Micro MCQ W Answers

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The text discusses various bacteria, their characteristics, methods for identifying them, and treatments/antibiotics. Key bacteria mentioned include Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Candida species, and more. Common identification methods include microscopy, cultivation, biochemical tests and antigen-antibody reactions.

Some common bacteria discussed include Staphylococcus aureus (gram-positive cocci), Pseudomonas aeruginosa (gram-negative bacillus), Candida species (fungi in the Candida genus except C. difficile), and more. Characteristics like gram staining, antibiotic resistance, role in disease, and more are provided.

Common tests and methods discussed for identifying bacteria include microscopy, cultivation on agar plates, biochemical tests of bacterial metabolism, and antigen-antibody reactions to detect bacterial antigens. Molecular identification methods like PCR are also mentioned.

Purposes of bacteria cultivation are:

A. diagnosis of infectious diseases


B. to test bacteria sensitivity
C. to obtaine vaccines
D. A, B and C are correct
E. B and C are correct

In the empirical treatment of odontogenic maxillary sinusitis we can use:


A. amoxicillin + clavulanic acid
B. cefuroxime and trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole
C. cefuroxime and cothrimoxazole
D. only A and C are correct
E. A, B and C are correct

Normally colonized areas are next:


A. oral mucosa
B. blood
C. nose
D. A and C are correct
E. All from the above

Bacteriophage is:
A. a virus involved in specialized transduction
B. a virus involved in generalized transduction
C. a virus involved in transformation
D. a virus involved in conjunction
E. A and B are correct

Bacteriophage is:
A. an enzyme
B. a virus involved in transformation
C. a virus involved in transduction
D. a protein with special functions
E. a subviral particules such as virusoids

Next species belong to Candida genus, except one:


A. C. albicans
B. C. tropicalis
C. C. difficile
D. C. glabrata
E. C. krusei
Next species belong to Candida genus, except one:
A. albicans
B. krusei
C. aureus
D. tropicalis
E. lusitanae

Regarding piocianic bacillus next statement are true:


A. is producing frequently nosocomial infections
B. it is naturally resistant to many antimicrobial substances
C. produce pigments – green or blue, diffusible in media
D. is non-fastidious
E. it is a gram-negative bacillus, spore forming

Regarding piocianic bacillus next statements are true, except one:


A. is producing frequent nosocomial infections
B. it is naturally resistant to many antimicrobial substances
C. it is one gram positive bacilli spore forming
D. produce pigments - green or blue, diffusible in media
E. is non-fastidious

Next statements about Staphylococcus aureus are true:


A. are Gram-positive cocci, arranged in clusters
B. are Gram-negative cocci, arranged in clusters
C. has kept natural sensitivity to penicillin
D. are very fastidious bacteria
E. B and C are correct

The next are risk factors of caries:


A. attachment on the dental surface of acidogenic bacteria
B. alcohol consumption
C. producing of soluble polisacharides which can be removed by saliva
D. survival of increased level of pH
E. none from the above

According with Socransky’s postulates, next bacteria reach conditions to be periodontal


pathogens, except one:
A. Porphyromonas gingivalis
B. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
C. Tanerella forsythia
D. Prevotella intermediafunigrecens
E. Streptococcus oralis
One specimen is not useful for the direct microscopic examination:
A. sputum for lung infection (acute lobar pneumonia)
B. urethral pus
C. throat swab for streptococcal tonsillofaryngitis
D. leg abscess
E. none from the above

In cariogenesis, first bacteria that colonise surfaces are:


A. S.oralis
B. S.mitis
C. S.sanguinis
D. A and C are correct
E. A, B and C correct

For identification of one bacteria strain we use next methods, in this order:
A. cultivation, microscopy, biochemical tests, antigen-antibody reaction
B. microscopy, biochemical tests, cultivation, antigen-antibody reaction
C. microscopy, cultivation, biochemical tests, antigen-antibody reaction
D. biochemical tests, cultivation, microscopy, antigen-antibody reaction
E. none from the above

Next statements are true regarding Prevotella intermedia, except one:


A. is a obligate anaerobic bacteria
B. is strongly associated with periodontal disease
C. it is a fastidious bacteria
D. is a Gram negative coccobacillus
E. is a facultative anaerobic bacteria

Next statement are true regarding Prevotella intermedia, except one:


A. is an anaerobic bacteria
B. grow fast in culture media
C. for cultivation need hemine and K vitamin
D. is a gram negative coccobacillus
E. is moderate associated with periodontal disease

Clostridium botulinum produces:


A. food poisoning
B. pharyngitis
C. meningitis
D. acute lobar pneumonia
E. periodontal disease
One alpha-hemolytic streptococci isolated from the sputum of one patient with acute lobar
pneumonia, can be identified by:
A. free coagulase
B. sensitivity test to optochin
C. bond coagulase
D. sensitivity test to bacitracin and cotrimoxazol
E. increased production

Regarding Streptococcus pneumoniae next statements are true:


A. it is a gram positive diplococci
B. it is a gram negative diplococci
C. is a fastidious bacteria which grows on blood agar
D. A and C are correct
E. A, B and C are correct

In Ludwig angina the ethiological agents are:


A. Porphyromonas gingivalis
B. Prevotella melaninogenica
C. Propionibacterium acnes
D. Only A and B are correct
E. none from above

Special cell wall structures of mycobacteria explaine next characteristics:


A. these bacteria are acid fast
B. they survive and multiply in fagolizosomes
C. they are more resistant to antiseptics and desinfectants than other bacteria
D. A, B and C are correct
E. A and C are correct

Special cell wall structures of mycobacteria explain next characteristics, except one:
A. these bacteria are acid fast
B. they survive and multiply in fagolizomes
C. they are sensitive to penicillins
D. they are resistant when we treat sputum with alkaline solution
E. they are more resistant to antiseptics and disinfectants than other bacteria

Special prokaryotic microrganisms are:


A. rickettsia, chlamydia, mycoplasma, spirochetes
B. mycobacterium, ricketsia, chlamydia, spirochetes, fungi, protozoa
C. mycobacterium, ricketsia, fungi
D. viruses
E. fungi, protozoa
One from next statements regarding confirmation tests is true:
A. WB is a confirmatory test for HIV infection
B. are used after obtaining negative screening result
C. are characterized by high sensitivity and low specificity
D. are characterized by low sensitivity and low specificity
E. are used for testing large population of patients

Laboratory diagnosis in oral candidiasis requires, with one exception:


A. harvesting of the lesion
B. species identification based on cultural and biochemical characters
C. isolation on culture media for highly nutritionally demanding bacteria
D. testing antifungals sensitivity
E. Saboraud is a culture media of choice for the isolation of etiological agent

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans presents next characteristics, except one:


