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Items in This Part Are Incomplete Sentences

The document provides instructions and examples for a test that contains incomplete sentences followed by multiple choice answer options to complete the sentences. It also contains a section on identifying errors in underlined portions of sentences. The test assesses understanding of grammar, vocabulary, and sentence structure.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
707 views17 pages

Items in This Part Are Incomplete Sentences

The document provides instructions and examples for a test that contains incomplete sentences followed by multiple choice answer options to complete the sentences. It also contains a section on identifying errors in underlined portions of sentences. The test assesses understanding of grammar, vocabulary, and sentence structure.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Items in this part are incomplete sentences.

Following each of these sentences,


there are four words or phrases. You should select the one word or phrase-(A), (B),
(C), or (D)-that best completes the sentence. Then fill in the space on your answer
sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you have selected.

Example I
Pepsin __ an enzyme used in digestion.
(A) that
(B) is
(C) of
(D) being
Sample Answer
This sentence should properly read “Pepsin is an enzyme used in digestion.” You
should fill in (B) on your answer sheet.
Example II
__ large natural lakes are found in the state of South Carolina.
(A) There are no
(B) Not the
(C) It is not
(D) No
Sample Answer
This sentence should properly read “No large natural lakes are found in the state of
South Carolina.” You should fill in (D) on your answer sheet.
As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this part.

1. Sharp knives are actually safer to use ___


(A) as dull ones
(B) as ones that are dull
(C) than dull ones
(D) that are dull ones

2. Daniel Webster, Thaddeus Stevens, and many others __ prominent in public life
began their careers by teaching school.
(A) they became
(B) once they became
(C) became
(D) who became

3. As coal mines became deeper, the problems of draining water, bringing in fresh
air, and __ to the surface increased.
(A) transporting ore
(B) to transport ore
(C) how ore is transported
(D) ore is transporting

4. ____because of the complexity of his writing, Henry James never became a


popular writer, but his works are admired by critics and other writers.
(A) It may be
(B) Perhaps
(C) Besides
(D) Why is it
5. Piedmont glaciers are formed____several valley glaciers join and spread out over
a plain.
(A) by
(B) when
(C) from
(D) that

6. As late as 1890, Key West, with a population of 18,000____Florida’s largest city.


(A) that was
(B) to be
(C) was
(D) it was

7. A mastery of calculus depends on ____ of algebra.


(A) an understanding
(B) is understood
(C) to understand
(D) understand

8. ____he was not a musician himself, Lawrence Hammond developed an electronic


keyboard instrument called the Hammond organ.
(A) Although
(B) That
(C) Despite
(D) For

9. Agnes De Mille’s landmark musical play Oklahoma! was __ of story, music, and
dance.
(A) successfully combined
(B) a successful combination
(C) to combine successfully
(D) successful combining

10.___ single dialect of American English has ever become dominant.


(A) No
(B) Not only a
(C) Not
(D) Nor a

11. In 1837 the University of Michigan became the first state university ___ by a
board of regents elected by the voters of the state.
(A) under the control
(B) it was controlled
(C) being controlled
(D) to be controlled

12. Indoor heating systems have made___ for people to live and work comfortably
in temperate climates.
(A) it is possible
(B) possible
(C) it possible
(D) possibly

13. Certain fish eggs contain droplets of oil, _______ to float on the surface of the
water.
(A) allowing them
(B) allows them
(C) they are allowed
(D) this allows them

14. Considered America’s first great architect______.


(A) many of the buildings at Harvard University were designed by Henry Hobson
Richardson
(B) Henry Hobson Richardson designed many of the buildings at Harvard University
(C) Harvard University has many buildings that were designed by Henry Hobson
Richardson
 (D) it was Henry Hobson Richardson who designed many of the buildings at Harvard
University

15. _______is caused by a virus was not known until 1911.


 (A) That measles
(B) As measles
(C) Measles
(D) What if measles

Written Expression
Directions: The items in this part have four underlined words or phrases, (A), (B),
(C), and (D).
You must identify the one underlined expression that must be changed for the
sentence to be correct. Then find the number of the question on your answer sheet
and fill in the space corresponding to the letter.
Example I
Lenses may to have either concave or convex shapes.
A = to have
B = concave
C = or
D = shapes   
This sentence should read “Lenses may have either concave or convex shapes.” You
should therefore select answer (A).
Example II
When painting a fresco, an artist is applied paint directly to the damp plaster of a
wall.
A = When
B = is applied
C = directly
D = of a wall  
This sentence should read “When painting a fresco, an artist applies paint directly to
the damp plaster of a wall.” You should therefore select answer (B).
 As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this section.

