Solutions of Mock CAT - 02 (CAT 2015 Pattern)

 Scorecard

 Accuracy

 Qs Analysis

 Booster Analysis

 Video Analysis

 Solutions

 Bookmarks

 VRC

 LRDI

 QA

Sec 1

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Western colonial expansion began during the 15th century when Spanish and
Portuguese explorers conquered “new” lands in the West Indies and the Americas. It
continued for over 400 years, and ended with the start of the First World War By that
time western powers such as Great Britain, France, Germany, Italy, Belgium, Portugal
and Spain, spurred on by their competitive desire to acquire new lands and resources,
had colonized the whole of Africa and the areas that we know today as the Americas,
Oceania, Australia, New Zealand, the Caribbean, the Middle East, and many parts of
Asia.

The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) likewise embarked on an expansionist

period that took place during the first half of the 20th century. By mid-century, due to
lands gained through an aggressive expansionist policy and through post-World War II
treaties, the Soviet Empire gained control of all of Russia and most of Central Asia and
Eastern Europe.

During these periods of expansion, Western European and Soviet powers formed new
colonial multiethnic provinces (e.g., Rhodesia, French Indonesia, German East Africa)
and satellite states (e.g., Czechoslovakia, Yugoslavia). They did so with little regard for
the people living in the newly controlled areas, or for existing geographic or cultural
boundaries. Populations that had previously identified themselves as distinct, based on
their cultural, ethnic, and/or religious heritage, were forced to unify under a
single national identity. The new multiethnic colonial territories and Soviet states were
maintained, upheld, and controlled through the use of violence, and through the
implementation of imperialist policies. Certain populations were denied their political,
economic, social, and human rights. Imperialist policies promoted ethnic rivalry by
favoring one group above the others, distributed resources in an unequal manner,
disallowed democratic governments, and prohibited local participation in governmental
decisions and actions.

By the 1960s, after years of fighting for independence, most Western colonial territories
(e.g., India, Indonesia, Algeria) had gained self-rule. Sovereignty, however, did not
bring with it freedom from imperialist influences. Colonial legacies were visible in the
desire of the new governments to keep the boundaries that were created during colonial
times, in the promotion of ethnic rivalry, in the continuation of inhumane and unjust
actions against minority populations, and in the practice of distributing the country’s
resources in an uneven manner. Also, after being under foreign rule for decades, newly
independent governments often lacked governmental institutions, good governance
skills, and the governing experience needed to effectively rule their newly sovereign
nations. In most cases, the transition from colonial province to independent state was a
violent and arduous journey.

Many post-Soviet states (e.g., Azerbaijan, Chechnya, Georgia) experienced similar

problems. After the collapse of the Soviet Union in the early 1990s, conflicts involving
borders, ethnic rivalry, human-rights violations, and the uneven distribution of
resources raged through former Soviet regions (e.g., the Balkans, the Caucasus, and
Eastern Europe). In addition, many post-Soviet governments were plagued by a lack of
governmental institutions, good governance skills, and governmental experience.

Over a hundred new nations were born during the process of de-colonization. Most of
these new nations, however, had not existed at all as nations before colonization, or they
had not existed within the post-colonial borders.

Most colonial and Soviet satellite borders were created either through conquest,
negotiation between empires, or simply by administrative action, with little or no regard
for the social realities of those living in the areas. Nevertheless, many of the leaders and
governments of postcolonial and post-Soviet states have fought to keep the territorial
boundaries created by past imperialist governments. As a result, a number of boundary
conflicts have arisen within post-colonial and post-Soviet territories. Parties to these
conflicts justify and legitimate their side’s position, using different historical boundaries
as evidence for their claims.

Q.1
According to the author, which of the following options would best state the central idea
of the passage?

a In the building of geographical empires, it was necessary for the Western powers
to focus on building nation states.

b The unification of various geographical areas erroneously took place with

populations that were ethnically and culturally distinct from each other.

c The existence of present conflict, and its causes, in post-colonial and post-Soviet
territories, can be understood through influential historical factors mainly, the
boundaries of erstwhile colonies and territories.

d The creation of multiethnic provinces in the quest for geographical expansion is

bound to lead to disastrous consequences in international politics.

o Bookmark
 o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Western colonial expansion began during the 15th century when Spanish and
Portuguese explorers conquered “new” lands in the West Indies and the Americas. It
continued for over 400 years, and ended with the start of the First World War By that
time western powers such as Great Britain, France, Germany, Italy, Belgium, Portugal
and Spain, spurred on by their competitive desire to acquire new lands and resources,
had colonized the whole of Africa and the areas that we know today as the Americas,
Oceania, Australia, New Zealand, the Caribbean, the Middle East, and many parts of
Asia.

The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) likewise embarked on an expansionist

period that took place during the first half of the 20th century. By mid-century, due to
lands gained through an aggressive expansionist policy and through post-World War II
treaties, the Soviet Empire gained control of all of Russia and most of Central Asia and
Eastern Europe.

During these periods of expansion, Western European and Soviet powers formed new
colonial multiethnic provinces (e.g., Rhodesia, French Indonesia, German East Africa)
and satellite states (e.g., Czechoslovakia, Yugoslavia). They did so with little regard for
the people living in the newly controlled areas, or for existing geographic or cultural
boundaries. Populations that had previously identified themselves as distinct, based on
their cultural, ethnic, and/or religious heritage, were forced to unify under a single
national identity. The new multiethnic colonial territories and Soviet states were
maintained, upheld, and controlled through the use of violence, and through the
implementation of imperialist policies. Certain populations were denied their political,
economic, social, and human rights. Imperialist policies promoted ethnic rivalry by
favoring one group above the others, distributed resources in an unequal manner,
disallowed democratic governments, and prohibited local participation in governmental
decisions and actions.

By the 1960s, after years of fighting for independence, most Western colonial territories
(e.g., India, Indonesia, Algeria) had gained self-rule. Sovereignty, however, did not
bring with it freedom from imperialist influences. Colonial legacies were visible in the
desire of the new governments to keep the boundaries that were created during colonial
times, in the promotion of ethnic rivalry, in the continuation of inhumane and unjust
actions against minority populations, and in the practice of distributing the country’s
resources in an uneven manner. Also, after being under foreign rule for decades, newly
independent governments often lacked governmental institutions, good governance
skills, and the governing experience needed to effectively rule their newly sovereign
nations. In most cases, the transition from colonial province to independent state was a
violent and arduous journey.

Many post-Soviet states (e.g., Azerbaijan, Chechnya, Georgia) experienced similar

problems. After the collapse of the Soviet Union in the early 1990s, conflicts involving
borders, ethnic rivalry, human-rights violations, and the uneven distribution of
resources raged through former Soviet regions (e.g., the Balkans, the Caucasus, and
Eastern Europe). In addition, many post-Soviet governments were plagued by a lack of
governmental institutions, good governance skills, and governmental experience.

Over a hundred new nations were born during the process of de-colonization. Most of
these new nations, however, had not existed at all as nations before colonization, or they
had not existed within the post-colonial borders.

Most colonial and Soviet satellite borders were created either through conquest,
negotiation between empires, or simply by administrative action, with little or no regard
for the social realities of those living in the areas. Nevertheless, many of the leaders and
governments of postcolonial and post-Soviet states have fought to keep the territorial
boundaries created by past imperialist governments. As a result, a number of boundary
conflicts have arisen within post-colonial and post-Soviet territories. Parties to these
conflicts justify and legitimate their side’s position, using different historical boundaries
as evidence for their claims.

Q.2
Why does the author state that, after gaining independence, most Western colonial
territories were still not free from imperial influences?

a These territories experienced an aggressive and difficult transition to newfound

sovereignty.

b After being under rule for many years, these territories lacked experience in and
support for good governance.

c The territories were used to experiencing inequality and injustice and did nothing
to prevent their occurrence even after independence.

d The territories were inexperienced in good governance and continued unjust

practices employed by the colonial powers.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Western colonial expansion began during the 15th century when Spanish and
Portuguese explorers conquered “new” lands in the West Indies and the Americas. It
continued for over 400 years, and ended with the start of the First World War By that
time western powers such as Great Britain, France, Germany, Italy, Belgium, Portugal
and Spain, spurred on by their competitive desire to acquire new lands and resources,
had colonized the whole of Africa and the areas that we know today as the Americas,
Oceania, Australia, New Zealand, the Caribbean, the Middle East, and many parts of
Asia.

The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) likewise embarked on an expansionist

period that took place during the first half of the 20th century. By mid-century, due to
lands gained through an aggressive expansionist policy and through post-World War II
treaties, the Soviet Empire gained control of all of Russia and most of Central Asia and
Eastern Europe.

During these periods of expansion, Western European and Soviet powers formed new
colonial multiethnic provinces (e.g., Rhodesia, French Indonesia, German East Africa)
and satellite states (e.g., Czechoslovakia, Yugoslavia). They did so with little regard for
the people living in the newly controlled areas, or for existing geographic or cultural
boundaries. Populations that had previously identified themselves as distinct, based on
their cultural, ethnic, and/or religious heritage, were forced to unify under a single
national identity. The new multiethnic colonial territories and Soviet states were
maintained, upheld, and controlled through the use of violence, and through the
implementation of imperialist policies. Certain populations were denied their political,
economic, social, and human rights. Imperialist policies promoted ethnic rivalry by
favoring one group above the others, distributed resources in an unequal manner,
disallowed democratic governments, and prohibited local participation in governmental
decisions and actions.

By the 1960s, after years of fighting for independence, most Western colonial territories
(e.g., India, Indonesia, Algeria) had gained self-rule. Sovereignty, however, did not
bring with it freedom from imperialist influences. Colonial legacies were visible in the
desire of the new governments to keep the boundaries that were created during colonial
times, in the promotion of ethnic rivalry, in the continuation of inhumane and unjust
actions against minority populations, and in the practice of distributing the country’s
resources in an uneven manner. Also, after being under foreign rule for decades, newly
independent governments often lacked governmental institutions, good governance
skills, and the governing experience needed to effectively rule their newly sovereign
nations. In most cases, the transition from colonial province to independent state was a
violent and arduous journey.

Many post-Soviet states (e.g., Azerbaijan, Chechnya, Georgia) experienced similar

problems. After the collapse of the Soviet Union in the early 1990s, conflicts involving
borders, ethnic rivalry, human-rights violations, and the uneven distribution of
resources raged through former Soviet regions (e.g., the Balkans, the Caucasus, and
Eastern Europe). In addition, many post-Soviet governments were plagued by a lack of
governmental institutions, good governance skills, and governmental experience.

Over a hundred new nations were born during the process of de-colonization. Most of
these new nations, however, had not existed at all as nations before colonization, or they
had not existed within the post-colonial borders.

Most colonial and Soviet satellite borders were created either through conquest,
negotiation between empires, or simply by administrative action, with little or no regard
for the social realities of those living in the areas. Nevertheless, many of the leaders and
governments of postcolonial and post-Soviet states have fought to keep the territorial
boundaries created by past imperialist governments. As a result, a number of boundary
conflicts have arisen within post-colonial and post-Soviet territories. Parties to these
conflicts justify and legitimate their side’s position, using different historical boundaries
as evidence for their claims.

Q.3
According to the passage, one of the inferences that can best be derived from the
regular reference to territorial boundaries is

a In the process of colonisation and expansion, the emphasis on regions and land
was greater than that on culture and ethnicity.

b Postcolonial and post-Soviet states have attempted to keep off the territorial
boundaries created by past imperialist governments.

c Territorial boundaries represented changes in geo-political relations and the need

for international diplomacy.

d These boundaries are more or less permanent in the present world and any
attempt to tamper with this status quo will lead to disastrous consequences.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Western colonial expansion began during the 15th century when Spanish and
Portuguese explorers conquered “new” lands in the West Indies and the Americas. It
continued for over 400 years, and ended with the start of the First World War By that
time western powers such as Great Britain, France, Germany, Italy, Belgium, Portugal
and Spain, spurred on by their competitive desire to acquire new lands and resources,
had colonized the whole of Africa and the areas that we know today as the Americas,
Oceania, Australia, New Zealand, the Caribbean, the Middle East, and many parts of
Asia.

