used even by deaf people

80. Stokoe's argument is based on his belief that


A) language is a product of the brain
B) language is a system of meaningful codes
C) sign language is derived from natural language
D) sign language is as efficient as any other language
Direction for questions 81 to 85 – Read the passage and answer the
questions that follow     
A is for always getting to work on time. B is for being extremely busy. C is
for the conscientious way you do your job. You may be all these things at
the office and more. But when it comes to getting ahead, experts say: the
ABCs of business should include a P, for politics, as in office politics.
Dale Carnegie suggested as much more than 50 years ago hard work alone
doesn't ensure career advance in men. You have to be able to sell yourself
and your ideas, both publicly and behind the scenes. Yet, despite the obvious
rewards of engaging in office politics - a better job, a raise, praise- many
people are still unable or unwilling - to "play the game."

"People assume that office politics involves some manipulative behavior."


says Deborah Comer, an assistant professor of management at Hofstra
University. "But politics which is derived from the word 'polite' can mean
lobbying and forming associations. It can mean being kind and helpful, or
even trying, to please your superior, and then expecting something in
return."

In fact, today, experts define office politics as proper behavior used to


pursue one's own self-interest in the workplace. In many cases, this involves
some form of socializing within the office environment - not just in large
companies, but in small workplaces as well.

"The first thing is people are usually judged on their ability to perform well
on a consistent basis," says Neil P. Lewis, a management psychologist. "But
if two or three candidates are up for a promotion, each of whom has
reasonably similar ability, a manager is going to promote the person he or
she likes best. It's simple human nature."

Yet, psychologists say, many employees and employers have trouble with
the concept of politics in the office. Some people say, have an idealistic
vision of work and what it takes to succeed. Still others associate politics
with flattery, fearful that, if they speak up for themselves, they may appear
to be flattering their boss for favors.

Experts suggest altering this negative picture by recognizing the need for
some self-promotion.
81. "Office politics" is used in the passage to refer to
A) the political views and beliefs of office workers
B) the interpersonal relationships within a company
C) the various qualities required for a successful career
D) the code of behavior for company staff

82. To get promoted, one must not only be competent but


A) avoid being too outstanding
B) get along well with his colleagues
C) honest and loyal to his company
D) give his boss a good impression

83. Why are many people unwilling to "play the game" ?


A) They are not good at manipulating colleagues.
B) They feel that such behavior is unprincipled.
C) They think the effort will get them nowhere.
D) They believe that doing so is impractical.

84. The author considers office politics to be .


A) unwelcome at the workplace
B) bad for interpersonal relationships
C) an important factor for personal advancement
D) indispensable to the development of company culture

85. It is the author's view that


A) self-promotion does not necessarily mean flattery
B) hard work contributes Very little to one's promotion
C) many employees fail to recognize the need of flattery
D) speaking up for oneself is part of human nature
Direction for questions 86 to 90 – Read the passage and answer the
questions that follow     
It came as something of a surprise when Diana, Princess of Wales, made a
trip to Angola in 1997, to support the Red Cross's campaign for a total ban
on all anti-personnel landmines. Within hours of arriving in Angola,
television screens around the world were filled with images of her
comforting victims injured in explosions caused by landmines. "I knew the
statistics," she said. "But putting a face to those figures brought the reality
home to me; like when I met Sandra, a 13- year-old girl who had lost her
leg, and people like her."

The Princess concluded with a simple message: "We must stop landmines".
And she used every opportunity during her visit to repeat this message.

But, back in London, her views were not shared by some members of the
British government, which refused to support a ban on these weapons.
Angry politicians launched an attack on the Princess in the press. They
described her as "very ill-informed" and a "loose cannon.

The Princess responded by brushing aside the Criticisms: "This is a


distraction we do not need. All I'm trying to do is help."