16. Dreams are commonly   made up of    either     visual    and   verbal images.  
A = commonly
B = made up of    
C = either
D = verbal images

17. The Yale Daily News is oldest than any other college newspaper still   in
operation in the United States.                                                          
A = oldest than
B = other
C = still
D = in operation

18. Mary Rinehart was a pioneer   in the field of journalist   in the early twentieth
century.
A = a pioneer
B = in the field
C = journalist
D = in the early

19. The Dave Brubek Quartet, one of the most popular jazz bands of the 1950’s, had
a particularly loyal following on campuses college.
A = the most popular
B = particularly
C =  following
D = campuses college

20. In the architecture, a capital is the top portion of a column.


A = In the
B = a capital
C = the top
D = column

21. Today, successful farmers are experts not only in agriculture, but also in market,
finance, and accounting.
A = agriculture
B = but also
C = market
D = accounting

22. In the early days of jet development, jet engines used great numbers of fuel.
A = early
B = used
C = numbers
D = fuel

23. Georgia has too many types of soil that virtually any temperate-zone crop can
be grown there.
A = too
B = soil
C = virtually
D = there
24. The sum of all chemical reactions in an organism’s living cells are called its
metabolism.
A = all
B = an organism’s
C = are
D = its

25. River transportation in the United States consists  primarily of barges pull by
towboats.
A = transportation
B = consists
C = primarily
D = pull

26. Most modern barns are both insulated, ventilated, and equipped with
electricity.
A = Most modern
B = both insulated
C = equipped with
D = electricity

27. Many bridges in New England were covered with wooden roofs to protect it from
rain and snow.
A = Many
B = were covered
C = it
D = rain and snow

28. It is their nearly perfect crystal structure that gives diamonds their hardness,
brilliance, and transparent.
A = nearly perfect
B = that gives
C = hardness
D = transparent

29. Needles are simple-looking tools, but they are very relatively diffIcult to make. 
A = simple-looking
B = but
C = very relatively
D = to make

30. Ducks are less susceptible to infection   than   another types of poultry.
A = less
B = to infection
C = than
D = another

31. Unlike competitive running, in contact with the ground race walkers must always
keep some portion of their feet in contact with the ground.
A = Unlike
B = running
C = their
D = in contact with

32. One of the most beautiful botanical gardens in the United States is the wildly
and lovely Magnolia Gardens near Charleston, South Carolina.
A = most beautiful
B = gardens
C = wildly
D = near

33. Composer John Cage used many unusual objects as instrument in his music,
including cowbells, flower pots, tin cans, and saw blades.
A = unusual
B = instrument
C = including
D = tin cans

34. Woody Guthrie wrote thousands of songs during the lifetime, many of which
became classic folk songs.
A = thousands
B = the lifetime
C = which
D = folk songs

35. Runner Wilma Rudolph win three gold medals at the 1960 Olympics, and she set
the world record for the 100-meter dash in 1961.
A = win
B = at the 1960
C = she set
D = world record

36. Some critics have called Theodore Dreiser’s book Sister Carrie a first modern
novel because it broke so many traditions.
A = have called
B = a first
C = because
D = so many

37. Abigail Adams’ letters to her husband present a graphic picture of the age which
she lived.
A = letters
B =  her
C =  a graphic   
D = age which

38. Viscosity is a measurement describing the relative difficulty or easy with which
liquids flow.
A = describing
B = relative   
C = easy
D = with which
39. More than 10,000 years ago, glaciers moved across the Minnesota region four
time, leveling most of the land.
A = More than
B = moved
C = time
D = most of

40.  The  discover of gold and silver in the rugged mountains of Nevada in 1858
attracted many fortune-seekers to that area.
A = discover
B = mountains
C = attracted
D = to that area

THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 2.


IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON SECTION 2
ONLY.
DO NOT READ OR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST.