A. is a member of HACEK group
B. is capnophilic
C. is a Gram positive cocobacillus, facultative anaerobe
D. on enrichment culture media growth in 2-3 days as.. stellate” colonies
E. has a complex pathogenicity equipment

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans presents next characteristics, except one:


A. Belong to Socransky's red group,
B. is capnohilic,
C. is a Gram positive cocobacillus facultative anaerobe,
D. leaving in the dental biofilm,
E. Is the etiological agent of aggressive periodontitis

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans presents next characteristics, except one:


A. is a member of HACEK group
B. on enriched culture media growth in 2-3 days as ,,stellate” colonies
C. has a complex pathogenicity equipment
D. reach condition to be a periodontal pathogen
E. is strict anaerobic

On medium with corn extract the genus …………… yeasts will grow submerged forming
pseudohyphae with blastoconidia and chlamydoconidia:
A. Actinomyces
B. Clostridium
C. Edwarsiella
D. Candida
E. Citrobacter
Effectors of unspecific immunity are next, except one:
A. mechanical barriers (intact skin and mucosa – connective tissue)
B. chemical barrier (IgM and IgG)
C. chemical barrier (IFN, complement system, C reactive protein – CRP)
D. cellular barrier (inflammatory cells – granulocytes, reticuloendothelial system)
E. normal flora

Effectors of unspecific immunity are next, except one:


A. mechanical barriers (intact skin and mucosa - connective tissue)
B. chemical barrier (IFN, complement system, C reactive protein - CRP)
C. chemical barrier (IgA)
D. cellular barrier (inflammatory cells - granulocytes, reticuloendothelial system)
E. normal flora

Auxotroph bacteria is:


A. one that need low CO2 concentration
B. one that need anaerobic athmosphere for incubation
C. one that need antibiotics (bacteriocines)
D. one that need for its multiplication growth factors
E. none from the above

About Staphylococcus aureus we can say:


A. is a fastidious bacterium
B. is naturally resistant to Penicillin
C. is a catalase and coagulase positive
D. carriage is very small or medical staff
E. doesn’t exist healthy carriers of Staphylococcus aureus

One antibiotic belongs to beta-lactams:


A. streptomycin
B. eritromycin
C. nystatin
D. ampicillin
E. colistin

Blood agar is an example of:


A. selective culture media
B. only differential culture media
C. enrichment culture media
D. non-selective, differential and enriched culture media
E. selective and differential culture media
Pathogenic microorganisms can harm directly the host by:
A. hypersensitivity reactions
B. stimulate synthesis of self antibodies
C. exotoxins and endotoxins activities
D. A, B and C are correct
E. none from the above

Next method can kill bacterial spores:


A. Washing with water and detergent
B. Imersion in glutaraldehyda
C. Ultrasounds
D. Disinfections agents with low level of efficiency
E. Autoclaving at 100 degrees for 10 minutes

Which of the following antibiotic classes has the lowest toxicity?


A. polymyxin
B. penicillins
C. streptomycine
D. macrolides
E. gentamycine

Tanerella forsythia is:


A. facultative anaerobic bacillus
B. Gram negative, capnofilic bacillus
C. rapid growing bacteria
D. obligate anaerobic bacillus
E. moderate associated with periodontal disease

For the treatment of candidiasis we can use:


A. nystatin
B. fluconazole
C. itraconazole
D. ketocomazol
E. all from the above

In dental plaque evolution, the acquired film:


A. it is one cellular structure which prevent tissues dehydration
B. it is formed through absorption of neuraminidase on the surfaces washed by saliva
C. it is second step in forming dental biofilm
D. its forming it is initiated by gram negative, anaerobic bacilli from oral cavity
E.it is too thin, so can not represent the substrate for bacterial adhesion
Recent studies have shown that severe forms of periapical abcesses are frequently caused by:
A. Porphymonas endodontalis
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Prevotella oralis
D. Prevotella intermedia
E. only A and B are correct

Next species are obligate anaerobic bacteria, except one:


A. Prevotella intermedia
B. Eikenella corrodens
C. Porphyromonas endodontalis
D. Fusobacterium nucleatum
E. Propionibacterium acnes

Regarding Streptococcus pyogenes next statement is true:


A. it is kept natural sensitivity to macrolides
B. if is resistant to oxacillin, you must give to patient vancomycin
C. is an alpha-streptococci
D. it is kept natural sensitivity to penicillin
E. none from above

The next acute specific infection produced by Streptococcus pyogenes:


A. erythematous angina
B. erysipelas
C. acute rheumatic fever
D. bacteremia
E. impetigo

Biological control of sterilization to the hot air oven can be done with:
A. Bacillus anthracis spores
B. Clostridium tetani spores
C. Bacillus stearothermophillus
D. Bacillus cereus
E. Bacillus subtilis spores

Regarding flagella we can say next, except one:


A. disposition can be peritrichous
B. are involved in motility
C. are involved in attachment
D. disposition can be lofotrichous
E. disposition can be monotrichous
Next statements about bacteria that can reach blood by different ways are true, except one:
A. surgery
B. tooth extraction
C. severe dental brash
D. traumatisms of paradontium
E. none from the above

Regarding acidophilic bacteria it can be said:


A. they are bacteria which can live at low pH value (<5)
B. they are bacteria which produce high quantity of acids by proteins putrefaction
C. they are bacteria which are growing optimum at one pH more than 5
D. lactobacilli are not acidophilic bacteria
E. streptococci are the most acidophylic species from dental caries

First line tuberculostatics are next, except one:


A. isoniazid
B. cotrimoxazol
C. pyrazinamide
D. ethambutol
E. streptomacyine

Next species are strong associated with periodontal disease, except one:
A. Fusobacterium nucleatum
B. Treponema denticola (alla e rätt men..)
C. Prevotella intermedia
D. Campylobacter rectus
E. Eikenella corrodens

Next bacteria are strongly associated with parodontal diseases, except one:
A. Fusobacterium nucleatum
B. Porphyromonas gingivalis
C. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
D. Treponema denticola (alla e rätt men..)
E. Tannerella forsythia

One of the next genera belong to Enterobacteriaceae family:


A. Pseudomonas
B. Shigella
C. Aggregatibacter
D. Bacillus
E. Clostridium
Which of the next statements regarding tetanus is true?
A. the transmission is digestive route
B. tetanus toxine kills the neurons
C. immunization is possible through tetanous antitoxin and must be done as preventive method
for patients with deep wounds, contaminated with dust
D. is produce by an aerobic bacteria
E. the species name of the bacteria that produce tetanus is Corynebacterium tetani

One gram positive cocci isolated from blood of one patient with septicemia, can be identified as
Staphylococcus aureus by next tests:
A. catalase negative and coagulase pozitiv
B. catalase negative, coagules negative and biochemical tests
C. catalase positive, coagulase pozitiv
D. catalase positive, coagulase negative and biochemical tests
E. catalase positive, coagulase negative

