£

FIFTH YEAR EXAMS

CONTENTS

PEDIATRICS Page 2
Obstetrics & Gynecology Page 88

∫wU« uM« wK —Uô« qzUËË —dI qJ WBB<« W—b«Ë  UU« œbË WU)« WdH« v  «—dI*« l“u ÊuJ ≠ √

W—b« ©Ÿu√ ≥≤¨ W«—b« …b

v«—b« —dI*«
WOUNM«  «—Uô« vKL ÈdE

µ∞∞ ≥ ULNM ‰Ë_« …b ÊUdd% Ê«—U«

±¥ ±∞∏ ‰UHô« V
ÊUU tb —U« vU«Ë  UU
ÆWKô« s WU WLE« «bU
Ÿu« WU
tOJMOKO«  «—U«
tuH  «—U«

≥ ULNM ‰Ë_« …b ÊUdd% Ê«—U« ±¥ ±∞∏ bOu«Ë ¡UM« ÷«d√

µ∞∞
ÊUU tb —U« vU«Ë  UU Ÿu« WU
ÆWKô« s WU WLE« «bU

tOJMOKO«  «—U«

tuH  «—U«

©WM ‰UL«¨ Ídd% —U« ∏ ≤∞ WMU«

∂∞ wJMOK« —U« lO
U«
WU

©WM ‰UL«¨ Ídd% —U« ∏ ≤∞ W«d'«

∂∞
wJMOK« —U« lO
U« WU

1
PEDIATRICS

2
September, 2008, Exam Cairo University
Time allowed : 2 hours Faculty of Medicine
Total marks : (200) 31/8/2008

Final examination M.B.B.Ch.

PEDIATRICS
Answer the following short Essay questions : (120 marks)
1. Mention causes of neonatal jaundice and list five findings which
differentiate between its physiological and pathological types. (20 marks)
2. enumerate causes of acute abdominal pain in children, and Mention five
investigations to be done when it is recurrent. (20 marks)
3. a. Describe the clinical picture of Fallot's tetralogy. (10 marks)
b. Mention common causes of wheezing in infancy and childhood.
(10 marks)
4. a. Describe the clinical picture and diagnostic criteria of diabetes Mellitus
in children. (10 marks)
b. List the investigations recommended for a case with recurrent urinary
tract infections. (10 marks)
5. a. Mention Complications of bacterial meningitis. (10 marks)
b. Plan the laboratory approach to identify causes of cholestasis in infancy.
(10 marks)
6. a. List essential investigations recommended for a suspected case of beta
thalasemia. (10 marks)
b. List five obligatory preventive vaccines taken at first year of life (Time
and Dose). (10 marks)

3
 Final examination M.B.B.Ch.
PEDIATRICS
Multiple Choice Questions : (40 marks, 2 for each)
1. Persistence of Moro reflex at 12 weeks indicate :
a. Brain damage b. Normal child
c. Hungry child d. Irritable child
2. A child starts crawling at :
a. 5 months b. 7 months
c. 8 months d. 9 months
3. the average monthly weight gain in the first 4 months :
a. 250 gm. b. 500 gm.
c. 750 gm. d. 1000 gm.
4. In percentile growth cures, measurement below ..... is considered below
normal.
a. 50% b. 25%
c. 7% d. 3%
5. Commonest cause of bacterial pneumonia in infancy:
a. H.. influenza b. Streptococcus
c. Staphylococcus d. Pneumococcus
6. The murmer denoting active carditis:
a. Carey comb murmer b. Early systolic murmer
c. Pan systolic murmer d. Machinary murmer
7. Basic steps in Cardiopulkmonary Resuscitations include all the
following except :
a. Keep open airway b. Artificial breathing.
c. Cardiac decompression. d. Defibrilation.

4
8. The commonest electrolyte and acid/base disturbance in acute diarrhea
include all the following except :
a. Hyponatermia b. Hypokalemia
c. Acidosis d. Alkalosis
9. The incubation period of hepatitis A :
a. one week b. 2 to 6 weeks
c. 2 to 6 months d. 3 months
10. The fat which disappears last in marasmus is :
a. Buttock fat b. Fat in the back
c. Buccal pad of fat d. Abdominal wall fat
11. The investigations required to diagnose Rickets, include all the following except :
a. Serum calcium b. Serum phosphorous
c. Alkaline phospatase d. Serum magnesium
12. Closterum is Breast milk secreted in the first post natal :
a. 2-3 days b. one week.
c. 3-5 days d. One month
13. The diphteritic membrance is mainly seen on :
a. Tonsils b. Conjunctiva
c. Skin d. Larynx
14. The fatal poliomyelitis is :
a. Bulbar polio b. Spinal polio
c. Encephalitis d. Cerebral polio
15. All the following are causes of cerebral palsy except :
a. Rubella syndrome. b. Hydrocepthalus
c. G6PD deficiency d. Kernicterus
16. All the following are complications of Nephrotic syndrome except :
a. Peritonitis b. Shock
c. Thrombosis d. Alkalosis

5
17. Iron deficiency anemia is characterizedby all except:
a. High total iron binding capacity.
b. Low serum ferritin
c. Macrocytic hypochromic anemia
d. Low serum iron
18. Chromosomal aberration in Trisomy 21 can be one of the the
following:
a. Structural
b. Numeriacal
c. Both
d. None of the above
19. The most urgent management of hypovolemic shock is :
a. Oxygen therapy
b. Assisted ventilation
c. IV. Fluids
d. IV. antibiotics.
20. Short statute may be due to :
a. Malnutrition
b. Growth hormone deficiency
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. All the above

6
Problem Solving : (20 marks, 2 for each)
1. Five years old child developed mauclopapular rash starting in the face
and progressing downwards on the body, this was preceded by five
days febrile illness with runny nose and congested red eyes. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
a. Scarlet fever
b. Sweat rash
c. Chicken pox
d. Measles
2. Seven years old child was presented to emergency room with acute
abodminal pain and tenderness. His eyes were puffy and his urine was
dark in color. On examination there was perpuric spots over his
buttocks. All the following steps should be done except:
a. Liver functions test
b. Urine analysis
c. Platelet count.
d. Immediate Renal biopsy.
3. One year old child presented for the first time with bloody diarrhea.
His pulse and blood pressure were normal; no other sites for bleeding.
Examination revealed no abdominal masses. Your investigations
should initially include all the following except :
a. Stool analysis
b. Coagulation profile
c. Colonoscopy
d. Platelet count
4. Nine years old girl presented to emergency room with tachycardia. On
examination her right knee was swollen and tender. Mid diastolic
murmur was heard over the apex. What is the first step you will ask for ?
a. Start steroid therapy

7
 b. Ask for Erythrocyte Sedimentation rate, and ECG.
c. Start intravenous digoxine
d. Start aspirin therapy
5. A young lady with normal prematerial ultrasound complained that her
first male baby was diagnosed inutero to have bilateral renal enlargement,
and her second labour ended with a twin (two girls), one of them suffered
the same problem. Although her husband was apparently normal, his
renal ultra sound was not. Which mode of inheritance you suggest?
a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. Sex linked
d. Gene mutation
6. Two weeks after a viral illness a 2 year old child developed bruizing
and petchiae, more prominent over the legs, he had neither
hepatosplenomegaly nor lymph node enlargement Laboratory testing
revealed a normal hemoglobin, hematocrit, and white cell count,
platelet count was 15,000/mm3. what is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Von Willebrand disease.
b. A cute lymphoblastic Leukemia
c. A plastic anemia
d. Immune thrombocytopenia
7. A thirty hour old full term infant has jaundice of the face and chest. He
is breast feeding and proved completely normal on examination except
for the jaundice. His serum bilirubin is 15.5 mg/dl. What is the best
course of action?
a. Start physiotherapy
b. Discontinue breast feeding
c. Wait and retest bilirubin after 6 hours.
d. Start exchange transfusion

8
8. A one year old boy presented to the emergency room with severe
colicky abdominal pains associated with vomiting and bleeding per
rectum. PR examination by the Surgeon revealed a mass and blood on
the finger on withdrawal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Pyloric Stenosis
b. Volvulus
c. Intussusception
d. Gastroenteritis
9. A five years old boy was brought to emergency room with intractable
convulsions. His mother said that he was playing in the swimming pool
just before his friends noticed him convulsing and that he never had
such condition before. On examination he was in coma with dilated
non reactive pupils. All of the following are urgently indicated except:
a. Blood sugar
b. C.T. scan for the head
c. C.S.F. examination
d. Skull X ray
10. A 22 month old boy presents with the chief complaint of pallor. He is
a picky eater taking small amounts of fresh vegetables and fruits and
drinks lots of tea caps. on exaimnatin he showed pale conjunctiva.
Laboratory reports revealed, WBC 6100, Hemoglobin 8.2g/dl, Hct
19% and microcytosis with hypochromia. Which of the followings you
do not recommend as one of your initial management plan?
a. Give blood transfusion
b. Ask for stool analysis.
c. Start oral Iron and change his diet habits.
d. Ask for renal functions

9
IMCI Questions : (20 marks, 10 for each)
Write in front of each one (√) if it is correct & (X) if it is wrong:
1. A four years child with fever 39.5C for last 2 days. On examination
there is neck stiffness and no any other abonrmality apart from some
pallor. According to IMCI:
a. Start oral antibiotic therapy & send the patient home. ( )
b. CNS infection can be excluded because there is no bulging fontanelle. ( )
c. Anemia is a part of the child's clasification. ( )
d. The child needs urgent referral to hospital. ( )
e. Very severe febrile diseae is a part of the child's classification. ( )

2. An eight months old child with fever 38.5C, severe diarrhea &
vomiting since yesterday, she can't keep any thing in her stomach
except 2-3 spoons, of water you give her, her eyes are sunken, she is
thirsty & irritable, and her skin pinch goes back very slowly. And
there is no any other abnormality. According to IMCI :
a. Start IV line immediately (plan C). ( )
b. Start antibiotics immediately. ( )
c. She is classified as very severe disease. ( )
d. She is classified as some dehydration. ( )
e. Her fever is classified as very severe febrile disease. ( )

10
Cairo University Final Exam, Jine 2009
Faculty of Medicine Time allowed mjgh: 3 hours
21/6/2009 Total Marks: (150)

FINAL EXAMINATION M.B.B.Ch.

PEDIATRICS
Answer the following short Essay questions (150 marks)
1. Mention causes of neonatal respiratory distress and its treatment options. (15 marks)
2. Mention causes of persistent diarrhea in children. (15 marks)
3. a) Describe the clinical picture of Infective Endocarditis. (10 marks)
b) State types of structural chromosomal aberrations (10 marks)
4. a) Describe diagnostic criteria for actie nephrotic syndrome in children. (10 marks)
b) Mention factors contributing to physical growth in children. (10 marks)
5. a) Mention causes and treatment of acute stridor in infancy (10 marks)
b) Mention clinical and laboratory diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia. (10 marks)
6. a) List causes of portal hypertension in infancy and children. (10 marks)
b) Mention maternal causes that make brest feeding difficult. (10 marks)
7. a) State the differential diagnosis of a floppy infant. (10 marks)
b) Enumerate causes and investigations of congenital hypothyroidism (10 marks)
8. a) Mention types of shock and basic steps in its treatment. (10 marks)
b) Give short account on Oral polio vaccine. (10 marks)

11
Cairo University Final Exam, Jine 2009
Faculty of Medicine Time allowed mjgh: 3 hours
22/6/2009 Total Marks: (150)

PEDIATRICS
Multiple Choice Questions : Choose only one answer (60 marks : one for each)
1. Normal reflex patterns at birth may include :
a) Grasp reflex.
b) Rooting reflex.
c) Moro's reflex.
d) all of the above.
2. A child starts to support his head at
a) 1 month.
b) 2 months.
c) 3 months.
d) 4 months.
3. The early recovery in kwashiorkor is
a) Disappearance of edema.
b) Increased weight.
c) Increased appetite.
d) interest in surroundings.
4. In percentile growth curves, measurement persistently below 3% is
suggestive of
a) Malnutrition.
b) Endocrinal disease.
c) Chronic infection.
d) All the above.
5. serious complications of staphylococcal pneumonia include all the
following Except :
a) Lung abscess.
b) Bronchitis.
c) Empyema.
d) Lung collapse.
6. The Carey Coomb murmur is due to :
a) Inflammation of the mitral valve.
b) Increased diastolic flow across the mitral valve.
c) Cardiac decompression.

12
 d) Defibrillation.
8. Paroxysmal stage of pertussis persists for :
a) 2 weeks.
b) 3 weeks.
c) 4 weeks.
d) 6 weeks.
9. The fat which disappears last in marasmus is :
a) Abdominal fat.
b) Buttocks fat.
c) Buccal pads of fat.
d) subscapular fat.
10. The daily requirement of vitamin D3 is :
a) 200-400 IU.
b) 400-800 IU.
c) 800-1000 IU.
d) 1000-1500 IU.
11. Which of the following is correct about breast milk:
a) Iron is low in breast milk.
b) It should be stopped during diarrhea.
c) Its caloric content is much higher than cow milk.
d) It is poor in vitamin A.
12. Measles rash begins :
a) On chest and back.
b) Behind ear.
c) Behind neck.
d) On the face.
13. The CNS area commonly affected in poliomyelitis is:
a) Anterior horn cells of spinal cord.
b) Carnial nerve nuclei.
c) Sensory roots of spinal nerves.
d) Motor part of cerebral cortex.
14. All of the following are characteritics of cerebral palsy Except:
a) Non progressive motor deformity.
b) Peripheral insult.

13
 c) Peripheral sensory loss.
d) Non curable.
15. All the following are complications of post streptococcal
glomerulonephritis Except:
a) Acute renal failure.
b) Septicemia.
c) Pulmonary edema.
d) Hypertensive encephalopathy.
16. All of the following are characteristic of Immune thrombocytopenic
purpura Except:
a) Intracranial hemorrhage is a serious complication.
b) Always associated with splenomegaly.
c) Anti platelets antibodies are the main cause.
d) Is preceded by upper respiratory infection in more than 60% of cases.
17. All of the following are examples of sex linked diseases Except :
a) G-6-P-d deficiency.
b) Galactosemia.
c) Hemophilia.
d) None of the above.
18. All of the following are true about febrile convulsions Except :
a) Commonly seen between 6 months to 5 years age.
b) Usually does not last more than 10 minutes.
c) Long term anticonvulsants are usually not needed.
d) Seizures are classically focal.
19. Complications of diabetes mellitus in children include all the following
Except :
a) Hypoglycernic coma.
b) Ketoacidotic coma.
c) Uremic coma.
d) Skin infections.

14
20. Complications of diphtheria include all the following Except :
a) Squint.
b) Flaccid paraplegia.
c) Heart failure.
d) Ataxia.
21. All the following are true about microccephaly Except
a) It may be primary or secondary.
b) Congenital cytomegalovirus infection may be a cause.
c) It is always associated with motor deficit.
d) Hypoxic ischemic brain damage may be a cause.
22. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by one of the following :
a) Commonly affects large joints.
b) Rheumatoid factor is always positive.
c) Excellent response to steroids in all cases.
d) Commonly affects small joints.
23. Suppurative lung diseases include all of the following Except
a) Bronchiectasis.
b) Lung abscess.
c) Tuberculosis.
d) Empyema.
24. Asthma triggers include all the following Except :
a) Viral respiratory infections.
b) Tobacco smoke.
c) House dust mite.
d) Steroids.
25. Weaning is characerized by all the following Except :
a) It should be gradual.
b) Should begin with hypoallergenic diet.
c) YOu can add two types of food simultaneously.
d) Not to be tried immediately after vaccination.
26. Emergency treatment of esophageal varices include :
a) Blood transfusion.

15
 b) Nasogastric tube placement.
c) Vitamin K.
d) All of the above.
27. Common presentations of chronic renal failure in children include :
a) Anermia.
b) Bone deformity.
c) Hypertension
d) All of the above.
28. Repeated blood transfusion is indicated in thalassemia children to :
a) Achieve better growth.
b) Decrease cardiac dilatation..
c) Both a and b.
d) None of the above.
29. Hemophilia A is characterized by ONLY one of the following:
a) Decreased activity of factor VIII.
b) An autosomal dominant disease.
c) Less common than hemophilia B.
d) Normal partial thromboplastin time.
30. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by all of the following Except :
a) Genetic susceptibility.
b) Mumps and chicken pox are common triggering factors for its onset.
c) Is treated only by insulin.
d) Oral hypoglycemic drugs have a therapeutic role.
31. The most commonly used growth curve in children, although its not
the most accurate is:
a) Velocity growth curves.
b) Distance growth curves.
c) Percentile growth curves.
d) Standard growth curves.
32. Genetic counseling is indicated in :
a) Families with inherited disorders.

16
 b) Pregnant mothers in contact with German measles.
c) Pregnant mothers exposed to irradiations..
d) All the above.
33. The recurrence risk in autoscomal recessive diseases is:
a) 75%.
b) 25%.
c) 50%.
d) 100%.
34. Which of the following is true about craniocynostosis?
a) Mental function is commonly affected.
b) Skull is deformed.
c) Child has urinary incontinence.
d) Always associated with convulsions.
35. Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by all the following Except :
a) Generalized lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly.
b) Elevated liver enzymes.
c) Convulsions.
d) Aplastic anemia.
36. Which of the following is true about Eisenmenger syndrome?
a) Usually a primary congenital cyanotic heart disease.
b) Considered a high indication for surgery in a baby with congenital heart
disease.
c) Represents a serious complication of non cyanotic heart disease.
d) Pulmonary hypertension is not always present.
37. Prevention of rheumatic fever includes all the following Except :
a) Accurate treatment of acute tonsillitis in children.
b) Antistreptococcal vaccine.
c) Intramuscular penicillin for children with rheumatic heart disease every 3 weeks.
d) community eardication of sterptococcal infections.