The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) likewise embarked on an expansionist

period that took place during the first half of the 20th century. By mid-century, due to
lands gained through an aggressive expansionist policy and through post-World War II
treaties, the Soviet Empire gained control of all of Russia and most of Central Asia and
Eastern Europe.

During these periods of expansion, Western European and Soviet powers formed new
colonial multiethnic provinces (e.g., Rhodesia, French Indonesia, German East Africa)
and satellite states (e.g., Czechoslovakia, Yugoslavia). They did so with little regard for
the people living in the newly controlled areas, or for existing geographic or cultural
boundaries. Populations that had previously identified themselves as distinct, based on
their cultural, ethnic, and/or religious heritage, were forced to unify under a single
national identity. The new multiethnic colonial territories and Soviet states were
maintained, upheld, and controlled through the use of violence, and through the
implementation of imperialist policies. Certain populations were denied their political,
economic, social, and human rights. Imperialist policies promoted ethnic rivalry by
favoring one group above the others, distributed resources in an unequal manner,
disallowed democratic governments, and prohibited local participation in governmental
decisions and actions.

By the 1960s, after years of fighting for independence, most Western colonial territories
(e.g., India, Indonesia, Algeria) had gained self-rule. Sovereignty, however, did not
bring with it freedom from imperialist influences. Colonial legacies were visible in the
desire of the new governments to keep the boundaries that were created during colonial
times, in the promotion of ethnic rivalry, in the continuation of inhumane and unjust
actions against minority populations, and in the practice of distributing the country’s
resources in an uneven manner. Also, after being under foreign rule for decades, newly
independent governments often lacked governmental institutions, good governance
skills, and the governing experience needed to effectively rule their newly sovereign
nations. In most cases, the transition from colonial province to independent state was a
violent and arduous journey.

Many post-Soviet states (e.g., Azerbaijan, Chechnya, Georgia) experienced similar

problems. After the collapse of the Soviet Union in the early 1990s, conflicts involving
borders, ethnic rivalry, human-rights violations, and the uneven distribution of
resources raged through former Soviet regions (e.g., the Balkans, the Caucasus, and
Eastern Europe). In addition, many post-Soviet governments were plagued by a lack of
governmental institutions, good governance skills, and governmental experience.

Over a hundred new nations were born during the process of de-colonization. Most of
these new nations, however, had not existed at all as nations before colonization, or they
had not existed within the post-colonial borders.

Most colonial and Soviet satellite borders were created either through conquest,
negotiation between empires, or simply by administrative action, with little or no regard
for the social realities of those living in the areas. Nevertheless, many of the leaders and
governments of postcolonial and post-Soviet states have fought to keep the territorial
boundaries created by past imperialist governments. As a result, a number of boundary
conflicts have arisen within post-colonial and post-Soviet territories. Parties to these
conflicts justify and legitimate their side’s position, using different historical boundaries
as evidence for their claims.

Q.4
Based on the information in the passage, it can be inferred that a fallout of the process
of de-colonization is all of the following except for

a new nation states that have to link with their previous cultural identity.
b lack of experience in governance for the colonised state.

c violence as an element in the effort to establish new sovereign nations.

d lack of justice and equality in the nation state.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Hume makes a point that if I do not respond sympathetically to the pain of another
person, no amount of reason will move me to care about her plight. But having said this,
we are a long way from understanding the passion of virtue. Feeling, emotion (pathos)
has as its central meaning something endured or something that happens to one. It is, if
not negative or neutral, then reactive to some event or situation. Aristotle remarks
relative to this point that one cannot be blamed for feelings only for actions. Even
Aristotle, however, has insisted that emotions themselves must become rational in the
well tempered soul, which indicates that reason is not an independent faculty, or at least
that emotions somehow partake in and are not simply subject to reason. The point here
is that even in its philosophical framing passion (pathos) has an active connotation—a
positive energy that is not merely reactive. This suggests, for example, that the essential
difference between anger and wrath is one of kind, not degree. The wrath of Achilles
with which the Iliad begins is anything but passive, and not merely reactive; passion
here is not limited to a sense of offense, but marks a positive and generative force only
occasioned by that offense. It is this passion that is the source of the judgment ¯Achilles
agathos!; passion is the way in which Achilles proclaims himself, the measure of his
character. It is here and in this sense that passion and virtue converge. In the milder
culture of later times, virtue is more generally recognized, for example, in the passion
for justice. Finally, in its most comprehensive and universal sense, the virtue of
humanity is realized in the passion for life. Plato famously distrusted and devalued
passion, particularly in its characteristic poetic expression, which he nonetheless
credited as a kind of divine madness. But in the Symposium Plato dialectically develops
the journey of the philosophical spirit toward the beauty of truth, in which Eros, desire,
remains at the root of what moves and provides the energy of that spiritual quest. In
this context philein sophian—the love and pursuit of wisdom that defines philosophy for
Plato—serves to qualify his earlier rejection of passion and existentially anchor wisdom
in pathos. It is passion for the beauty in life that leads to the love of wisdom and the
truth of understanding—to the eidos of the Good which in turn is the source both of
enlightenment and the virtue of a fully human life. So understood, the quadrivium of
excellence in the classical world—wisdom, courage, temperance, justice—owe their
existence and force in the life of individual and community to pathos (passion), no less
than logos(reason.) Whether one aspires to a greatness of soul (the tragic hero) or only
to the excellence of a particular spiritual endowment (the range of humanity),
movement only begins in the passion of that commitment. Justice in the state or in the
soul of the individual is never realized without such commitment. The road to virtue, to
the excellence of character in action, whether for the tragic hero or the stoic everyman,
must overcome obstacles, excuses, occasions and all the other roadside distractions that
imagination can invent. The world of literature is a collected canon of investigations of
the lateral movements of human passion, a comprehensive and dynamic manifold of
heroic achievement and ironic failures in the human aspiration to virtue. In its positive
form, however, passion attests to that most common and ordinary virtue that defines
humanity (as opposed to the immortality of the Gods)—a tenacity of spirit and resolve
that affirms the beauty of life in the face of inevitable defeat.

Q.5
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

a However tragic the realization of the hero, the anguish of her cry is still an
affirmation of virtue.

b However tragic the realization of the hero, the anguish of her cry is still an
affirmation of passion.

c However tragic the realization of the hero, the anguish of her cry is still an
affirmation of reason.

d However tragic the realization of the hero, the anguish of her cry is still an
affirmation of the beauty and sublimity of life.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Hume makes a point that if I do not respond sympathetically to the pain of another
person, no amount of reason will move me to care about her plight. But having said this,
we are a long way from understanding the passion of virtue. Feeling, emotion (pathos)
has as its central meaning something endured or something that happens to one. It is, if
not negative or neutral, then reactive to some event or situation. Aristotle remarks
relative to this point that one cannot be blamed for feelings only for actions. Even
Aristotle, however, has insisted that emotions themselves must become rational in the
well tempered soul, which indicates that reason is not an independent faculty, or at least
that emotions somehow partake in and are not simply subject to reason. The point here
is that even in its philosophical framing passion (pathos) has an active connotation—a
positive energy that is not merely reactive. This suggests, for example, that the essential
difference between anger and wrath is one of kind, not degree. The wrath of Achilles
with which the Iliad begins is anything but passive, and not merely reactive; passion
here is not limited to a sense of offense, but marks a positive and generative force only
occasioned by that offense. It is this passion that is the source of the judgment ¯Achilles
agathos!; passion is the way in which Achilles proclaims himself, the measure of his
character. It is here and in this sense that passion and virtue converge. In the milder
culture of later times, virtue is more generally recognized, for example, in the passion
for justice. Finally, in its most comprehensive and universal sense, the virtue of
humanity is realized in the passion for life. Plato famously distrusted and devalued
passion, particularly in its characteristic poetic expression, which he nonetheless
credited as a kind of divine madness. But in the Symposium Plato dialectically develops
the journey of the philosophical spirit toward the beauty of truth, in which Eros, desire,
remains at the root of what moves and provides the energy of that spiritual quest. In
this context philein sophian—the love and pursuit of wisdom that defines philosophy for
Plato—serves to qualify his earlier rejection of passion and existentially anchor wisdom
in pathos. It is passion for the beauty in life that leads to the love of wisdom and the
truth of understanding—to the eidos of the Good which in turn is the source both of
enlightenment and the virtue of a fully human life. So understood, the quadrivium of
excellence in the classical world—wisdom, courage, temperance, justice—owe their
existence and force in the life of individual and community to pathos (passion), no less
than logos(reason.) Whether one aspires to a greatness of soul (the tragic hero) or only
to the excellence of a particular spiritual endowment (the range of humanity),
movement only begins in the passion of that commitment. Justice in the state or in the
soul of the individual is never realized without such commitment. The road to virtue, to
the excellence of character in action, whether for the tragic hero or the stoic everyman,
must overcome obstacles, excuses, occasions and all the other roadside distractions that
imagination can invent. The world of literature is a collected canon of investigations of
the lateral movements of human passion, a comprehensive and dynamic manifold of
heroic achievement and ironic failures in the human aspiration to virtue. In its positive
form, however, passion attests to that most common and ordinary virtue that defines
humanity (as opposed to the immortality of the Gods)—a tenacity of spirit and resolve
that affirms the beauty of life in the face of inevitable defeat.

Q.6
Which of the following the author is most likely to agree with?

a Reason is the predictable domain of moral deliberation.

b Reason is the definitive of morals.

c Reason is a slave to the passions.

d Reason has no moral force, and so locates moral life and sense in feelings.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Hume makes a point that if I do not respond sympathetically to the pain of another
person, no amount of reason will move me to care about her plight. But having said this,
we are a long way from understanding the passion of virtue. Feeling, emotion (pathos)
has as its central meaning something endured or something that happens to one. It is, if
not negative or neutral, then reactive to some event or situation. Aristotle remarks
relative to this point that one cannot be blamed for feelings only for actions. Even
Aristotle, however, has insisted that emotions themselves must become rational in the
well tempered soul, which indicates that reason is not an independent faculty, or at least
that emotions somehow partake in and are not simply subject to reason. The point here
is that even in its philosophical framing passion (pathos) has an active connotation—a
positive energy that is not merely reactive. This suggests, for example, that the essential
difference between anger and wrath is one of kind, not degree. The wrath of Achilles
with which the Iliad begins is anything but passive, and not merely reactive; passion
here is not limited to a sense of offense, but marks a positive and generative force only
occasioned by that offense. It is this passion that is the source of the judgment ¯Achilles
agathos!; passion is the way in which Achilles proclaims himself, the measure of his
character. It is here and in this sense that passion and virtue converge. In the milder
culture of later times, virtue is more generally recognized, for example, in the passion
for justice. Finally, in its most comprehensive and universal sense, the virtue of
humanity is realized in the passion for life. Plato famously distrusted and devalued
passion, particularly in its characteristic poetic expression, which he nonetheless
credited as a kind of divine madness. But in the Symposium Plato dialectically develops
the journey of the philosophical spirit toward the beauty of truth, in which Eros, desire,
remains at the root of what moves and provides the energy of that spiritual quest. In
this context philein sophian—the love and pursuit of wisdom that defines philosophy for
Plato—serves to qualify his earlier rejection of passion and existentially anchor wisdom
in pathos. It is passion for the beauty in life that leads to the love of wisdom and the
truth of understanding—to the eidos of the Good which in turn is the source both of
enlightenment and the virtue of a fully human life. So understood, the quadrivium of
excellence in the classical world—wisdom, courage, temperance, justice—owe their
existence and force in the life of individual and community to pathos (passion), no less
than logos(reason.) Whether one aspires to a greatness of soul (the tragic hero) or only
to the excellence of a particular spiritual endowment (the range of humanity),
movement only begins in the passion of that commitment. Justice in the state or in the
soul of the individual is never realized without such commitment. The road to virtue, to
the excellence of character in action, whether for the tragic hero or the stoic everyman,
must overcome obstacles, excuses, occasions and all the other roadside distractions that
imagination can invent. The world of literature is a collected canon of investigations of
the lateral movements of human passion, a comprehensive and dynamic manifold of
heroic achievement and ironic failures in the human aspiration to virtue. In its positive
form, however, passion attests to that most common and ordinary virtue that defines
humanity (as opposed to the immortality of the Gods)—a tenacity of spirit and resolve
that affirms the beauty of life in the face of inevitable defeat.