Directions: This section contains several passages, each followed by a number of


questions. Read the passages and, for each question, choose the one best answer-
(A), (B), (C), or (D)-based on what is stated in the passage or on what can be
inferred from the passage. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches
the letter of the answer that you have selected.

Read the following passage:


Like mammals, birds claim their own territories. A
bird’s territory may be small or large. Some birds
claim only their nest and the area right around it,
while others claim far larger territories that include
their feeding areas. Gulls, penguins, and other waterfowl (line) (5)
nest in huge colonies, but even in the biggest colonies,
each male and his mate have small territories of their
own immediately around their nests.
Male birds defend their territory chiefly against other
males of the same species. In some cases, a warning call (line 10)
or threatening pose may be all the defense needed, but in
other cases, intruders may refuse to leave peacefully.
Example 1
What is the main topic of this passage?
(A) Birds that live in colonies
(B) Birds’ mating habits
(C) The behavior of birds
(D) Territoriality in birds
The passage mainly concerns the territories of birds. You should fill in (D) on your
answer sheet.
Example II
According to the passage, male birds defend their territory primarily against
(A) female birds
(B) birds of other species
(C) males of their own species
(D) mammals
Sample Answer
The passage states that “Male birds defend their territory chiefly against other males
of the same species.” You should fill in (C) on your answer sheet. As soon as you
understand the directions, begin work on this section.
Questions 1-3
The Sun today is a yellow dwarf star. It is fueled by
thermonuclear reactions near its center that convert hydrogen to
helium. The Sun has existed in its present state for about 4
billion, 600 million years and is thousands of times larger than
the Earth. (Line 5)
By studying other stars, astronomers can predict what the rest
of the Sun’s life will be like. About 5 billion years from now,
the core of the Sun will shrink and become hotter. The surface
temperature will fall. The higher temperature of the center will

increase the rate of thermonuclear reactions. The outer regions of (line 10)
the Sun will expand approximately 35 million miles, about the
distance to Mercury, which is the closest planet to the Sun. The
Sun will then be a red giant star. Temperatures on the Earth will
become too hot for life to exist.
Once the Sun has used up its thermonuclear energy as a red giant, (line 15)
it will begin to shrink. After it shrinks to the size of the Earth,
it will become a white dwarf star. The Sun may throw off huge
amounts of gases in violent eruptions called nova explosions as it
changes from a red giant to a white dwarf.
After billions of years as a white dwarf, the Sun will have used (line 20)
up all its fuel and will have lost its heat. Such a star is called
a black dwarf. After the Sun has become a black dwarf, the Earth
will be dark and cold. If any atmosphere remains there, it will 
have frozen onto the Earth’s surface.
1. What is the primary purpose of this passage?
(A) To alert people to the dangers posed by the Sun
(B) To discuss conditions on Earth in the far future
(C) To present a theory about red giant stars
(D) To describe changes that the Sun will go through

2. The word “fueled” in line 1 is closest in meaning to ___


(A) powered
(B) bombarded
(C) created
(D) propelled

3. The word “state” in line 3 is closest in meaning to ___


(A) shape
(B) condition
(C) location
(D) size

Question 4-11
The time when humans crossed the Arctic land bridge from
Siberia to Alaska seems remote to us today, but actually
represents a late stage in the prehistory of humans, an era when
polished stone implements and bows and arrows were already being
used, and dogs had already been domesticated. (line 5)
When these early migrants arrived in North America, they found
the woods and plains dominated by three types of American
mammoths. These elephants were distinguished from today’s
elephants mainly by their thick, shaggy coats and their huge,
upward-curving tusks. They had arrived on the continent hundreds (line 10)
of thousands of years before their human followers. The
wooly mammoth in the North, the Columbian mammoth in middle North
America. and the imperial mammoth of the South, together with
their distant cousins the mastodons, dominated the land. Here, as
in the Old World, there is evidence that humans hunted these (line 15)
elephants, as shown by the numerous spear points found with
mammoth remains.

Then, at the end of the Ice Age, when the last glaciers had
retreated, there was a relatively sudden and widespread
extinction of elephants. In the New World, both mammoths and (line 20)
mastodons disappeared. In the Old World, only Indian and African
elephants survived.

Why did the huge, seemingly successful mammoths disappear?