About Streptococcus pyogenes we can say:


A. is a beta-hemolytic streptococcus
B. is an alfa-hemolytic streptococcus
C. is a gram-negative cocus
D. is a streptococcus resistant to Penicillin
E. is an obligate anaerobic bacterium

Erysipelas is caused by:


A. S.pneumoniae
B. S.pyogenes
C. S.agalactiae
D. S.mutans
E. S.oralis

In the etiology of alveolar abcesses next facultative bacteria can be isolated, except one:
A. spirochetes
B. alfa-hemolytic streptococci
C. beta-hemolitic streptococci
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. Staphylococcus aureus

Regarding obligate-anaerobic gram-negative cocci, we can say:


A. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius belongs to this group of bacteria
B. Finegoldia magna belongs to this group of bacteria
C. Parvimonas micra belongs to this group of bacteria
D. they growth quikly and are beta-haemolytic
E. they are the etiologic agents of dental alveolar infections
Regarding Treponema pallidum next statements are true, except one:
A. can be cultivate in special culture media (CLED)
B. belong to spirochetes
C. is the etiologic agent of syphilis
D. is very fragile
E. present some antigens in common with other animals tissues (ex. Cardiolipin)

In acute hepatitis with HBV next markers are positive to serum, except one:
A. HBsAg
B. Ab anti –HBc IgM
C. total Ab anti –HbcAg
D. HBcAg
E. HbeAg

Disbiosis are:
A. abnormal colonizations of the skin or mucous membranes surfaces
B. mechanism of resistence of antibiotics
C. abnormal bacterial populations
D. hydrolytic bacterial enzymes
E. fungal diseases

Next causes can lead to disbiosis, except one:


A. antigenic variation of bacteria
B. altering antimicrobial barriers
C. changing in houses conditions
D. changing of epithelial cells receptors
E. large broad spectrum antibiotics with oral administration

Next causes can lead to disbiosis, except one:


A. altering antimicrobial barriers
B. changing in host condition
C. changing of epithelial cells receptors
D. large broad spectrum antibiotics, with oral administration
E. antigenic variation of bacteria

Viridans streptococci group involved in cariogenesis is:


A. salivarus
B. anginosus
C. mitis
D. mutans
E. none from the above
The next bacteria are acidogenic:
A. Streptococcus mutans
B. Lactobacillus casei
C. Actinomyces naeslundii
D. A, B and C are correct
E. A and B are correct

Regarding oral streptococci as oral normal flora, we can say next, except one:
A. mutans leaving in tooth surface
B. anginous leaving on tongue surfaces
C. salivarious leaving on the back of the tounge and saliva
D. mitis leaving in dental plaque
E. mitis leaving on tongue and jugal mucosa

Which of the next bacteria is the etiologic agent of pseudomembranous tonsillopharyngitis?


A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Corynebacterium diphtariae
D. influenza virus
E. Shigella dysenteriae

In diagnosis of HIV infection we can use next specific markers, except one:
A. RNA/HIV by RT-PCR (qualitative)
B. total anti-HIV Abs (ELISA)
C. CD4 count cells
D. p24 Ag by (ELISA)
E. RNA/HIV by RT-PCR (quantitative – viral load)

A primary pathogenic bacteria can be define as follows:


A. determines infections only in individuals with primay antimicrobial barrier affected
B. determines infection just in favorable conditions
C. doesn’t cause infection in humans
D. determines infections in individuals with normal antimicrobial defence
E. is primary bacteria which infect humans

Next species belong to Actinomyces genus:


A. Actinomyces israelii
B. Actinomyces naeslundii
C. Actinomyces lugdumensis
D. A, B and C are correct
E. A and B are correct
The next species of coagulase-negative staphylococci are involved in human pathology, except
one:
A. S.saprophyticus
B. S.haemolyticus
C. S.pyogenes
D. S.lugdumensis
E. S.epidermidis

The next species of coagulase negative staphylococci are involved in human pathology, except
one:
A. S.saprophyticus
B. S.agalactiae
C. S.haemolyticus
D. S.lugdumensis
E. S.epidermidis

Impetigo is:
A. a superficial skin infection
B. a mucosa infection in oral cavity
C. an invasive infection
D. A and C are correct
E. none from above

In periodontal disease the severity is assed by:


A. periodontal pocket depth
B. gingival attachment loss appreciated clinical attachment level
C. pain
D. A, B and C are correct
E. A and B are correct

About oral streptococci we can say next, with one exception:


A. normally colonize oral mucous
B. are involved in producing periodontal disease
C. are involved in producing carious disease
D. are naturally senzitive to Penicillin
E. are fragile and fastidious bacteria

Bacteria from subgingival dental biofilm that belong to red group are:
A. Porphyromonas gingivalis
B. Tanerella forsythia
C. Treponema denticola
D. only A and B are correct
E. A, B and C are correct
Treatment of necrotizing fasciitis can be done by next, except one:
A. bactericidal antibiotics
B. tetracyclines
C. penicillin (high doses) + metronidazole
D. 3rd gen cephalosporins + metronidazole
E. surgery

Regarding vaccines:
A. specificity is high
B. toxicity is low
C. duration of the effect is usually long
D. all from the above are true
E. non of the above is true

Aminoglycosides in association with penicillin or vancomycin have synergistic activation against:


A. Enterococcus faecalis
B. Enterococccus faecium
C. viridans streptococci
D. all from the above
E. none from the above

Aminoglycozides can be useful in the treatment of infections determined by:


A. rickettsia
B. staphylococci
C. anaerobic bacteria
D. Ureaplasma urealyticum
E. none from the above

Periodically contaminated areas of human body, but with no colonization or colonize abortive
are next:
A. stomach
B. duodenum
C. jejunum
D. all from the above
E. A and C are correct

Regarding exotoxins we can say, except one:


A. there are proteic toxine
B. they are heat labile
C. they a the strongest poisoning
D. lethal dose is count in ng/kg body
E. they have unspecific activity
Next statements are true regarding Prevotella intermedia, except one:
A. is an anaerobic bacteria
B. grow fast in culture media
C. for cultivation need hemine and K vitamin
D. is a Gram negative coccobacillus
E. is moderate associated with periodontal disease

In analytical classification of bacteria:


A. for family we use the suffix: aceae
B. order, sufix: ales
C. genus, sufix: aceae
D. genus, sufix: ales
E. species, sufix: ales

Infective mononucleosis is produce by:


A. influenza virus
B. hepatic B virus
C. Epstein Barr virus
D. hepatic C virus
E. Listeria monocytogenes

Anatoxins are:
A. antibodies
B. against toxins anomalies
C. exotoxines
D. endotoxines
E. lipoproteins

Preventative methods can be:


A. unspecific
B. specific by specific area (passive immunization)
C. specific by vaccination (active immunization)
D. all from the above
E. only A and B are true