Q.7
Which of the following is true according to the passage?

a The virtue of passion is discovered both in action and reflection.

b The virtue of passion is discovered in the character of the tragic figure that can
look into the heart of darkness with complete conviction.

c The virtue of passion is discovered in the character of the ironic figure who
struggles against impending doom.

d All of the above.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Hume makes a point that if I do not respond sympathetically to the pain of another
person, no amount of reason will move me to care about her plight. But having said this,
we are a long way from understanding the passion of virtue. Feeling, emotion (pathos)
has as its central meaning something endured or something that happens to one. It is, if
not negative or neutral, then reactive to some event or situation. Aristotle remarks
relative to this point that one cannot be blamed for feelings only for actions. Even
Aristotle, however, has insisted that emotions themselves must become rational in the
well tempered soul, which indicates that reason is not an independent faculty, or at least
that emotions somehow partake in and are not simply subject to reason. The point here
is that even in its philosophical framing passion (pathos) has an active connotation—a
positive energy that is not merely reactive. This suggests, for example, that the essential
difference between anger and wrath is one of kind, not degree. The wrath of Achilles
with which the Iliad begins is anything but passive, and not merely reactive; passion
here is not limited to a sense of offense, but marks a positive and generative force only
occasioned by that offense. It is this passion that is the source of the judgment ¯Achilles
agathos!; passion is the way in which Achilles proclaims himself, the measure of his
character. It is here and in this sense that passion and virtue converge. In the milder
culture of later times, virtue is more generally recognized, for example, in the passion
for justice. Finally, in its most comprehensive and universal sense, the virtue of
humanity is realized in the passion for life. Plato famously distrusted and devalued
passion, particularly in its characteristic poetic expression, which he nonetheless
credited as a kind of divine madness. But in the Symposium Plato dialectically develops
the journey of the philosophical spirit toward the beauty of truth, in which Eros, desire,
remains at the root of what moves and provides the energy of that spiritual quest. In
this context philein sophian—the love and pursuit of wisdom that defines philosophy for
Plato—serves to qualify his earlier rejection of passion and existentially anchor wisdom
in pathos. It is passion for the beauty in life that leads to the love of wisdom and the
truth of understanding—to the eidos of the Good which in turn is the source both of
enlightenment and the virtue of a fully human life. So understood, the quadrivium of
excellence in the classical world—wisdom, courage, temperance, justice—owe their
existence and force in the life of individual and community to pathos (passion), no less
than logos(reason.) Whether one aspires to a greatness of soul (the tragic hero) or only
to the excellence of a particular spiritual endowment (the range of humanity),
movement only begins in the passion of that commitment. Justice in the state or in the
soul of the individual is never realized without such commitment. The road to virtue, to
the excellence of character in action, whether for the tragic hero or the stoic everyman,
must overcome obstacles, excuses, occasions and all the other roadside distractions that
imagination can invent. The world of literature is a collected canon of investigations of
the lateral movements of human passion, a comprehensive and dynamic manifold of
heroic achievement and ironic failures in the human aspiration to virtue. In its positive
form, however, passion attests to that most common and ordinary virtue that defines
humanity (as opposed to the immortality of the Gods)—a tenacity of spirit and resolve
that affirms the beauty of life in the face of inevitable defeat.

Q.8
Which of the following can be inferred from the last lines of the passage?

a The gods have no need to try and fail, to live and die—indeed they have not the
capacity to do so.

b The passions of the timeless gods are pale by comparison to those of a creature
caught in the ravages of time, in which passion is all that sustains him.

c The gods are without virtue, not because they lack restraint, but because only
human beings must risk and suffer and fail in aspiring to become what they can only
imagine.

d Gods lack passion and are hence without virtue.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Until the mid 1980s, success in the fashion industry was based on low cost mass
production of standardized styles that did not change frequently due to the design
restrictions of the factories, such as Levi’s 501 jeans and a man’s white shirt, although
there were exceptional cases of rapid changing haute couture. Apparently, consumers
during that time were less sensitive toward style and fashion, and preferred basic
apparel. There was a sudden increase in the import of fashion-oriented apparel for
women as compared to the standardized apparel.

This reduced the demand for classic though simple apparel as consumers started
becoming more fashion-conscious. For instance, the women’s legwear industry
introduced colours and textures to basic hosiery to coordinate with every outfit.
Unfortunately, this change in fashion oriented apparel contributed to an increase in
mark-downs in the market, which became necessary due to the failure to sell fashion
apparel during the forecasted season.

As fashion is considered to be a temporary cyclical phenomena adopted by consumers

for a particular time, it becomes evident that the life cycle for fashion is quite small.
Since the 1980s, a typical life cycle for fashion apparel had four stages: introduction and
adoption by fashion leaders; growth and increase in public appearance; mass
conformity (maturation); and finally, the decline and obsolescence of fashion. Also, the
fashion calendar during this time was primarily based on the fabric exhibitions, fashion
shows and trade fairs, that consisted of the basic pattern of Spring/Summer and
Autumn/Winter ranges which typically resulted in developing a seasonal range in one
full year. However, towards the beginning of the 1990s, retailers started focusing on
expanding their product range with updated products and faster responsiveness to the
‘newness’ of the fashion trends; and providing ‘refreshing’ products instead of only cost
efficiencies for manufacturing. In order to increase the variety of fashion apparel in the
market, the concept of adding more phases to the existing seasons (that is, the period of
time during which fashion products are sold) in a fashion calendar came into existence.
The addition of 3 to 5 mid-seasons forced immense pressure on suppliers to deliver
fashion apparel in smaller batches with reduced lead time. For instance, Liz Claiborne
developed six seasons instead of just two.

These changes to the number of mid-seasons arose partly from the changes in
consumers’ lifestyles and partly from the need to satisfy consumers’ demand for fashion
clothing for specific occasions.

Towards the late 1980s, the fashion apparel industry was dominated by several larger
retailers which increased the competition levels in the market. In order to survive the
competition, other fashion apparel retailers switched from product-driven to buyer-
driven chains, developed alliances with suppliers in different markets, and promoted
their distinctive brands. This resulted in an increase of profits from unique
combinations of research, design, sales and marketing that would allow them and the
manufacturers to act strategically by linking with overseas factories. The fashion
apparel industry developed an infrastructure around the late 1980s with an emphasis
on promoting responsiveness (quick response) through reduced lead times, alongwith
maintaining low costs.

Q.9
Which of the following options best states the central theme of the passage?

a An attempt to explore the changes in the fashion apparel industry in the past two
decades.

b An attempt to understand how fast fashion emerged to the extent that it is at

today.

c Examine the changes in the fashion apparel industry leading to the evolution of
‘throwaway or fast fashion’.

d An attempt to align the research capabilities with market growth potential for
fast fashion.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Until the mid 1980s, success in the fashion industry was based on low cost mass
production of standardized styles that did not change frequently due to the design
restrictions of the factories, such as Levi’s 501 jeans and a man’s white shirt, although
there were exceptional cases of rapid changing haute couture. Apparently, consumers
during that time were less sensitive toward style and fashion, and preferred basic
apparel. There was a sudden increase in the import of fashion-oriented apparel for
women as compared to the standardized apparel.

This reduced the demand for classic though simple apparel as consumers started
becoming more fashion-conscious. For instance, the women’s legwear industry
introduced colours and textures to basic hosiery to coordinate with every outfit.
Unfortunately, this change in fashion oriented apparel contributed to an increase in
mark-downs in the market, which became necessary due to the failure to sell fashion
apparel during the forecasted season.

As fashion is considered to be a temporary cyclical phenomena adopted by consumers

for a particular time, it becomes evident that the life cycle for fashion is quite small.
Since the 1980s, a typical life cycle for fashion apparel had four stages: introduction and
adoption by fashion leaders; growth and increase in public appearance; mass
conformity (maturation); and finally, the decline and obsolescence of fashion. Also, the
fashion calendar during this time was primarily based on the fabric exhibitions, fashion
shows and trade fairs, that consisted of the basic pattern of Spring/Summer and
Autumn/Winter ranges which typically resulted in developing a seasonal range in one
full year. However, towards the beginning of the 1990s, retailers started focusing on
expanding their product range with updated products and faster responsiveness to the
‘newness’ of the fashion trends; and providing ‘refreshing’ products instead of only cost
efficiencies for manufacturing. In order to increase the variety of fashion apparel in the
market, the concept of adding more phases to the existing seasons (that is, the period of
time during which fashion products are sold) in a fashion calendar came into existence.
The addition of 3 to 5 mid-seasons forced immense pressure on suppliers to deliver
fashion apparel in smaller batches with reduced lead time. For instance, Liz Claiborne
developed six seasons instead of just two.

These changes to the number of mid-seasons arose partly from the changes in
consumers’ lifestyles and partly from the need to satisfy consumers’ demand for fashion
clothing for specific occasions.

Towards the late 1980s, the fashion apparel industry was dominated by several larger
retailers which increased the competition levels in the market. In order to survive the
competition, other fashion apparel retailers switched from product-driven to buyer-
driven chains, developed alliances with suppliers in different markets, and promoted
their distinctive brands. This resulted in an increase of profits from unique
combinations of research, design, sales and marketing that would allow them and the
manufacturers to act strategically by linking with overseas factories. The fashion
apparel industry developed an infrastructure around the late 1980s with an emphasis
on promoting responsiveness (quick response) through reduced lead times, alongwith
maintaining low costs.

Q.10
Which of the following options would help support the point made in the second
paragraph?

a Mass production of fashion products was not a solution to gain profits in the
fashion business.

b Mark-downs were a necessary part of the fashion business that saw increasingly
fashion-conscious consumers.

c Last season’s fashion could not be passed off to fashion conscious consumers in
the current season.

d The fashion industry had to widen its scope of apparel to include more colours
and textures for discerning tastes.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Until the mid 1980s, success in the fashion industry was based on low cost mass
production of standardized styles that did not change frequently due to the design
restrictions of the factories, such as Levi’s 501 jeans and a man’s white shirt, although
there were exceptional cases of rapid changing haute couture. Apparently, consumers
during that time were less sensitive toward style and fashion, and preferred basic
apparel. There was a sudden increase in the import of fashion-oriented apparel for
women as compared to the standardized apparel.

This reduced the demand for classic though simple apparel as consumers started
becoming more fashion-conscious. For instance, the women’s legwear industry
introduced colours and textures to basic hosiery to coordinate with every outfit.
Unfortunately, this change in fashion oriented apparel contributed to an increase in
mark-downs in the market, which became necessary due to the failure to sell fashion
apparel during the forecasted season.

As fashion is considered to be a temporary cyclical phenomena adopted by consumers

for a particular time, it becomes evident that the life cycle for fashion is quite small.
Since the 1980s, a typical life cycle for fashion apparel had four stages: introduction and
adoption by fashion leaders; growth and increase in public appearance; mass
conformity (maturation); and finally, the decline and obsolescence of fashion. Also, the
fashion calendar during this time was primarily based on the fabric exhibitions, fashion
shows and trade fairs, that consisted of the basic pattern of Spring/Summer and
Autumn/Winter ranges which typically resulted in developing a seasonal range in one
full year. However, towards the beginning of the 1990s, retailers started focusing on
expanding their product range with updated products and faster responsiveness to the
‘newness’ of the fashion trends; and providing ‘refreshing’ products instead of only cost
efficiencies for manufacturing. In order to increase the variety of fashion apparel in the
market, the concept of adding more phases to the existing seasons (that is, the period of
time during which fashion products are sold) in a fashion calendar came into existence.
The addition of 3 to 5 mid-seasons forced immense pressure on suppliers to deliver
fashion apparel in smaller batches with reduced lead time. For instance, Liz Claiborne
developed six seasons instead of just two.