Were humans connected with their extinction? Perhaps, but at
that time, although they were cunning hunters, humans were still (line 25)
widely scattered and not very numerous. It is difficult to see
how they could have prevailed over the mammoth to such an extent.

4. Where were the imperial mammoths the dominant type of mammoth?


(A) In Alaska
(B) In the central portion of North America
(C) In the southern part of North America
(D) In South America

5. It can be inferred that when humans crossed into the New World, they___
(A) had previously hunted mammoths in Siberia
(B) had never seen mammoths before
(C) brought mammoths with them from the Old World
(D) soon learned to use dogs to hunt mammoths

6. Which of the following could best substitute for the word “remains” in line 17?
(A) Bones
(B) Drawings
(C) Footprints
(D) Spear points

7. The word “seemingly” in line 23 is closest in meaning to___


(A) tremendously
(B) apparently
(C) formerly
(D) obviously
8. The passage supports which of the following conclusions about mammoths?
(A) Humans hunted them to extinction.
(B) The freezing temperatures of the Ice Age destroyed their food supply.
(C) The cause of their extinction is not definitely known.
(D) Competition with mastodons caused them to become extinct.

9. The word “cunning” in line 25 is closest in meaning to ___


(A) clever
(B) determined
(C) efficient
(D) cautious

10. Which of the following is NOT true about prehistoric humans at the time of the
mammoths’ extinction?
(A) They were relatively few in number.
(B) They knew how to use bows and arrows.
(C) They were concentrated in a small area.
(D) They were skilled hunters.

11. Which of the following types of elephants does the author discuss in the most
detail in the passage?
(A) The mastodon
(B) The mammoth
(C) The Indian elephant
(D) The African elephant

Questions 12-23
Just before and during World War I, a number of white musicians came to Chicago
from New Orleans playing in an idiom they had learned from blacks in that city. Five
of them formed what eventually became known as the Original Dixieland Band.
Theymoved to New York in 1917 and won fame there. That year they (line 5)
recorded the first phonograph record identified as jazz.
The first important recording by black musicians was made in
Chicago in 1923 by King Oliver’s Creole Jazz Band, a group that featured some of
the foremost jazz musicians of the time, ncluding trumpet player Louis Armstrong.
Armstrong’s dynamic (line 10) trumpet style became famous worldwide. Other band
members had
 played in Fate Marable’s band, which traveled up and down the
 Mississippi River entertaining passengers on riverboats.
The characteristics of this early type of jazz, known as
Dixieland jazz, included a complex interweaving of melodic lines (line 15)among the
cornet or trumpet, clarinet, and trombone, and a
 steady chomp-chomp beat provided by the rhythm section, which
 included the piano, bass, and drums. Most bands used no written
notations, preferring arrangements agreed on verbally.
Improvisation was an indispensable element. Even bandleaders such (line 20)as Duke
Ellington, who provided his musicians with written
 arrangements, permitted them plenty to freedom to improvise when
 playing solos.
In the late 1920’s, the most influential jazz artists in
Chicago were members of small bands such as the Wolverines. In (line 25) New York,
the trend was toward larger groups. These groups
 played in revues, large dance halls, and theaters. Bands would
become larger still during the next age of jazz, the Swing era.
12. What is the main topic of this passage?
(A) The early history of jazz
(B) The music of World War I
(C) The relationship of melody and rhythm in jazz
(D) The New York recording industry in the 1920’s

13. The word “idiom” in line 2 is closest in meaning to ___


(A) slang
(B) tempo
(C) tune
(D) style

14. The musicians who made the earliest jazz recordings were originally from ___
(A) New Orleans
(B) Chicago
(C) New York
(D) Mississippi

15. When was the first important recording by black jazz musicians made?
(A) In 1917
(B) In 1923
(C) In the late 1920’s
(D) In the early 1930’s

16. According to the passage, Louis Armstrong was a member of which of the
following?
 (A) The Original Dixieland Band
(B) Fate Marable’s riverboat band
(C) King Oliver’s Creole Jazz Band
 (D) The Wolverines

17. The word “steady” in line 17 is closest in meaning to …


(A) constant
(B) basic
(C) urgent
(D) happy

18. According to the passage, which of the following instruments helped provide the
beat for Dixieland jazz?
(A) The cornet
(B) The piano
(C) The trombone
(D) The clarinet

