6/5/2020 METEOROLOGY PRACTICE TEST

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METEOROLOGY PRACTICE TEST

100 Questions

Passing: 80% or higher

Introduction to Meteorology Section (1-30)

1. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere by volume is _________. This gas comprises 78%
of the Earth atmosphere by volume.
a. Oxygen c. Carbon Dioxide
b. Argon d. Nitrogen

2. The definition of a variable gas is a gas that varies significantly from time to time and place
to place. The most significant variable gas by volume in the planetary boundary layer in the
atmosphere is:
a. Ozone c. Oxygen
b. Water vapor d. Carbon dioxide

3. An isobar is a line of constant ________________.

a. Pressure c. Temperature
b. Density d. Dewpoint

4. Which of the following best explains how pressure decreases with height in the Earth's
atmosphere?
a. It decreases at a constant rate (linear decrease)
b. It decrease quickly at first then more gradually (exponential decrease)
c. It decreases at a rate of 9.8 millibars per kilometer
d. It decreases in the troposphere, increases in the stratosphere, then decreases to the top of the
atmosphere

5. In the vertical dimension, the upper level jet stream is located closest to which mandatory
synoptic scale pressure level?
a. The 850 millibar level (1,500 meters)
b. The surface
c. The 500 millibar level (5,500 meters)
d. The 300 millibar level (9,500 meters)

6. The seasons of Spring, Summer, Winter, and Fall are a direct result of which phenomenon?
a. The sun's energy output and the Earth's proximity to the sun
b. Shifting of ocean currents
c. The 23.5 ° tilt of the Earth from vertical
d. The jet stream

7. ________________ refers to the horizontal transport of air while _______________ is the

vertical transport of air.
a. Advection, convection
b. Convection, advection

8. Which of the following has the highest albedo and thus more reflected solar radiation?
a. Fresh snow c. Water
b. Grass d. Blacktop

9. Which of the following is NOT a primary "control" of climate?

a. Altitude c. Daily weather
b. Latitude d. Ocean currents

10. Water has a ___________ heat capacity. This means a large amount of energy is needed to

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raise the temperature of water relative to other substances.

a. Low
b. High

11. A one degree temperature change on the Fahrenheit scale is equal a _______________
degree change on the Celsius scale.
a. 0.56 c. 1.8
b. 0.90 d. 3.6

12. Unsaturated air rises at the dry adiabatic lapse rate which is ___________ ° C per
kilometer. This is also the same numerical value as the gravitational force constant in meters
per second squared.
a. 15.2 c. 6.5
b. 9.8 d. 5.5

13. Which of the following processes ABSORBS the most latent heat?
a. Melting c. Evaporation
b. Freezing d. Condensation

14. Which of the following processes will result in a GREATER dewpoint depression at the
surface? The dewpoint depression is the difference between the temperature and the dewpoint.
a. Wet-bulb cooling
b. Saturating previously unsaturated air
c. Radiational cooling
d. Solar heating

15. One saturated air parcel with a temperature of 10 ° C has a saturation mixing ratio of 7
grams per kilogram; A second air parcel with a temperature of 20 ° C has a saturation mixing
ratio of 14 grams per kilogram; From this information, what is the most likely saturation
mixing ratio of a parcel of air at 30 ° C? Warmer air holds exponentially more water vapor,
therefore the temperature/saturation mixing ratio relationship is not linear.
a. 17.5 grams per kilogram
b. 19.0 grams per kilogram
c. 21.0 grams per kilogram
d. 26.5 grams per kilogram

16. In which air mass type would a rising parcel's slope at the moist adiabatic lapse rate be
closest to the dry adiabatic lapse rate? The moist adiabatic lapse rate is NOT a constant. The
moist adiabatic lapse rate has a smaller slope than the dry adiabatic lapse rate if a parcel
contains moisture. The amount of latent heat release depends on the temperature and moisture
content of the air.
a. Maritime tropical (warm and moist)
b. Maritime polar (cool moist)
c. Continental tropical (hot and dry)
d. Continental polar (cold and dry)

17. Which of the following fronts GENERALLY has the smallest slope and is associated with
light to moderate and widespread precipitation? This front is often found to the right of a mid-
latitude cyclone in North America.
a. Cold front c. Dryline
b. Warm front d. Hurricane