These changes to the number of mid-seasons arose partly from the changes in
consumers’ lifestyles and partly from the need to satisfy consumers’ demand for fashion
clothing for specific occasions.

Towards the late 1980s, the fashion apparel industry was dominated by several larger
retailers which increased the competition levels in the market. In order to survive the
competition, other fashion apparel retailers switched from product-driven to buyer-
driven chains, developed alliances with suppliers in different markets, and promoted
their distinctive brands. This resulted in an increase of profits from unique
combinations of research, design, sales and marketing that would allow them and the
manufacturers to act strategically by linking with overseas factories. The fashion
apparel industry developed an infrastructure around the late 1980s with an emphasis
on promoting responsiveness (quick response) through reduced lead times, alongwith
maintaining low costs.

Q.11
Which of the following options would fit into the second stage of the fashion life cycle?

a The recurring appearance of the season’s hot shade on the red carpet due to a
particular fashionista.

b The appearance of the season’s hot shade in various lifestyle stores across the
country.

c The appearance of large stocks of this season’s jacket in the sale sections of
various lifestyle stores.

d The appearance of the latest men’s jacket style on the red carpet and
subsequently in various celebrity events.

o Bookmark
 o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Until the mid 1980s, success in the fashion industry was based on low cost mass
production of standardized styles that did not change frequently due to the design
restrictions of the factories, such as Levi’s 501 jeans and a man’s white shirt, although
there were exceptional cases of rapid changing haute couture. Apparently, consumers
during that time were less sensitive toward style and fashion, and preferred basic
apparel. There was a sudden increase in the import of fashion-oriented apparel for
women as compared to the standardized apparel.

This reduced the demand for classic though simple apparel as consumers started
becoming more fashion-conscious. For instance, the women’s legwear industry
introduced colours and textures to basic hosiery to coordinate with every outfit.
Unfortunately, this change in fashion oriented apparel contributed to an increase in
mark-downs in the market, which became necessary due to the failure to sell fashion
apparel during the forecasted season.

As fashion is considered to be a temporary cyclical phenomena adopted by consumers

for a particular time, it becomes evident that the life cycle for fashion is quite small.
Since the 1980s, a typical life cycle for fashion apparel had four stages: introduction and
adoption by fashion leaders; growth and increase in public appearance; mass
conformity (maturation); and finally, the decline and obsolescence of fashion. Also, the
fashion calendar during this time was primarily based on the fabric exhibitions, fashion
shows and trade fairs, that consisted of the basic pattern of Spring/Summer and
Autumn/Winter ranges which typically resulted in developing a seasonal range in one
full year. However, towards the beginning of the 1990s, retailers started focusing on
expanding their product range with updated products and faster responsiveness to the
‘newness’ of the fashion trends; and providing ‘refreshing’ products instead of only cost
efficiencies for manufacturing. In order to increase the variety of fashion apparel in the
market, the concept of adding more phases to the existing seasons (that is, the period of
time during which fashion products are sold) in a fashion calendar came into existence.
The addition of 3 to 5 mid-seasons forced immense pressure on suppliers to deliver
fashion apparel in smaller batches with reduced lead time. For instance, Liz Claiborne
developed six seasons instead of just two.

These changes to the number of mid-seasons arose partly from the changes in
consumers’ lifestyles and partly from the need to satisfy consumers’ demand for fashion
clothing for specific occasions.

Towards the late 1980s, the fashion apparel industry was dominated by several larger
retailers which increased the competition levels in the market. In order to survive the
competition, other fashion apparel retailers switched from product-driven to buyer-
driven chains, developed alliances with suppliers in different markets, and promoted
their distinctive brands. This resulted in an increase of profits from unique
combinations of research, design, sales and marketing that would allow them and the
manufacturers to act strategically by linking with overseas factories. The fashion
apparel industry developed an infrastructure around the late 1980s with an emphasis
on promoting responsiveness (quick response) through reduced lead times, alongwith
maintaining low costs.

Q.12
It can be inferred that the switch from product-driven to buyer-driven chains would
have been advantageous to fashion apparel retailers because

a they helped in driving marketing and capital investment to increase

competitiveness in the industry.

b it brought the retailers closer to the demands of the end-consumer and led to
quick responsiveness.

c it ensured that many retailers extended the number of ‘seasons’ or the frequency
with which the entire merchandise within a store is changed.

d it modified structural characteristics in the supply chain and forced retailers to

bring in low cost, flexibility in design, delivery and speed to market.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Institutionalization is an integral aspect of the Gramscian notion of hegemony because

institutions (whether political-military, or socio-economic) provide the systemic
legitimacy for dealing with conflicts either coercively or through peaceful means. The
underlying structure of interstate relations intrinsically involves an enforcement
potential under the control of the powerful nations. The consequence is two distinct
forms of Great Power-weak state relations: coercive and consensual. In the latter sense,
it is the condition whereby strong states exercise leadership over weak states by gaining
their perennial consent. To a large extent the use of force is obviated to the point that
the developing state submits to the prevailing power relations. Continuous submission is
enhanced by the fact that the dominant states are willing to make concessions,
implement policy adjustments, that from time to time help to alleviate the politico-
economic burdens of the weak states. Institutions provide the legitimacy of power
relations, articulate the hegemonic mission of the powerful, and appeal for the
cooperation of the weak. For example, images of proper global economic relations have
been institutionalized and universalized by institutions like the IMF, General
Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), World Trade Organization (WTO), and the
World Bank, among others. Similarly, institutional provision for dealing with
intractable and extensive conflict situations is located within the jurisdiction of the
United Nations Security Council, and more recently within regional security
organizations like NATO and the Economic Community of West African States
(ECOWAS). Developments are underway to make regional organizations like the
Organization of African Unity (OAU), the Organization of American States (OAS), and
so on, more responsive to peacekeeping interventions. Thus hegemony which comprises
of both coercive and consensual relations help to cement and legitimize, and
internationalize the dominant moral and cultural values, and disseminate the worldview
of the dominant states. The hegemonic functions of the Great Powers, with the
“consent” of the weak states create functional unity in a system of diversity.

To a large extent, then, subordinate states either give “unwilling consent” or “voluntary
consent” to the social logic imposed on specific issues by the strong states. Accordingly,
social forces that commence within the powerful states soon spillover into weak states,
and the policy implications or adaptive mechanisms that accompany them imposed
upon or integrated into the political economy of these weak states. The socio-political
developments produced by the dynamics of the economic system in turn generate
institutions and policy changes that determine world orders. Stated differently,
economic crises and political transformations generate new policy imperatives and/or
social forces, which in turn bring about changes in the structure of states and their
relationship with civil society. For example, the transnational social forces unleashed by
both the Cold War competition and post-Cold War era influence state structures, in
both the core and periphery. In other words, changes in systemic polarity spawn forces
that influence state structures, underscoring the fact that state structures are largely a
reflection of a particular structure of world order and forces in existence.

A world hegemony in this sense is thus the expansive effects of the individual and
collective social forces of the dominant advanced industrial states. The IFIs, the culture,
the technology, and other entities associated with this collective hegemony constitute
guidelines for development models in developing states. The dominant effects of such a
collective hegemonic system also becomes a demonstration effect which could have a
profound effect on the lives of groups in poor countries.

Q.13
Which of the following options, if true, would best exemplify the reference to the Great
Power-weak state relations?

a Country X offers trade subsidies to Country Y while expecting support in issues

related to foreign policy.

b Country X provides experts to help Country Y take autonomous decisions on the

conflict/peacekeeping initiatives that it must employ with its neighbours.

c Country X and Country Y are part of a regional group that meets to discuss
issues and policy with specific reference to the geographical region they are a part of.

d Country X helps country Y in exchange for military intelligence and technology.

o Bookmark
 o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Institutionalization is an integral aspect of the Gramscian notion of hegemony because

institutions (whether political-military, or socio-economic) provide the systemic
legitimacy for dealing with conflicts either coercively or through peaceful means. The
underlying structure of interstate relations intrinsically involves an enforcement
potential under the control of the powerful nations. The consequence is two distinct
forms of Great Power-weak state relations: coercive and consensual. In the latter sense,
it is the condition whereby strong states exercise leadership over weak states by gaining
their perennial consent. To a large extent the use of force is obviated to the point that
the developing state submits to the prevailing power relations. Continuous submission is
enhanced by the fact that the dominant states are willing to make concessions,
implement policy adjustments, that from time to time help to alleviate the politico-
economic burdens of the weak states. Institutions provide the legitimacy of power
relations, articulate the hegemonic mission of the powerful, and appeal for the
cooperation of the weak. For example, images of proper global economic relations have
been institutionalized and universalized by institutions like the IMF, General
Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), World Trade Organization (WTO), and the
World Bank, among others. Similarly, institutional provision for dealing with
intractable and extensive conflict situations is located within the jurisdiction of the
United Nations Security Council, and more recently within regional security
organizations like NATO and the Economic Community of West African States
(ECOWAS). Developments are underway to make regional organizations like the
Organization of African Unity (OAU), the Organization of American States (OAS), and
so on, more responsive to peacekeeping interventions. Thus hegemony which comprises
of both coercive and consensual relations help to cement and legitimize, and
internationalize the dominant moral and cultural values, and disseminate the worldview
of the dominant states. The hegemonic functions of the Great Powers, with the
“consent” of the weak states create functional unity in a system of diversity.

To a large extent, then, subordinate states either give “unwilling consent” or “voluntary
consent” to the social logic imposed on specific issues by the strong states. Accordingly,
social forces that commence within the powerful states soon spillover into weak states,
and the policy implications or adaptive mechanisms that accompany them imposed
upon or integrated into the political economy of these weak states. The socio-political
developments produced by the dynamics of the economic system in turn generate
institutions and policy changes that determine world orders. Stated differently,
economic crises and political transformations generate new policy imperatives and/or
social forces, which in turn bring about changes in the structure of states and their
relationship with civil society. For example, the transnational social forces unleashed by
both the Cold War competition and post-Cold War era influence state structures, in
both the core and periphery. In other words, changes in systemic polarity spawn forces
that influence state structures, underscoring the fact that state structures are largely a
reflection of a particular structure of world order and forces in existence.
A world hegemony in this sense is thus the expansive effects of the individual and
collective social forces of the dominant advanced industrial states. The IFIs, the culture,
the technology, and other entities associated with this collective hegemony constitute
guidelines for development models in developing states. The dominant effects of such a
collective hegemonic system also becomes a demonstration effect which could have a
profound effect on the lives of groups in poor countries.

Q.14
It can be inferred that the purpose of institutions like the IMF is to

a To bring in a form of harmony in a world that has diverse needs and goals.

b To ensure that conflict/peacekeeping interventions and economic

dislocation/external economic policy do not impose on the overall sovereignty of any
nation.

c To cement and legitimise the relationships between the Great Powers and Weak
States.

d To provide a systemic authenticity to and to universalise the relationship between

dominant and weak states.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Institutionalization is an integral aspect of the Gramscian notion of hegemony because

institutions (whether political-military, or socio-economic) provide the systemic
legitimacy for dealing with conflicts either coercively or through peaceful means. The
underlying structure of interstate relations intrinsically involves an enforcement
potential under the control of the powerful nations. The consequence is two distinct
forms of Great Power-weak state relations: coercive and consensual. In the latter sense,
it is the condition whereby strong states exercise leadership over weak states by gaining
their perennial consent. To a large extent the use of force is obviated to the point that
the developing state submits to the prevailing power relations. Continuous submission is
enhanced by the fact that the dominant states are willing to make concessions,
implement policy adjustments, that from time to time help to alleviate the politico-
economic burdens of the weak states. Institutions provide the legitimacy of power
relations, articulate the hegemonic mission of the powerful, and appeal for the
cooperation of the weak. For example, images of proper global economic relations have
been institutionalized and universalized by institutions like the IMF, General
Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), World Trade Organization (WTO), and the
World Bank, among others. Similarly, institutional provision for dealing with
intractable and extensive conflict situations is located within the jurisdiction of the
United Nations Security Council, and more recently within regional security
organizations like NATO and the Economic Community of West African States
(ECOWAS). Developments are underway to make regional organizations like the
Organization of African Unity (OAU), the Organization of American States (OAS), and
so on, more responsive to peacekeeping interventions. Thus hegemony which comprises
of both coercive and consensual relations help to cement and legitimize, and
internationalize the dominant moral and cultural values, and disseminate the worldview
of the dominant states. The hegemonic functions of the Great Powers, with the
“consent” of the weak states create functional unity in a system of diversity.