In subgingival biofilm accumulation the inflammatory products can lead to:


A. crevicular fluid flow decreased
B. altering local nutritional status
C. over growth of zacharolytical bacteria
D. pH value decrease
E. increase the redox potential
Modalities of genetic transfer can be next, except one:
A. transduction
B. transformation
C. inversion
D. specialized transduction
E. conjunction

Autoclave sterilization is done using:


A. steam
B. hot air
C. steam under pressure
D. dry heat
E. none of the above

Streptococcus mutans has the ability to metabolize sucrose on different ways, except:
A. is producing glucans under the glucozil-transferaze action
B. is producing intracellular polysaccharides similar to glycogen
C. the intracellular carbohidrates are further released in external medium
D. fermentation of carbohidrates intracellular to produce lactic acid
E. produce extracellular polisacharides which form the matrix of the plaque

Regarding Staphylococcus aures the next statement are true, except one:
A. it is one gram positive cocci arranged mainly in clusters
B. the majority of strains are coagulase negative
C. they are facultative bacteria
D. they are catalase positive
E. they are forming most frequently yellow-orange colonies.

Next species belong to Mycobacterium genus:


A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium avium
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. all from the above
E. only A and B are correct

Regarding the LPS of Gram negative bacteria cell wall, the next statements are true, except one:
A. the polysaccharide rich core is antigen R of Gram-negative bacteria
B. it contains lipid portion (lipid A)
C. the lipid portion is heat-labile and responsible for the biologic effects of emendation
D. it contains polysaccharide side chain
E. it contains a polysaccharide rich core
Next species belong to Candida genus, except one:
A. C. albicans
B. C. tropicalis
C. C. difficile
D. C. glabrata
E. C. krusei

What parameters are indicated for autoclave’s sterilization?


A. 100°C time - 60 min.
B. 152°C time - 15 min.
C. 180°C time - 10 min.
D. 121°C time - 30 min
E. 180°C time - 60 min

Patogenic bacteria produce lesions through:


A. toxins
B. complement activation, in special conditions
C. reaction with omologous antibodies, in special condition
D. all from the above are correct
E. only A and B are correct

Beta lactam antibiotics are next, with one exception:


A. Aztreonam;
B. Cephalosporins;
C. Glycopeptides;
D. Carbapenems;
E. Aminopenicillins;

The microbes from latent infections, or “dormant microbes”:


A. are not susceptible to antimicrobial drugs;
B. can’t be detected by direct methods;
C. stimulate the host’s immunity (immunity disappears after the microbiological cure of the
infection);
D. A, B and C are true;
E. only A and C are true.

Regarding piocianic bacillus next statements are true, except one:


A. is producing frequent nosocomial infections
B. it is naturally resistant to many antimicrobial substances
C. it is one gram positive bacilli spore forming
D. produce pigments – green or blue, diffusible in media
E. is non-fastidious
Skin exposure to a patient’s blood having a HIV infection supposed:
A. administration of a vaccine against viral hepatitis
B. administration of a vaccine against HIV
C. administration of a vaccine against HCV
D. to administrate specific immune sera
E. administrations of antiretrovirals

Regarding conjuction, we can say, except one:


A. two bacteria are involved
B. capacity of bacteria as donor one, is only chromosomal encoded
C. capacity of bacteria as donor one, is plasmid encoded too
D. one conjugative plasmid support their transfer and the transfer of nonconjugative plasmids
E. conjunction can transfer antibiotics resistance or virulence genes

Serotherapy means:
A. to use antibodies prepare by other host
B. these antibodies act immediately
C. they survive for short period of time
D. homologous antibodies remains for 3 weeks, longer than heterologous antibodies;
E. all from the above are true

Oropharynx normal flora is dominated by:


A. aerobic gram negative fermentative bacilli
B. aerobic gram negative non fermentative bacilli
C. oral streptococci
D. treponemes
E. yeasts

Next bacteria genus, from normal oral flora, except one are important to inhibit the growth of
S. mutans and other oral streptococci because they produce bacteriocins –like substance (BLIS):
A. Staphylococcus
B. Escherichia
C. Streptococcus
D. Enterococcus
E. Lactobacillus

More accurately for identification of S. aureus is:


A. hemolysine
B. coagulase
C. beta – lactamase
D. lipoproteins
E. A lipid
Plasmids are:
A. a special structure of Gram positive bacteria, similar with periplasmic space from Gram
negative:
B. an extrachromosomal ring of DNA
C. present only in Gram negative bacteria
D. all from the above
E. none from the above

Viridans streptococci belong to next filogenetic group:


A. salivarius
B. anginosus
C. mutans
D. mitis
E. acidophilus

Next bacteria are moderate associated with periodontal disease:


A. Eikenella corrodens
B. Prevotella intermedia
C. Fusobacterium nucleatum
D. Campylobacter rectus
E. Veillonella parvula

Next bacteria are moderate associated with parodontal diseases, except one:
A. Streptococcus constellatus
B. Parvimonas micra
C. Actinomyces viscosus
D. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
E. Actinomycetes phylus

For identification of streptococci from mutans group in dental biofilm are necessary:
A. decimal dilution of sample
B. utilization on enriched and selective culture media
C. utilization of Dentocult SM system
D. only A and B are correct
E. all from above are correct

Which of the next genera include gram negative bacilli or coco-bacilli?


A. Klebsiella
B. Proteus
C. Escherichia
D. Haemophillus
E. all from above
Regarding ribosomes of bacteria, next statement are true, except one:
A. are slightly smaller than those of eukaryotic cells;
B. they have a sedimentation constans of 70S (Svedberg units);
C. tey are organist for energy synthese
D. being composed of a 30S subunit (1 RNA molecule and 21 proteins) and a 50S subdued
molecules and 34 proteins).
E. 30S and 50S subunit can be target for antibiotics

Regarding ribosomes of bacteria, next statement are true, except one:


A. are slightly smaller than those of eukaryotic cells;
B. they have a sedimentation constans of 70S (Svedberg units);
C. being composed of 30S subunit (1RNA molecule and 21 proteins and a 50S subdued RNA
molecuels and 44 proteins);
D. being composed of 30S subunit (1RNA molecules and 21 proteins and a 50S subdued RNA
molecules and 34 proteins);
E. 30S and 50S subunit can be target for antibiotics

Characteristic for actinomycosis are next, except one:


A. Is a chronic granulomatous infection
B. the most frequent localization is oro-maxillo-facial region
C. typical lesion presents many fistulas
D. vancomycin is the elective antibiotic
E. beta-lactam are elective antibiotics

Episomes are:
A. a special virus that are involved in transduction
B. enzymes
C. plasmids that can intergrate themselves into the chromosomal DNA of the basic organism
D. only A and B are correct
E. none from the above is correct