17
38. Incubation period for hepatitis A is :
a) 10 days.
b) 2 to 6 weeks.
c) 2 months.
d) 6 months.
39. all the following statements abot Tuberculosis in children are true Except
a) Chest TB is more common than other types.
b) tuberculin test is always positive in any tuberculous child.
c) Should be included in differential diagnosis of all chronic chest
problems.
d) BCG does not give full protection against Tb.
40. Animal transmitted diseases include all Except :
a) Rabies.
b) Tuberculosis.
c) Avian flue.
d) Poliomyelitis.
Problem Solving : (40 marks : 4 for each) Choose only one answer for each :
1. A mother complained to her doctor taht her nine-month-old baby is
not growing well like his age mathced relatives. Revising his weight
and height growth curves revealed that he was persistently below
third percentile on both curves.
A. What is your first step in management?
a) Do stool analysis.
b) Hormonal essay..
c) Revise his parents' weight and height
d) Good clinical examination.
B. Which of these data contribute to his growth delay?
a) He is receiving 50 Kel/kg/day.
b) He is receiving 100 gm proteins daily in his diet.
c) He is receiving 400 unit vitamin D daily.
d) His parents show normal built.

18
2. An anxious father who is having G6PD deficiency asked you, can I feed
my 9 months old son beans?
A. Which should be your answer?
a) Test his mother enzyme level, if normal, feed him.
b) Feed him one spoon only and check urine color.
c) Do not give him, it is a male dominant disease.
d) All are not correct.
B. What is the most accurate test?
a) Hemoglobin level.
b) Reticulocytic count.
c) G6PD level.
d) Osmotic fragility of RBCs.
3. Six year-old-child presented with fever, runny nose and a rach on his
chest and back. It was papular in some areas and vesicular in others.
Two days after, his brother developed the same rash, apart from
being hemorrhagic and more fulminant.
A. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Herpes zoster.
b) Small pox.
c) Chicken pox.
d) Measles.
B. What contributed to the fulminant course in his brother?
a) Malnutrition.
b) Younger in age.
c) Immune compromised.
d) Having congenital heart disease.
4. a five-year-old physically active boy, developed sudden paralysis of his
left arm and leg. His mother believed that he had poliomyelitis
because she was not regular with his vaccinations. On examination, in

19
Emergency room, he showed spasticity, hyperreflexia and absent
sensations on his left upper and lower limbs. caridac examinaiton
revealed systolic parasternal murmur.
A. What is your diagnosis?
a) Poliomyelitis.
b) Post diphtheritic paralysis.
c) Cerebral palsy.
d) Embolic hemiplegia.
B. What investigation you need to confirm your diagnosis?
a) Echocardiograpy.
b) Cranial ultrasound.
c) TORCH screen.
d) All the above.
5. An RH negative lady have just delivered her first baby following
repeated miscarriages. He is neither pale not jaundiced.
A. What is your first step towards the baby?
a) RH testing.
b) Hemoglobin level.
c) Serum bilirrubin level.
d) All the above.
and
B. Towards the mother?
a) Blood picture.
b) Give her anti-D.
c) Blood transfusion.
d) Exchange transfusion.
6. Two weeks after a viral illness a 2-year-old child developed skin rash,
more prominent over the legs. His urine was dark with excess
proteins and RBCs. His ankles were swollen and tender. His plasma
creatinine was 1.5 mg/dL.
A. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
b) Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis.

20
21
B. Which investigation will be the most helpful?
a) Pulmonary function tests.
b) Sputum examination.
c) Serum immunoglobulins.
d) Bronchoscopy
9. A five-year-old boy was brought to the Emergency room with
intractable convulsions. His mother said that he was playing in the
kitchen alone two hours before. On examination he was drowsy, with
pin point pupils.
A. What investigation you recommend?
a) CT head.
b) Screening for toxins.
c) Blood glucose.
d) All the above.
B. What is your first action towards the child?
a) Give anticonvulsants.
b) Give antidote for organophosphorus toxicity.
c) Wait to see investigations results.
d) Both a and b.
10. Two year-old-child failed to walk unsupported. He was resistant to
repeated vitamin D injections. On examination he showed bow legs
with intact reflexes and sensations.
A. What investigation is most helpful?
a) EMG.
b) EEG.
c) X-ray ankles.
d) X-ray skull.
B. Which of the following will diagnose the cause?
a) Renal functions.
b) Urine tests for amino acids.
c) Both a and b.
d) None of the above.

22
Cairo University Time allowed: 2 hours
Faculty of Medicine Total Marks: (200)
1/9/2009

Final examination M.B. B.Ch.

PEDIATRICS
Answer the following short easy questions : (120 marks)
1. a. Describe normal neonatal reflexes and their clinical significance.
(15 marks)
b. List causes of neonatal anemia. (5 marks)
2. Mention the advantages of breast feeding and the protective mechanisms of
human milk. (20 marks)
3. Enumerate the complications of acute severe gastroenteritis.
State briefly the mechanism(s) and treatment of each one. (20 marks)
4. a. Describe the diagnostic criteria of febrile convulsions. (10 marks)
b. Mention management and complications of mumps. (10 marks)
5. a. Differentiate between Fallot's tetralogy and transposition of great arteries.
(10 marks)
b. Mention the diagnosis and complications of pneumonia. (10 marks)
6. a. Mention the different crises in sickle cell anemia (1 marks)
b. Describe the prevention and treatment of cognital hypothyroidism.
(10 marks)

23
Cairo University june 2010 Exam
Faculty of Medicine Time Allowed: 3 hours
20/6/2010 Total Marks: 150 - Marks

Final Examination M.B.B. Ch

PEDIATRICS
Answer the following short essay questions: (150 Marks)
1. Describe diagonsis and treatment of neonatal sepsis. (15 Marks)
2. List causes and differential diagnosis of acute cough in an infant (15 Marks)
3. a. Mention the different types of milk formulas and their clinical use.
(10 Marks)
b. Describe the management outline of a febrile infant or child.
(10 Marks)
4. a. List the causes of persistent diarrhea and how to managge each.
(10 Marks)
b. Describe clinical and laboratory differentiation of the causative agent of
viral hepatitis. (10 Marks)
5. a. Mention the diagnostic work-up of a case of urinary tract infection.
(10 Marks)
b. State early and late manifestations of congenital hypothyroidism. (10 Marks)
6. a. Descibe the clinical picture and therapy of immune thrombocytopenic
purpura (ITP). (10 Marks)
b. List features of X-linked recessive inheritance and give examples.
(10 Marks)
7. a. Define acute respiratory failure and differentiate between its 2 types. (10 Marks)
b. Describe the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) findings in different types of men-
ingitis. (10 Marks)
8. a. Mention the diagnostic features and management of patent ductus arterio-
sus (PDA) in children (10 Marks)
b. Give reason(s) for: (Short answer in about 1 - 2 lines) (10 Marks)
i. Mental changes occur constantly in cases of kwashiorkor.
ii. Karyotypingg is indicated for a girl with short stature.
iii. Checking the fenoral pulse is essential durging examination if every
newborn.
iv. Delayed feeding is not recommended during management of acute gas-
troenteritis.
v. Diagnosis if chronic renal failure requires a high index of suspicion.

24
 Final Examination M.B.B. Ch
PEDIATRICS
Multiple Choice Questions: (40 marks: 2 for each( Choose ONLY one answer:
1) Which of the following is correct about Hemoglobin F?
a. It is formes of 2 alpha and 2 delta polypeptide chains.
b. At birth it reoresent about 70% of the total hemoglobin.
c. It reaches less than 2% by the age of 3 months.
d. It is the main hemoglobin in sickle cell anemia.
2) All of the following are known causes of acute abdominal pain EXCEPT:
a. Streptococcal pharyngitis. b. Acute pancreatitis.
c. Acute glomerulonephritis. d. Henoch-Schonlein vasculitis.
3) Birth length doubles at the age of:
a. 1 year. b. 2 years.
c. 3 years. d. 4 years.
4) Dysentery is caused by:
a. Enterotoxigenic E. coli. b. Shigella.
c. Cholera. d. Rotavirus.
5) Which of the following is true about rheumatic chorea?
a. Commoner in males. b. Early onset rheumatic manifestation.
c. Hypertonia is common. d. Self-limited condition.
6) The less likely cause of comiting in a newborn during the first few days of life:
a. Amniotic gastritis b. Oesophageal atresia.
c. Pyloric stenosis d. Swallowed maternal blood.
7) Which of the following conditions can be complicated by lung absecess?
a. Acute bronchiolitis. b. Hydropneumothorax.
c. Bronchial asthma. d. Foreing body aspiration.
8) Which of the following is a complication of post streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
a. Hyertensive encephalopathy. b. Pyelonephritis.
c. Pulmonary embolism. d. Hypovolemic shock.

25
9) Neck stiffness occurs in all EXCEPT:
a. Cerebral palsy. b. Pneumonia.
c. Brain abscess. d. Turner syndrome.
10) Pneumothorax may occur with all EXCEPT:
a. Staphylococcal pneumonia. b. Nephrotic syndrome.
c. Bordetella pertussis infection. d. Mechanical ventilation.
11) Caphalhematoma:
a. Is subgaleal. b. Resolves by 48 hours.
c. Limited by margin of bones. d. Usually leads to severe anemia.
12) Concerning childhood asthma:
a. Inhaled steroids are usuful treatment b. Hospitalization is usually needed.
.c Exacerbations usually occur with food.
d. Sufferers are excluded from sports.
13) The risk of neonatal jaundice is increased by all EXCEPT:
a. Prematurity. b. Hyoxia and acidosis.
c. Elective caesarean section. d. Congenital hypothyroidism.
14) All about ventricular septal defect are correct, EXCEPT:
a. A left ti right shunt become more severe with time.
b. Spontaneous closure might occur c. Pulmonary congestion is common.
d. Prophylaxis against endocarditis is not needed if asymptomatic and small lesion.
15) In pyloric stenosis:
a. Surgery may be a needed. b. Constipation can be a feature.
c. Infants often have metabolic acidosis. d. Prognosis is usually not good.
16) Concerning chickenpox:
a. The incubation period is 7 day. b. Aspirin is a useful anti-pyretic.
c. Transmission is by contact or airborne. d. there is no effective vaccine.
17) The following are causes microcytic anemias EXCEPT:
a. Lead poisoning. b. Ankylostoma infestation.
c. Cooley's anemia. d. Marrow hypoplasia.

26
18) Advantages of seld inflating (Ambu) bags include:
a. Delivers 100% oxyggen at all time. b. Any leak is determined.
c. Stiff lung can be recognized. d. Easy to use.
19) Most infant formulas contain-kcal/100 ml and most infants need-kcal/kg/day:
a. 80, 150. b. 67, 100. c. 30, 90. d. 150, 200.
20) Features of congential hypothyroidism include all EXCEPT:
a. Periorbital edema. b. Loose motions.
c. Umbilical hernia. d. Slow feeding.
Problem Solving Questions: (40 marks: 2 for each) Choose ONLY one answer:
1) A 12 year old boy develops petechaie and papules, some of which be-
come purouric over his buttocks and leggs, associated with painful
swollen knes. There is microscopuc hematuria on testing. The platelet-
count is normal.
All of the following are correct EXCEPT:
a. This condition is due to vascukitis. b. Abdominal pain may occur.
c. Splenomegaly is usual. d. Prognosis is excellent.
2) A preterm infwnt weighs 1500 gm at birth, Physical exam reveals a small
infant with a disproportionaltely larger head. Apgar score was 4 and 6
at 1 and 5 min respectively. Two hours delivery the baby developed rap-
id respiration with increasing breathing difficultyu and grunting.
All of the following may explain the respiratory illness EXCEPT:
a. Respiratory distress syndrome. b. Broncho-pulmonary dyslasia.
c. Hypoglycemia. d. Birth asphyxia.
3) A 15 month old infant presents with a history of watery, losse stools for
the past 4-5 days. The diarrhea occurs about 10 times per day. He has
temperature of 38.4 C, heart rate 160/m, RR 55/m and BP 60/40
mmHg. On examination, he has sunken eyes and anterior fontanelle.
He had delayed, capillary refillÆ

27
 Which of the following is true about this patient?
a. Rapid respiration is mostly due to acidosis.
b. He is suffering from mild to moderate dehydration.
c. Tachycardia is mostly due to heart failure.
d. He has compensated hypovolemic shock.
4) A 3-year-old child is prone to espisodes of restlessness, cyanosis, and
gasping ÆSymptoms resolve when he is placed in the knee chest posi-
tion., Examination reveals an under built child, with a harsh holosys-
tolic murmur and a single second heart sound.
Management may unclude all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Iron therapy. b. Propranolol.
c. Indomethacin. d. Morphine.
5) As a part of the newborn examination prior to discharge from hospital, a
pediatrician notices that one baby is hypotonic and also finds a systolic
murmur on auscultation of the heart. He also has upward slanting pal-
pebral fissdures, epicanthal folds, and a small with a protruding tongue.
What is the most likely nature of this genetic disease?
a. Chromosomal abnormality. b. Single gene disorder.
c. Multifactorially inherited. d. Teratogenic.
6) An-8 years boy has short stature. He has little or no energy, sleeps more
than normal, and complains of being cold, His growth curve has fallen
from the 50th percentile to the 5th percentile for height., His school
achievement over the last year is below average. On examination, he
has dull facies, and slow reflexes.
What is the most appropriate action for trhis child?
a. Check thyroid profile. b . Chromosomal analysis.
c. Foolow up growth qfter 3 months. d. Determine bone age.
7) An 8-year-old boy presents to pediatric clinic with hematemesis. There is
no bleeding from other orifices. On examination, there is splenomegaly,
no ascites, and no hepatomegaly. Abdominal ultrasound shows homoge-
nous liver pattern. Upper endoscopy reveals esophageal varices.

28
 What is the likely diagnosis?
a. Constrictive pericarditis. b. Portal vein thrombosis.
c. Hepatic cirrhosis. d. Veno-occlusive disease.
8) A 19-month-old infant is brought to clinic for routine checkup. Devcelop-
mental assessment revgeals that he is to crawl and stand with support. He
waves bye-bye. understands several words ans can sqay about 10 words.
What is the most likely diagosis?
a. Normal development. b. Delayed motor development.
c. Delayed mental development. d. Delayed motor and mental development.
9) A 10-month-old male infant presents to clinic with of puffy face and
limb edema. The baby is formula fed. The mother gives history of se-
vere diarrheal illness last week during which she gives diluted milk,
rice water and a lot of herbal liquids. The infant is apathetic infant not
interested to eatÆ
All of the following are useful therapies EXCEPT:
a. Increased protein intake. b. An oral antibiotic.
c. Multivitamins. d. Diuretics.
10) A 4-day old female is brought to the pediatric doctor because she has a
blood-tinges discharge coming from her vagina. According to the
mother, the infant has been afebrile, and is feeding and sleeping well.
What is the most appropriate action?
a. Check hemoglobin. b. Reassure the mother.
c. Obtain a urine analysis. d. Consult the endocrinologist.
11) A one year old infant presented to clinic because of delayed motor and
mental milestones. On examination, weight 9,5 kg, and head size is 50 cm.
There is widely separated sutures, patent fontanel qnd dilated scalp veins.
What is most relevant during history taking?
a. Natritional history. b. Family history of large heqd.
c. previous history ifd CNS infection. d. History of drug intake.

29
12) A 3-year-old girl presents with recurrent epistaxis over the past few
weeks. Further history reveals that she bruises easile ans she has exces-
sive gum bleeding a month ago. She denies any joint complaints and is
otherwise healthy. Laboratory results indicate that prothrombin time
is normal, an activated partial thromboplastin time is prologed, and
bleeding time is prolonged.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. vom Willebrand disease. b. Hemophilia A.
c. Vitamin K deficiency. d. Immune thrombocytopenia.
13) A 12-year-old girl presents with symmetrically painful wrists. She has had
untermittent episodes of fever and malaise associated with arthralgia and
myalgia. Laboratory results demonstrate anemia, elevated ESR, positive
antinuclear antibodies and urinalysis with +2 blood and +2 protein. Re-
cently, on returning from the beach, she was found to have a facial rashÆ
What us the most likely diagnosis?
a. Systemic lupus erythemayosus. b. Rheumatoid arthritis.
c. Acute rheumatic fever. d. Henoch-Schonlein purpura.
14) A 9-month-old male is presents with history if episodes of paroxysms
of cough since one month. Each paroxysm of cough is followed by vom-
iting and usually associated with inspiratory characteristic sound and
intense congestion of the face. Examination of the chest is unremarka-
ble and chest x-ray is normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Tuberculosis. b. Whooping cough.
c. Bronchial asthma. d. Viral croup.
15) A 4-month-infant is brought to the pediatrician by his mother because
he is not feeding well. Examination of the mouth reveals curd-like
plaques on the tongue and buccal mucosa that do not scrape off easily.
Which of the following sites may be involved with this condition?
a. Eyes. b. Scalp. c. Perineum. d. Umbilicus.

30
16) A 4-year-old male came to clinic with one week new history of daytime
ensuresis. Over the past week his family noticed that he would be play-
ing, then ran for the bathroom but often would have urinary inconti-
nence. He denied dysuria and itching. Parents said that he seemed to
be drinking more for the past 3 weeks. His weight was 16.4 kilograms
which was the same as 6 months previously.
Which of the following is the suitable advice?
a. Check urine for glucose. b. Try an anti-cholinergic drug.
c. Examine stool dor pinworms.
d. Avoid punishments and give simple rewards.
17) A 4-day-old male infant weighing 3,600 kg is brought to emer gency
room because his skin and sclerae are icteric. A blood test indicates el-
evated unconhugggated bilirubin in serum. Otherwise the infant is do-
ing well, has good suckling and normal termperture. Examination of
other body systems is unremarkable.
What is the most likely machanism of his jaundice?
a. Decreased destruction of red blood cells.
b. Dilatation of rhe common bile duct.
c. Deficicency of an enzyme regulating bilirubin conjugation.
d. Increased hepatocyte uptake of bilirubin.
18) A healthy 2-month-old infant is brought to clinic for routine care. The
infant has a normal growth curve. She received the first dose of hepati-
tis b vaccine at birth as well as a dose of hepatitis B immunoglobulin.
She is now scheduled for the second dose of hepatitis B vaccine.
What is the most likely reason this infant was vaccinated at birth?
a. The baby is hepatitis B surface antigen positive.