To a large extent, then, subordinate states either give “unwilling consent” or “voluntary
consent” to the social logic imposed on specific issues by the strong states. Accordingly,
social forces that commence within the powerful states soon spillover into weak states,
and the policy implications or adaptive mechanisms that accompany them imposed
upon or integrated into the political economy of these weak states. The socio-political
developments produced by the dynamics of the economic system in turn generate
institutions and policy changes that determine world orders. Stated differently,
economic crises and political transformations generate new policy imperatives and/or
social forces, which in turn bring about changes in the structure of states and their
relationship with civil society. For example, the transnational social forces unleashed by
both the Cold War competition and post-Cold War era influence state structures, in
both the core and periphery. In other words, changes in systemic polarity spawn forces
that influence state structures, underscoring the fact that state structures are largely a
reflection of a particular structure of world order and forces in existence.

A world hegemony in this sense is thus the expansive effects of the individual and
collective social forces of the dominant advanced industrial states. The IFIs, the culture,
the technology, and other entities associated with this collective hegemony constitute
guidelines for development models in developing states. The dominant effects of such a
collective hegemonic system also becomes a demonstration effect which could have a
profound effect on the lives of groups in poor countries.

Q.15
What does the author mean when he states, in the last sentence of the second
paragraph, ‘...underscoring the fact that state structures...forces in existence’?

a State structures are influenced by both core and peripheral transnational social
forces.

b The composition and function of state structures is influenced by the social forces
of dominant states.

c The underlying global structure in which states and groups engage with the
broader world system can be understood through a specific structural analysis.

d States, in particular, developing states, are progressively losing their individual

identities, rights, and obligations vis-à-vis civil society.
 o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Institutionalization is an integral aspect of the Gramscian notion of hegemony because

institutions (whether political-military, or socio-economic) provide the systemic
legitimacy for dealing with conflicts either coercively or through peaceful means. The
underlying structure of interstate relations intrinsically involves an enforcement
potential under the control of the powerful nations. The consequence is two distinct
forms of Great Power-weak state relations: coercive and consensual. In the latter sense,
it is the condition whereby strong states exercise leadership over weak states by gaining
their perennial consent. To a large extent the use of force is obviated to the point that
the developing state submits to the prevailing power relations. Continuous submission is
enhanced by the fact that the dominant states are willing to make concessions,
implement policy adjustments, that from time to time help to alleviate the politico-
economic burdens of the weak states. Institutions provide the legitimacy of power
relations, articulate the hegemonic mission of the powerful, and appeal for the
cooperation of the weak. For example, images of proper global economic relations have
been institutionalized and universalized by institutions like the IMF, General
Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), World Trade Organization (WTO), and the
World Bank, among others. Similarly, institutional provision for dealing with
intractable and extensive conflict situations is located within the jurisdiction of the
United Nations Security Council, and more recently within regional security
organizations like NATO and the Economic Community of West African States
(ECOWAS). Developments are underway to make regional organizations like the
Organization of African Unity (OAU), the Organization of American States (OAS), and
so on, more responsive to peacekeeping interventions. Thus hegemony which comprises
of both coercive and consensual relations help to cement and legitimize, and
internationalize the dominant moral and cultural values, and disseminate the worldview
of the dominant states. The hegemonic functions of the Great Powers, with the
“consent” of the weak states create functional unity in a system of diversity.

To a large extent, then, subordinate states either give “unwilling consent” or “voluntary
consent” to the social logic imposed on specific issues by the strong states. Accordingly,
social forces that commence within the powerful states soon spillover into weak states,
and the policy implications or adaptive mechanisms that accompany them imposed
upon or integrated into the political economy of these weak states. The socio-political
developments produced by the dynamics of the economic system in turn generate
institutions and policy changes that determine world orders. Stated differently,
economic crises and political transformations generate new policy imperatives and/or
social forces, which in turn bring about changes in the structure of states and their
relationship with civil society. For example, the transnational social forces unleashed by
both the Cold War competition and post-Cold War era influence state structures, in
both the core and periphery. In other words, changes in systemic polarity spawn forces
that influence state structures, underscoring the fact that state structures are largely a
reflection of a particular structure of world order and forces in existence.
A world hegemony in this sense is thus the expansive effects of the individual and
collective social forces of the dominant advanced industrial states. The IFIs, the culture,
the technology, and other entities associated with this collective hegemony constitute
guidelines for development models in developing states. The dominant effects of such a
collective hegemonic system also becomes a demonstration effect which could have a
profound effect on the lives of groups in poor countries.

Q.16
Given the information in the passage, which of the following statements must be true?

a A developed state’s sovereignty can’t be assailed by various transnational

globalization processes.

b Hegemony is more intense and consistent at the core and more laden with
contradictions at the periphery.

c Peacekeeping is a hegemonic function, especially in the substantive shift from

traditional intervention to a new variation.

d The economic and social institutions, the culture, the technology associated with
national hegemony become patterns for emulation abroad.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.17
Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences
need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the
given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a They take the time that they take. If you are late for a meeting, you can hurry. If
the roast potatoes are slow to burn, you can turn up the oven.

b But, if you are impatient with the mayonnaise and add the oil too quickly, it
curdles. If you start tugging with frustration on a tangled fishing line, the knot just
becomes tighter.

c “Give a man a fish and you feed him for a day; teach a man to fish and you feed
him for a lifetime,” perfectly sums up the importance of education as an activity that
cannot be randomly accelerated on its own.

d There is an old Polish saying, “Sleep faster; we need the pillows,” which reminds
us that there are some activities which just will not be rushed.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.18
Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences
need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the
given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a If you truly want to be a person of influence you first have to embrace evolution;
wisdom will always let you know that fighting change is definitely a losing battle so it is
imperative that you move towards being a more evolved enlightened human being.

b One of the great principle of life is stated this way; “Freedom and happiness are
found in the flexibility and ease with which we move through change.”

c If you truly want to transition or transform from someone who moves through
life unconsciously to a person who becomes the wealthy individual who’s completely
aware of and completely at ease with all things around him or her then you must
embrace change.

d You will reap only what you have sowed; Que sera, sera - ‘whatever will be, will
be.’

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.19
Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences
need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the
given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a Thus it happens that the agitator stands quite alone in the midst of the multitude
surrounding him.

b That is the tragedy of the person prominent in the public eye.

c The path of the propagandist of social justice is strewn with thorns.

d The representative of a revolutionizing idea stands between two fires: on the one
hand, the persecution of the existing powers which hold him responsible for all acts
resulting from social conditions; and, on the other, the lack of understanding on the
part of his own followers who often judge all his activity from a narrow standpoint.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.20
Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences
need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the
given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a That being the ideal of Anarchism, its economic arrangements must consist of
voluntary productive and distributive associations, gradually developing into free
communism, as the best means of producing with the least waste of human energy.

b Anarchism cannot but repudiate the perverse method of production called

centralization; its goal is the freest possible expression of all the latent powers of the
individual to make him into a whole, self-integrated human being.

c A perfect personality is only possible in a state of society where man is free to

choose the mode of work, the conditions of work, and the freedom to work - one to
whom the making of a table, the building of a house, or the tilling of the soil, is what the
painting is to the artist and the discovery to the scientist,—the result of inspiration, of
intense longing, and deep interest in work as a creative force.

d As the French philosopher Voltaire said: Work banishes those three great evils:
boredom, vice and poverty.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.21
Five sentences are given below, labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the
most appropriate sequence.

1. The company is also entering new categories like real estate and automobiles.
2. Snapdeal began as an online group discounting site in 2010.
3. Indian e-commerce firm Snapdeal recently got a major boost: a $627 million
investment from SoftBank, the Japanese telecom and media giant.
4. This is the largest investment so far in the Indian e-commerce space.
5. In 2012, it transformed itself into a marketplace almost overnight, and today has
more than 50,000 merchants, five million products and 30 million users.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 34251

Q.22
Five sentences are given below, labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the
most appropriate sequence.

1. Also, there is a systemic shift over the course of people’s lives.

2. Instead, there is predictable regularity in how people experience happiness, as well as
in the experiences that elicit happiness.
3. When people are younger, happiness is more about feeling excited, and as people get
older, happiness is more about feeling calm.
4. It’s also not purely idiosyncratic and something different to everyone.
5. Happiness is not a singular thing that people are pursuing and will someday find.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 54213

Q.23
Five sentences are given below, labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the
most appropriate sequence.

1. But what was particularly striking about the findings was the disconnect between
what employees and managers perceived: Inadequate staffing was cited by 53% of
workers as the major reason for stress, while only 15% of senior managers thought this
was so.
2. Stress has a demonstratively uneasy relationship with productivity.
3. Stressed employees took twice as many sick days as non-stressed ones.
4. Towers Watson’s 2014 global survey showed employee disengagement going up with
stress.
5. Of those employees claiming high stress levels, 57% said they were disengaged; In
contrast, just 10% with low stress levels said they were disengaged.

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 o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 24531

Q.24
Five sentences are given below, labelled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the
most appropriate sequence.

A. Where negotiations are concerned, Rubin sees this quality as an advantage for men.
B. Since “when the file drawer closes, [the interaction is] done, and they can go out and
have a drink and be best friends afterward.”
C. By comparison, men’s brains “work like file cabinets. They’re dealing with one topic
at a time, and nothing touches anything else.”
D. Many of the panelists said they felt that women and men do negotiate differently,
identifying cultural and even biological distinctions.
E. Citing the book Cracking the Boy’s Club Code: The Woman’s Guide to Being Heard
and Valued in the Workplace, Deborah Rubin, a senior vice president of pension sales
and distribution at Transamerica, said that in a woman’s brain, “everything’s
connecting all the time; that’s why we can multitask.”

a DECAB

b CABDE

c DEABC

d DABCE

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.25
Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify
the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and
usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

A. One of the problems of the debate is that there is no internationally agreed definition
on what constitutes a lethal autonomous weapons system.
B. Among those giving evidence to the UN meeting this week will be Dr William
Boothby,
C. a retired RAF air commodore and lawyer who used to run the unit responsible for
ensuring
D. that newly acquired weapons conform to the UK’s international humanitarian law
obligations.
a A only

b B and D

c D and C

d A and C

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.26
Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify
the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and
usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

A. Chua also wrote his early life and career, about losing his job at a hospital in his
native country, the Philippines,
B. and his rows of fellow Filipinos in the UK.
C. He wrote that he tried unsuccessfully to sue a previous employer in the UK
D. and made a complaint to medical watchdogs over the treatment he had received from
a GP.

a A only

b A and B

c A and C

d B and D

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.27
Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify
the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and
usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

A. Tokyo hoped that its revised plan, of involving the killing of fewer whales,
B. would pave the way for the resumption of the Antarctic hunts, possibly by the end of
this year.
C. Its whaling fleet recently returned from the Southern Ocean,
D. although it has not planned to kill any whales, in accordance with the ICJ ruling.

a A only

b A and B

c A and D

d B, C and D

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.28
The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that
best captures the essence of the text.