In normal flora, areas with transient contamination, but non-colonized are next, except one:
A. para-nasal sinuses
B. medium ear
C. sub-glottis inferior respiratory tract
D. distal urethra
E. internal genital organs

Microbiological condition of closed root canal is:


A. normal sterile
B. contaminated with normal flora
C. colonization with normal flora
D. temporary contamination
E. colonization with exogenous bacteria
What bacteria can be transmitted through contaminated food?
A. Salmonella
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Bacillus cereus
D. A and C are correct
E. A, B and C are correct

Next parodontal patogens belong to anaerobes group, except one:


A. Enterococcus corrodens
B. Prevotella intermedia
C. Fusobacterium nucleatum
D. Treponema denticola
E. Tannerella forsythia

In pulpitis, next anaerobic bacteria can be isolated, except one:


A. Peptostreptococcus spp.
B. Peptococcus niger
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Eubacterium spp.
E. Actinomyces naeslundii

Non-cultivable bacteria, acid fast, are:


A. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Mycobacterium bovis
C. Helicobacter pylori
D. Leptospira
E. Chlamydia

The biological control for dry heat sterilization:


A. Baciullus anthracis;
B. Spores of Bacillus geostearothermophius;
C. Bacillus cereus;
D. spores of Bacillus subtilis;
E. diptheric bacillus

Regarding mycoplasmes, next statements are true, except one:


A. they have no cell wall
B. they are natural sensitive to penicilline
C. they growth slowly
D. their shape is variable
E. Mycoplasma pneumoniae belong to primary pathogenic bacteria
Sources of recontamination of radicular canaliclues are:
A. dental plaque;
B. contamination of endodontic instruments;
C. contamination of irrigation solutions;
D. diffusion through the temporary filling material;
E. all from the above

Taxonomic primary characteristics can be only:


A. glicocalix
B. cytoplasmic inclusions
C. pilli
D. sex pilli
E. capsule

Tetracyclines are broad-spectrum antibacterials, avtive on:


A. spirochetes
B. mycoplasmas
C. chlamydia
D. rickettsia
E. all from the above

Next cells constitients support adhesion of parodontal patogens to subgingival biofilms, except
one:
A. vezicules from external membrane
B. pilli
C. pilli type Flpl
D. OMPI from outer membrane
E. EmaA attachemnet proteine

Regarding anaerobic gram negative cocci, we can say:


A. Peptostreptococcus anaereobius belongs to this group of bacteria
B. Finegoldia magna belongs to this group of bacteria
C. Parvimonas micra belongs to this group of bacteria
D. they growth quikly and are beta-haemolytic
E. they are the etiologic agents of dental alveolar infections

Next bacteria are motile, except one:


A. Escherichia coli
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Treponema pallidum
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Next bacteria are motile, except one:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Treponema pallidum

Boil:
A. is a streptococcal infection
B. the treatment is only surgical
C. treatment need compulsory extended spectrum antibiotics
D. frequently is noted in diabetic and immunossupressed patients
E. the etiological agent can be only coagulase negative staphylococci

In the subgingival biofilm of one patient with aggresive parodontitis 3 species were identified:
Poryphyromonas gingivalis, Tannerella forsythia and Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans;
in this case the best antibiotics treatment is:
A. amoxicillin + metronidazol
B. clindamycin
C. vancomycin
D. metronidazol
E. tetracyclins

Gas gangrene is produced by anaerobic bacteria:


A. Clostridium septicum
B. C. perfringens
C. C. diphteriae
D. All from above
E. only A and B are correct

Next bacteria belong in HACEK group, except one:


A. Haemophillus influenzae
B. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
C. Aggregatibacter aprophillus
D. Cardiobacterium hominis
E. Eikenella corrodens

Regarding dental plaque one statement from next is true:


A. consists mainly in anaerobic bacteria
B. consists mainly in facultative bacteria
C. frequently in gingival sulcus are present periodontal pathogens and cariogenic bacteria
D. dangerous plaque is connected by strong adhesion to epithelium
E. is gingival sulcus mainly anaerobes are present
Which of the next genera belong to Enterobacteriaceae family and are primary pathogenic
bacteria and lactose negative ?
A. Escherichia
B. Prevotella
C. Shigella
D. Klebsiella
E. Tannerella
When the early detectable reaction of the host is the immune response, the process is called:
A. sublinical infection;
B. invasion;
C. colonization;
D. latent infection;
E. chronic infection;

Regarding diagnosis for identification of periodontal pathogens, next statements are true,
except one:
A. there are laborious and expensive methods
B. it is not necessary to identify parodontal patogens
C. microscopical examination is indicative only
D. cultivation is useful for bacteria that can be cultivated in vitro in order to isolare pure culture
E. identification of bacteria as species can be done by biochemical or biological molecular
characteristic

OMP of Gram negative bacteria means:


A. Outer micolic proteins
B. Over membrane proteins
C. Outer membrane proteins
D. Oligo mers proteins
E. Oligonucleotides murein proteins

Peptoglycan polymers consist of repeating dissacharides formed by:


A. N-acetyl-glycilamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)
B. N-acetyl-glucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)
C. N-acetyl-glucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylneuraminic acid (NAM)
D. N-acetyl-glycilamine (NAG) and N-acetylneuramicacid (NAM)
E. N-acetyl-glucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylneuraminidase acid (NAM)

Phenotypic characters codified by plasmids are next, except one:


A. resistance to antibacterial agents;
B. enzymes involved in particular metabolic pathways;
C. virulence factors (fimbriae, capsule, cytotoxines, etc);
D. synthesis of antibacterial factors (bacterilyzines)
E. cryptic plasmids
Next bacteria are facultative intracellular except one:
A. Salmonella
B. Shigella
C. Staphylococcus
D. Yersinia
E. Mycobacterium

Pathogenic bacteria produce lesions through:


A. toxins
B. complement activation, in special conditions
C. reaction with homoglous antibodies, in special condition
D. all from the above are correct
E. only A and B are correct

Regarding the comparison between chemotherapy and vaccination next statements are true,
except one:
A. specificity is highest for vaccination
B. toxicity is usually low for vaccination
C. toxicity is usually high for vaccination
D. duration of effect is short for chemotherapy and usually long for vacination
E. duration of treatment may be prolonged for chemotherapy and usually short for vaccination
that may need boosting.

Regarding natural penicillins next statement are true, except one:


A. are narrow spectrum antibiotics that are primarily active against gram-positive bacteria;
B. for enterococci have only inhibitory effect;
C. are active against Gram-negative cocci;
D. are active against Treponema pallidum;
E. are active against most anaerobes (including Bacillus anthracis)

A microorganism that causes infection when antimicrobial barriers dysfunction occur of the:
A. commenssal
B. parazit
C. oppurinist
D. saprophyt
E. mutualist

Salmonella Typhi is etiological agent of:


A. urinary tract infections
B. enteric fever
C. dysenteria
D. exantematic typhus
E. diptheria
H. influenzae can be cultivated on:
A. sheep blood agar with salts
B. Mac Conkey agar
C. chocolate agar
D. lizine agar
E. all from above.