31
 b. The mother is hepatitis B surfece antingen positive.
c. Hepatitis B infection is prevalent in the country.
d. The father is a drug addict.
19) A-month-old infant presents to emergency department because if un-
creased agitation qnd restlessness. Auscultation reveals crackles and
decreased breath so sounds bilaterally. Chest x-ray films show bilater-
al pneumonia. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals an oxygen tension of
45 ll Hg and a carbon dioxide tension of 65 mmHg.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
a. Obtain blood cultures. b. Administer oxygen by mask.
c. Administer antibiotcs. d. Start assisted ventilation.
20) A 12-year-old boy is seen in the emergency room because of fever and
lethargy for I week Examination reveals markes cervical and inguinal
adenophathy, enlarged, tonsils with exudate and a palpable spleen 2
cm below the left costal margin. The white blood cell count is 16,000/
mm3 with 50% lymphocytes, of which 10% qre atypical.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Infectious mononucleosis. b. Streptococcal throat infection.
c. German measles. d. Tuberculosis.

32
Cairo University July. 2011 Exam
Faculty of Medicine Time Allowed: 3 hours
3/7/2011 Total Marks: 150 - Marks

Final Examination M.B.B. Ch

PEDIATRICS
Answer the following short essay questions: 150 Marks)
1- A. list causes of cyanosis with respiratory distress in a newborn infant.
(10 marks)
B. Mention neonatal problems associated with maternal diabetes mellitus.
Discuss, briefly, their management. (10 marks)
2- A- Enumerate the common bacterial causes of septicemia in infants and
chidren, Discuss its clinical features. (10 marks)
B- Discuss the diagnostic work - up (investigation) of tuberculosis in
children. (10 marks)
3- A. Discuss the cytogenetics of Down's syndrome (10 marks)
B. List prenatal, perinatal and postnatal causes of developmental delay and
learning disability (mental retardation). (10 marks)
4- List the causes and describe the pathogenesis of rickets. (10 marks)
5- Describe the treatment of hypercyanotic spells in infants with Fallot's
tetralogy. (10 marks)
6- Discuss bronchodilator therapy in childhood asthma. (10 marks)
7- Discuss the etiology, clinical features and investigations of acute post -
infectious polymeuropathy (Guillain - Barrsyndrome) (10 marks)
8- Describe, preferably as a table, the clinical asscessment of different grades
of dehydration. (10 marks)
9- Describe the laborator diagnsis of acute viral hepatitis in children. (10 marks)
10- List causes of congental hypothyroidism Describe its clinical features.
(10 marks)
11- Describe the complications of sickle cell disease, and their management.
(10 marks)
12- List the causes and investigations of hematuria in children. (10 marks)

33
Cairo University July. 2011 Exam
Faculty of Medicine Time Allowed: 2 hours
4/7/2011 Total Marks: 200 - Marks

Final Examination M.B.B. Ch

PEDIATRICS
Answer the following short essay questions: (120 Marks, 15 Marks for each)
1. Discuss the clinical features and management of neonatal respiratory
distress syndrome.
2. Discuss the advantages of breast feeding to the infant.
3. Enumerate the bacterial causes of meningitis according to age. Discuss the
laboratory investigations of a case suspected of bacterial meningitis.
4. Discuss the diagnosis and treatment of large ventricular septal defects.
5. Describe the clinical features and treatment of a case of hemophilia A.
6. Describe the clinical features and differential diagnosis of roseola
infantum.
7. List the early and late signs of shock in pediatric patients.
8. Discuss the diagnosis and management of recurrent ono-organic abdominal pain.

34
Cairo University July. 2011 Exam
Faculty of Medicine Time Allowed: 2 hours
4/7/2011 Total Marks: 100- Marks

Final Examination M.B.B. Ch

PEDIATRICS
Multiple choico questions (60 marks, one for each) Choose one answer.
1- In the full - term infant, the term persistent ductus arteriosus is used if
the ductus has failed to close by:
A- 10 hours of age.
B- 3 Days of age.
C- 1 Week of age.
D- 1 month of age.
2- Hypoglycemia in the first 24 hours of life is more likely in any of the
following conditions EXCEPT
A- Babies with intrauterine growth retardation.
B- Preterm babies.
C- Maternal diabetes mellitus.
D- ABO incompatibility.
3- Metabolic causes of neonatal seizures include any of the following
EXCEPT
A- Hypoglycemia.
B- Hypothyroidism.
C- Pyridoxine dependency.
D- Hypocalcemia.
4- The commonest cause of precocious puberty in a female is
A- Premature onset of normal puberty.
B- Androgen secreting suprarenal tumor.
C- Iatrogenic.
D- Congenic adrenal hyperplasia
5- The commonest cause of intestinal obstruction in infants is:
A- Malrotation of the intestine .
B- Ileocecal intussusception.
C- Epstein Barr virus.
D- Diphtheria.
7- A vesicular eruption can be caused by any of the following EXCEPT

35
 A- Chicken pox.
B- Herpes zoster.
C- Rubella.
D- Hand, foot and mouth disease.
8- Coplications of Measles include all the following EXCEPT
A- Encephalitis.
B- Myocarditis.
C- Congenital anomalies.
D- Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.
9- One of the following is NOT a live vaccine
A- Sabin.
B- MMR.
C- BCG.
D- Pneumococcal.
10- An absolute indication for tonsillectomy in children is
A- Recurrent tonsillitis.
B- Obstructive sleep apnea.
C- Recurrent otitis media.
D- Enlarged tonsillar lymph nodes.
11- A cardiac murmur is considered significant (as opposed to innocent) if
any of the following is true EXCEPT
A- It is accompanied with a therill.
B- It is heard all over the precordium.
C- It is mostly on the upper sternal border.
D- It is diastolic.
12- Common findings in infants with congestive heart failure include all
the following EXCEPT
A- Tachypnea.
B- Tachycardia.
C- Excessive sweating.
D- Splenomegaly.
13- In the assessment of gross motor development the limit ege for sitting
unsupported is
A- 6 months.
B- 7 months.
C- 8 months.
D- 9 months.

36
14- in the assessment of vision and finc motor dervlopment the (median
age) for transferring objects for hand is
A- 6 months.
B- 7 months.
C- 8 months.
D- 9 months.
15- Infants are at particular risk of dehydration because they have:
A- Greater weight to surface area ratio.
B- Less insensible water losses than older children.
C- Immature renal tubular re- absorption process.
D- About 15- 20% of ther body weight is water.
16- Manifestations of dehydration include all of the following
A- Weight loss
B- Fontanel affection.
C- Decreased urine flow.
D- Shortened capillary refill time.
17- One of the following is correct about human colostrum
A- Its mineral content is about 4 gm/dt.
B- Its ph is acidic.
C- Its protein content ranges between 3-3.5 gm%.
D- It has a higher fat content than mature breast mik.
18- Hemiplegle type of spastic cerebral palsy is characterized by:
A- Leg is more affected than arm
B- Fisting of the affected hand is common.
C- True bulbar palsy.
D- Complete affection of one half of the face.
19- A weight measurement falling on the 10th Percentile for a given age
indicates that:
A- 10% of normal children of the same age will have the same weight.
B- The patient weight is 10% below the mean value for the age.
C- The patient weight is 10% above the mean value for the age.
D- 10% of normal children of the same age would have the same or smaller
weight.
20- In autosomal dominant disorders.
A- Such disease is not manifested in the heterozygous.
B- Pheny lketonuria is a good example.
C- Variability of expression is very uncommon.
D- The offspring of apparently healthy individuals are usually unaffecled.

37
21- In which of the following conditions are infantile body proportions
seen in a 5 year oldchild?
A- Malnutrition.
B- Untreated congenital hypothroidism.
C- Down syndrome.
D- klinefeter syndrome.
22- Fluid of choice for hypovolemic shoch is:
A- Glucose 10%.
B- Half normal saline.
C- Sodium bicarbonate .
D- Ringer's lactate.
24- All of the following conditions can be complicated by lung abscess
EXCEPT:
A- Lobar pneumonia.
B- Salmonella typhi.
C- Meningococci.
D- Staph aureus.
26- Which of the following is highly suggestive of infection of the lower
urinary tract?
A- Flank pain.
B- Hematuria which is gross.
C- Dysuria and foul smelling urine.
D- Abdominal pain with vomiting & diarrhea.
27- Liver cell failure is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A- Gynecomastila.
B- Encephalopathy.
C- Hypo - ammonemia.
D- Bad oral smell.
28 Pre - hepatic portal hypertension may be due to:
A- Umbilical sepsis.
B- Wilson disease.
C- Budd chiar syndrome.
D- Autoimmune hepatitis.
29- All of the following may be a predisposing factor for vitmin D
deficiency richets EXCEPT:
A- Dark skin infants.
B- Excessive wrapping of the infants.

38
 C- Excess leafy green vegetables in diet.
D- Feeding fortified milk formula.
30- One of the classical presenting features of type 1 diabetes mellitus is:
A- Enuresis.
B- Diarrhea.
C- Weigh gain.
D- Loss of appetite.
31- In iron deficiency anemia:
A- Decreased iron binding capacity is expected.
B- Maked hepatomegaly is a common finding.
C- Mebendazole is sometimes used during management.
D- A diastolic murmur is commonly audible.
32- Beta thalassemia major is characterized by:
A- Normochromic RBCs.
B- Target cells usually seen in the blood film.
C- Narrow Medull of long bones.
D- Anisocytosis of RBCs is constant in the bone marrow.
33- Which of the following is true about autosomal recessive disorder?
A- Affected person married to a homozygous normal individual has an
equal chance of producing either normal or affected offspring.
B- Most of the affected offspring.
C- After the birth of one affected offspring, the recurrence risk is 50%
D- The parents of affected person are usually not consanguineous.
34- Biochemical abnormalities in kwashiorkor includ:
A- Hypernatremia.
B- Hyperkalemia.
C- Low serum protein
D- Hyperglycemia.
35- Which of the following is correct about glucose 6 phosphate
dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency?
A- It is an x - linked dominant disorder.
B- Stool is black in severe cases.
C- Hemolysis may be due to ingestion of certain drugs.
D- It has no sexy predilection.
36- Which of the following is correct about kericterus?
a- It is likel to occur if serum bilirubin exceeds 10 mg/dl in the 1st 24 hous
in preterm.

39
 b- Bilirubin is deposited mainly in cerebral hemisperes.
c- It is more likely to occur in infants with Rh positive mothers.
d- Extra - hepatic biliary atresia is a common cause.
37- Which of the following is true about Down syndrom?
a- Incidence increases with increased patermal age.
b- Incidence increases with increased paternal age
c- Hypertonia a common finding .
d- Delayd milestones of development is nearl a constant finding.
38- Neonatal screening could prevent mental retardation in:
A- Galactosemia.
B- Hrain malformations.
D. Hydrocephalus.
39- Features of chronic renal failure DO NOT include:
A. A zotemia.
B. Hypophosphatemia.
C.Rckets.
D. Anemia.
40- A possible cause short stature is:
A. Congenital cyanotic heart disease.
B. Infant of diabetic mother.
C. Acute renal failure.
D. Acute infections.
41- In ronchiolitis:
A. Coryzal symptoms usually follow the illness.
B. Wheezing is often but not al ways present.
C. Brochiolitis obliterans is the most common complicatlion.
D. It is usually caused by parainfluenza virus.
42- Cholestasis is NOT characterized by:
A. Pale clay colored stools.
B. Vitamin E deficiency.
C. Increased serum albumin.
D. Increased total serum bilirubin.
43- Peripheral muscle disease is suggested by the following EXCEPT:
A. Limb hypotonia.
B. Gower's sign.
C. Positive Babinski reflex.
D. Absent deep tendon jerks.

40
44- The following are true about lymphadenopathy EXCEPT:
A. Discrete small mobile nodes are common and not significant.
B. An enlarged liver and spleen should be looked for .
C. A focus of infection may be found proximal to the node.
D. A blood count may be helpful in diagnosis.
45- Clubbing is usually associated with the following conditions EXCEPT:
A. Bronchial asthma.
B. Ulcerative colitis.
C. Cystic fibrosis.
D. Bronchiectasis.
46- Causes of microcytic anemia include all of the following EXCEPT.
A. Thalassemia trait.
B. Sickle cell disease.
C. Lead poisoning.
D. Iron deficiency.
47- Causs of metabolic acidosis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Pyloric stenosis.
B. Severe gastrenteritis.
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis.
D. Shock.
48- A lumbar puncture should be carried out inn the following circumstances:
A. Febrile convulsion in a 3- year old child.
B. Presence of papilloedema.
C. Urine for microscopy and culture.
D. Areferral to a psychologist.
49- The initial management of a child with nocturnal cnuresis is to do:
A. Renal ultrasound scan.
B. Serum creatinine .
C. Urine for microscopy and culture.
D. Areferrl to a psychologist.
50- The differential diagnosis of joint swelling in a child includes:
A. Renal failure.
B. Sickle cell disease.
C. .Cerebral palsy.
D. Veno - occlusive disease.
51- One of the following statements is true about short stature in chidren:
A. In most cases it is a veriant of normal.
B. There is often early puberty.

41
 C. Ahistory of preterm birth is irrelevant.
D. May be caused by acute renal failure.
52- A large head needs urgent investigation if one of the following is present:
A. Previus head trauma.
B. One parent with a large head.
C. Depressed fontanelle.
D. Afamily history of epilepsy.
53- The following is an important cause of language delay:
A. Cleft lip.
B. Turner's syndrome.
C. Visual impairment.
D.Deafiness.
54- An abormal EEG is commonly seen in:
A. Cyanotic spells.
B. Simple febrile seizures.
C. Breath - holding spells.
D. Infantile spasms.
55- Important complications of a ventricular septal defect include:
A. Hyper - cyanotic spells.
B. Cardiac failure at birth.
C. Pulmonary hypertension.
D. Intellectual impairment.
56- Possible causes of acute respiratory failure include:
A. Cerebral palsy.
B. Drug intoxication.
C. Acute bronchitis.
D. Diabetic ketoacidosis.
57- Features suggestive of an acute surgical abdomen in a 1-year - old
infant include all EXCEPT:
A. Periumbilical pain.
B. Guarding.
D. Redcurrant jelly stool.
58- The need for neonatal resuscitation should be anticipated in the
following EXCEPT
A. Elective caesarean section.
B. Thick meconium staining of the amniotic fluid.
C. Multiple gestations.
D. Delivery at 31 weeks' gestation.

42
59- The most serious complication of small for gestational age infants is:
A. Polycythemia.
B. Neonatal jaundice.
C. Hypothermia.
D. Hyperglycemia.
60- In neonatal jaundice, the following suggests hemolysis as its cause:
A. Low neonatal T4.
B. Mothe group A, bably group o.
D. Cooomb's positive.
Answer the following problem solving questions, Choose only one answer:
(40 Marks, 2 for each case)
A 42 week gestational age,3800g breast fed female infant is noted to have
persistent hyperbilirubinemia at 2 weeks of age. The infant has not
gained weight since birth,has hoarse cry, dry skin, hypotonia, an
umbilical hernia, constipation, and an anterior fontanelmeasuring 6 cm
61- What is the most alikely diagnosis?
A. Hypothyroidism.
B. Hereditary spherocytosis.
C. Biliary atresia.
D. Galactosemia.
62- This condition can be prevented by :
A- Early exchange transfusion.
B. Neonatal screening.
C. Genetic counseling.
D. A special milk formula.
An infant is born with perinatal asphyxia. At birh he is apneic with a heart
rate 70 per minute. so bag and mask positive pressuer ventilation with
100% O2 was immediately instituted. Afler 30
63- The most appropriate next step is :
A. Chest compressinon.
B. Tactile stimulation.
C. To continue ventilation.
D. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate .
64- The most likely complication is .
A. Early onset sepsis.
B. Hyperbilirubinemia.
C. Hyperthermia.
D. Early onset seizures.

43
A. 9-year old female is referred to the hematology department with a chief
complaint of acute onset of easy bruisng and rash for 3 days she had upper
respiratory infection symptoms approximately. Clinical examination is
otherwise unremarkable.
65- The most probable diagnosis is :
A. Lmmune thrombocytopenic purpura.
B. Bone marrow failure.
C. Hemophilia A.
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
66- Treatment options include:
A. Bone marrow transplantation.
B. Plasma transfusion.
C. Corticosteroids.
D. Vitamin K injection.
A 2-hour- old, 32- week- gestational - age infant develops progressive
cyanosis, grunting nasal flaring and chest retractions. The chest radiograph
reveals a ground glass - air bronchogram patten. The infant now requires
oxygen therapy with continuous positive airway pressure to maintain
adequate oxygenation.
67- The most likely diagnosis is :
A. Respiratory distress syndrome.
B. Intra - natal asphyxia.
C. Congenital pneumonia.
D. Pneumothorax.
68- One of the following is true about diagnosis :
A. Less common with matenal diabetes
B. X-ray findings are typically bilateral
C. Assisted ventilation is the only available therapy
D. Maternal antibiotics can decrease con decrease severit
A mother of a previously healthy 3-year - old mal complains of cough and
wheeze. The boy had been playing with a small toy. During
examination the right side of the chest shows hyperesonance,
diminished vocal resonance and poor air entry.
69. The most probable diagnosis is :
A. Foreign body aspiration.
B. Bronchial asthma.
C. Lobar pneuonia.
D. Acute bronchiolitis.