All human rights are indivisible, whether they are civil and political rights, such as the
right to life, equality before the law and freedom of expression; economic, social and
cultural rights, such as the rights to work, social security and education, or collective
rights, such as the rights to development and self-determination, are indivisible,
interrelated and interdependent. The improvement of one right facilitates advancement
of the others. Likewise, the deprivation of one right adversely affects the others.

a Deprivation of one person’s rights adversely affects rights of another person.

b Human rights are a combination of economic, social and cultural rights.

c Human rights are interdependent and interrelated.

d Improvement of one right facilitates advancement of others.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.29
The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that
best captures the essence of the text.
One afternoon in April 2002, I was in his office when the news came of a young
Kashmiri girl being raped in a small village in the southern mountains of Kashmir by
Indian paramilitary soldiers. A tense silence followed. I wanted to leave immediately for
that village; it was an hour from my ancestral village in South Kashmir. I could take a
cab and get there and write the story. My friend smoked another cigarette and sighed.
His memories of reporting similar cases filled the room. ‘Justice is rare here. Hardly
any soldier gets tried and punished in a court of law for such crimes,’ he said. He had a
wide range of contacts in the local civil service and police and by the evening he had
enough details to file a report about the incident for his newspaper. Only later, I
understood his reluctance to travel to her village. It was painful even in ones detached
role as a journalist; my friend had been to innumerable sites of atrocities.

a Even journalists, in their objective role of reporting, find facing atrocities

disconcerting.

b It’s hard to get justice in areas of conflict such as Kashmir, where crimes
committed by armed forces go unpunished.

c Rapes and killings of innocents by armed forces are common in areas like
Kashmir.

d The author’s friend has witnessed numerous incidents of atrocities as a journalist.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.30
The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that
best captures the essence of the text.

Each year, the world loses eight to nine million children less than five years of age;
India accounts for a disproportionate one-fifth of these deaths. Diarrhoea and
pneumonia are the leading causes of death in the country, together accounting for
nearly one-third of all child deaths. Pneumonia is responsible for more than 300,000
deaths among children less than five years of age. Equally astounding is the fact that
more than 120,000 Indian children in the same age group die from diarrhoea related
causes each year. The country with the second greatest burden is Nigeria, which has less
than 50,000 deaths per year. China, with a population larger than India’s, loses only
27,000 children to diarrhoea.

a Efforts to address child health take on a new sense of urgency looking at the
striking health statistics.

b India has to overcome the challenges of child deaths caused by curable diseases
like pneumonia and diarrhoea.

c Nigeria is second only to India in the number of child deaths that occur each year
worldwide.

d Out of about nine-million child deaths worldwide, India accounts for one-fifth
deaths, major causes of which are pneumonia and diarrhoea.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.31
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

The challenge for the UN and the international community is to understand the complex
reasons behind self-immolations and to address them by taking concrete political steps.
Any failure to do so casts a permanent shadow on Tibet’s half-century long non-violent
struggle for freedom. Today, Tibet is the litmus test in a world where everyone
condemns violence and aspires to achieve lasting peace by solving global conflicts
through dialogue. The lack of courage shown by world leaders in facing up to China
and the UN’s insomniac silence could spiral the future of the Tibetan struggle into
directions that no one wants it to take. Worse still, these evasive attitudes send a
dispiriting signal to other people fighting for freedom that non-violence is not a tenable
path.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument presented above?

a UN has taken measures to prevent any violent struggle in Tibet.

b Tibetan non-violent protestors are, reportedly, giving up on their cause.

c Unrest among the people of Tibet, caused by a lack of international support, has
made a group of protestors consider taking up arms against the oppression.

d China has proposed peaceful resolution to the conflict.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.32
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.
Determined to help more Indians follow in his path, he’s laid out an ambitious vision to
reduce extreme poverty, improve education, empower women and girls and unleash
India’s true economic potential while confronting climate change. Like India, he
transcends the ancient and the modern—a devotee of yoga who connects with Indian
citizens on Twitter and imagines a “digital India”.

Which of the following can best be inferred from the passage?

a India has become one of the fastest-developing countries in the world today.

b He is an important political figure in India, with a lot of influence on shaping

policies of national and international interest.

c By being a devotee of yoga and using Twitter to connect with Indian citizens, he
represents an India that’s becoming modern without losing touch with its ancient
culture.

d New policies have been introduced to reduce extreme poverty, improve education,
empower women and girls and unleash India’s true economic potential.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.33
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

Since then Medinsky has waded into a row over the staging of Wagner’s opera,
Tannhauser, in the Siberian city of Novosibirsk - sacking the manager of the opera
house after Orthodox clerics objected to scantily-clad Biblical characters. The
production was “humiliating” to believers, the clerics said - the same argument used to
jail members of Pussy Riot after their punk performance in a Moscow cathedral.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from this argument?

a Musicians performing punk music in cathedrals in Moscow are jailed.

b Punk performances are humiliating to believers, according to clerics.

c The manager of an opera house in Novosibirsk was sacked for staging Wagner’s
opera, Tannhauser.

d Orthodox clerics would be offended by scantily-clad Biblical characters in any

performance.
 o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.34
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

The central concern of the unbylined essay was the rise of the Organization Man, an
idea that was at that point about a decade old. So-called after a 1956 book of that name,
the Organization Man was — for better or worse — the American businessman devoted
to his company and striving only for the comfortable conformity of post-war suburban
life. The opposition of the Organization Man was the capital-I Individual, of which
Lincoln was held up as a shining example.

Which of the following can best be inferred from this passage?

a The capital-I Individual was written as a direct opposition to the Organization

Man.

b The idea of the Organization Man existed before the essay was written.

c A person devoted to his company loses his/her individual freedom and identity.

d Lincoln opposed the ideas presented in the book, the Organization Man.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Sec 2

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

JMS and PMS are two coaching centers who give coaching for a prestigious exam named AIEA
conducted for admission to management institutes. The admission process consists of a written t
followed by an interview. Only those students who clear the written test get call(s) for the
interview from various management institutes. The number of calls may vary from 1 to 6
depending upon the performance in the written test. If anybody clears the interview then his/her
call(s) are said to be converted, i.e. he/she gets finally selected to a management institute. A
student who enrolls with one of the two coaching centers does not enroll with the other center.

The chart below shows the enrolled students’ data for the two coaching centers for the period 20
to 2014.
 Q.35
In which year was the ‘strike rate’ of JMS the maximum?

a 2014

b 2011

c 2013

d 2010

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 o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

JMS and PMS are two coaching centers who give coaching for a prestigious exam named AIEA
conducted for admission to management institutes. The admission process consists of a written t
followed by an interview. Only those students who clear the written test get call(s) for the
interview from various management institutes. The number of calls may vary from 1 to 6
depending upon the performance in the written test. If anybody clears the interview then his/her
call(s) are said to be converted, i.e. he/she gets finally selected to a management institute. A
student who enrolls with one of the two coaching centers does not enroll with the other center.

The chart below shows the enrolled students’ data for the two coaching centers for the period 20
to 2014.
 Q.36
For how many years during the period 2010-2014, was the ‘strike rate’ of PMS better than the
‘strike rate’ of JMS?

a 1

b 2

c 3

d Never
 o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

JMS and PMS are two coaching centers who give coaching for a prestigious exam named AIEA
conducted for admission to management institutes. The admission process consists of a written t
followed by an interview. Only those students who clear the written test get call(s) for the
interview from various management institutes. The number of calls may vary from 1 to 6
depending upon the performance in the written test. If anybody clears the interview then his/her
call(s) are said to be converted, i.e. he/she gets finally selected to a management institute. A
student who enrolls with one of the two coaching centers does not enroll with the other center.

The chart below shows the enrolled students’ data for the two coaching centers for the period 20
to 2014.
 Q.37
If it is assumed that all the students who got more than 3 calls, converted their calls, then in whi
year, during the period 2010-2014, did the maximum number of students who got 3 or less than
calls convert their calls, considering the students from both the coaching centers together?

a 2012

b 2014

c 2010

d 2011
 o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

JMS and PMS are two coaching centers who give coaching for a prestigious exam named AIEA
conducted for admission to management institutes. The admission process consists of a written t
followed by an interview. Only those students who clear the written test get call(s) for the
interview from various management institutes. The number of calls may vary from 1 to 6
depending upon the performance in the written test. If anybody clears the interview then his/her
call(s) are said to be converted, i.e. he/she gets finally selected to a management institute. A
student who enrolls with one of the two coaching centers does not enroll with the other center.

The chart below shows the enrolled students’ data for the two coaching centers for the period 20
to 2014.
 Q.38
What is the absolute difference between the average annual number of students enrolled with tw
coaching centers during the given 5 year period?

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 58

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The Venn diagram shown below represents the past-time habits of people of age 10
years and above in five different categories - smoking, drinking, playing golf, playing
cards and chewing tobacco. The numbers given in each region represent the number of
people in that category. For example, 28 represents the number of people whose past-
time habits are drinking and playing cards only.

Category I : People who smoke

Category II : People who drink
Category III : People who play golf
Category IV : People who play cards
Category V : People who chew tobacco
The pie-chart below provides additional information on further age group distribution
for category IV, which holds true for each of its regions.

Q.39
How many people who play cards only or play golf only belong to the age group 16-20
years ?

a 280000

b 336000
c 240000

d Data Insufficient

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The Venn diagram shown below represents the past-time habits of people of age 10
years and above in five different categories - smoking, drinking, playing golf, playing
cards and chewing tobacco. The numbers given in each region represent the number of
people in that category. For example, 28 represents the number of people whose past-
time habits are drinking and playing cards only.

Category I : People who smoke

Category II : People who drink
Category III : People who play golf
Category IV : People who play cards
Category V : People who chew tobacco
The pie-chart below provides additional information on further age group distribution
for category IV, which holds true for each of its regions.
 Q.40
How many people who smoke and play cards belong to the age group 14-16 years ?

a 33000

b 36000

c 30000

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The Venn diagram shown below represents the past-time habits of people of age 10
years and above in five different categories - smoking, drinking, playing golf, playing
cards and chewing tobacco. The numbers given in each region represent the number of
people in that category. For example, 28 represents the number of people whose past-
time habits are drinking and playing cards only.
Category I : People who smoke
Category II : People who drink
Category III : People who play golf
Category IV : People who play cards
Category V : People who chew tobacco
The pie-chart below provides additional information on further age group distribution
for category IV, which holds true for each of its regions.

Q.41
How many people who play cards and chew tobacco belong to the age group 10-14 years
?

a 92000

b 69000

c 72000

d Data Insufficient

o Bookmark
 o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The Venn diagram shown below represents the past-time habits of people of age 10
years and above in five different categories - smoking, drinking, playing golf, playing
cards and chewing tobacco. The numbers given in each region represent the number of
people in that category. For example, 28 represents the number of people whose past-
time habits are drinking and playing cards only.

Category I : People who smoke

Category II : People who drink
Category III : People who play golf
Category IV : People who play cards
Category V : People who chew tobacco
The pie-chart below provides additional information on further age group distribution
for category IV, which holds true for each of its regions.

Q.42
If the age distribution of Category IV applies to all the five categories, then the total
number of people (having these five past-time habits), who belong to the age group 20
and above, is

a 80000

b 799920

c 800000

d 670000

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

In an MBA college having 480 students, each student had to choose 3 out of 5 subjects
namely Brand Management (BM), Digital Marketing (DM), Retail Marketing (RM),
Consumer Behaviour (CM) and Market Research (MR). The following information is
about the selection of three subjects namely BM, DM and RM by the students.
(i) Three times the number of students who chose exactly 2 of the 3 subjects was equal
to the sum of the number of students who chose exactly one subject and that of those
who chose exactly three subjects.
(ii) The number of students who chose both DM and RM but not BM was 16 more than
that of those who chose both BM and DM but not RM.
(iii) The number of students who chose all the three subjects was at least 15.
(iv) The number of students who chose only DM was more than that of those who chose
only BM.
(v) The number of students who chose both BM and DM but not RM was at least one-
fifth and at most one-third that of those who chose exactly two subjects.
(vi) The number of students who chose BM was 4 less than that of those who chose RM.
(vii) The number of students who chose only RM was 6 times that of those who chose all
the three subjects.