Opposition parties, the media and the public immediately voiced their
support for the Princess. To make matters worse for the government, it soon
emerged that the Princess's trip had been approved by the Foreign Office,
and that she was in fact very well-informed about both the situation in
Angola and the British government's policy regarding landmines. The result
was a severe embarrassment for the government to try and limit the damage,
the Foreign Secretary, Malcolm Rifkidnd, claimed that the Princess's views
on landmines were not very different from government policy, and that it
was "working towards" a worldwide ban. The Defense Secretary, Michael
Portillo, claimed the matter was "a misinterpretation or misunderstanding." -

For the Princess, the trip to this war-torn country was an excellent
opportunity to use her popularity to show the world how much destruction
and suffering landmines can cause. She said that the experience had also
given her the chance to get closer to people and their problems.

86. Princess Diana paid a visit to Angola in 1997


A) to clarify the British government's stand on landmines
B) to establish her image as a friend 'of landmine victims
C) to investigate the sufferings of landmine victims there
D) to voice her support for a total ban of landmines

87. What did Diana mean when she said "... putting a face to those figures
brought the reality home to me" ?

A) Meeting the landmine victims in person made her believe the


statistics.
B) She just couldn't bear to meet the landmine victims face to face.
C) The actual situation in Angola made her feel like going back home.
D) Seeing the pain of the victims made her realize the seriousness of the
situation.

88. Some members of the British government criticized Diana because


A) she had not consulted the government before the visit
B) she was ill-informed of the government's policy
C) they were actually opposed to banning landmines
D) they believed that she had misinterpreted the situation in Angola

89. How did Diana respond to the criticisms?


A) She made more appearances on TV.
B) She paid no attention to them.
C) She rose to argue with her opponents.
D) She met the 13-year-old girl as planned.

90. What did Princess Diana think of her visit to Angola?


A) It had caused embarrassment to the British government.
B) It had greatly promoted her popularity.
C) It had brought her closer to the ordinary people.
D) It had affected her relations with the British government.

Directions for questions 66 –70: Each of the following sentences has 2


statements followed by 4 conclusions. Mark as appropriate whichever
conclusion follows.
66. Some tops are hats. Some hats are hens.

Conclusion
I. All tops are hens
II. Some hens are tops
III. All hats are tops
IV. Some hens are tops

(A). Only conclusion III follows


(B). Only conclusion IV follows
(C). Both III and IV follow
(D). No conclusions follow
(E). Conclusion I and IV follow

67. Some TV’s are roads. All roads are cots.


Conclusion
I. All cots are roads
II. Some TV’s are cots
III. All TV’s are cots
IV. Some roads are TV’s

(A). Conclusions III and IV follow


(B). Only conclusion I follows
(C). Conclusion I, II and IV follow
(D). Conclusions II and IV follow
(E). Conclusion I and II follow
68. All lions are vertebrates. All vertebrates are thin.Conclusion
I. All lions are thin
II. All thin vertebrates are lions
III. All vertebrates are lions
IV. All lions are tigers

(A). Only Conclusion II follows


(B). Only conclusion I follows
(C). Only Conclusion IV follows
(D). Only Conclusion III follows
(E). Conclusion I and II follow

69. Death means sadness. Sadness is meaningless

Conclusion
I. Death is sad
II. Death is meaningless
III. Anything meaningless is sad
IV. Life is meaningless

(A). Conclusions I and II follow


(B). Conclusion I & III follow
(C). Conclusion I and IV follow
(D). Conclusions II and III follow
(E). Conclusion II and IV follow
70. All mothers love children. All children love sweets

Conclusion
I. All mothers love sweets
II. All children love mothers
III. All children hate mothers
IV. Some children love sweets

(A). Only Conclusion IV follows


(B). Conclusions III &IV follow
(C). Only Conclusion I follows
(D). Conclusions II and I follow
(E). None of the above follow

A gave B and C as many balls as each one of them already had. Then C gave
A and B as many balls as each already had. Now each had an equal number
of balls. The total number of balls is 72.
11. How many balls did B have initially?
1) 6              2) 12            3) 24            4) 36

 12. How many balls did C have initially?


1) 6              2) 12            3) 24            4) 36
13. How many balls did A have initially?
1) 12            2) 24            3) 36            4) 42

 14. How many balls did A part with initially?


1) 12            2) 24            3) 30            4) 32

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