18. Which of the following statements is FALSE:

a. Cloud droplets freeze once temperature drops below 0 ° C.
b. The vapor pressure is higher over water than over ice
c. The typical raindrop is about 2 millimeters in diameter
d. Salt particles make good condensation nuclei

19. The geostrophic wind is a balance of the pressure gradient force and the _______________
force. This balance causes air to flow nearly parallel to the height contours in the mid and
upper levels of the atmosphere.
a. Friction c. Coriolis
b. Centrifugal d. Gravity

20. When viewed from above the North Pole of the Earth, the earth rotates _________________
and makes a complete turn in 24 hours. This causes low pressure to spin counterclockwise in

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the Northern Hemisphere. Clue: the sun rises in the east and sets in the west.
a. Clockwise
b. Counterclockwise

21. The California Current off the US West Coast is a ___________ ocean current while the
Gulf Stream off the US East Coast is a ______________ ocean current. This helps lead to dry
summers in California and relatively wet summers in the SE US.
a. Cold, Warm
b. Warm, Cold

22. Which of the following is NOT conducive to lake effect snow?

a. Continental polar air advecting over warm Great Lake waters
b. Strong vertical directional and speed shear with positive LI's
c. Orographic lifting and frictional convergence
d. Large temperature difference between lake and overriding cP air

23. Where is the warm sector located in reference to a developed mid-latitude cyclone over the
United States?
a. To the north c. To the west
b. To the southeast d. To the northeast

24. Rising motion due to vorticity and warm air advection are most commonly found to the
____________ of the 500 millibar trough axis over the United States.
a. Left b. Right c. North

25. This is the type of fog that forms on nights with light wind, clear skies, low dewpoint
depressions, and moist soils.
a. Warm air advection fog c. Upslope fog
b. Thermal fog d. Radiational fog

26. Which of the following reasons explains why the stratosphere is absolutely stable.
a. Air temperatures are too cold
b. Air pressure is too low
c. The absorption of radiant energy by ozone
d. The wind speed is too strong

27. Which of the following reasons explains why ice crystals develop much more rapidly than
liquid water drops in the upper and middle levels of thunderstorms?
a. When temperatures drop below freezing, condensation of water vapor onto liquid water does
not take place. The water vapor can, however, build on ice crystals due to deposition.
b. Electrical currents within thunderstorms allow the building of water vapor on ice crystals
more rapidly than on liquid water drops.
c. It is because the vapor pressure of ice is less than that over water. This produces a vapor
pressure gradient between liquid and frozen water. This causes water vapor to move from
liquid water drops toward ice crystals.
d. It is due to the turbulent motion of air. Condensation rates onto liquid water slow with
increasing windspeed.

28. These clouds have some vertical development and are located in the upper levels of the
atmosphere. The clouds have a lumpy appearance and are made of ice crystals. When viewed
from the surface, each cloud element is about the size of a thumbnail.
a. Nimbostratus c. Altostratus
b. Fair weather cumulus d. Cirrocumulus

29. How can virga cause the atmosphere to become increasingly unstable?
a. It can release large amounts of latent heat
b. It can cool the mid-levels of the atmosphere
c. It can cause a warming of the planetary boundary layer
d. It can cause surface to 500 millibar cold air advection

30. When the temperature is below freezing from the surface to 500 millibars, what
precipitation type would you expect?
a. Snow c. Sleet
b. Rain d. Freezing rain

Severe Weather Section (31-40)

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31. The two weather disasters that result in the greatest loss of life are:
a. Floods and Lightning c. Floods and Hurricanes
b. Hurricanes and Tornadoes d. Lightning and Droughts

32. Which of the following is true of a "capping inversion"?

a. It can prevent thunderstorms from developing
b. It can enhance thunderstorm activity due to heat and moisture buildup in the planetary
boundary layer
c. It is a rapid temperature decrease with height above the planetary boundary layer
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c

33. The air behind the forward flank downdraft associated with strong thunderstorms consists
of _________________ air while the rear flank downdraft consists of relatively
__________________ air.
a. hot and dry; cold and moist
b. cool and moist; warm and dry
c. hot and moist; cold and moist
d. cool and dry; warm and moist