19. Duke Ellington is given as an example of a bandleader who ___


(A) could not read music
(B) did not value improvisation
(C) discouraged solo performances
(D) used written arrangements
20. Which of the following phrases would be LEAST likely to be applied to Dixieland
jazz?
(A) Relatively complex
(B) Highly improvisational
(C) Rhythmic and melodic
(D) Carefully planned

21. According to the passage, who were the Wolverines?


(A) A band that played in large dance halls
(B) A New York group
(C) A Swing band
(D) A small group

22. The author provides the most detailed description of early jazz music in the ___
(A) first paragraph
(B) second paragraph
(C) third paragraph
(D) fourth paragraph

23. The paragraph following this one most likely deals with  ___
(A) the music of small bands
(B) the Swing era
(C) music that influenced Dixieland Jazz
(D) other forms of music popular in the 1920’s

Questions 24-32 
A pioneering study by Donald Appleyard made the astounding discovery that a
sudden increase in the volume of traffic throughan area affects people in the way
that a sudden increase in crimedoes. Appleyard observed this by finding three blocks
of housesin San Francisco that looked much alike and had the same kind of (line 5)
middle-class and working-class residents, with approximately the
same ethnic mix. The difference was that only 2,000 cars a day
ran down Octavia Street (LIGHT street, in Appleyard’s
terminology) while Gough Street (MEDIUM street) was used by 8,000
cars daily, and Franklin Street (HEAVY street) had around 16,000 (line 10)cars a
day. Franklin Street often had as many cars in an hour as
Octavia Street had in a day.
Heavy traffic brought with it danger, noise, fumes, and soot,
directly, and trash secondarily. That is, the cars didn’t bring
in much trash, but when trash accumulated, residents seldom (line 15)picked it up.
The cars, Appleyard determined, reduced the amount
 of territory residents felt responsible for. Noise was a constant
intrusion into their homes. Many Franklin Street residents
 covered their doors and windows and spent most of their
time in the rear of their houses. Most families with children had (line 20)already left.
Conditions on Octavia Street were much different. Residents
picked up trash. They sat on their front steps and chatted with
neighbors. They had three times as many friends and twice
as many acquaintances as the people on Franklin. (line 25)On Gough Street,
residents said that the old feeling of
community was disappearing as traffic increased. People were
becoming more and more preoccupied with their own lives. A
number of families had recently moved, and more were considering
it. Those who were staying expressed deep regret at the (line 30)destruction of their
community.
24. The word “astounding” in line 1 is closest in meaning to
(A) startling
(B) disappointing
(C) dubious
(D) alternative

25. The three streets mentioned in this passage are different in that ___
(A) they are in different cities
(B) the residents are of different ethnic backgrounds
(C) they have varying amounts of traffic
(D) the income levels of the residents vary considerably

26. Approximately how many cars use Franklin Street daily?


(A) 2,000
(B) 8,000
(C) 16,000
(D) 20,000

27. All of the following are direct results of heavy traffic EXCEPT
(A) increased amounts of trash
(B) greater danger to residents
(C) more pollution
(D) more vibrations

28. The author’s main purpose in the second paragraph is to ___


(A) discuss the problems of trash disposal
(B) point out the disadvantages of heavy traffic
(C) propose an alternate system of transportation
(D) suggest ways to cope with trafflc problems

29. On which street is there the most social interaction?


(A) Octavia Street
(B) Gough Street
(C) Franklin Street
(D) There is no significant social interaction on any of the three streets.

30. The word “chatted” in line 23 is closest in meaning to


(A) joked
(B) talked
(C) argued
(D) walked

31. Which of the following is NOT a statement you would expect from a resident of
Gough Street?
(A) People on this street are unhappy because the neighborhood is deteriorating.
(B) People on this street think mostly of themselves.
(C) People on this street have more and more space for which they feel responsible.
(D) A number of people are preparing to leave this street.
32. In what order does the author present detailed discussions of the three streets?
(A) LIGHT, MEDIUM, HEAVY
(B) HEAVY, MEDIUM, LIGHT
(C) HEAVY, LIGHT, MEDIUM
(D) LIGHT, HEAVY, MEDIUM