44
70- One of the following is typical about diaguosis
A. Being healthy Before illness.
B. The local chest findings.
C. Both.
D. None.
A full term nwborn has developed jaundice at 10 hours of ege Bloob
group of the mother is O negative and of the baby is A-positive. Two
hours later the infant has an indirect serum bilirubin level of 16 mg/dl
71. The most appropriate for treatment is :
A. Exchange blood transfusion.
B. Phototherapy.
C. Phenobarbital.
D. Cefiriaxone.
72- The main deerminant of cause of jaundice is
A. The level of bilirubin .
B. The rate of rise.
C. The sex of the baby.
D. The onset of jaundice.
A 10 years old boy suffered suffered from acute tonillitis two weeks ago.
Now he complains of general weakness, oedema of eyelds, headache,
nausea and vomiting. Skin is pale, appetite ix reduced, and vomiting.
Skin is pale, appetite is reduced, and daily urine output is 600 ml. In
urinalysis: protein 1+ wbc 4- 6/ HPF, RB.Cs are too numerous to count
but no red cell casts are detected.
73. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Minimal change nephrotic syndrome.
B. Acute pyelonephritis.
C- Acut glomerulonephritis.
D. posterior urethral valve.
74. Helpful diagnostic tests include:
A. Serumcomplement.
B. Serum proteins.
C. Urine culture.
D. Renal ultrasound.
A 6- year- old girl has had a dry cough withou sputum for months. The
cough is getting is getting worse after exercise and at night, Family
history revealed that the parnts have eczema On physical examination, a
wheeze in both lung fields is detected.

45
75. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bronchial asthma.
B. pertussis.
C. Bronchiectasis.
D.Interstitial pneumonia .
A baby was born by vaginal delivery following a term gestation Apgar score
was 5 and 7 physical examination reveals scaphoid adomen, rapid
respiration (80/minute) and reduced chest movement on the left side.
Breath sounds are absent in the lower part of the left lung Chest radiograph
reveals shift of mediastinum to the right side.
77- What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Diaphragmatic hernia .
B. Respiratory distress syndrome.
C. Transient tachypnea of newborn.
D. Congenital pneumonia.
78- All of the following are indicated EXCEPT
A. Oxygen.
B. Bag and mask ventilation.
C. Nothing per mouth.
D. Surgical consultation.
A 1- year old girl has history of tachypnea, tiredness, and frequent of
respiratory infections. On examinaton, the 2nd heart sound in the 2nd left
intercostal space is accentuated and there is a harsh systolic diastolic
murmur in the second left intercostal space and below the clavicle similar
to a machine noise .
79. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. patent ductus arteriosus.
B- Aortic Stenosis.
C- Atrial septal defect.
D. Ventricular septal defect.
80- One of the following is true:
A.The conditionis more common in boys .
B. Corrective tratment should be done early .
C. Hypercyanotic spells are common .
D. Femoral pulses cannot be felt.
An 8-month old infant presents with the primary complaint of irritability. H
has been exclusively breastfed since birth. His mother was not interested in
providing any supplemental foods becausc her mik supply has been

46
adequate physical examination reveals a fussy infant who has frontal bossing
and whose weight and height are both at the 25th percentile. thee infant
becomes erritable with movement of the left arm.
81- To manage the infan's irritability:
A. Check his boody temperature .
B. Do an arm radiograph.
C. Arrange for CSF examination.
D. Giv an anti - spasmodic.
82- Possible associations include:
A. Hydrocephalus.
B. Generalized Oedema.
C. Iron deficiency anemia.
D. Atopic eczema.
A 2-week old infant presents to the mergency department with a 1 history of
decreased feeding and lethargy. He was brn at term, and the delivery was
uncumplicted. on physical examination, his temperature was 39 c, his heart
rate is 150 beats/min his respiratory rate is 60 breaths/min his blood
pressure is 50/30 mm Hg. and his extremities are cool and pal with poor
pulses.
83- the MOST appropriate test is :
A- ECG and echocardiography.
B- CBC and blood colture.
C. Lumbar puncture and CT head.
D. Serum electrolyte and Ct chest.
84- The MOST likely diagnosis is:
A- Septic shock.
B- Hypovolemia.
C. Acute hemolysis.
D. Cardiogenic shock.
A 5- year - old girl is presenting with drorsiness and vomiting she hes no
signifcnt medical history on examination she appears unwell and has
diffiuse abdominal tenderness. Her temperature is 37. 8. c repiratory rate
45, heart rate 170 and Bp 90/50 Her breath smells strange.
85- what is the most important investigation you need to perform?
A. Chest X- ray.
B. Blood culture.
C. Checking uringe for glucose.
D. Echocardiography.

47
86- Dehydration in this patien is mainly due to:
A. Diarrhea.
B. polyuria.
C. Anorexia.
D. Tachypnea.
A17 - month old boy presented with a 12-hour history of fever lethargy and a
spreading purpuric rash The lesion are irregular in size and shape with a
necrotic center In hospital he required immediate resuscitation, colloid and
inotropic peritoneal dialysis for renal failure He made a full recovery.
87- How would yoy describe the skin lesion?
A. Immune thrombocytopenia.
B. Purpura fulminans.
C. Henoch schonlein purpura.
D. Drug induced purpura.
88- The inotrope that had been used is most likely:
A. adrenaline.
B- Noradrenaling.
C. Digoxin.
D. Dopamine.
A. 5- year old gir developed a severe sore throat drooling of saliva a high
fever and increasing breathing difficulty over 8 hours. she looks toxic and
unable to spsak. She was sitting immobile, upright, with an open mouth to
optimize the airway. Her airway was guaranteed with a nasotracheal tube.
89- What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute bronchitis.
B. Acute epiglottitis.
C. Acute laryngitis.
D.Acute larngotracheitis .
90. The most likely responsible agent is :
A. Hemophilus influenza.
B- Respiratory syncytial virus.
C. Parainfluenza virus.
D. Staphy lococcus aureus.
A. 5 week old femalc infant was referred to hospital because of poor feeding
and poor weight gain during the previous 2 weeks Before this, she had been
wel. on examination, she was tachypneic and havin intercostal recessions
There was a thrill, and a loud pansystolic murmur at the lowwer left sternal

48
edge. The chest x- ray shwed cardiomegal and increased pulmonary vascular
markings.
91- What is the most likely diagnost?
A. ventriicular septal defect .
B. Coactation of aorta.
C. Tetralogy of Fallot .
D. arial septal defect.
92. one of the follwing is false about this:
A. Diuretics and captopril are useful treatment .
B. cyanosis may develop in chrornic untreated cases.
C. Spontaneous closuer is rare.
D. Endocarditis prophylaxis is essential.
A 2- month - old infat stopped feeding and had a high intermittent fever He
was referred to hospital where he had an infection screen Urine examiation
showed 100 whit bleed cells and 10 E coli/ml He was treated with
intravenuous antibiotics An ultrasound showed an enlarged right kidney
with a dilated pelvis.
93. what is the diagnosis?
A. Urinary tract infection.
B. Glomerulonephritis.
C. Renal tumour.
D. Posterion uretral valve.
94. Ivestigations to be done include all EXCEPT:
A. DMSA scan.
B. Micturating cystourethogram.
C. Follow up urine culture.
D. Serum complement 3 level.
A12-week old infant presented with poor feeding and vimititg and a
history of bruising on his forehead and shiulders His urine had become
dark and stools pale He was pale jaundiced, had several bruises and
hepatomegaly lnvestigations showed bilirubin of 11 mg/dl 80%
conjugated The radionuclide scan showed no excretion at 24 hours and
a liver biopsy was done.
95) What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Billiary atresia.
B. Neonatal gepatitis.
C. Choledochal cyst.
D. Hypothyroidism.

49
96) The cause of bruising in this patient is:
A. Hypoprothrombinemia.
B. Thrombocytopenia.
C. Hyperbilirubinemia.
D. Vitamin Emalabsorption.
A 4-year old girl was generally unwell, feeling lethargic, looking pale and
occasionally febrile over aperiod of 9 weeks Tow courses of antibiotics for
recurrent sore thriat failed to result in any benefit Examination showed
pallor, petechiae modest lymphadenopathy ank mild hepatosplenomegaly
lnitial laboratory results showed: Hb 8.3g/di and platelets 44*10/L.
97) What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Immune thrombocytopenia.
B. Acute leukemia.
C. Acute leukemia.
D. Henoch Schonlein purpura.
98) How to cinfirm this diagnisis?
A. Skin biopsy.
B. Bone marrow examination.
C. Atypical lymphocytes in blood film.
D. Anti-platelets antibodies.
An otherwise normal 1.5-year old boy went to his bed as usual, bit after
midnight, his mother noticed that he was flushed and convulsing During
convulsions, gis eyes rolled up and his arms and legs started jerking, ghe fit
lasted one minute His exminaton revealed a high fever 39.2 c and severe
otitis media.
99) what is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Epilepsy.
B. CNs infection.
C. Cerebral hypoxia.
D. Febrile convulsions.
100) which of the following investigations is indicated?
A. CT scan of the head.
B. Echocardiography.
C. Electroencephalogram.
D. None of the above.

50
June/July 2012 Exam Cairo University
Time Allowed: 2 hours (6 pages) Faculty of Medicine
Total Marks: 200 Marks 3/ 7 / 2012

Final Examination M.B. B. Ch.

PEDIATRICS
Answer the following short essay guestions: (120 Marks, 15 Marks for
each question)

l. Explain how to differentiate between physiological and pathological ne-

onatal jaundice.

2. Enumerate causes and complications of pneumonia.

3. Mention matemal causes that make breast feeding difficult and how to
manage each.

4. Discuss tive obligatory vaccines to be taken during the tirst year of life.

5. List indications of renal biopsy in a case of nephrotic syndrome.

6. Enumerate types of shock and mention 2 causes for each type.

7. Describe the clinical picture and diagnostic criteria of type 1 diabetes

mellitus.

8. State the different crises in sickle cell anemia.

51
June / July 2012 Exam Cairo University
Time Allowed: 3 hours Faculty of Medicine
Total Marks: 150 Marks 3 / 7 / 2012

Final Examination M.B. B. Ch.

PEDIATRICS
Answer the following short essay guestions: (150 Marks)

l. a. Discuss phototherapy option for management of neonatal

hyperbilirubinemia. (10 Marks)
b. Enumerate l0 clinical features of neonatal sepsis. (10 Marks)

2. a. Explain how to differentiate clinically between measles and roseola

infantum. (10 Marks)
b. Mention the advantages of breast feeding for the infant. (10 Marks)

3. a. Describe the mechanisms of airway obstruction during an asthmatic

attack. (10 Marks)
b. Discuss the clinical si gniticance of growth curves. (10 Marks)

4. Mention different lines of management for treating juvenile idiopathic

arthritis (J IA). (l0 Marks)

5. Describe the clinical consequences of portal hypertension. (10 Marks)

6. Define and list causes of acute congestive heart failure. (10 Marks)

7. State the different clinical types of cerebral palsy. (10 Marks)

8. Mention the clinical presentations of urinary tract infection in infancy and

childhood. (10 marks)
9. Discuss the differential diagnosis for children with anemia and splenomegaly.
(10 Marks)

52
10. Explain how the degree of dehydration can be estimated in a child.

(l0 Marks)

l l. List clinical features in an infant that suggest congenital hypothyroidism.

(10 Marks)

12. Describe the genetic types of Down syndrome. (l0 Marks)

53
June / July 2012 Exam Cairo University
Time Allowed: 2 hours (12pages) Faculty of Medicine
Total Marks: 100 Marks 5 / 7 /2012

Final Examination M.B. B. Ch.

PEDIATRICS
Multiple choice guestions g60 marks, one for each). Choose ONLY
ONE answer:
1- Which of the following is correct about Moro reflex?
A. It starts with shoulder adduction of the arms.
B. A cry may follow the response.
C. It is associated with fisted hands.
D. Trunk flexion occurs initially.
2- The following are commonly seen in vitamin D deficiency rickets EX-
CEPT.
A. Normal serum calcium
B. Normal urine appearance .
C. Anorexia and irritabilityÆ
D. Normal alkaline phosphatase.
3- A skin rash is NOT an essential part of diagnosis in
A. Infectious mononucleosis.
B. Varicella zoster infection.
C. Rubella.
D. Measles.
4- Rheumatic carditis is characterized by
A. Shorter P-R interval on ECG _.
B. Apical high-pitched, early diastolic murmur.
C. Decrescendo systolic murmur along the left sternal border (aortic murmur).
D. Tachycardia disproportionate to the degree of fever.
5- Neonatal hypoglycemia is defined as blood glucose level ....... in the 1st
72 hours of life.
A. < 50 mg/dl.
B. < 45 mg/dl.

54
 C. < 40 mg/dl I.
D.< 35 mg/dl.
6- Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants include the fol-
lowing EXCEPT:
A. Iron deficiency anemia.
B. Aspiration pneumonia.
C. Metabolic acidosis.
D. Oesophageal stricture.
7- Causes of early neonatal hypocalcemia (1S' 3 days of life) include the
following EXCEPT:
A. Hypoparathyroidism.
B. Prematurity.
C. Infant of diabetic mothers.
D. Birth asphyxia.
8- All of the following may be normal in cerebral palsy EXCEPT:
A. Cognitive abilities.
B. Sensory functions.
C. Motor functions.
D. Auditory functions.
9- The most critical event during transition from intra-uterine to extra-
uterine life is:
A. Clear liquor.
B. Cord clamping.
C. Placenta] separation.
D. Lung expansion.
10- Glucose in oral rehydration solution (ORS) is added to:
A. Improve the taste.
B. Meet the childís energy requirements.
C. Prevent malnutrition.
D. Facilitate sodium absorption.
11- Choose the correct answer about infant weight:
A. Weight is doubled at 4 months and tripled at 12 months.
B. Weight is doubled at 3 months and tripled at 12 months.
C. Weight is doubled at 6 months and tripled at 15 months.
D. Weight is doubled at 4 months and tripled at 15 months ë.

55
12- The colostrum is characterized by.
A. Lower pH than mature breast milk.
B. Protein content of about 3.5 gm! 100ml.
C. Fat content of about 8 gm/100ml.
D. Specific gravity ranging from 1040-1060.
13- For developmental assessment, the limit age for transferring objects
between hands is:
A. 6 months.
B. 7 months.
C. 8 months.
D. 9 onths.
14- All of the following are later medical problems in Down syndrome
EXCEPT:
A. Hearing impairment due to secretory otitis media.
B. Hyperthyroidism.
C. Visual impairment due to cataract.
D. Increased incidence of leukemia.
15- Concerning weaning:
A. Peanuts and nuts should be avoided.
B. Egg white and not egg yolk should be used in the lst year of life.
C. Salty and spicy food is allowed.
D. B12 deficiency anemia commonly occurs with introduction of cowís
milk inthe lst year of life.
16- Hypervitaminosis D is characterized by
A. Nausea and vomiting.
B. Oliguria.
C. Hypocalcemia.
D. Secondary hyperparathyroidism.
17- Prolonged febrile illness occurs most likely in I
A. Pneumonia.
B. Brain abscess.
C. Stomatitis.
D. Tonsillitis .
18- An innocent murmur is characterized by
A. Harsh murmur.

56
 B. Mostly systolic T.
C. it is a loud one.
D. Appearance of clinical symptoms only with exertion.
19- BCG vaccine is formed of:
A. Live attenuated bovine strain.
B. Live attenuated human strain.
C. lnactivated human strain.
D. lnactivated bovine strain.
20- Drug therapy in diarrhea:
A. ls highly effective.
B. Shortens the duration of bacterial excretion in stools.
C. Helps rehydration.
D. Adds an unnecessary cost.
21- Scarlet fever:
A. lt is caused by group B hemolytic streptococcus.
B. It is most common between 6 months -2 years.
C. Its incubation period is 2 - 4 days.
D. The rash appears on the 4m day of fever.
22- All of the following are manifestations of hypokalemia EXCEPT
A. Hyper-retlexia.
B. Abdominal distension.
C. General weakness.
D. Cardiac arrhythmia.
23- Which of the following is correct about lung abscess?
A. Bronchoscopy is used to aspirate pus.
B. Antibiotic therapy for 6 weeks is usually indicated.
C. Metastatic lung abscess is common in children.
D. Its clinical picture starts acutely.
24- Hypotonic dehydration is characterized by:
A. Fluid movement from intracellular to extracellular compartment.
B. Skin turgor is mildly affected.
C. The tongue is moist.
D. Serum sodium is normal.
25- Non nutritional wasting may occur with all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Congenital heart disease.

57
 B. Chronic renal failure.
C. Steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome N.
D. Recurrent urinary tract infections.
26- Which of the following may be seen in rickets?
A. Cranjotabes.
B. Fixed kyphosis.
C. Winging of scapula.
D. Expansion of medullary spaces of long bones.
27- About Rota virus vaccine:
A. It is a trivalent vaccine.
B. It is given subcutaneous.
C. The lst dose is given at the age of 4 months.
D. Vaccination should be completed before 8 months of age.
28- Postóenteritis (persistent) diarrhea may be caused by all of the follow-
ing EXCEPT:
A. Sugar intolerance.
B. Cowís milk allergy.
C. Bacterial colonization.
D. Pancreatic dysfunction.
29- Concerning viral hepatitis as a primary illness:
A. There are four famous hepatotropic viruses.
B. Hepatitis A virus is a DNA virus.
C. Hepatitis D virus is transmitted by feco-oral route.
D. The incubation period of hepatitis B virus is 50-150 days.
30-Ankylostoma anemia is due to:
A. Iron deficiency.
B. Red cell hypoplasia in the bone marrow.
C. Shortening ofthe red cell life span.
D. Associated infections.
31- Ring chromosome is a special type of chromosomal:
A. Deletion.
B. Duplication.
C. Translocation.
D. lnversion.