Next species belong to mutans group, except one:


A. Streptococcus mitis
B. Streptococcus cricetus
C. Streptococcus sobrinus
D. Streptococcus rattus
E. Streptococcus mutans

Mutans group streptococci have cariogenic roll through next, except one:
A. have a short generation time
B. they are acidogenic
C. they are aciduric
D. extracellular carbohydrates can be stored for later use as a source of carbon or energy
E. produce extracellular polysaccharides from sucrose which facilitate colonization of enamel

The next species of streptococci can be alpha hemolytic, except one:


A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Streptococcus mitis
D. Streptococcus oralis
E. Streptococcus sanguinis

Currently accepted theory of the etiology of dental caries is:


A. germ theory
B. chemoparasitary theory
C. film - host - substrate theory
D. worms theory
E. theory of acidogenetic bacteria

The next method for parodontal diseases treatment is:


A. mechanical dental treatment
B. mechanical dental treatment, plus local antibiotics, plus antibiotics with systemic
administrations for some patients with high risk
C. systemic or local antibiotics administrations
D. mechanical dental treatment and systemic antibiotic only for some patients
E. mechanical dental treatment and systemic antibiotic for all patients
The highest risk for HIV transmission is correlate with next procedure:
A. endodontic instrumentation
B. tartrum climination
C. tooth extraction
D. whitening procedures
E. parodontal surgery

Next mechanism are involved in avoiding immune system activity, except one:
A. stimulate antibacterial effectors
B. avoiding phagocytosis
C. interrupting presentations of antigens
D. circumvent immune recognition
E. crossing mucosal surfaces

Next statement are true regarding Fusobacterium nucleatum, except one:


A. is an anaerobic bacteria
B. has a typical morphology
C. it is a Gram positive, fusiform shape bacteria
D. grow fast in culture media
E. is strongly associated with parodontal disease

In gingival crevasses of healthy person, predominantly are:


A. streptococci and lactobacilli
B. streptococci, actinomycetes and treponemes
C. actinomycetes and Gram negative cocci
D. streptococci, actinomycetes and anaerobic Gram negative bacilli
E. oral treponemes
Suppurative acute lymphadenitis can has as etiological agents:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. anerobic bacteria
D. mycobacteia
E. A, B and C are correct

Strict anaerobic bacteria are next, except one:


A. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
B. Actinomyces israelii
C. Fusobacterium nucleatum
D. Prevotella melaninogenica
E. Bacteroides fragilis
Regarding Pseudomonas aeruginosa next statements are true, except one:
A. is a resistant bacteria to antibiotics and disinfectants
B. is a Gram negative aerobic bacillus
C. determine nosocomial infections as suppurative lesions
D. is natural sensitive to aminopenicillins
E. smell of culture is charecteristics

Oral treponemes are involved in:


A. syphilis
B. periodontal disease
C. Vincent angina
D. periapical abscesses
E. B, C and D are correct

Diagnosis of dental pulp infections can be done by:


A. clinical examination
B. radiological examination
C. test vitality using thermic stimuli
D. microbiological
E. all from the above

In the treatment of acute lymphadenitis we can use:


A. amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
B. clarythromycin
C. cotrimoxazol
D. A, B and C are correct
E. only A and C are correct

Infection of temporo-mandibular joint can have as etiological agent next anaerobic bacteria,
except one:
A. Fusobacterium nucleatum
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Bacteroides spp
D. Finegoldia magna.
E. Prevotella spp

Enterobacteriaceae:
A. They are anaerobic gram-negative bacilli
B. Natural sensitive bacteria sensitive to penicillin G
C. They are frequently involved in infections of wounds and burns
D. They are nutritionally fastidious bacteria
E. They are carboxyfilic bacteria
Oral and maxillofacial infections, chronic facial territory are, with one exception:
A. Actinomicozys
B. Micetoms
C. Lymph tuberculosis
D. Necrotizing fasciitis
E. Apical granuloma

Nucleic acid inhibitors are:


A. Quinolons and etambutol
B. Quinolons, sulfamides, metronidazol
C. Quinolons, sulfamides, metronidazol, aminoglicozides
D. Sulfamides, metronidazol, aminoglicozides
E. Quinolons, sulfamides, metronidazol, tetraciclins

Oral ecosystem include everything, EXCEPT:


A. Oral flora
B. Lingual mucosa
C. Oral mucosa
D. Plaque
E. Complement system

The most resistant microorganisms in the decontamination agents are:


A. Gram positive bacteria
B. Bacterial spores
C. Enveloped viruses
D. Yeast
E. Nude viruses

Next species belong to Actinomyces genus:


A. Actinomyces israelii
B. Actinomyces odontolyticus
C. Actinomyces naeslundii
D. all from the above
E. only A and C are correct

HBs Ag can be present in next situations, except one:


A. in acute hepatitis
B. in chronic hepatitis
C. in Delta virus infection
D. in patients having anti-HBs Ag
E. in acute and chronic hepatitis and in healthy carriers
HCV can be diagnosed using next tests, except one:
A. ELISA
B. complement fixation test
C. PCR qualitative test
D. PCR quantitative test
E. RIBA

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans presents next characteristics, except one:


A. Belong to Socransky's red group,
B. is capnohilic,
C. is a Gram positive cocobacillus facultative anaerobe,
D. leaving in the dental biofilm,
E. Is the etiological agent of aggressive periodontitis

Diagnosis of lungs TB suppose next steps, except one:


A. sampling of 3 sputum samples in three mornings
B. staining with Ziehl Neelsen stain
C. sputum cultivation on Lowenstein Jensen culture media
D. biochemical identifications
E. all from the above

Next antibiotics belong to aminoglycosides, except one:


A. amikacyne
B. neomycin
C. kanamycin
D. tobramycin
E. vancomycin

Optochin test is useful for identification of:


A. S pyogenes
B. S pneumoniae
C. S mutans
D. S aureus
E. S epidermidis

Bacterial etiological agents for acute pharyngitis (angina) are next, except one:
A. S. anginosus
B. S. pyogenes
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Chamydophila pneumoniae
E. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum

Regarding actinomycetes, next statements are true, except one:


A. they are strict aerobic bacteria
B. they are involved in producing of dental caries
C. A. israelii is etiological agent of cervico-facial actinomychosis
D. they are branched filamentous Gram positive bacteria
E. they are strictly anaerobic or facultative anaerobe

The next bacteria are acidogenic:


A. Streptococcus mutans
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Lactobacillus casei
D. only A and C are correct
E. A, B and C are correct