34. Which of the following states has the most frequent and largest hail of the four choices
below? Why?
a. Kansas; many high CAPE days, freezing levels can be relatively low
b. Florida; large number of thunderstorm days
c. Michigan; high latitude, lake effect hail, many summer storms
d. Oregon; orographic lifting, many thunderstorm days, jet stream

35. Minimum tropical storm force wind is ________________ miles per hour while the
minimum hurricane force wind is _______________ miles per hour.
a. 50; 100 c. 39; 74
b. 25; 50 d. 44; 69

36. This is a synoptic scale boundary that separates maritime tropical (mT) air from
continental tropical (cT) air. Dewpoint changes dramatically from one side of the boundary to
the other. Severe thunderstorms can occur along this boundary, especially in Spring and early
Summer.
a. Gust front c. Chinook
b. Outflow boundary d. Dryline

37. In which direction from a winter mid-latitude cyclone is heavy snow most likely to occur?
The heaviest snow falls here due to the best combination of cold air and uplift. In this part of
the cyclone, warm and moist air isentropically wraps up and over (wrap around precipitation)
cold PBL air.
a. To the southeast
b. To the north
c. To the southwest
d. About a 100 miles south of the low track

38. In MOST cloud to ground lightning strikes, the ground tends to be _______________
charged.
a. Positively
b. Negatively

39. Thunder travels at the speed of sound which is nearest to:

a. 10 miles per hour
b. 5 miles per second
c. 1 mile every 5 seconds
d. 3 * 10^8 meter per second

40. The primary moisture source for severe thunderstorms in the Great Plains originates from
the:
a. Jet stream
b. Mexican plateau and Rocky Mountains
c. Pacific Ocean
d. Gulf of Mexico

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Climatology Section (41-50)

41. Many of the world's desert regions are located:

a. Just north and south of the equator
b. West coast regions along the Tropics of Capricorn and Cancer
c. At 60 ° North and 60 ° South
d. On the east coast of most continents

42. The sun is closest to the Earth in ______________, this is known as ______________ and
has a ____________ effect on seasons. Assume you are in the Northern Hemisphere.
a. Summer; Aphelion; large
b. Summer; Perihelion; small
c. Summer; Perihelion; large
d. Winter; Perihelion; small
e. Winter; Aphelion; large

43. Which of the following is a diabatic process as compared to an adiabatic process?

a. Convection
b. Orographic lifting
c. Radiational heating or cooling
d. Rising air due to PBL convergence

44. If you stand with your back to the wind and rotate to the right 30 °, the surface pressure
will be _____________ to your left than your right.
a. Lower
b. Higher

45. In which location are hurricanes most likely to develop?

a. In warm tropical waters 10 ° to 25 ° North and South of equator
b. Along the equator over continental locations
c. Along the west coast of continents at 35 ° North or South
d. In either the Mediterranean Sea, off the east coast of South America, or just south of
Australia

46. An "A" climate is characterized as having:

a. Tropical forest climates and hot all seasons
b. A dry climate
c. Warm temperate rainy climates with mild winters
d. Cold forest climates with severe winters
e. Polar climate

47. Climate is a function of:

a. Latitude
b. Altitude
c. Continentality
d. Ocean currents
e. All of the above

48. The mid-latitude winds in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres flow generally from
which direction?
a. From the east in both hemispheres
b. From the west in both hemispheres
c. From the west in the Northern Hemisphere and from the east in the Southern Hemisphere
d. From the east in the Northern Hemisphere and from the west in the Southern Hemisphere

49. Which of the following is NOT a high latitude climate?

a. Polar c. Tundra
b. Tropical wet and dry d. Taiga

50. The word MONSOON as it applies to climatology refers to:

a. Very heavy rain
b. The intensification of the polar jet
c. A seasonal reversal in wind direction and pressure distribution
d. A cyclone or typhoon with winds over 100 miles per hour

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Forecasting section (51-70)