Questions 33-42
Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania.
She studied biology at college, and zoology at Johns Hopkins
University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In
1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where
she worked most of her life. (line 5)
 Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in
1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until
 it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea
Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s
surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine (line 10)biology.
Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson
consulted no fewer than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous
correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the
field. However, she always realized the limitations of her
non-technical readers. (Line 15)
In 1962 Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked
considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by
the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how
they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and
contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical (Line 20)
industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued
propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However,
her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s
Science Advisory Committee.
33. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work ___
(A) as a researcher
(B) at college
(C) at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service
(D) as a writer

34. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins
University?
(A) Oceanography
(B) History
(C) Literature
(D) Zoology

35. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of ___
(A) 26
(B) 29
(C) 34
(D) 45

36. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind
(A) was outdated
(B) became more popular than her other books
(C) was praised by critics
(D) sold many copies
37. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of
information for The Sea Around Us?
(A) Printed matter
(B) Talks with experts
(C) A research expedition
(D) Letters from scientists
38. Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate in describing The Sea
Around Us?
(A) Highly technical
(B) Poetic
(C) Fascinating
(D) Well-researched
39. The word “reckless” in line 18 is closest in meaning to ___
(A) unnecessary
(B) limited
(C) continuous
(D) irresponsible

40. According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily ___


(A) an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food
(B) a discussion of the hazards insects pose to the food supply
(C) a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides
(D) an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry

41. The word “flawed” in line 22 is closest in meaning to ___


(A) faulty
(B) deceptive
(C) logical
(D) offensive

42. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s
Science Advisory Committee (lines 23-24)?
(A) To provide an example of government propaganda
(B) To support Carson’s ideas
(C) To indicate a growing government concern with the environment
(D) To validate the chemical industry’s claims

Questions 43-50
What is meant by the term economic resources? In general,
these are all the natural, man-made, and human resources that go
into the production of goods and services. This obviously covers
a lot of ground: factories and farms, tools and machines,
transportation and communication facilities, all types of natural (Line 5)
resources, and labor. Economic resources can be broken down into
two general categories: property resources-land and capital
and human resources-labor and entrepreneurial skills.
What do economists mean by land? Much more than the non
economist. Land refers to all natural resources that are usable (Line 10)
in the production process: arable land, forests, mineral and oil
deposits, and so on. What about capital? Capital goods are all
the man-made aids to producing, storing, transporting, and
distributing goods and services. Capital goods differ from
consumer goods in that the latter satisfy wants directly, while (Line 15)
the former do so indirectly by facilitating the production of
consumer goods. It should be noted that capital as defined here
does not refer to money. Money, as such, produces nothing
The term labor refers to the physical and mental talents of
humans used to produce goods or services with the exception of a (Line 20)
certain set of human talents, entrepreneurial skiIIs, which will
be considered separately because of their special significance).
Thus the services of a factory worker or an office worker, a
ballet dancer or an astronaut all fall under the general heading of labor.
43. What is the author’s main purpose in writing this passage?
(A) To explain the concept of labor
(B) To criticize certain uses of capital
(C) To contrast capital goods and consumer goods
(D) To define economic resources

44. In lines 3-4, the author uses the expression “This obviously covers a lot of
ground … ” to indicate that ___
(A) the factories and farms discussed in the passage are very large
(B) economic resources will be discussed in great depth
(C) the topic of economic resources is a broad one
(D) land is an important concept in economics

45. When non-economists use the term “land,” its definition ___
(A) is much more general than when economists use it
(B) is much more restrictive than when economists use it
(C) changes from place to place
(D) includes all types of natural resources

46. The word “arable” in line 11 is closest in meaning to ___


(A) dry
(B) fertile
(C) developed
(D) open

47. The phrase “the latter” in line 15 refers to ___


(A) economists
(B) non-economists
(C) capital goods
(D) consumer goods

48. Which of the following could be considered a capital good as defined in the
passage?
(A) A railroad
(B) Money
(C) A coal deposit
(D) Human skills

49. The word “heading” in line 24 is closest in meaning to ___


(A) direction
(B) practice
(C) category
(D) utility

50. The skills of all the following could be considered examples of labor, as defined
in the passage, EXCEPT ___
(A) artists and scientists
(B) workers who produce services, not goods
(C) office workers
(D) entrepreneurs

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