Porphyromonas gingivalis is:


A. pleomorphic anaerobic Gram positive bacillus
B. Gram negative bacillus, strict anaerobic
C. Gram negative bacillus, capnofilic
D. has no virulent factors
E. is not a fastidous bacteria

Preventive methods can be:


A. unspecific
B. specific by specific sera (passive immunization)
C. specific by vaccination (active immunization)
D. all from the above
E. only A and B are true

Carbapenems are active against the following bacteria:


A. Mycobacterium
B. Escherichia coli
C. Mycoplasma
D. Chlamydia
E. Rickettsia

Oral commensals treponemes are involved in next infections, except one:


A. syphilis
B. parodontal disease
C. vincent angina
D. periapical abcesses
E. perioimplantitis

Regarding Corynebacterium diphtheriae can be affirmed:


A. is producing one toxin wich is inhibit the protein synthesis and produce pseudomembranous
angina
B. produce one enterotoxine wich is a cause of dysentery
C. it is a gram negative
D. it is gram positive spore forming bacteria
E. is producing pseudomembranous colitis after long antibiotic therapy

Which of the next statements regarding tetanos is true?


A. tetanous toxine kills the neurons
B. immunization is possible through tetanous antitoxins and must be done as preventive
method for patients with deep wounds, contaminated with dust
C. the transmission is digestive route
D. is produced by an aerobic bacteria
E. the species name of the bacteria that produce tetanos is Corynebacterium tetani
Determinant factors for cariogenesis process of Streptococcus mutans are next, except one:A. is
the most acidogenic bacteria from normal oral flora
B. present receptors for tooth attachment
C. is the most aciduric bacteria from dental plaque
D. produce extracellular matrix
E. produce mutacins that are involving in colonization

The main immunoglobulines useful to diagnose a congenital infection in new-born are:


A. IgM
B. IgA
C. IgG
D. IgE
E. all from the above, tested in dynamic

Next parodontal patogens belong to red group:


A. Enterococcus corrodens
B. Prevotella intermedia
C. Fusobacterium nucleatum
D. Treponema denticola
E. Streptococcus mutans

Glycopeptides antibiotic are:


A. vancomycine;
B. teichoplanine
C. tetracyclines
D. A and B are correct
E. A, B and C are correct

Sex pillus are involved in:


A. transduction
B. conjunction
C. transformation
D. antigenic drift
E. antigenic shift

Periimplantitis is:
A. inflammation of implant material
B. is produce only by traumatic injuries
C. supportive implant tooth tissue destruction by infective cause
D. an infection in which cells chemotactism is different in comparison with natural tooth
E. A and B are correct

Acute rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis are sequelae of the beta hemolitic
streptococci from group:
A. A
B. B
C. F
D. G
E. D

Next bacteria can be implicated in oral soft tissue infections:


A. Porphyromonas gingivalis
B. Prevotella melaninogenica
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. A, B and C are correct
E. A and B are correct

Structures present in some species and useful as taxonomic characters are next:
A. flagella
B. sex pilus
C. spores
D. A, B and C are correct
E. A and B are correct

MBC means:
A. the highest quantity of antibiotics that kills 99,9% of the tested bacteria
B. the lowest quantity of antibiotic that kills minimum 99,9% of tested bacteria
C. the reciprocal of the highest dilution of antibiotic that inhibits for growth of bacterial strain
D. the lowest quantity of antibiotics that inhibits the growth of bacterial strain
E. the highest quantity that inhibits the growths of a bacterial strain

Treponemes mobility is related to:


A. axial fibrile
B. cilli
C. flagella
D. pseudopods
E. none from the above

Regarding pionner species we can say:


A. there are bacteria species that colonize adults oral mucosa
B. there are first pathogenic species that infect oral mucosa
C. all belong to gram negative bacteria
D. colonization with pioneer species occurs after elimination of anti-infective host defence
E. there are first species that contaminate oral mucosa and than colonize it

Regarding cytoplasmic membrane next statements are true, except one:


A. is a flexible, phospholipid bilayer sheet
B. has hydrophobic tails
C. has hydrophobic heads
D. has hydrophillic heads
E. has tails and heads

Next statement regarding anatoxines are true, except one:


A. they are immunogenic
B. there are endotoxine obtained after they lost their toxicity
C. sinonimum name is toxoids
D. can be used as vaccines
E. they have no side effects

One beta-haemolytic streptococci isolated from the pharynx exudate of one 8 years old child,
can be identified by:
A. sensitiity test to bacitracine and contrimoxazol
B. free coagulase
C. bound coagulase
D. optochin sensitivity
E. lectinase production

Killing time for autoclave at 2 atms is:


A. 25 min;
B. 4 min;
C. 18 min;
D. 60 min;
E. 10 min;

Useful treatment measures in periodontal disease are next, except one:


A. scaling
B. curettage
C. planing
D. alveolar scraping
E. local antiseptics

Microbiological condition of closed root canal is:


A. normal sterile
B. contaminated with normal flora
C. colonization with normal flora
D. temporary contamination
E. colonization with exogenous bacteria

Synonimus name of invasive celullitis is:


A. erythematous angina
B. streptococcal angina
C. Ludwig angina
D. pseudomembranous angina
E. red angina

The best treatment in Ludwig angina can be:


A. penicillin
B. metronidazole
C. A and B are correct
D. tetracyclines
E. none is correct

Adherence of bacteria on surfaces made by next ligands:


A. proteins of the external membrane
B. fimbriae
C. glicocalix
D. A, B and C are correct
E. only A and B are correct

Regarding cariogenic bacteria can be said the next, except:


A. all the important cariogenic bacteria are gram positive
B. all the important cariogenic bacteria are gram negative
C. all cariogenic bacteria are acidogenic
D. all the cariogenic bacteria are aciduric
E. some of the carogenic bacteria does not adhere on the dental enamel

Bacteria can reach blood after:


A. surgery
B. tooth extraction
C. severe dental brash
D. traumatisms of paradontium
E. any from the above

Nucleus of bacteria appears as a simple, homogenous body, containing a single chromosome,


not processing next structures, except one:
A. a nuclear membrane separating it from the cytoplasm
B. an operon
C. a nucleolus
D. a spindle
E. a number of separate non-identical chromosomes

Aztreonam belong to:


A. carbapenemes;
B. macrolides;
C. glycopeptides;
D. monobactam;
E. cephalosporines

Opportunists are commensals or symbionts that become pathogenic when:


A. the anti-microbial resistance of the host decreases
B. they gain enough virulence factors through gene transfer mechanisms
C. when A and B conditions act together
D. the anti-microbial resistance of the host increase
E. A, B and C are correct

The most cariogenic foods are:


A. with polysaccharides in high level
B. sweet liquids
C. sweet solid food
D. sweet food, sticky, adhering to tooth
E. food that are eating between meals