51. The 850 to 700 mb layer thickness can increase by which of the following processes?
a. Strong 500 millibar vorticity advection
b. Evaporational cooling between the 850 and 700 mb layer
c. Strong dry air advection into the layer
d. Strong warm air advection into the layer

52. When comparing the moisture content in the air between two locations it is best to use?
a. The dewpoint c. The wet bulb temperature
b. Relative humidity d. The dry bulb temperature

53. Suppose a parcel of air at the surface has a temperature of 50 ° F with a dewpoint of 30 ° F.
As it begins to rain heavily into the parcel, what is the wet-bulb temperature most likely to be
after complete evaporational cooling?
a. 55 ° F c. 37 ° F
b. 43 ° F d. 32 ° F

54. When forecasting large hail, what are the primary thermodynamic ingredients to look for
that produce large hail?
a. Vertical wind shear and surface temperature
b. PBL dewpoint and precipitable water
c. Surface pressure and 500 millibar Lifted Index
d. Elevation, CAPE and freezing level

55. When forecasting large and damaging tornadoes, what are the primary thermodynamic
ingredients to look for?
a. PBL direction wind shear, mid-level moisture, speed shear, CAPE, weak to moderate cap
and PBL moisture
b. Elevation, CAPE, cloud top height, and surface relative humidity
c. Upward vertical velocities, precipitable water, unidirectional shear, and PBL moisture
d. 500 millibar temperature, surface dewpoint, 700 millibar dewpoint depression, and lots of
sunshine

56. When forecasting snow amounts associated with winter mid-latitude cyclones, the most
complete list of the primary synoptic scale ingredients and forecasting tools for heavy snow
are:
a. 500 millibar vorticity, speed and directional wind shear in the PBL, 700 millibar
temperature, 700 millibar dewpoint depression, and direction low is moving
b. The size of the low, the deepness of the low, 700 millibar dewpoint, 1000 to 500 millibar
thickness, soil temperatures, low level wind shear, and surface based CAPE
c. The track of the low, intensity of low, PBL temperatures including 850 millibar temperature,
isentropic lifting, precipitable water, 1000 to 500 millibar thickness, 500 millibar vorticity, and
the speed of low
d. Surface pressure, cloud tops, 500 millibar temperatures, jet streaks, surface temperature,
elevation, 700 millibar wind speed, and the temperature gradient across the cold front

57. Which of the following defines the "low level jet"?

a. Gust front winds associated with severe thunderstorms
b. Strong PBL winds in the Great Plains which rapidly draws warm and moist air from the
Gulf of Mexico
c. It is a polar or subtropical jet stream which is at an unusually low pressure level
d. It is the contrails produced by jet aircraft

58. Why are thunderstorms less common in California than Florida?

a. The directional shear is smaller throughout the year in California
b. Fronts do not move through California except in the Summer. Florida has fronts year round.
c. Florida has warmer ocean waters surrounding it. This results in higher dewpoints, instability
and thus more thunderstorms.
d. The jet stream is stronger over Florida

59. Which of the following operational forecast panels is used to analyze vorticity advection?
a. 850 millibar forecast panel c. 500 millibar forecast panel
b. 700 millibar forecast panel d. 300 millibar forecast panel

60. What is vorticity?

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a. It is the theoretical value of upward vertical velocity

b. It is the temperature gradient across a trough axis
c. It is the air pressure at 700 millibars
d. It is cyclonic or anticyclonic rotation which can be used to assess upper level divergence

61. Which type of pressure system is found in the southwest US in the summertime? Associated
with this pressure system are hot afternoon temperatures, rising air in the PBL but very little
precipitation and sinking air aloft.
a. Warm core low c. Cold core low
b. Warm core high d. Cold core high

62. You are in New York City for New Year's and the time has just changed to the year 2000.
What time is it in Zulu (Z) time?
a. 5Z JAN 01 2000
b. 18Z DEC 31 1999
c. 12Z JAN 01 2000
d. 0Z JAN 01 2000

63. Of the following choices, which is displayed on 700 millibar forecast charts such as ETA
and the NGM?
a. The jet stream
b. 1000 to 500 millibar thickness
c. Upward vertical velocity
d. Forecasted surface temperatures