Q.43
Students who chose only DM exceded those who chose only BM by at least

a 32

b 13

c 25
d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

In an MBA college having 480 students, each student had to choose 3 out of 5 subjects
namely Brand Management (BM), Digital Marketing (DM), Retail Marketing (RM),
Consumer Behaviour (CM) and Market Research (MR). The following information is
about the selection of three subjects namely BM, DM and RM by the students.
(i) Three times the number of students who chose exactly 2 of the 3 subjects was equal
to the sum of the number of students who chose exactly one subject and that of those
who chose exactly three subjects.
(ii) The number of students who chose both DM and RM but not BM was 16 more than
that of those who chose both BM and DM but not RM.
(iii) The number of students who chose all the three subjects was at least 15.
(iv) The number of students who chose only DM was more than that of those who chose
only BM.
(v) The number of students who chose both BM and DM but not RM was at least one-
fifth and at most one-third that of those who chose exactly two subjects.
(vi) The number of students who chose BM was 4 less than that of those who chose RM.
(vii) The number of students who chose only RM was 6 times that of those who chose all
the three subjects.

Q.44
What was the maximum number of students who chose BM ?

a 194

b 211

c 210

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

In an MBA college having 480 students, each student had to choose 3 out of 5 subjects
namely Brand Management (BM), Digital Marketing (DM), Retail Marketing (RM),
Consumer Behaviour (CM) and Market Research (MR). The following information is
about the selection of three subjects namely BM, DM and RM by the students.
(i) Three times the number of students who chose exactly 2 of the 3 subjects was equal
to the sum of the number of students who chose exactly one subject and that of those
who chose exactly three subjects.
(ii) The number of students who chose both DM and RM but not BM was 16 more than
that of those who chose both BM and DM but not RM.
(iii) The number of students who chose all the three subjects was at least 15.
(iv) The number of students who chose only DM was more than that of those who chose
only BM.
(v) The number of students who chose both BM and DM but not RM was at least one-
fifth and at most one-third that of those who chose exactly two subjects.
(vi) The number of students who chose BM was 4 less than that of those who chose RM.
(vii) The number of students who chose only RM was 6 times that of those who chose all
the three subjects.

Q.45
What was the minimum number of students who chose RM and exactly one out of BM
and DM?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 80

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

In an MBA college having 480 students, each student had to choose 3 out of 5 subjects
namely Brand Management (BM), Digital Marketing (DM), Retail Marketing (RM),
Consumer Behaviour (CM) and Market Research (MR). The following information is
about the selection of three subjects namely BM, DM and RM by the students.
(i) Three times the number of students who chose exactly 2 of the 3 subjects was equal
to the sum of the number of students who chose exactly one subject and that of those
who chose exactly three subjects.
(ii) The number of students who chose both DM and RM but not BM was 16 more than
that of those who chose both BM and DM but not RM.
(iii) The number of students who chose all the three subjects was at least 15.
(iv) The number of students who chose only DM was more than that of those who chose
only BM.
(v) The number of students who chose both BM and DM but not RM was at least one-
fifth and at most one-third that of those who chose exactly two subjects.
(vi) The number of students who chose BM was 4 less than that of those who chose RM.
(vii) The number of students who chose only RM was 6 times that of those who chose all
the three subjects.

Q.46
How many students chose atleast one among BM, DM and RM, given they had to select
3 out of 5 subjects?

a 450

b 480

c 432

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Mr. Gopal, who is the owner of ‘Gopaljee Stores, sells soft drink of only two brands –
Trooti and Frooti. The following bar chart shows the number of packets, of 300 ml
each, bought by Mr. Gopal of the two brands of soft drink, at the beginning of each of
the six months from March to August.

In each of the month, during the given period, he managed to sell only a fraction of the
total stock, which is the sum of the left over packets, if any, of the previous month and
the number of packets bought at the beginning of the month, of the two brands. It is
also known that he did not have any unsold packets of any of the two brands of cold
drink at the end of February. The following table shows the fraction of stocks sold for
each of the two brands of cold drink during the given period.
Consider the nearest integer in any calculation involving number of packets. In case, a
fraction is of the form ‘a.5’, where ‘a’ is an integer, consider it as (a + 1). For example,
2.5 will be considered as 3.

Q.47
In which month, during the given period, was the total number of packets sold of Trooti
and Frooti put together the highest?

a July

b June

c August

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Mr. Gopal, who is the owner of ‘Gopaljee Stores, sells soft drink of only two brands –
Trooti and Frooti. The following bar chart shows the number of packets, of 300 ml
each, bought by Mr. Gopal of the two brands of soft drink, at the beginning of each of
the six months from March to August.
In each of the month, during the given period, he managed to sell only a fraction of the
total stock, which is the sum of the left over packets, if any, of the previous month and
the number of packets bought at the beginning of the month, of the two brands. It is
also known that he did not have any unsold packets of any of the two brands of cold
drink at the end of February. The following table shows the fraction of stocks sold for
each of the two brands of cold drink during the given period.

Consider the nearest integer in any calculation involving number of packets. In case, a
fraction is of the form ‘a.5’, where ‘a’ is an integer, consider it as (a + 1). For example,
2.5 will be considered as 3.

Q.48
In which month, during the given period, was the total stock of the two brands put
together the highest ?

a June

b August

c July
d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Mr. Gopal, who is the owner of ‘Gopaljee Stores, sells soft drink of only two brands –
Trooti and Frooti. The following bar chart shows the number of packets, of 300 ml
each, bought by Mr. Gopal of the two brands of soft drink, at the beginning of each of
the six months from March to August.

In each of the month, during the given period, he managed to sell only a fraction of the
total stock, which is the sum of the left over packets, if any, of the previous month and
the number of packets bought at the beginning of the month, of the two brands. It is
also known that he did not have any unsold packets of any of the two brands of cold
drink at the end of February. The following table shows the fraction of stocks sold for
each of the two brands of cold drink during the given period.
Consider the nearest integer in any calculation involving number of packets. In case, a
fraction is of the form ‘a.5’, where ‘a’ is an integer, consider it as (a + 1). For example,
2.5 will be considered as 3.

Q.49
In which month, during the given period, was the number of packets sold of Trooti the
highest?

a June

b August

c July

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Mr. Gopal, who is the owner of ‘Gopaljee Stores, sells soft drink of only two brands –
Trooti and Frooti. The following bar chart shows the number of packets, of 300 ml
each, bought by Mr. Gopal of the two brands of soft drink, at the beginning of each of
the six months from March to August.

In each of the month, during the given period, he managed to sell only a fraction of the
total stock, which is the sum of the left over packets, if any, of the previous month and
the number of packets bought at the beginning of the month, of the two brands. It is
also known that he did not have any unsold packets of any of the two brands of cold
drink at the end of February. The following table shows the fraction of stocks sold for
each of the two brands of cold drink during the given period.

Consider the nearest integer in any calculation involving number of packets. In case, a
fraction is of the form ‘a.5’, where ‘a’ is an integer, consider it as (a + 1). For example,
2.5 will be considered as 3.

Q.50
In which month, during the given period, was the value of the ratio of the number of
packets sold of Trooti in a month to the number of the packets bought at the beginning
of the same month the maximum?

a May

b June

c August

d July

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions based on the following
information.

A group of eight athletes from South India are preparing to participate in the Shooting
or Weight Lifting competitions in the Olympics 2016. Each athlete belongs to exactly
one state out of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, and there is at least one
athlete from each state. All female athletes belong to Andhra Pradesh. The results after
the first round of screening are as follows:
I. At least two athletes have qualified for Shooting competition, but not for the Weight
Lifting competition.
II. At least two athletes have qualified for Weight Lifting competition, but not for the
Shooting competition.
III. At least one athlete has qualified for both the competitions.
IV. Among the eight athletes, only athletes from Karnataka have qualified for Weight
Lifting competition.

Q.51
Which of the following statements CANNOT be true?

a The group includes more females than males.

b The group includes fewer athletes from Karnataka than those from Tamil Nadu.

c The group includes fewer athletes from Tamil Nadu than those from Andhra
Pradesh.

d More athletes have qualified for Weight Lifting than Shooting.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions based on the following
information.

A group of eight athletes from South India are preparing to participate in the Shooting
or Weight Lifting competitions in the Olympics 2016. Each athlete belongs to exactly
one state out of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, and there is at least one
athlete from each state. All female athletes belong to Andhra Pradesh. The results after
the first round of screening are as follows:
I. At least two athletes have qualified for Shooting competition, but not for the Weight
Lifting competition.
II. At least two athletes have qualified for Weight Lifting competition, but not for the
Shooting competition.
III. At least one athlete has qualified for both the competitions.
IV. Among the eight athletes, only athletes from Karnataka have qualified for Weight
Lifting competition.

Q.52
If each athlete has qualified to compete in at least one of the two competitions, all of the
following must be true EXCEPT:

a All athletes from Andhra Pradesh have qualified for Shooting.

b All athletes from Tamil Nadu have qualified for Shooting.

c All athletes from Karnataka have qualified for Weight Lifting.

d No athlete from Andhra Pradesh has qualified for Weight Lifting.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions based on the following
information.

A group of eight athletes from South India are preparing to participate in the Shooting
or Weight Lifting competitions in the Olympics 2016. Each athlete belongs to exactly
one state out of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, and there is at least one
athlete from each state. All female athletes belong to Andhra Pradesh. The results after
the first round of screening are as follows:
I. At least two athletes have qualified for Shooting competition, but not for the Weight
Lifting competition.
II. At least two athletes have qualified for Weight Lifting competition, but not for the
Shooting competition.
III. At least one athlete has qualified for both the competitions.
IV. Among the eight athletes, only athletes from Karnataka have qualified for Weight
Lifting competition.

Q.53
If four of the athletes are male and four of the athletes are female, all of the following
must be true EXCEPT:

a One of the athletes is from Tamil Nadu.

b Four athletes are from Andhra Pradesh.

c Three athletes are from Karnataka.

d Four athletes have qualified for the Shooting competition.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions based on the following
information.

A group of eight athletes from South India are preparing to participate in the Shooting
or Weight Lifting competitions in the Olympics 2016. Each athlete belongs to exactly
one state out of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, and there is at least one
athlete from each state. All female athletes belong to Andhra Pradesh. The results after
the first round of screening are as follows:
I. At least two athletes have qualified for Shooting competition, but not for the Weight
Lifting competition.
II. At least two athletes have qualified for Weight Lifting competition, but not for the
Shooting competition.
III. At least one athlete has qualified for both the competitions.
IV. Among the eight athletes, only athletes from Karnataka have qualified for Weight
Lifting competition.

Q.54
If the group includes more athletes from Tamil Nadu than those from Karnataka, the
number of male athletes who have qualified for the Shooting competition cannot be less
than

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 2

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six friends — George, John, Antony, Dhaanush, Sandeep and Ravi — are married to
six different ladies — Arpita, Kamya, Jacklin, Nishita, Mamta and Deepika — not
necessarily in the same order. Each of the six friends belongs to a different city from
among Patiala, Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and Bangalore. Each of them plays a
different game from among Cricket, Football, Basketball, Billiards, TT and Badminton.
It is also known that:
I. Husbands of Jacklin, Mamta or Deepika do not play Football or Basketball.
II. The friend from Mumbai plays Cricket.
III. Ravi, who is from Bangalore, plays Football.
IV. Antony and Sandeep, neither of whom is from Mumbai, are married to Arpita and
Nishita respectively.
V. The friends from Delhi and Kolkata play TT and Basketball respectively.
VI. Dhaanush is from Chennai.
VII. Antony plays Billiards.

Q.55
The friend from Kolkata is married to

a Jacklin

b Nishita
c Arpita

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six friends — George, John, Antony, Dhaanush, Sandeep and Ravi — are married to
six different ladies — Arpita, Kamya, Jacklin, Nishita, Mamta and Deepika — not
necessarily in the same order. Each of the six friends belongs to a different city from
among Patiala, Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and Bangalore. Each of them plays a
different game from among Cricket, Football, Basketball, Billiards, TT and Badminton.
It is also known that:
I. Husbands of Jacklin, Mamta or Deepika do not play Football or Basketball.
II. The friend from Mumbai plays Cricket.
III. Ravi, who is from Bangalore, plays Football.
IV. Antony and Sandeep, neither of whom is from Mumbai, are married to Arpita and
Nishita respectively.
V. The friends from Delhi and Kolkata play TT and Basketball respectively.
VI. Dhaanush is from Chennai.
VII. Antony plays Billiards.