58
32- Hemophilia A is characterized by:
A. It is an Xólinked dominant disorder.
B. Circumcision may endanger life.
C. Decreased activity of factor X.
D. Abnormal bleeding time.
33- Small VSD (up to 3 mm) is characterized by:
A. Barely audible pan systolic murmur.
B. Loud pulmonary second sound.
C. May be asymptomatic.
D. Wide QRS complex in ECG.
34- The supraóhepatic portal hypertension may be due to:
A. Umbilical catheterization.
B. Viral B hepatitis.
C. Bilharziasis.
D. BuddóChiari syndrome.
35- Which of the following is correct about kernicterus?
A. Bilimbin is deposited mainly in cerebral hemispheres.
B. Can be prevented by proper management.
C. lt is caused by early neonatal cyanosis.
D. Extra-hepatic biliary atresia is a common cause.
36- Ostium secondum defect is characterized by:
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy.
B. Heart failure is a common complication in early childhood.
C. Symptoms usually appear since birth.
D. Wide fixed splitting of the 2"d sound.
37- One the following is correct about absence seizures:
A. lt has a poor prognosis.
B. The attacks can be triggered by holding breath for a minute or two.
C. The attacks are characterized by impaired consciousness for 5 ó 20
seconds.
D. Genetic predisposition has no role in the disease.
38- In nocturnal enuresis:
A. Prognosis is worse than that of diurnal enuresis.
B. Girls are more affected than boys.
C. lt is due to developmental delay in acquiring sphincter control.
D. Most children are psychologically affected

59
39- In dietetic management of type 1 diabetes mellitus:
A. Fat content should be < 30% of total calories.
B. Fiber content should be decreased.
C. Snacks are given between meals to avoid hyperglycemia.
D. Refined sugar is recommended.
40- Which of the following is true about bronchiolitis?
A. lt is one of the atopic disorders.
B. Most ofthe cases are caused by adenovirus.
C. Oxygen therapy is the main line of management.
D. Recurrence is very common.
41- All of the following are true about congenital spherocytosis EXCEPT:
A. lt is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait.
B. Hb electrophoresis is the best tool for diagnosis.
C. lt can manifest in neonatal period.
D. Examination often reveals splenomegaly.
42- Which of the following is typical of minimal lesion nephrotic syn-
drome?
A. Hematuria.
B. Elevated blood urea nitrogen.
C. Proteinuria.
D. Hypocholesterolemia.
43- CSF examination in bacterial meningitis classically shows:
A. Clear appearance
B. Lymphocytsis ∑∑
C. Normal glucose level ∑
D. Increased protein level
44- Which of the following is correct about very low birth weight infants?
A. Naso-gastric tube feeding is suitable for all infants.
B. Hypoglycemia is a rare complication.
C. The lower the O2 concentration given, the higher the incidence of reti-
nopathy.
D. Htunidity is important to control temperature.
45- Werdnig Hoffmann disease is characterized by:
A. An X-linked recessive disorder.
B. Tongue fasciculations.

60
 C. Psudo-hypertrophy of muscles.
D. Subnormal mentality.
46- About Fallotís tetralogy:
A. The most common congenital heart disease.
B. Valvular pulmonary stenosis is classic.
C. Iron therapy is contraindicated.
D. Squatting increases pulmonary blood flow.
47. Regarding natural immunity:
A. Transplacental immunity is a form of natural active immunity.
B. Transplacental immunity protect newborns against measles.
C. Transplacental immunity disappears completely by the 2"d month of life.
D. Infection with Influenza virus gives long life immunity
48- Recognized features of acute nephritis include the following EXCEPT:
A. Hypertension.
B. Normal urine volume.
C. Mild proteinuria.
D. Microscopic hematuria.
49- The commonest cause of pneumonia in infancy is:
A. Tuberculous.
B. Aspiration.
C. Viral.
D. Pneuniococcal.
50- The following are causes of ascites EXCEPT:
A. Malnutrition.
B. Congestive heart failure T.
C. Portal hypertension.
D. Nephrotic syndrome.
51- The causative agent of infectious mononucleosis is
A. Epstein Barr virus.
B. Human herpes virus 6.
C. Parvovirus Bl9.
D. Rubeola virus.
52- In girls the first sign of puberty is:
A. Development of the extemal genitalia.
B. Development ofthe breast.

61
 C. Onset of menstruation.
D. Appearance of axillary hair.
53-Common causes of stridor during infancy include the following EXCEPT:
A. Laryngeal foreign body.
B. Acute spasmodic laryngitis.
C. Large adenoids i.
D. Hypocalcemic tetany.
54- A 4 kg infant with severe dehydration (10% loss of his body weight)
needs the following:
amount of intravenous fluid in the first 24 hour.
A. 1200 ml.
B. 800 ml.
C. 600 ml.
D. 400 ml.
55- A child can copy a circle at:
A. 5 years.
B. 4 years.
C. 3 years.
D. 2 years.
56- In the management of an unconscious child due to poisoning, the first
thing to do:
A. Take a detailed history.
B. Chemical analysis of stools.
C. Gastric wash.
D. Establish airway.
57- The following are features of cephalhematoma EXCEPT:
A. Usually crosses suture lines.
B. Usually appears a few days after birth.
C. Associated neonatal jatmdice is possible.
D. It usually takes few weeks to disappear i.
58- Guillain Barre syndrome may be related to:
A. Direct bacterial neuritis.
B. Autosomal recessive disorder.
C. Post viral sequel.
D. Spinal cord trauma.

62
59- Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by all of the following EX-
CEPT:
A. Increase total iron binding capacity.
B. Increased serum ferritin..
C. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
D. Anisocytosis (increased red cell distribution width; RDW).
60- Suppurative lung diseases include:
A. Asthma.
B. Bronchiolitis.
C. Emphysema.
D. Empyema.
Answer the following problem solving guestions. Choose ONLY ONE an-
swer:
(40 Marks; 2 for each case)
A 12-year-old boy is evaluated for short stature. He has no significant past
medical history and is considered otherwise healthy by his patents. He
eats a normal diet and has regular meals. His height and weight have
been consistently at the 5th percentile since early childhood. His physi-
cal examination is normal.
61) The most likely diagnosis is 62) Expected findings in this child include
A. Familial short stature. A. Delayed puberty.
B. Constitutional delay of growth. B. Short parents.
C. Under-nutrition. C. Normal final adult height.
D. Hypothyroidism. D. Delayed bone age.
A l-monthóold boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother,
who states that he has projectile .niting for the past several days. She
states that he vomits every time she feeds him and the vomitus is non-
bilious. On examination, the infant is mildly dehydrated and there is a pal-
pable firm movable mass inthe right upper quadrant.
63) The most likely diagnosis is 64) Expected findings do NOT include
A. Duodcnal atresia. A. Metabolic alkalosis.
B. intussusception. B. Constipation.
C. I-Iirsehsprung disease. C. Double bubble sign.
D. Pyloric stenosis. D. Visible peristaltic waves.

63
 A 6-day-old girl who was bom at home is being evaluated for bruising and
gastrointestinal bleeding.
Laboratory findings include prolonged partial thromboplastin time and pro-
thrombin time; normal alanine aminotransferase; serum bilirubin of 4.7
mg/dL; platelet count of 330,000/mm]; and hemoglobin of 16.3 g/dL.
65) The most likely cause of her bleeding 66) Bleeding in this girl may be exacerbated by
A. Factor VIII deficiency. A. Early feeding.
B. Vitamin K deficiency. B. Formula milk.
C. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura. C. Antibiotic use.
D. Liver disease. D. Constipation.

A 7-yearóold boy is brought to the clinic for a lifetime history ofbedwet-

ting. He has otherwise been completely healthy and has met all devel-
opment milestones. The patient has been wetting every night but not
during the daytime. He has no incontinence.
67) The most appropriate next step 68) The following may be of therapeutic benefit
A. Renal Ultrasound. A. Corticosteroids.
B. Urinalysis. B. Multivitamins.
C. 24-hour urine collection. C. Parasympathomimetics.
D. CT of pelvis. D. Desmopressin.
A 6-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician because ofa 3-clay history
of skin lesions. On physical examination, he has multiple yellow, crust-
ed erosions below the nares and on the cheeks, chin, and upper extrem-
ities. Vital signs are within normal limits. The rest ofthe examination is
normal.
69) The most appropriate treatment is 70) Complications do NOT include
A. Oral cephalexin. A. Acute glomerulonephritis.
B. Topical hydrocortisone. B. Rhetunatic fever.
C. Oral acyclovir. C. Lymphadenitis.
D. Topical ketoconazole. D. Cellulitis.
71) The most likely diagnosis is 72) The LEAST likely useful drug is
A. Pulmonary stenosis. A. Propranolol.
B. Transposition ofthe great arteries. B. Morphine.
C. Atrial septal defect. C. Phenylephrine.
D. Tetralogy of Fallot D. Furosemide

64
 An 8-year-old male presents to the emergency department with decreased
mental status. He has been drinking and urinating more tiequently over
the past several weeks. He was hard to wake up this morning and com-
plained of abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals dry mucous
membranes and cracked lips.
His abdomen is mildly tender to palpation diffusely, but there is no re-
bound or guarding.
A 2-month∑old infant was noted at birth to have an upper left stemal bor-
der ejection murmur. The infant at that time was not cyanotic, but slow-
ly developed cyanosis over the next two months. An ECG showed right
axis deviation and right ventricular hypertrophy. A chest x-ray film
showed a small heart with a concave ain pulmonary artery segment and
diminished pulmonary blood tlow.
73) Expected iindings do NOT include 74) The most immediate initial therapy is
A. A blood glucose level of 560 mgídL. A. IV normal saline.
B. A blood pH value of 7.18. B. IV sodium bicarbonate.
C. Clear chest x-ray. C. IV mannitol.
D. Low serum osrnolality. D. IV potassium.
Over the past 3 to 4 days, a 7-year-old boy has become progressively ill
with mild, mid-abdominal pain that have become steadily worse. On
physical examination he has an elevated rash on his thighs, feet and
buttocks. The rash does not blanch and he has semi-soft dark stool,
which is guaiac-positive.
75) The most likely diagnosis is 76) An expected laboratory iinding is
A. Acute appendicitis. A. Marked leukocytosis.
B. Hcnoch-Schonlein Purpura. B. Blast cells in peripheral blood.
C. Acute leukemia. C. Normal platelet count .
D. Shigella dysentery. D. Positive stool culture.
A 4-year-old boy presents with severe pains in both of his legs. On
physical examination, he is noted to have marked pallor on his lips
and palpebral conjunctiva. Numerous ptupura and petechiae are not-
ed on his skin.
His spleen is palpable 3 cm below his left costal margin. Laboratory
evaluation reveals a white blood cell count of 1600/mm3; hemoglobin
of 6.1 g/dL; and platelets of 36,000/mm3.

65
77) The most likely diagnosis is 78) The following is NOT an expected finding
A. Acute leukemia. A. Hematuria.
B. Ap lastic anemia. B. Repeated infections.
C. German measles. C. Lymphadenopathy.
D. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura. D. Reticulocytosis.
A young couple brings their first child to their physician for a well-child
examination. The child is a 3 month-old healthy-appearing infant,
whose weight is at the 45th percentile ofthe normal growth ctuve.
During examination, the physician observes an area of blue-black pig-
mentation over the buttocks. The parents say that it was present
from the time of birth.
79) The most appropriate next step 80) The following is true EXCEPT
A. Tell parents that this is a normal fmding A. The sacral area is the classic site of the lesion
B. Tell patents that this is caused by trauma B. Diagnosis is mainly based on clinical features
C. Order CT/MRI scans to rule out anomalies C. It usually disappear after a few years
D. Make a report of suspected child abuse D. The lesion is usually itchy
A previously healthy 7-year-old girl comes to the office with com-
plaints of episodic abdominal pain over the past several months.
The pain is periumbilical that does not wake her from sleep or in-
terfere with play. She has no fever, joint complaints, or constipa-
tion or diarrhea. Growth and development have been normal. The
physical examination is within normal limits.
81) The most likely diagnosis is 82) The most appropriate next step is
A. Acute appendicitis. A. CT scan of abdomen.
B. Acute cholecystitis. B. Anti-parasitic medication.
C. Parasitic infestation. C. Reassurance and follow up.
D. Functional abdominal pain. D. Surgical consultation.
A 4-yearóold male is brought to the emergency room being carried by his
mother. He started to convulse 30 minutes ago. On examination, the pa-
tient is still convulsing in a generalized tonic-clonic fashion. Vital signs
are taken: HR 160/m, RR 28/m, BP 88/50 mmHg, T 38.5∞C, Oxygen
saturation 90% in room air.

66
83) What is this presentation called? 84) What is the FIRST step of treatment?
A. Simple febrile seizure A. Give anti-seizure medication
B. Grand mal seizure B. Check airway and give 100% oxygen
C. Status epilepticus C. Start IV access.
D. Breath holding spells D. Check blood glucose.
A couple comes to see a pediatrician with their second son who has
Down syndrome. Their hrst son is unaffected. They tell that there
is a strong family history of Down syndrome, with one of their
sonís cousins also being affected and his uncle is also being af-
fected.
85) What is the most likely cause of the Down 86) The following tests would be advised if this
syndrome in this family? mother got pregnant EXCEPT
A. Nonódisjunction A. Matemal ABO and Rh typing
B. Balanced translocation B. Maternal alpha-fetoprotein
C. Robertsonian translocation C. Estriol level in motherís urine
D. Mosaic D. Maternal human gonadotropin
A 6-yearóold patient with severe pneumonia is being treated with intrave-
nous cefuroxime and is doing well until day 3 of hospitalization, when
he develops a temperature of 39.2∞C and complains of unilateral pleurit-
ic chest pain and associated shortness of breath.
87) The most likely diagnosis is 88) The next step in management is
A. Viral myocarditis A. Obtain an x-ray ofthe chest
B. Pleural effusion B. Perform an echocardiogram
C. Foreign body aspiration C C. Arrange for bronchoscopy
D. Diaphragmatic hernia D. Ask for a surgical consultation
A 1-month-old term infant has persistentjaundice. His stools were green 2
weeks ago and now are pale in color. Physical examination findings are
unremarkable, except for a liver that is palpable 2 cm below the costal
margin. The infantís total bilirubin is 6.1 mg/dL and direct bilirubin is
4.2 mg/dL.

67
89) The most likely diagnosis is 90) The initial step of management is
A. Biliary atresia A. Refer to ophthalmologic consultation
B. Hypothyroidism B. Give parenteral vitamin K
C. Congenital spherocytosis C. Order a complete blood count
D. Wilson disease t D. Start thyroxine therapy
A 3-year-old boyís parents complain that their child has difficulty walking.
The child first stood and first walked at essentially normal ages. Over
the past several months, the family has noticed an increased lordosis of
the lower spine as he walks and that his gait has become more
ìwaddling" in nature.
91) The most likely diagnosis is 92) The following is NOT an expected finding
A. Vitamin D deficiency rickets. A. Selective muscle atrophy.
B. Muscular dystrophy. B. Learning difficulties.
C. Cerebral palsy. C. Enlargement of the calves.
D. Guillain-Barre syndrome. D. Recurrent seizures.
During a well-baby visit, a young mother brings her male infant for
eheck~up. On examination the infant isactive, doing well and has an
adequate weight gain and an appropriate developmental milestones.
Themother asks when she should start giving her infant solid foods.
During a well-baby visit, a young mother brings her male infant for
eheck~up. On examination the infant isactive, doing well and has an ad-
equate weight gain and an appropriate developmental milestones. The-
mother asks when she should start giving her infant solid foods.
93) The ideal time to start solid foods is at 94) She should be instructed to start by giving
A. 3 months. A. Chicken breast.
B. 6 months. B. Egg yolk.
C. 9 months. C. Rice cereal.
D. l2 months. D. Yoghurt.
A 4-hour-old newborn, who weighs l,890 g, was born at 39 weeksí gesta-
tion. The infant was admitted to thespecial care nursery and some labor-
atory tests were ordered. The complete blood count reveals a hemoglo-

68
 bin of 23 g/dL, hematocrit of 68%, platelet count of 150,000/mm}, and
white blood cell count of 7000/mm} with a nonnal differential count.
95) The best description for this infant is being 96) The LEAST likely possible complication is
A. Preterm. A. Hyperbilirubinemia.
B. Very low birth weight . B. Respiratory distress syndrome.
C. Small for gestational age . C. Hypoglycemia.
D. Appropriate for gestational age. D. Hypothennia.
A 5-month-old infant is brought to emergency as he has fever and a high
pitched cry. He has been irritable and has taken less than half of his nor-
mal feeds and has not wet his nappy for many hours. He is floppy and
lethargic but responsive to pain. Kernigís and Brudzinskiís signs are
both negative. His anterior fontanelle is tense. His temperature is
38.lìC, pulse 170/m, BP 80/60 mmHg, and RR 30/m.
97) What is the LEAST likely causative agent? 98) Complications of this illness include
A. Neisseria meningitides. A. Deafness.
B. Haemophilus influenzae. B. Otitis media.
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae. C. Lung abscess.
D. Listeria monocytogenes. D. Obstructive shock.
An infant comes to the well baby health care visit. He sits with only mini-
mal support, attempts to attain a oy beyond reach, laughs and rolls over,
but does not have a pincer grasp.
99) What is the likely age of this infant? 100) This infant can NOT
A. 4 months A. Raise head from prone position
B. 6 months B. Smile responsively
C. 8 months C. Recognize mother
D. l0 months D. Creep or crawl

69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
Obstetrics & Gynecology

88
Cairo University 13/6/2009
Faculty of Medicine Time allowed: 3 hours
5th year Final Exam Total marks (150)

OBSTETRICS & GYNECOLOGY

All questions are to be attempted
OBSTETRICS
1. Your are on duty in the obstetric emergency room. The following two cases
came at the same time : (14 marks)
I. A woman in the second stage of labour came with the breach hanging out of
the vulva while the head and shoulders still in the vagina. The cord is
pulsating.
II. Another woman delivered at home since two hours came with the umbilical
cord ligated and the placenta still inside. She looks pale.
a) Which of them you are going to deal with first? Why?
b) What are the steps you are going to follow in the management of each of
them? (no surgical details are required)
2. A pregnant woman at twenty weeks gestation iwth rupture of membranes
since four days presented to the emergency room with marked
hyptoension, flushed face and fever. (7 marks)
3. A primigravida 35 yars old pregnant 38 weeks came to the hospital in the
first stageof labour. Uterine contractions were very frequent and painful
with high basal tone. The fetus presents as cephalic with no
disproportion. The cervix is slowly dilating. (7 marks)
a) What is the term given to this type of contraction?
b) How to manage such case?
4. A recently married couple came to the outpatient clinic very worried as
routine blood testing revealed that the husband blood group is (A) Rh +ve
while the wife is 9B) Rh -ve. (6 marks)
5. A patient with irregular cycles presented with delayed menses for one
week. serum level of B-HCG was 310 mIU/mL, when repeated after 48
hours it became 632 mIU/mL. Vaginal ultrasound showed an empty
uterine cavity.
a) What is the most probable location of the pregnancy, why?
b) What would be the next step? (5 marks)
6. Mention five differences between puerperal septic and putrid endometritis.
(5 marks)
7. Compare between symmetrical and asymmetrical intrauterine growth
restriction as regards actiology and ultrasound findings. (5 marks)
8. What are the steps followed for active resusciation of asphyxiated neonate
and what are the drugs should be at hand for resuscitation? (5 marks)