64. Which of the following is NOT displayed on the ETA, MRF and NGM surface pressure
chart?
a. Thickness c. Sea level pressure
b. Relative humidity d. Forecasted precipitation total

65. Why do surface afternoon summer temperatures tend to be warmer in southern Arizona
than Mississippi when both states are at about the same latitude?
a. Radiational cooling is stronger in Mississippi; this allows morning temperatures to be cooler
in Mississippi
b. Mississippi is at a higher altitude; Less dense air stays cooler
c. The wind tends to be stronger in Mississippi; stronger winds mix cooler high altitude air to
the surface
d. There is more evapotranspiration in Mississippi; evapotranspiration is a cooling process that
absorbs latent heat

66. Which of the following weather analysis tools can be used to determine at a quick glance
whether thunderstorms are most likely to be supercells, multicells, or air mass thunderstorms?
a. The value of CAPE
b. The 500 and 300 millibar analysis charts
c. The hodograph
d. Meso-ETA forecast panels

67. When is the MOS temperature forecast most likely to bust?

a. On a sunny day with light wind
b. Near the center of synoptic scale high pressure
c. In a barotropic environment
d. When a front or mid-latitude cyclone enters the forecast region

68. When there is a balance between the upward pressure gradient force and the downward
force of gravity, the atmosphere is said to be in ______________ balance.
a. Geostrophic c. Baroclinic
b. Hydrostatic d. Hypsometric

69. A type B mid-latitude cyclone has its genesis in the upper levels of the atmosphere and
builds toward the surface. Which of the following synoptic scale features most heavily
influences the development of type B cyclones?
a. A large horizontal surface temperature gradient
b. A convectively unstable atmosphere (warm and moist air under dry air)
c. Divergence created by meridional flow within the jet stream
d. Cold fronts, warm fronts and drylines

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70. What causes winter mid-latitude cyclones to intensify rapidly into very deep cold cored
lows as they move from the central or southern US into the northeastern US and coastal
northeast? They are often termed Nor'easters.
a. The release of enormous amounts of latent heat from Atlantic moisture and an enormous
east to west temperature gradient
b. They move further away from high pressure
c. It is caused by the Appalachian Mountains
d. It is caused by the low becoming vertically stacked and highly occluded

Satellite and Radar (71-90)

71. On a NEXRAD velocity display, air moving away from the radar site will most likely be
given a color of:
a. Red
b. Blue

72. As an object emits sound or light and moves TOWARD you, the frequency of the sound or
radiation will be _______________ relative to you than the moving object. This is the Doppler
effect.
a. Higher
b. Lower

73. The maximum unambiguous range will increase if the pulse repetition frequency
of the radar ____________.
a. Increases b. Decreases

74. The maximum unambiguous velocity will increase if the pulse repetition frequency of the
radar ____________.
a. Increases
b. Decreases

75. This term is defined as a measure of dispersion of velocities within the radar sample
volume. It can be used to detect a tornado vortex signature since velocities will have various
directions within a range gate.
a. Rankine vortex c. Spectrum width
b. Velocity aliasing d. Vorticity

76. The "bright band" on radar imagery forms due to:

a. Large hail in a supercell thunderstorm
b. Reflectivity from birds or aircraft
c. Cold air in the mid-levels of the atmosphere
d. Snow melting before it reaches the surface

77. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. The azimuth is the compass direction a hydrometeor is from the radar site
b. A doppler radar detects the actual wind speed in all directions from the radar
c. The range height indicator can be used to measure cloud top heights
d. The plan position indicator can to used to determine how far a hydrometeor is from the
radar site.

78. When the downward bending of radar waves is stronger than normal, such as in association
with a strong temperature inversion, it is called ducting or can also be called
_________________.
a. Subrefraction
b. Superrefraction

79. Why does snow tend to have a smaller overall reflectivity as compared to rain?
a. The snow is more dense and smaller
b. The snow falls at a lower velocity and has a high albedo
c. The snow has a lower moisture content and ice generally has a lower reflectivity
d. Snow is colder and does not fall straight down

80. How can a radar operator best determine that a storm is "severe"?
a. By studying DbZ values, VILs, Radial velocities, and radar signatures such as bow echos
b. By studying accumulated precipitation maps, hourly surface observations and
Speed/directional wind shear