The Snyder test is:


A. allow asseing only of acidogenic bacteria from saliva
B. a test for quantitative assesing of streptococci from mutans group and of lactobacilli
C. one test that belong to molecular biology methods
D. require non-selective media for lactobacilli and streptococci
E. it is very difficult to interpreted

Regarding transduction, next statements are true, except one:


A. can be generealized and specialized
B. it is a type of genetic transfer
C. specialized transduction results from lysogenization of the donor bacterium
D. in generalized transduction a random fragment is transfered
E. when a generalized transducing phage infects a recipient cell, expression of the transferred
donor genes occurs

Genetic methods that we use in laboratory are useful for:


A. microbial taxonomy
B. rapid identification of microorganisms
C. sequence analysis can detect antibiotics and vicuence genes
D. all from the above
E. only A and B are correct
Next anaerobic bacteria are etiological agents of apical parodontitis (dentoalveolar abscess)
except one:
A. Prevotella intermedia
B. Prevotella denticola
C. Eikenella corrodens
D. Porphyromonas endodontalis
E. Porphyromonas gingivalis

Antitoxines are:
A. anatoxxines
B. exotoxines
C. endotoxines
D. lipoprotein
E. antibodies

Next statement regarding anaerobic bacteria involved in endodontic infections, except one:
A. they are proteolytic bacteria
B. they are non fastidious and growth slowly
C. produce toxines that attack the host's structures
D. their microscopic identification is rapid
E. the best antibiotic for treatment is metronidazole

Antibacterial spectrum of biosynthesis penicillins includes next bacteria, with one exception:
A. gram positive cocci
B. gram negative cocci
C. gram negative bacilli
D. gram positive bacilli
E. spirochetes

In subgingival biofilm accumulation the inflammatory products answer leads to:


A. crevicular fluid flow decreased
B. altering local nutritional status
C. over growth of zacharolytical bacteria
D. pH value decrease
E. increase the redox potential
The highly transmissible ones are called:
A. continuis diseases
B. confluent diseases
C. congenital diseases
D. contagious diseases (ex. measles)
E. common diseases

Possible oro-maxillo-facial infections are next, except one:


A. actinomycosis
B. subacute endocarditis
C. histoplasmozis
D. lymph node tuberculosis
E. siphylitic goma

Regarding lactobacillus genus, next statement is true:


A. they are Gram-negative pleomorphic bacilli
B. Lactobacillus gingivalis belong to this genus
C. they are periodontal pathogens
D. they leave in small number on tooth surfaces
E. they are etiological agents of dental caries

Comensalism's definition:
A. fortuitous association: the host transports an organism from one place to another
B. only hostage and nutrients offered by the host
C. reciprocal benefit (nutrition, protection) of the partners
D. A and C are correct
E. None from the above are correct

Next bacteria are slow growing, except one:


A. Streptococcus mutans
B. Prevotella intermedia
C. Prevotella melaninogenica
D. Porphyromonas gingivalis
E. Actinomyces israelii

Bacteria with clinical significance, responsible for invasive cellulitis (Ludwig angina) are next:
A. Prevotella melaninogenica
B. Porphyromonas gingivalis
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. only A and B are correct
Functions of cytoplasmic membrane of prokariotic cells are next:
A. somotic or permeability barrier (separate "outside" from "inside")
B. location of transport systems for specific solutes (nutrients and ions)
C. mesosomes are thought to be involved in the mechanisms responsible for the
compartmenting of RNAm at cell division
D. energy synthese
E. all from the above

In the treatment of maxillar sinusitis we can use:


A. amoxicillin + clavulanic acid
B. aminoglicoside
C. cefuruxim
D. A, B and C are correct
E. only A and C are correct

The function of bacteria capsule is next:


A. increase the access of antibiotics in cytoplasm
B. support bacteria attachment to nuclear membrane
C. determine the shape of the bacteria
D. has antiphagocitic role
E. proteins are the maine component

Doorways of microorganisms in the dental pulps are:


A. direct
B. pulpo-periodontal way
C. anachorezis
D. dental pulp is normally colonized with normal oral flora
E. only A,B and C are correct

Active aminoglycosides on P. aeruginosa are next, except one:


A. gentamycin
B. tobramycin
C. streptomycin
D. amikacin
E. netilmycin

Regarding teichoic acids of Gram positive bacteria the next statements are true, except one:
A. the teichoic acids are major surface antigens
B. they bind magnesium ion and play a role in the function of the cytoplasmic membranes
enzyme
C. they play the role of endotoxin
they bind autolytic enzymes, being thus involved in the cells growth and division
E. they are receptors for bacteriophages
Imipenem and meropenem belong to:
A. carbapenemes
B. aminoglycosides
C. macrolides
D. glycopeptides
E. cephalosporines

Regarding Mycobacterium genus, next statements are true, except one:


A. are gram negative bacteria
B. they are red in colour in Ziehl-Neelsen staining
C. they have a special cell wall
D. they are more resistant to antiseptics and desinfectants
E. the treatment of tuberculosis need special antibiotics

Virulence of factors of S mutans are next, except one:


A. presence of lectin-like surface protein for attachment
B. production of acid and increased sallivary pH
C. survive in low acid pH
D. produce glucosyltransferases
E. production of intracellular polysaccharides and mutacins

Which of the next bacteria is the etiologic agent of pseudomembranous pharyngitis?


A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. diptheric bacillus
D. influenza virus
E. Shigella dysenteriae

Indirect diagnosis of HBV infection means, except one:


A. to reveal the anti-HBc/IgM
B. to reveal the anti-HBc/IgG
C. to reveal the anti-HBe
D. to reveal the anti-HBs
E. to reveal the HBV DNA

Useful specific diagnosis tests of viral hepatitis are next, except one:
A. bilirubine
B. RIBA
C. ELISA
D. PCR
E. RT-PCR

Next species belong to Lactobacillus genus, except one:


A. L fementum
B. L. acidophilus
C. L saprophyticus
D. L casei
E. L salivarius

A cariogenic bacteria, species from Lactobacillus genus present next characteristics, except one:
A. they are aciduric
B. they are acidogenic
C. they are present high affinity for tooth surface
D. they are present low affinirty for tooth surface
E. they leaving in high amount in saliva

Next test are useful for cariogenic risk assessment, except one:
A. determination of lactobacilli in saliva
B. semiquantitative determination of S. mutans in dental plaque
C. semiquantitative determination of S. mutans in dental saliva
D. DNA of S mutans by PCR
E. BANA test

Extended spetrum penicillin are next:


A. vancomycin
B. penicillin G
C. aztreonam
D. carboxypenicillins
E. cephalosporin

Active antibiotics against P. aeruginosa are next, except one:


A. aminoglycosides
B. cefiazidine
C. celoparazone
D. arteramentis
E. erythrocytosis

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