89
9. What are the fetal complications of shoulder dystocia? (5 marks)
10. Regarding the general examination of a pregnant woman at 38 weeks
gestation, how can you expect that she has contracted pelvis. (5 marks)
11. What are the parameters studied by ultrasound for etal biophysical profile
scoring? (5 marks)
12. Causes of secondary post-partum haemorrhage. (5 marks)
GYNECOLOGY
1. A patient 32-years old presented with primary infertility 2 years. She
complains of an increasing dysmenorrhea for 3 years. husband semen in
fertile and her cycles are regular. Pelvic ultrasonography showed right
ovarian swelling 5cm in diameter. (7 marks)
a) What is the most likely diagnosis of this case?
b) What is the most wanted investigation and its value?
2. A 48 year old woman (Para 3) presented with menorrhagia for one year.
Pelvic ultrasonography showed two interstitial myomas 3cm and 2 cm in
diameter. Blood tests showed haemglobin level of 10.3 gm/dL and serum
FSH 20mIU/mL.
What is the most accepted line of management of this case? Justify your
answer. (7 marks)
3. A 28 year old nulliparous woman presented with secondary infertility four
years. She gives history of unilateral sapingectomy for tubal ectopic
pregnancy. She had previous attacks of pelvic inflammatory disease.
Discuss management of this case? (7 marks)
4. The ureter is at risk duringgynecological surgery. Give two common sites
for injury. (5 marks)
5. Compare cervical mucous in the preovulatory to the postovulatory period.
(5 marks)
6. What is the common clinical and hormonal finding in Polycystic Ovarian
Syndrome? (5 marks)
7. Give the actiology and clinical picture of bacterial vaginosis. (5 marks)
8. How can you test clinically for levator ani function? (5 marks)
9. Give the name and principles of two operations for treatment of vaginal
vault prolapse. (5 marks)
10. Mention 5 clinical signs for diagnosis of old complete perineal tear.
(5 marks)
11. What is the definition and pathology of red degeneration of fibroids, why
it is more common n pregnancy? (5 marks)
12. Clinical features suggesting malignancy in ovarian tumours. (5 marks)
13. Mention five causes for purulent offensive vaginal discharge. (5 marks)
14. Give one example for each of the following and the line of treatment of each :
(4 marks)
a) Painless ulcer of the vulva.
b) A very painful shallow ulcer of the vulva.

90
Cairo University Time Allowed: 2 hours
Faculty of Medicine Total Marks: 100 - Marks
14/6/2009
OBSTETRICS & GYNECOLOGY
MCQ
(Only one best answer)
1. The vagina ;
a) Contains muscus secreting glands.
b) Relates posteriorily to the rectum in its middle third.
c) Relates anteriorly to the baldder base in its lowest third.
d) Is entirely derived from the paramesonephric duct.
2. The uterus :
a) The uterine index in adult uterus is 1.
b) Anteflexion is maintained mainly by the tone of the uterosacral ligament.
c) The round ligament is attached to the posterior surface just below the cournua.
d) The uterine artery passes below the ureter (in the ureteric canal) to reach
the uterus.
3. The cervix :
a) Loses its lining during menstruation.
b) Has columnar epithelium lining the canal.
c) Produces a thick scanty discharge at ovulation.
d) Has the same proportion of muscle in its wall as the corpus uteri.
4. The following associations of types of epithelium and organs is NOT correct :
a) Ciliated and uterine body.
b) Stratified squamous and vagina.
c) Transitional and bladder.
d) Columnar and cervis.
5. Imperforate hymen:
a) Can lead to hematocolpos.
b) Is usually identified earlier in life than at puberty.
c) Is often found with uterus didelphis.
d) Generally requires reconstructive surgery.
6. Clinical findings of imperforate hymen include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a) Primary amenorrhea.
b) Cryptomenorrhea.

91
 c) Oligomenorrhea.
d) Pelvi-abdominal swelling.
e) Retention of urine.
7. Bicornuate uterus might predispose to all of the following EXCEPT :
a) Recurrent preterm labor.
b) Primary amenorrhea.
c) Recurrent oblique lie.
d) Retention of the palcenta after delivery
e) Menorrihagia.
8. Estrogen :
a) is not produced in the corpus luteum.
b) Cannot be detected in te blood of postmenopausal women.
c) Is mainly secreted by the ovary as estrone in young women.
d) Is responsible for secretory changes in the endometrium.
e) Is the dominant gonadal hormone at puberty.
9. In a normal human menstrual cycle the corpus luteum :
a) Remains active for 3-4 weeks.
b) Is maintained by human chorionic gonadotrophin.
c) Secretes progesterone.
d) Secretes pregnanediol.
e) Does not secret estrogen
10. In the first half of a normal menstural cycle :
a) Serum progesterone levels are high.
b) The endometrium is rich in glycogen.
c) The corpus luteum begins to degenerate.
d) Some ovarian follicles degenerate.
11. The average blood loss resulting from menstruation is :
a) 10 to 15 ml.
b) 25 to 50 ml.
c) 75 to 100 ml.
d) 101 to 125 ml.
e) 130 to 150 ml.
12. With which of the following is tubal pregnancies NOT increased?
a) assisted reproduction.
b) history of pelvic infection
c) previous tubal surgery
d) abnormal embryos
13. Premature menopause is NOT associated with :
a) Chromosomal abnormalities.

92
 b) Radio therapy.
c) A positive family history.
d) Polycystic ovarian syndrome.
14. Menopause ;
a0 The last period is referred to as the climacteric.
b) After the menopause, there is an increase in bone demineralizaion.
c) The rise in FSH is not relatively greater than that of LH.
d) prolactin levels increase after the menopause.
e) Maximum levels of LH & FSH are not reached until 10 years after the
menopause.
15. Premature menopause could be due to :
a) Excess exposure to radiation.
b) Use of O.C.P. for long time.
c) Testicular feminization syndrome.
d) Klienfielter syndrome
16. Evidences of anovulation include the following EXCEPT :
a) Disturbed menstrual cycles.
b) Serial ultrasound scans showing no growing follcles.
c) Flat cells with pknotic (small, dark) nuclei on vaginal smears.
d) Secretary changes deteced at histological examination of the endometrium.
17. The diagnosis of PCOD:
a) History of oral contraception intake.
b) High FSH levels.
c) Absence of ovarian Graafian follicles on pelvic ultrasound.
d) Serum prolactin level is very high.
18. Polycystic ovary syndrome:
a) Should be only diagnosed by aparoscopy.
b) Should be treated by wedge resection.
c) Produces hypoestrogenism.
d) Is best treated by clomiphene.
19. severe ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) include the
following EXCEPT:
a) Pleural effusion may occur.
b) Intravascular clotting can be a complication.
c) Hypoproteinaemia may develop.
d) Bilateral oophorectomy is indicated.
20. Human menopausal gonadotrophin (HMG) :
a) Are extracted from postmenopausal blood.
b) Can be given intramuscular or intravenous.

93
 c) May result in ovarian hyperstimulation.
d) Can be monitored by serial measurement of serum progesterone levels.
21. Dysfunctional utering bleeding (DUB) is frequently associated with :
a) Endometrial polyps.
b) Anovulation
c) Cervicitis.
d) Systemic lupus erythematosus.
e) von Willebrand's disease.
22. The following statement about enital prolapse is correct :
a) After lefort's operation, there is no intercourse.
b) Grade 2-uterine prolapse is a procidentia.
c) Manchester repair includes cervical loop excision.
d) The rubber ring pessary can be left for up to one year.
23. An enterocele:
a) Is a prolapse of the rectum.
b) may occur following colpsouspension
c) Should initially be treated with a shelf pessary.
d) May resolve spontaneously.
e) Is a common case of stress incontinence.
24. Retroversion of the uterus :
a) Occurs in 20% of normal women.
b) Is a common cause of infertility.
c) May be corrected by a fothergill operation.
d) Is caused by heavy lifting.
e) Should always be corrected with a Hodge pessary in early pregnancy.
25. An entrocele is best characterized by which of the following
statement?
a) It is not a true hernia.
b) It is a herniation of the bladder floor into the vagina.
c) It is a prolapse of the uterus and vaginal wall outside the body.
d) It is a protrusion of the pelvic peritonal sac and vaginal wall into the vagina.
e) It is a herniation of the rectal and vaginal wall into the vagina.
26. Second degree uterine prolapse :
a) Can be diagnosed when the cervix protrudes through the vulval orifice.
b Is also known as complete procidntia.
c) Present with menorrhagia.
d) Causes lumbar backache.
27. A cstocele :
a) Is always associated with stress incontinence.

94
 b) Contains bladder.
c) Is treated by fothergill's operation.
d) Is best treated with a ring pessary.
28. The character of normal cervical mucus at the time of ovulation is :
a) Highly viscous and turbid.
b) Spinnbarkiet test is less than 6 cm.
c) Contains low amount of crystals of sodium and potassium chloide.
d) Positive ferning test.
29. Candidal infection :
a) The infection never occurs in pregnancy.
b) Vaginal PH is usually alkaline.
c) Vulval itching is usually the main complaint.
d) Vaginal isoconazol or miconazol are not effective.
30. Trichomonal vaginalis (T.v) :
a) T.V. is not a sexually transmitted disease.
b) Most patients having TV have symptoms
c) The disease does not cause itching.
d) Unlike bacterial vaginosis, mitronidozole is not effective therapy.
31. As regard mastalgia:
a) In cyclical mastalgia, the pain is usually maximal postmentrual.
b) Is treated surgically.
c) Bromocriptine may be used.
d) Gammalenolenic acid (GLA) is contraindicated
32. Cervical lesion (ectopy) :
a) It is an ulcer of the cervix.
b) Should be treated in pregnant females.
c) pap smear is advisable before management.
e) Commonly cause pain, dyspareunia & low back pain.
33. Characteristic symptoms of endoetriosis include :
a) Dysmenorrhoea
b) Superficial dyspareunia.
c) Amenorrhea.
d) Pre-menstrual tension.
34. The following is essential to confirm the diagnosis of pelvic
endometriosis :
a) Ultrasonography.
b) Laparocopy.
c) Hysteroscopy
d) CA-125.

95
35. Functional ovarian cysts include :
a) Follicular cysts.
b) Endometriomas.
c) Dermoid cysts.
d) fibromas.
36. a 54-year-old woman is found to have endomertial hyperplasia on
endometrial biopsy. A functional ovarian tumor to be suspected is a :
a) Lipid cell tuumor.
b) Granulosa-theca cell tumor.
c) Sertoli-Leydig yumor.
d) Muncious cystadenocarcinoma.
e) Polycystic ovary
37. In contrast to a malignant ovarian tumor, a benign tumor has which
of the following gross features?
a) Excrescences on the surface.
b) Peritoneal implants.
c) Intra-cystic papillations.
d) Free mobility.
e) Capsule rupture.
38. endomentrial hyperplasia could be expected in the following
condition:
a) Endodermal sinus tumor.
b) Cystic teratoma.
c) Polycystic ovary disease.
d) Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor.
e) dsygerminoma.
39. Women with postmenopausal bleeding endometrial sampling should
be done in endometrim on transvaginal ultrasound is thicker than :
a) 1 mm.
b) 2 mm.
c) 5 mm.
d) 6 mm.
e) 10 mm.
40. Emergency contraception :
a) is contraception used before intercourse but prior to implantation.
b) When used estrogens must be taken within 72 hours of intercourse.
c) When using estrogens, rarely causes side effects.
d) IUCD is not method for emergency contraception.

96
41. All these methods could be used during lactation EXCEP :
a) Depot provera.
b) Mini pills.
c) Combined contraceptive pills.
d) I.U.D.
e) Male condom.
42. Non-neoplastic cysts of the ovary include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a) follicular cysts.
b) Endometriotic cysts.
c) Dermoid cysts.
d) Theca lutein cysts.
43. The lymphatic drainage of the cervix is to the following lymph nodes
EXCEPT:
a) The femoral lymph nodes.
b) The internal iliac lymph nodes.
c) The para-cervical lymph nodes.
d) The pre-sacral lymh nodes.
e) The Obturator lymph nodes
44. The following is correct about the ovarian ligaments :
a) contain ureters.
b) Contain ovarian arteries.
c) Are attached laterally to pelvic wall.
d) Lie anterior to the broad ligament.
e) Are homologous to part of the gubernaculums testis in the male
45. The functions of mid-cycle LH surge include the following EXCEPT:
a) enhances thecal cell androgen production.
b) Luteinizes granulosa cells.
c) Initiates granulosa cells.
c) Initiates resumption of meiosis.
d) Facilitates oocyte expulsion.
e) Produces luteolysis.
46. facts about colomphene citrate include the following EXCEPT:
a) has antiestrogenic properties.
b) may be started with a 50-mg dose daily.
c) is useful in primary ovarian failure.
d) may cause cervical mucus hostility.
e) may result in multiple pregnancy.

97
47. The following are advantages of laparoscopy in the diagnosis of
infertility EXCEPT:
a) Good evaluation of tubal factor.
b) Diagnosis of endometriosis.
c) Diagnosis of Asherman's syndrome.
d) Good visualization of pelvie adhesions.
e) Direct visualization of corpus luteum.
48. Polycystic ovarian disease characterized by all of the following
EXCEPT:
a) Increase LH level.
b) Increase in androgen levels.
c) Decrease in estrogen levels.
d) Oligomenorrhea.
e) Android obesity
49. Which of the following is characteristic of Sheeban syndrome?
a) amenorrhea
b) profuse lacation
c) hyperthyroidism
d) renal insufficiency
50. The following about human papilloma virus (HPV) infection are
correct EXCEPT:
a) It is the most common viral STDs.
b) It may lead CIN and cervical cancer.
c) It is due to RNA virus.
d) Infection may be warty or flat condyloma.
e) Infection is usually associated with others STDs.
51. All the following about bartholin's glands are correct EXCEPT:
a) can commonly be infected b gonococci.
b) Excision of the cyst when infected is usually contraindicated.
c) Ae situated at the posterior parts of labia minora.
d) Should be marsupialized when acutely infected.
52. The commonest secondary change in uterine fibroids is :
a) Fatty degeneration
b) Myxomatous degeneration.
c) Hyaline degeneration
d) Cystic degeneration
e) Calcification
53. The most common site of uterine myomma is :
a) Subserous

98
 b) Interstitial
c) Cornual
d Cervical
54. All the following about uterine fibroids are correct EXCEPT:
a) Are estrogen dependent.
b) Get smaller during treatment with progestogens.
c) Shrink in response to treatment with LHRH agonists.
d) May be treated conservatively.
55. The etiology of endometriosis relates to the following EXCEPT:
a) a transformation of celomic epithelium
b) Direct invasion through the uterine serosa into the pelvic capacity.
c) Retrograde menstrual flow.
d) Arterial transport of endometrial fragments.
e) Lymphatic transport of endometrial fragments.
56. which of the following increases the risk of persisted occiput posterior
or transverse position?
a) Epidural anesthesia
b) Incomplete flexion of the fetal had
c) Weak contractions
d) all of the above.
57. As regards the spread of epithelial ovarian cancers, all the following
are correct EXCEPT:
a) Via the blood stream occurs early in the disease.
b) To para-aortic lymph nodes puts the case at stage III.
c) To the underside of the diaphragm is common.
d) to the peritoneal cavity has usually occurred by the time of diagnosis.
e) To the omentum frequently occurs.
58. The following factors increase the risk of a woman developing
endometrial cancer EXCEPT:
a) Obesity
b) Late menopause
c) Combined (estrogen and progestin) hormone replacement therapy.
d) diabetes mellitus.
e) A history of polycystic ovary disease
59. All these actions are produced by FSH EXCEPT:
a) Follicular growth.
b) Stimulation of Aromatase enzyme in granulosa cells
c) Increase LH receptors in granulosa cells
d) Ovulation & maintenance of corpus luteum.