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c. By studying composite reflectivity maps, the closest 12Z thermodynamic sounding, and the
ETA/NGM models
d. By studying infrared satellite imagery, the satellite/radar composite, and the MRF model

81. Cloud texture such as shadows and lumpiness are best seen on ____________ imagery.
a. Water vapor c. Ultaviolet
b. Infrared d. Visible

82. Define V-notch:

a. A fanning of clouds downstream from the burst point of convective thunderstorms
b. A region of low reflectivity created by an intense updraft
c. The coldest cloud tops associated with an MCC
d. The cloud intersection between a warm front and cold front

83. The dryslot on water vapor imagery, which usually wraps into a mid-latitude cyclone from
the southwest, is created by which feature?
a. Warm air advection c. The jet stream
b. The surface cold front d. Isentropic lifting

84. Define parallax:

a. A thin line of convective clouds that forms along the leading edge of a weakening cold front
b. The apparent displacement of a cloud due to the viewing angle of the satellite sensor
c. The point where the sun's most direct rays strike the Earth
d. The maximum upward displacement of a wave

85. Coastal upwelling, the Gulf Stream and cloud top temperatures are best determined using:
a. Visible imagery c. Water vapor imagery
b. Infrared imagery d. X-ray imagery

86. Which weather phenomena would be nearly impossible to observe without the aid of
satellite imagery?
a. Location of a mid-latitude cyclone
b. Location of a cold front boundary
c. Location of a MCC
d. Location of a deep ocean hurricane

87. How does "edge definition" differ between Stratus and Cumulus clouds? This applies to
when these clouds are seen in person also.
a. Stratus have a low edge definition while cumulus have a well defined definition
b. Stratus have a high edge definition while cumulus have a low edge definition

88. The smallest element on a satellite image is called a(n):

a. Range gate c. Square
b. Atom d. Pixel

89. Which imagery uses enhancements to display important temperature details of

thunderstorms and hurricanes?
a. Visible imagery c. Water vapor imagery
b. Infrared imagery d. Y2K imagery

90. A(n) ___________ surface such as rock does not allow light to penetrate while a __________
surface does allow some light to transmit.
a. Opaque, transluscent
b. Transluscent, Opaque

Miscellaneous meteorology (91-100)

91. Which of the following temperature scales is a RATIO temperature scale? A ratio is the
most powerful mathematical tool in statistics.
a. Fahrenheit scale
b. Celsius Scale
c. Kelvin Scale

92. Suppose it is 70 ° F in Dallas and 40 ° F in Oklahoma City. The distance between these cities
is 150 miles. By using linear interpolation, what is the likely temperature 50 miles north of
Dallas.

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a. 60 ° F c. 45 ° F
b. 50 ° F d. 55 ° F

93. Which of the following air masses is the most dense?

a. Cold and moist c. Warm and moist
b. Cold and dry d. Warm and dry

94. Thickness values can be used to infer the strength of:

a. A jet streak
b. Vorticity
c. Low level convergence
d. Thermal advection

95. If a jet streak is on the ____________ side of a trough, the trough will deepen and become
more amplified.
a. Left
b. Right

96. The term "elevated convection" refers to:

a. Slanted convection such as in association with supercell thunderstorms
b. It is another term for an overshooting top
c. It is convection that has an origin above the planetary boundary layer
d. Orographically induced precipitation on windward mountain slopes

97. The numbers 956 next to a station plot at 700 millibars is what value in geopotential
meters? Think of the average 700 millibar height in geopotential meters before looking at the
choices.
a. 956 millibars c. 3,956 geopotential meters
b. 2,956 geopotential meters d. 9,560 geopotential meters

98. The dewpoint is greater than the temperature:

a. When the relative humidity is 100%
b. When clouds form
c. When it is raining
d. Never

99. A 100 mile per hour wind is how many knots?

a. 115 knots c. 76 knots
b. 146 knots d. 87 knots

100. A strong developing mid-latitude cyclone over the United States generally tilts to the
_______________ with height. They tilt toward the cold air.
a. Northwest c. Northeast
b. Southwest d. Southeast

CLICK HERE FOR ANSWERS

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