99
60. Pain of spasmodic dysmenorrhea characterized by all of the following
EXCEPT:
a) Suprapubic & cloicky
b) Increases with message of abdomen & counter pressure or body
movements
c) Radiate to the thigh & the back
d) Start at the 1st day of menses then gradually decrease.
61. Which of the followings is true regarding complete androgen
insensitivity Syndrome :
a) It is an autosomal dominant disorder
b) Testosterone level is markedly lowered with normal testosterone
receptors.
c) Risk of gonad malignancy is high
d) The external genitalia is typically male in appearance.
62. All of the following are types of urethral incontinence EXCEPT:
a) Genuine stress incontinence (GST)
b) Fistula
c) Detrusor instability (urgency incontinence)
d) Retention with overflow.
e) Mixed stress incontinence & urgency incontinence.
63. Causes of symmetrical enlargement of uterus include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Pregnancy
b) Metropathia hemorrhagica
c) Posterior wall fibriods
d) Diffuse adenomyosis
e) Sub involution of uterus
64. The following statements are true as regards serum progestrone
measurement in diagnosis of infertility EXCEPT:
a) The normal level is 50 ng/ml.
b) Measurement is usually done at day 21 of the cycle.
c) Can be used for assessment of the luteal phase defect.
d) Used in diagnosis of anovulation
65. Hysteroscopy is important for diagnosia of the following factors in
infertility EXCEPT:
a) Intrauterine adhesions
b) Submucous fibroids.
c) Peritubal adhesions.
d) Cornual block.
e) Septate uters

100
66. The following about Candidal infection are correct EXCEPT:
a) The infection is common with pregnancy
b) Vaginal PH is usually alkaline.
c) Vulval itching may occur.
d) Vaginal isoconazole or miconazole are effective.
e) The organism is yeast-like.
67. Regarding cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN), all the following
are correct EXCEPT:
a) Transformation zone is the most susceptible location for development.
b) It is usually unifocal.
c) Abnormal vascular pattern seen by colposcopy include punctuation,
mosaicism and acetowhite area.
d) Total hysterectomy is a line of management.
e) Cervical conization is best done by loop electrosurgical excision
procedure
68. All the following about uterine fibroids are correct EXCEPT:
a) Occur in over 30% of women of reproductive age.
b) Can undergo sarcomatous change in 5% of cases.
c) Are associated with menorrhagia.
d) Can cause polycythemia.
e) Can cause pressure manifestations in the pelvis.
69. Postmenopausal bleeding is a common presentation of the following
EXCEPT:
a) Cervical ectropion.
b) Carcinoma of the endometrium
c) Atrophic vaginitis.
d) Carcinoma of the cervix
e) Sarcoma of the uterus
70. Turner syndrome may present by all of the followings EXCEPT:
a) 1ry amenorrhea
b) Lack of 2ry sexual characters
c) Tall stature
d) Webbing of Neck
e) Cubitus valgus
f) Coarctation of aorta.
71. All of the followings are used for induction of ovulation EXCEPT:
a) Clomiphene citrate
b) Tamoxifen
c) HMG
d) Gn RH antagonists

101
72. What is edematous swelling of the fetal scalp during labor?
a) Molding
b) Caput succedaneum
c) Subdural hematoma
d) Erythema nodosum
73. The commonly used definiton of the puerperium describes which of
the following time periods?
a) 2 weeks following delivery
b) 4 weeks following delivery
c) 6 weeks following delivery
d) 12 weeks following delivery
74. A pregnant uterus that is larger than the priod of ameenorrhea could
be due to :
a) Generalized edema
b) Obesity
c) Intrauterine growth retardation
d) Breech presentation
e) Polyhydramnios
75. Which of the following signs ro symptoms are NOT present in a
12-week preganncy:
a) Chadwick's sign
b) Quickening.
c) Ultrasonographic fetal heart action
d) Amenorrhea
e) Hegar's sign
76. Which of the following is NOT a basis in Naegel'es rule of estimating a
woman's due date?
a) Regular monthly menstural cycles.
b) A pregnancy of 280 days.
c) Ovulation about day 14.
d) Cycle regulation with birth control pills before conception.
e) Conception at midcycle
77. Asyncilitism is best defined as:
a) Flexion of the descending fetal head from pelvic floor resistance.
b) Failure of the sagital suture to lie exactly midway between the symphysis
ad sacral promontory.
c) Failure of the descent because of inadequate uterine contractions.
d) Inability of the fetal head to pass through the pelvic inlet.
e) Inability of internal rotation after the fetal head has reached the ischial spines.

102
78. The cardinal movements of labor and delivery involve a sequence of
events that occurs in an orderly fashion. Which of the following
sequences is correct?
a) Engagement, flexion, descent.
b) Engagement, internal rotation, descent.
c) Engagement, descent, flexion.
d) Descent, flexion, engagement, internal rotation
e) Descent, internal rotation, flexion, engagement.
79. Engagement is said to have occurred when which of the following
events takes place?
a) The infant's head is within the pelvis.
b) The biparietal diameter of the infant's head is through the plane of the
inlet.
c) The presenting part is just above the level of the ischial spines.
d) The vertex is in the transverse position.
e) The infant's head is flexed.
80. Primigravida, 24-years-old, in labor for 16 hours and the crvix is
arrested at 9 cm for 3 hours, position is ROP, station 0 and moulded.
there is fetal late decelerations over the last 30 min. delivery can be
managed by :
a) Forceps rotation and then traction
b) Ventouse (vaccum) extration
c) Cranitomy then forecps.
d) ISCS.
e) USCS.
81. Predisposing factors for uterine stony include which of the following?
a) Low parity
b) Preeclampsia
c) precipitous labor
d) Oligohydramnios
82. Most common site of occurrence ectopic pregnancy is:
a) Isthmic or interstitial portion of the Fallopian tube.
b) Corneal end of the tube
c) Ampullary portion of the fallopian tube
d) Fimiral end of the Fallopian tube.
e) Ovary
83. Diangosis of ectopic pregnancy can be ruled out if :
a) Transvaginal sonography showed no abnormalities in the adnexal region.
b) Serum ßhCG was negative.

103
 c) Patient did not miss her period.
d) Patient is using the IUCD for contraception
e) Pelvic fluid by travaginal uterine ultrasound
84. The most common site of metastatic disease in chorocarcinmoa is :
a) Brian
b) Liver
c) Vagina
d) Lung
e) Ovary
85. Theca-lutein cyst are characterized by the following EXCEPT:
a) Are best treated conservatively.
b) Are best treated surgically.
c) Are seen occasionally in normal pregnancy
d) Are seek in ovarian hypertimulation syndrome.
e) Are liable to complications including hemorrhage, rupture and torsion.
86. A 26-year-old primigravida reports that she is experiencing regular
menstrual cramping every 2 minutes. She is 28 weeks pregnant. After
taking a history, the first thing that the physician should do is :
a) Send her to the labor floor immediately.
b) Confirm the frequency of contractions by abdominal palpation
c) Evaluate fetal well-being with a fetal monitor.
d) evaluate the cervix by speculum examination.
87. Which of the following is a sgin of premature labor?
a) Increased vaginal discharge.
b) Uterine contractions.
c) Low back pain.
d) Cervical dilation to 4 cm.
e) Worening pelvic pressure
88. Which of the following drugs is NOT used to inhibit premature labor?
a) Ethanol.
b) Magnesium sulfate
c) Phenobarbital.
d) Ritodrine
e) Terbutaline
89. Which of the following is NOT included in the biophysical profile for
the risk assessment of a postterm fetus?
a) Fetal breathing
b) Amniotic fluid volume.
c) Fetal tone.

104
 d) Contraction stress taht (CST)
e) Fetal motion.
90. The best contraceptive method for patients with gestational
trophoblastic diseases:
a) Tubal ligaion.
b) Hysterectomy.
c) Combined oral contraceptive pills.
d) Intra-uterine contraceptive device.
e) Subcutaneous implants.
91. Which of the following is most likely to be seen on a urinalysis in a
patient with preeclampsia?
a) Proteinuria.
b) Hematuria.
c) Glycosuria
d) Ketonuria
92. Eclampsia is defined by:
a) Severe, unremitting headache.
b) Hyperreflexia.
c) Grand mal seizures.
d) Petit mal seizures.
e) Visual scotomata.
93. Which of the following is NOT a sign of evere pregnancy-induced
hypertension?
a) Oligohydramnios.
b) Proteinuria in excess of 3g/24 hours.
c) Thrombocytopenia.
d) Elevated serum calcium
94. The pathophysiology of preeclampsia is charcterized by:
a) Vasodilatation.
b) Vasospasm.
c) Hemodilution.
d) Hypervolemia.
95. Management of asymptomatic bacteruria includes:
a) Expectant management.
b) Induction of labor
c) Antibiotics
d) Diuretics.
96. Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to an acute urinary
tract infection during pregnancy, delivery, and the puerperium?

105
 a) Compression of the ureter by teh large uterus at the pelvic brim.
b) Increased ureteral tone and peristalsis.
c) Symptomatic bacteriuria.
d) Bladder catheterization following delivery
97. As regard the effects and complications of multifetal pregnancy:
a) Plyhydramnios is as common with multifetal pregnancies as singleton.
b) Increased perinatal mortality in multifetal pregnancies results mainly
from increased IUFD rate.
c) Twin to twin transfusion occur more in twins with monochroinic placenta
than with dichorionic placenta.
d) Fetal malpresentations occur with the same incidence as in single
pregnancy.
98. Causes of contracted pelvis include the following EXCEPT:
a) Rickets.
b) Osteo malcia.
c) Fractures of the pelvis.
d) T.B arthritis of the pelvic joints.
e) Diabetes.
99. Fetal complications of contracted pelvis during labor include the
following EXCEPT:
a) Caput saccedaneum.
b) Over moulding.
c) Intra cranial Hge.
d) Fetal malformation.
e) Fetal death.
100. Indication of trial of labor in patient with contracted pelvis include:
a) Non vertex presentation.
b) Mild degree of cephalo pelvic disproportion.
c) Previous C.S.
d) Elderly primigravida
e) heart disease with pregnancy
101. Percipitate labor & dleivery may lead to the following complications
EXCEPT:
a) Uterine rupture.
b) Amniotic fluid embolism.
c) Vagina & perineal tears.
d) Constriction ring in the uterus.
e) Uterine atony.

106
102. Which of the following is not a complication of uterine rupture?
a) Maternal shock.
b) Renal failure.
c) Acute uterine inversion
d) Fetal loss.
103. Threatened abortion include the following EXCEPT:
a) The cervix closed.
b) Bleeding is mild.
c) Vaginal ultrasonogrpahy is contraindiscated.
d) Bed rest is advisable.
e) Pregnancy continues in about 50% of cases.
104. Suggestive criteria of IUFD include the following EXCEPT:
a) Milk secretion from the breast.
b) Vaginal dark brown discharge.
c) Pregnancy test becomes negative within 24 hours.
d) Spalding's sign by plain X-ray.
e) Hyprofibrinogenemia is a serious complication.
105. Advantage of a median episiotomy include the following EXCEPT:
a) Increased area of vaginal outlet to facilitate delivery.
b) Less blood loss compared to mediolateral technique.
c) Avoidance of major perineal lacerations.
d) Decreased risk of injury to the anal sphincter and mucosa.
e) Greater ease of repair compared to medioleteral technique.
106. Causes of increased CS rate include the following EXCEPT:
a) Dystocia.
b) Breech presentation.
c) Fetal distress.
d) Intra-uterine fetal death.
e) Repeat CS.
107. Advantages of lower segment C.S over upper segment C.S. include
the following EXCEPT:
a) Less bleeding unless extended
b) Less paralytic ileus.
c) Used if there are pelvic adhesions.
d) less incidence of subsequent uterine rupture.
e) Less infection
108. Which of the following is a risk factor for placenta accreta?
a) Young age
b) Primigravidity

107
 c) fundal placenta
d) previous cesarean delivery
109. Which of the following hormones is NOT a product of placental
synthesis or production:
a) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
b) Human placental lactogen (hPL).
c) Dopamine
d) Progesterone
e) Estiol
110. The functional unit of the placenta is :
a) The decidua
b) The chorionic villus
c) The cotyledon
d) The ctotrophoblast
e) The chorion leave
111. Management of intrapartum acute fetal distress includes he
following EXCEPT:
a) Oxygen administration
b) Change of maternal position
c) Intraamniotic oxygen supplement
d) Correction of maternal hypotension.
112. The following statements regarding obstetric ultrasound are correct
EXCEPT:
a) It can be used with amniocentesis.
b) It carries a risk to the fetus.
c) It can diagnose placental grading.
d) It is a useful tool in the asessment of amniotic fluid volume.
e) It could estimate the approximate intrauterine fetal weight.
113. Warning symptoms that are given to a pregnant lady include all of
the following EXCEPT:
a) bleeding per vagina.
b) Sudden loss of fluid
c) Abdominal pain.
d) Excessive salivation (ptyalism).
114. The following statements regarding true labor pains are correct
EXCEPT:
a) They are regular.
b) They are relieved by sedation or enema.
c) They are associated with cervical dilatation.

108
 d) They may be associated with rupture of membranes
e) They increase in intensity by time.
115. Uterine rupture is more common in multiparous women due to
increased incidence of all the following EXCEPT:
a) Malpresetation
b) Intra-uterine growth restricted fetus.
c) Pendulous abdomen.
d) Osteomalacia
e) Uterine wall weakness
116. The following conditions may predispose to a breech presentation
EXCEPT:
a) Hydrocephalus
b) Contracted pelvis.
c) Placenta previa
d) Prematurity
e) Septate uterus
117. The following statements regarding ecalmpsia are correct EXCEPT:
a) It rarely occurs in multiparous patients.
b) It occurs post-partum more common than ante-partum.
c) It causes reversible neurological deficit.
d) It should be managed in a darkened room.
e) It causes hyper-re flexia.
118. Medical history suggestive of diabetes in pregnancy include the
following EXCEPT:
a) Past history of macrosomia
b) Past history of eclampsia
c) Past history of congenital malformations
d) Past history of unexplained stillbirths
e) Positive family history
119. Which of the following is significant in the management of pregnant
diabetic:
a) Stating oral hypoglycemic agents
b) Cesarean section before 36 weeks gestational age.
c) Mantenance of one hour post-prandial blood glucose level below 140 mg/dl.
d) Bed rest.
120. The following statements regarding face presentation are corect
EXCEPT:
a) It occurs once in 300 cases.
b) The dominator is the chin.

109
 c) The engaging diameter equals the Suboccipito brematic diameter in lenth.
d) Diagnosis is difficult by abdominal palpation
e) The commonest cause is hydrocephalus.
121. The following statements regarding twin pregnancy are correct
EXCEPT:
a) Cephalic-cephalic twin presentation is the most common presentation.
b) Incidence of twinning as diagnosed by early US is similar ot its incidence
at brith.
c) Multifetal pregnancy could be suspected if a pregnant lady had an early
threatened abortion.
d) Extra antenatal care is needed for a pregnant lady with multifetal
pregnancy.
e) Examination of the palcenta is important determination of fetal zygosity.
122. The following findings are suggestive of contracted pelvis during
examination EXCEPT:
a) Kyphosis
b) Non-engagement of the head.
c) Limping gait
d) Height 162cm.
e) Pendulous abdomen in primigravida.
123. Management of shoulder dystocia may include the following
procedures EXCEPT:
a) Vigorous fundal pressure.
b) Corkscrew rotation of the shoulders.
c) Generous episitotomy
d) Shoulder girdle rotation into one of the oblique diameters of the pelvis.
124. The following statements regarding cesarean section (CS) scar
rupture are correct EXCEPT:
a) Upper segment CS scar rutpure 2-4%.
b) This is due to improper coaptation of the edges in USCS scar.
c) Upper segment scar is overstretched by subsequent pregnancies.
d) Upper segment of the uterus is passive during labor.
e) Infection is more common in the upper segment CS.
125. Indications of cesarean section in breech presentation include all of
the following EXCEPT:
a) Large fetus.
b) Premature fetus
c) Breech with extended legs.
d) Footling presentation
e) Post term.

110
126. All of the following regarding cord presentation is true EXCEPT:
a) Is more common with malpresentations.
b) May be associated with abnormal shape of the pelvis.
c) Carries the risk of cord prolapse.
d) Can be diagnosed by PV.
e) Is associated with rupture of membranes.
127. Pregnancy complications that can occur due to bicornuate uterus
include the following EXCEPT:
a) Abortion
b) Malpresentation
c) Operative delivery
d) Twin pregnancy
e) Premature labor
128. Possible clinical consequences of congenital malformations of the
female genital system include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Habitual abortion.
b) Congenital fetal malformations.
c) Ectopic pregnancy
d) Oblique lie of the fetus.
e) Explusion of intrauterine devices.
129. Amniocentesis is useful in the following situations EXCEPT:
a) Management of un-sensitized Rh-negative pregnant women.
b) Tests for fetal lung maturity
c) Suspected chorioamnionitis.
d) Examine fetal cells for the chromosomal pattern.
130. The following statements regarding hydatidiform moles are correct
EXCEPT:
a) May be complicated by thyrotoxicosis.
b) May be complicated by ovarian cysts.
c) a feto-potein is a good marker of disease post-evacuation.
d) Is more prevalent in the advanced age group.

111
131. What is the common approach to an abdominal pregnancy of 15
weeks' gestation?
a) Expectant management.
b) Laparotomy with delivery of fetus.
c) Methortexate.
d) Uterine artery embolization, then await fetal resorption..
132. Partial molar pregnancies most commonly have which of the
following genetic compositions?
a) 45. XO. b) 46 XY.
c) 46. XX. d) 69. XXY.
133. Which of the following factors is NOT associated with transverse lie?
a) Multiparity. b) Oligohydramnios.
c) Placenta previa. d) Uterine anomalies.
134. In which presentation is the fetal neck sharply extended and the
back and occiput in contact?
a) Vertex. b) Face.
c) Brow. d) Sinciput.
135. During the third stage of labor, which of the following is NOT a sign
of placnetal separation?
a) A gust of blood.
b) Uterus rises in the abdomen.
c) Umbilical cord portudes farther out of the vagina.
d) Uterus becomes flaccid.
136. What is the primary mechanism of placental site hemostasis?
a) Vasoconstriction by contracted myometrium
b) Prostaglandin secretion.
c) Maternal hypotension.
d) Decreased cardiac output.
137. A gradual, smooth deceleration of the fetal heart rate that follows the
peak of a contraction describes which of the following decelration types?
a) late. b) early.
c) variable. d) prolonged.
138. Which of the following is associated etiologically with a face
presentation?
a) Contracted pelvic inlet. b) Oxytocin induction.
c) Small for gestational age infant. d) tight abdominal musculature.

112
139. Which of the following fetal conditions is NOT associated with
hydramnios?
a) Central nervous system anomalies.
b) Nonimmune hydrops.
c) Chromosomal abnormalities.
d) Renal agenesis
140. which of the following is NOT a prerequisite for forceps application?
a) Head must be engaged.
b) Fetus must present either by the vertex or by the face with the chin
posterior.
c) Cervix must be completely dilated.
d) Membranes must be ruptured.
141. When examining a woman at term, heraing fetal heart tones loudest
above the umbilcus suggests which type of presentation?
a) Cephalic presentation.
b) Transverse lie.
c) Breech presentation.
d) Multiple pregnancy.
142. Which of the following is NOT an indication of severe
pregnancy-induced hypertension?
a) Upper abdominal pain.
b) Oliguria.
c) Creatinine 0.6 mg/dL.
d) Fetal growth restriction.
143. The diagonal conjugate is calculated by measuring the distance
between which of the following anatomical structures?
a) Coccyx and inner margin of symphysis pubis.
b) Tip of scarum and inner margin of symphysis pubis.
c) Ischial spine and external margin of symphsis pubis.
d) Sacral promontory and inferior point of symphysis pubis.
144. In the fetus or neonate, what are the two sutures between the frontal
and parietal bones called?
a) Frontal.
b) Sagittal.
c) Lambdoid.
d) Coronal.

113
145. Where is surfactant primarily produced in the fetal lung?
a) Type II pneumocytes.
b) Alveoli macrophages.
c) Alveoli basement membrane cells.
d) Interstitial cells.
146. What is pigmentation of the kmidline, anterior abdominal skin
during pregnancy called?
a) Striae gravidarum.
b) Linea nigra.
c) Chloasma.
d) Melasma.
147. What are hypertrophic sebaccous glands visible on the breast
areolae in pregnancy called?
a) Catcliffe nodules.
b) Galnds of Montgomery.
c) Mammary vesicles.
d) Papillae of Li.
148. A woman's parity is determined by the number of which of the
following?
a) Total number of pregnancies.
b) Live fetuses delivered.
c) Fetuses reaching viability.
d) Pregnancies reaching 20 weeks' gestation.
149. Which nutrient during pregnancy is NOT adequately provided in
diet alone?
a) Calcium.
b) Magnesium.
c) Iron.
d) Folate.
150. What is the term for no visible fetus in the gestational sac?
a) Blighted ovum.
b) Miscarriage.
c) Septic abortion.
d) Polar body.

114
Cairo University 25/8/2009
Faculty of Medicine Time allowed: 3 hours
5th year Final Exam Total marks (150)

Obstetrics and Gynecology

All questions are to be attempted
OBSTETRICS
New System
I) Pregnant lady twenty four years old coming to antenatal clinic. (Total 10 marks)
A) Name four warning symptoms. (4 marks)
B) Name four items that should be available in everyday diet of this lady.
(4 marks)
C) Name two fetal risks of malnutrition. (2 marks)
D) Name five maternal risk factors in antenatal assessment. (4 marks)
II) Married lady twenty two years old have a one week missed period
coming to casualty department with acute abdomen. (Total 7 marks)
A) Name four possible causes for this condition. (3 marks)
B) Mention three investigations to reach diagnosis. (3 marks)
C) Mention one non surgical management. (1 mark)
III) Twenty two primigravida pregnant 34 weeks coming to antenatal
clinic with blood pressure 140/90. (Total 12 marks)
A) Name five possible causes for this case. (2 marks)
B) Name seven risk factors for the occurrence of the condition. (2 marks)
C) Name three signs for diagnosis. (2 marks)
D) Name three fetal complications. (2 marks)
E) What is the action of magnesium sulphate in the treatment of eclamptic
fit, and mention three precuations before giving the next dose. (1 mark)
IV) An RH-ve mother married to a +ve RH father. (Total 6 marks)
A) Name two precautions to prevent erythroblastis foetalis. (2 marks)
B) Name four investigations in cord blood after labour. (4 marks)
V) What is engagement of the fetal head and its time to occur?
Mention maternal and fetal causes of non engagement in primgravida in
the last four weeks of pregnancy. (10 marks)
VI) Mention different methods to deliver retained placenta in cases of
uterine atony. (6 marks)
VII) What is the definition of IUGR, and what are the causes of symmetric
growth retardation. (6 marks)
VIII) What is the APGAR score. (6 marks)
IX) What is the Bishop score. (6 marks)
X) Mention different types of cesarean section and which is better and why?
(6 marks)

115
Cairo University 25/8/2009
Faculty of Medicine Time allowed: 3 hours
5th year Final Exam Total marks (180)

Obstetrics and Gynecology

All questions are to be attempted
OBSTETRICS
Old System
I) The placenta presents the interface between the mother and the fetus. It is
formed from the chorion frondosum and the decidua basalis. (Total 18 marks)
A) Mention three functions of the placenta. (6 marks)
B) Name four hormones secreted by the placenta. (8 marks)
C) Name four anomalies in shape. (4 marks)
II) Twenty eight year old married lady having two missed periods coming to gyne-
cological clinic. Gynecological examinaiton revealed that the uterus is bulky
and soft. (Total 14 marks)
A) What is your first diagnosis? (4 marks)
B) Mention two investigations to confirm that. (4 marks)
C) Name three difference between bulky pregnant and non pregnant uterus.
(3 marks)
D) Knowing the date of the last menstrual, period, how to calculate the
expected date of delivery? (3 marks)
III) Primigravida pregnant 34 weeks, blood pressure 140/100 has vaginal bleeding
and sever abdominal pain. (Total 16 marks)
A) What is the possible diagnosis for this case? (4 marks)
B) Name five investigations to confirm your diagnosis and decide the
management. (5 marks)
C) Mention five indications for conservative treatment. (5 marks)
D) Enuemrate lines of conservative treatment. (2 marks)
IV) Is iron supplement a necessity in all pregnant women and why?
How much iron needed per day and what is the prevalence of anemia
during pregnancy? (6 marks)
V) How many fontanells present in the fetal head and what are their clinical importance?
(6 marks)
VI) What is the commonest fetal presentation and why? (6 marks)
VII) Mention the steps to be done for newly born infant. (6 marks)
VIII) Mention different methods of delivery of the after coming head in breech
delivery, which is the best and why? (6 marks)
IX) How to prevent atonic postpartum hemorrhage? (6 marks)
X) What is the definition of fetal asphyxia?
Mention causes of fetal distress (infant asphyxia) (6 marks)

116
Cairo University 25/8/2009
Faculty of Medicine Time allowed: 3 hours
5th year Final Exam Total marks (180)

Obstetrics and Gynecology

All questions are to be attempted
GYNECOLOGY
New System
I) Describe the anatomy of bartholin gland, function and possible complicatin.
(4 marks)
II) Enumerate ovarian attachments. (6 marks)
III) Define puberty and its clinical manifestations. (10 marks)
IV) What are the hormones used in treatment of menopause (HRT), what are the
medications and contradictions? (12 marks)
V) Name the assisted conception techniques. (6 marks)
VI) Name type of bleeding with fibroid. (6 marks)
VII) Name non neoplastic cysts of the ovary. (6 marks)
VIII) Define luteal phase defect, aetiology and treatment. (14 marks)
IX) Advantages of oral contraeptic pills. (6 marks)
X) Causes of smmetrically enlarged uterus. (5 marks)

GYNECOLOGY Time allowed: 3 hours

Total marks (180)
Old System
I) What are the indications of rectal examination in gynecology? (8 marks)
II) Mention lymphatic drainage of the different parts of the uterus. (8 marks)
III) Define spasmodic dysmennorhea, possible etiology and treatment. (10 marks)
IV) Define menopause and mention remote health hazards. (8 marks)
V) Define galactorrhea and possible drugs to induce it. (8 marks)
VI) Define ovulation and name different drugs used to induce ovulation (8 marks)
VII) Define polycystic ovary syndrome, pathogenesis and treatment. (14 marks)
VIII) Tests to assess bubal patency. (8 marks)
IX) Give the incidence trichomonas vaginalis. Describe the organism, mode of in-
fection and treatment. (8 marks)
X) Criteria of malignancy in ovarian swelling. (14 marks)

117
Cairo University Time Allowed: 3 hours
Faculty of Medicine Total Marks: 150 - Marks
13/6/2010

Obstetrics and Gynecology

New system
Obstetrics
All 10 auestions to be answered each carries 7,5 marks:
1- Name hormones secreted by the placenta and its rule in pregnancy mainte-
nance?
2- Isthmic incompetence mention the following : Definition, Aetiology, diag-
nosis and treatment.
3- Contraction (contrictions ring) mention the following: Definition, Aetiolo-
gy, diagnosis and treatment.
4- Name cephalopelvic disproportion tests, mention timing of the procedure
and methods.
5- Defintion and complications of preterm labour.
6- What is apgar score of the fetus.
7- Interacranial hemorrhage of the fetus, mention aetiology and sites of hemor-
rhage.
8- Criteria whicgg need to be fulfilled prior to forceps application.
9- Indications of trial vaginal delivery after cesarean section.
10- What are the main causes of maternal mortality.

118
Cairo University Time Allowed: 3 hours
Faculty of Medicine Total Marks: 90 - Marks
13/6/2010
Obstetrics and Gynecology
Old system
Obstetrics
All 10 questions to be answered each carries 9 marks:
1- Missed abortion mention t5he following: definition, aetiology, diagnosis
and treatment.
2- Effect of placenta praevia on pregnancy, labour and pueperium.
3- Cervical dystocia mention the following: definition, types, aetiology and
complications.
4- Trial of labour mention the following: definition, indications qnd selection
of cases.
5- Risk factors for uterine rupture.
6- Mention the technique of active resuscitation of asphyxia neonatorum.
7- Puerperal pyrexia mention the following: definition and aetiology.
8- Advantages and comlications of vacuum extractor.
9- Complecations of cesarean section.
10- Blood transfusion in Obsterics: mention the indications, complications
and precautions.

119
Cairo University Time Allowed: 3 hours
Faculty of Medicine Total Marks: 150 - Marks
13/6/2010

Obstetrics and Gynecology

New system
Gynecology
All 10 questions to be answered each carries 7.5 marks∫∫
1- Indications of rectal examination in Gynecology
2- Menopause mention: definition, types, endocrine changes and remote health
hazards.
3- Drugs used for induction of ovulation.
4-Metropathia haemorrhagica mention: definition, aetiology, diagnoses and
treatment.
5- Genuine stress incontinence GSI mention: definition, pathophysiology and
treatment.
6- What are the indications to operate on symptomless fibroid.
7- Cervical Intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) mention" definition, grades and di-
agnoses.
8- mention Key points in ovarian cancer
9- Contraception for a lactating female.
10- Advantage of operative laparoscopy.

120
Cairo University Time Allowed: 3 hours
Faculty of Medicine Total Marks: 90 - Marks
13/6/2010

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Old system
Gynecology
All 10 questions to be answered each carries 9 marks:
1- Spsmodic dysmenorrhoea mention: dfinition, aetelogy, diagnoses and
treatments.
2- Galactorrhoea mention: definition, causes and treament.
3- Cervical factors for infertility mention: incidence and causes.
4- Postmenopausal defense mechanism (natural barrier) against vaginal
infection. enumerate common types of infection in the reproductice period.
6- Indications and contraindications of myomectomy.
7- Cervical biopsies mention types and value.
8- Benign cystic teratoma mention: incidence, complications and treatment .
9- Missed IUD mention causes and management.
10- Possible diagnostic applications of ultrasound in Gynecology.

121
Cairo University Time Allowed: 3 hours
Faculty of Medicine Total Marks: 150 - Marks
18/6/2011

Obstetrics and Gynecology

New system
Obstetrics
Write a very short essay on each of the fo the followings:
* Total marks allocated to this group is 25 marks.
* 5 marks are allocated for each question.
1- Breast changes during pregnancy (5 marks)
2- Definition, indications, technique and risks of anniocentesis (5 marks)
3- The criteria of severity of preeclampsia (5 marks)
4- Definition, causes and incidences of maternal mortality in Egypt (5 marks)
5- Maternal and fetal risks during labor in contracted pelvis (5 marks)

write an essay on each of the followings:

* Total marks allocated to this group is 50 marks.
* 10 marks are allocated for each question.
6- Active management of ante partum hemorrhage duc to placenta previa.
(10 marks)
7- Definition, etiology, diagnosis, differential dignosis and treatment of
constriction ring (10 marks)
8- Incidence, diagnosis and management of post term pregnancy. (10 marks)
9- Complications of breech deliver (10 marks)
10- Definition and diagnosis of fetal distress during labor. (10 marks)

122
Cairo University Time Allowed: 3 hours
Faculty of Medicine Total Marks: 150 - Marks
18/6/2011
Obstetrics and Gynecology
New system
Gynecology
Write very short essay on each of the followings:
* Total marks allocated to this group is 25 marks.
* 5 marks are allocated for each question.
1- value and indications of rectal examination (PR) in gynecologic (5 marks).
2- The anatomical changes associated with marked long standing female
genital organs prolapse (5 marks)
3- Incidence and causes of menorrhagia and causes of metrorrahgia with
uterine myoma. (5 marks)
4- Assessment of cervical factor in investigations of female infertility.
(5 marks)
5- Rupture of an ovarian cyst as a complication of benign ovarian neoplasm.
(5 marks)
Write an essay on each of the followings:
* Total marks allocated to this group is 50 marks.
* 10 marks arallocted for each question.
6- The outflow tract disorders (uteriene and vaginal) as a cause of amenorrhea.
(10 marks)
7- Hormone Replacement therapy in menopause.
Benefits and risks Indications and Contraindications, Types, Schedules, Rout
of adminisration, and Follow up (10 marks)
8- Etiology and Treatment of Delayed puberty. (10 marks)
9- Side effects and Contraindications for the of oral contraceptive pills.
(10 marks)
10- Diagnosis, Special investigations and Treatmet of Choriocarcinoma.

123
Cairo University 19 June 2012
Faculty of Medicine Total Allocated Marks: 75
Obstetrics and Gynecology Dept Time Allowed: 90 minutes

Obstetrics & Gynaecology final Examination

Fifth year
Essay Questions gGynaecology]
(Y¹bŠ ÂUE½)
Answer questions in the answer booklet sugglied [or gynaecology.
Write a short essay on [ive of the following guestions.
5 marks are allocated for each guestion.
1. Points that should be determined during a bimanual examination ir1 gy-
naecologic practice.
2. Endocrine changes characteristic of menopause.
3. Surgical treatment of dysfunctional uterine bleeding.
4. Complications of perineal tears.
5. Endometrial hyperplasia; aetiology, pathology and diagnosis.
6. Growth factors that modulate cell growth and function.
Write a short essay on tive of the following guestions.
10 marks are allocated for each question.
7. Features suggesting malignancy in ovarian tumours.
8. Polycystic ovary syndrome; diagnosis and long term risks.
9. Chlamydia trachomatis infection ofthe female genital tract; sites, clinical
picture, treatment and complications.
10. Stress urinary incontinence, aetiology. diagnosis and prevention.
11. Problems and complications associated with intrauterine contraceptive de-
vice use.
12. List non-neoplastic swellings of the vulva and write short essay on the
cormnonest one.

124
Cairo University 19 June 2012
Faculty of Medicine Total Allocated Marks: 75
Obstetrics and Gynecology Dept Time Allowed: 90 minutes

Obstetrics & Gynaecology Hnal Examination

Fifth year
Essay Questions {Obstetrics]
(Y¹bŠ ÂUE½)

Answer questions in the answer booklet sugglied for obstetrics.

Write a short essay on five of the following guestions.
5 marks are allocated for each question.
1. Differential diagnosis of ectopic pregnancies.
2. Complications of accidental haemorrhage.
3. Mechanism of labour in face presentation.
4. Indications of caesarean section in Multifoetal pregnancies.
5. Foetal death during pregnancy and during delivery; definition and
causes.
6. Complications of surgical vaginal evacuation.
Write a short essay on five of the following ggestions.
10 marks are allocated for each guestion.
7. Missed abortion; definition, diagnosis, complications and management.
8. Anaernia during pregnancy; definition, management during pregnancy,
labour and puerperium.
9. Management of a case having antepartum eclampsia.
10. Diagnosis and management of atonic primary postpartum haemor-
rhage,
ll. Foetal macrosomiag definition, risk factors, diagnosis, management
and prognosis.
12. Septicaemic shock in obstetrics; aetiology, pathophysiology, clini-
cal picture and management.

125
Cairo University 21 June 2012
Faculty of Medicine Total Allocated Marks: 90
Obstetrics and Gynecology Dept. Time Allowed: 70 minutes

Obstetrics & Gynaecology tina] Examination

Fifth year
Essay Questions (Gynaecology)
(.b ÂUE½)
Total number of questions: 9

Allocated mark for each question: 10

Answer all questions in the answer booklet sugglied for gynaecology.

Write a short essay on each of the followings:

1. Lymphatic drainage of the uterus.
2. Treatment of dysfunctional uterine bleeding.
3. Pathologic changes in myomas.
4. Missed intrauterine contraceptive device.
5. Clinical features of the menopause.
6. Surgical treatment of amenorrhoea.
7. Ovarian hyper-stimulation syndrome; definition, grades, prevention
and treatment.
8. Aetiology of hirsutism.
9. Complications of benign ovarian tumours.

126
Cairo University 21 June 2012
Faculty of Medicine Total Allocated Marks: 90
Obstetrics and Gynecology Dept. Time Allowed: 70 minutes

Obstetrics & Gynaecology f'mal Examination

Fifth year
Essay Questions (Obstetrics)
(.b ÂUE½)
Total number of questions: 9
Allocated mark for each question: 10
Answer all questions in the answer booklet sugglied for obstetrics.
Write a short essay on each of he followings:
1. The elderly primigravida; definition, maternal and foetal risks.
2. Complications of abortion.
3. Pathology of tubal ectopic pregnancy.
4. Management of a case having severe preeclamptic toxaemia.
5. Clinical importance of the level of the ischial spines.
6. Cervical dystocia; definition, types and management.
7. Management of intrauterine asphyxia (foetal distress).
8. Breech presentation; definition, types and mechanism of labour.
9. Complications of multifoetal pregnancies.

127
128
129
130
131
132
133
oOu« «Ëb UMUOM√ hU l

vMOF« dBI« V WOK bOL

134
WUBK å ò —«œ l UD

135
136