Q.56
The friend who plays Billiards is from

a Chennai

b Patiala

c Bangalore

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six friends — George, John, Antony, Dhaanush, Sandeep and Ravi — are married to
six different ladies — Arpita, Kamya, Jacklin, Nishita, Mamta and Deepika — not
necessarily in the same order. Each of the six friends belongs to a different city from
among Patiala, Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and Bangalore. Each of them plays a
different game from among Cricket, Football, Basketball, Billiards, TT and Badminton.
It is also known that:
I. Husbands of Jacklin, Mamta or Deepika do not play Football or Basketball.
II. The friend from Mumbai plays Cricket.
III. Ravi, who is from Bangalore, plays Football.
IV. Antony and Sandeep, neither of whom is from Mumbai, are married to Arpita and
Nishita respectively.
V. The friends from Delhi and Kolkata play TT and Basketball respectively.
VI. Dhaanush is from Chennai.
VII. Antony plays Billiards.

Q.57
Dhaanush plays

a Badminton

b Football

c Basketball

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six friends — George, John, Antony, Dhaanush, Sandeep and Ravi — are married to
six different ladies — Arpita, Kamya, Jacklin, Nishita, Mamta and Deepika — not
necessarily in the same order. Each of the six friends belongs to a different city from
among Patiala, Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and Bangalore. Each of them plays a
different game from among Cricket, Football, Basketball, Billiards, TT and Badminton.
It is also known that:
I. Husbands of Jacklin, Mamta or Deepika do not play Football or Basketball.
II. The friend from Mumbai plays Cricket.
III. Ravi, who is from Bangalore, plays Football.
IV. Antony and Sandeep, neither of whom is from Mumbai, are married to Arpita and
Nishita respectively.
V. The friends from Delhi and Kolkata play TT and Basketball respectively.
VI. Dhaanush is from Chennai.
VII. Antony plays Billiards.
 Q.58
If Mamta’s husband plays TT and Deepika is married to George, then Dhaanush’s wife
is

a Mamta

b Kamya

c Jacklin

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions based on the following
information.

There are seven coconut trees in Baghban’s garden. Baghban has named these trees as
Amitabh, Hrithik, Chunky, Dilip, Fardeen, Feroz and Govinda. The trees are situated
in a row in increasing order of their heights, not necessarily in the given order, either
from left to right or from right to left. It is known that their heights (in feet) are seven
consecutive natural numbers between 1 and 10, both inclusive. Further, following clues
are given about their positions and heights:
I. Amitabh is 3 feet taller than Dilip.
II. Hrithik is situated in the middle of the row.
III. The absolute difference between the heights of Hrithik and Feroz, who is shorter
between the two, is the same as the absolute difference between the heights of Dilip and
Chunky, who is taller between the two.
IV. Feroz is shorter than Govinda.

Q.59
The absolute difference between the heights of Fardeen and Hrithik is the same as the
absolute difference between the heights of Dilip and

a Amitabh

b Hrithik

c Chunky

d Fardeen

o Bookmark
 o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions based on the following
information.

There are seven coconut trees in Baghban’s garden. Baghban has named these trees as
Amitabh, Hrithik, Chunky, Dilip, Fardeen, Feroz and Govinda. The trees are situated
in a row in increasing order of their heights, not necessarily in the given order, either
from left to right or from right to left. It is known that their heights (in feet) are seven
consecutive natural numbers between 1 and 10, both inclusive. Further, following clues
are given about their positions and heights:
I. Amitabh is 3 feet taller than Dilip.
II. Hrithik is situated in the middle of the row.
III. The absolute difference between the heights of Hrithik and Feroz, who is shorter
between the two, is the same as the absolute difference between the heights of Dilip and
Chunky, who is taller between the two.
IV. Feroz is shorter than Govinda.

Q.60
The absolute difference between the heights (in inches) of Govinda and Dilip is

a 12

b 24

c 48

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions based on the following
information.

There are seven coconut trees in Baghban’s garden. Baghban has named these trees as
Amitabh, Hrithik, Chunky, Dilip, Fardeen, Feroz and Govinda. The trees are situated
in a row in increasing order of their heights, not necessarily in the given order, either
from left to right or from right to left. It is known that their heights (in feet) are seven
consecutive natural numbers between 1 and 10, both inclusive. Further, following clues
are given about their positions and heights:
I. Amitabh is 3 feet taller than Dilip.
II. Hrithik is situated in the middle of the row.
III. The absolute difference between the heights of Hrithik and Feroz, who is shorter
between the two, is the same as the absolute difference between the heights of Dilip and
Chunky, who is taller between the two.
IV. Feroz is shorter than Govinda.

Q.61
The greatest possible values of the height of Amitabh is greater than the least possible
value of the height of Feroz by

a 5 feet

b 6 feet

c 7 feet

d 8 feet

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions based on the following
information.

There are seven coconut trees in Baghban’s garden. Baghban has named these trees as
Amitabh, Hrithik, Chunky, Dilip, Fardeen, Feroz and Govinda. The trees are situated
in a row in increasing order of their heights, not necessarily in the given order, either
from left to right or from right to left. It is known that their heights (in feet) are seven
consecutive natural numbers between 1 and 10, both inclusive. Further, following clues
are given about their positions and heights:
I. Amitabh is 3 feet taller than Dilip.
II. Hrithik is situated in the middle of the row.
III. The absolute difference between the heights of Hrithik and Feroz, who is shorter
between the two, is the same as the absolute difference between the heights of Dilip and
Chunky, who is taller between the two.
IV. Feroz is shorter than Govinda.

Q.62
What is the average of possible heights of Dilip?

a 3 feet

b 4 feet

c 4.5 feet
d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions based on the information given
below.

Some lecturers belonging to four disciplines, viz. physics, chemistry, mathematics and
biology were selected to take part in a conclave. All applicants shortlisted for the
selection were classified into five age groups, namely:

For the conclave, not more than two lecturers of a particular age group were shortlisted
for representing a discipline. Initially, the maximum possible number of lecturers were
shortlisted. However, only five more than half of them were selected and they finally
participated in the conclave. The following observations about the selected lecturers
were made:
I.If two lecturers were excluded from the retired lecturers, then the number of seniors
and stalwarts, each is one less than the number in each of the other three age groups.
II.The total number of lecturers selected from diciplines physics, chemistry and biology
put together was the square of an integer.
III.There was no biology lecturer who was middle aged or stalwart, and there was no
physics lecturer who was a senior. Every other discipline was represented by at least
one lecturer from each age group.
IV.Rocky and Platy were young physics lecturers.

Q.63
If the number of physics lecturers was greater than the number of chemistry lecturers,
then which of the following is NOT possible to determine?

a Number of middle aged physics lecturers.

b Number of retired physics lecturers.

c Number of middle aged chemistry lecturers.

d Number of retired chemistry lecturers.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
 Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions based on the information given
below.

Some lecturers belonging to four disciplines, viz. physics, chemistry, mathematics and
biology were selected to take part in a conclave. All applicants shortlisted for the
selection were classified into five age groups, namely:

For the conclave, not more than two lecturers of a particular age group were shortlisted
for representing a discipline. Initially, the maximum possible number of lecturers were
shortlisted. However, only five more than half of them were selected and they finally
participated in the conclave. The following observations about the selected lecturers
were made:
I.If two lecturers were excluded from the retired lecturers, then the number of seniors
and stalwarts, each is one less than the number in each of the other three age groups.
II.The total number of lecturers selected from diciplines physics, chemistry and biology
put together was the square of an integer.
III.There was no biology lecturer who was middle aged or stalwart, and there was no
physics lecturer who was a senior. Every other discipline was represented by at least
one lecturer from each age group.
IV.Rocky and Platy were young physics lecturers.

Q.64
What can be said about the total number of physics and chemistry lecturers put
together?
I. It was less than or equal to 12.
II. It was more than or equal to 12.

a Only I

b Only II

c Both I and II

d Neither I nor II

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions based on the information given
below.

Some lecturers belonging to four disciplines, viz. physics, chemistry, mathematics and
biology were selected to take part in a conclave. All applicants shortlisted for the
selection were classified into five age groups, namely:

For the conclave, not more than two lecturers of a particular age group were shortlisted
for representing a discipline. Initially, the maximum possible number of lecturers were
shortlisted. However, only five more than half of them were selected and they finally
participated in the conclave. The following observations about the selected lecturers
were made:
I.If two lecturers were excluded from the retired lecturers, then the number of seniors
and stalwarts, each is one less than the number in each of the other three age groups.
II.The total number of lecturers selected from diciplines physics, chemistry and biology
put together was the square of an integer.
III.There was no biology lecturer who was middle aged or stalwart, and there was no
physics lecturer who was a senior. Every other discipline was represented by at least
one lecturer from each age group.
IV.Rocky and Platy were young physics lecturers.

Q.65
If Kandy was the lone retired chemistry lecturer, then which of the following is
definitely true?

a There was one middle aged physics lecturer.

b There were two middle-aged physics lecturers.

c There was one retired biology lecturer.

d There were two retired biology lecturers.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions based on the information given
below.

Some lecturers belonging to four disciplines, viz. physics, chemistry, mathematics and
biology were selected to take part in a conclave. All applicants shortlisted for the
selection were classified into five age groups, namely:
 For the conclave, not more than two lecturers of a particular age group were shortlisted
for representing a discipline. Initially, the maximum possible number of lecturers were
shortlisted. However, only five more than half of them were selected and they finally
participated in the conclave. The following observations about the selected lecturers
were made:
I.If two lecturers were excluded from the retired lecturers, then the number of seniors
and stalwarts, each is one less than the number in each of the other three age groups.
II.The total number of lecturers selected from diciplines physics, chemistry and biology
put together was the square of an integer.
III.There was no biology lecturer who was middle aged or stalwart, and there was no
physics lecturer who was a senior. Every other discipline was represented by at least
one lecturer from each age group.
IV.Rocky and Platy were young physics lecturers.

Q.66
Which of the following was NOT possible?

a Two retired physics lecturers and two retired chemistry lecturers were selected
for the conclave.

b One retired physics lecturer and two retired chemistry lecturers were selected for
the conclave.

c One retired physics lecturer and one retired chemistry lecturer were selected for
the conclave.

d Two retired physics lecturers and one retired chemistry lecturer were selected for
the conclave.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Sec 3

Q.67
All the numbers from 105 to 498 are listed down in ascending order. Ramu picks up
every seventh number starting with 105 and prepares a list of all these numbers. If 175
is one of the numbers picked by Ramu, then find the sum of all numbers in the list.
a 11757

b 17757

c 17157

d 71157

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.68
A small town Madhubani, in an effort to raise money, hired “ Spice gals” to play in its
civic stadium. The gals offered to perform a concert for Rs. 10,000 and 20% of the gate
receipts generated during the concert. It is assumed that 10,000 people would attend.
What admission charge per person would the town have to charge to earn a profit of Rs.
25,000?

a Rs. 4.375

b Rs. 43.75

c Rs. 47.35

d Rs. 5.50

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.69

a 9ab

b 7ab
c 5ab

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.70

a 3:1

b 1:3

c 2:3

d 1:9

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.71
The ratio of the compound interest, compounded annually, to the simple interest for the
first 2 years is 11 : 10. Find the rate of interest. (Assume principal amount and rate of
interest are the same for both cases.)

a 10%
b 20%

c 30%

d Data insufficient

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.72
Any natural number greater than 1 can be written as sum of two natural numbers. If N
is any natural number, in how many ways can you write it as a sum of two natural
numbers?

d N – 1, if N is even

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.73
The nature of the triangle formed by the straight lines x + y = 0, 3x + y = 0 and x + 3y –
4 = 0 is

a isosceles

b equilateral

c right angled

d None of these

o Bookmark
 o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.74
What is the ratio of the sum of the squares of the lengths of the medians of a triangle to
the sum of the squares of the lengths of its sides?

a 9/16

b 2/3

c 3/4

d 4/3

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.75
If the sum of the squares of any three consecutive odd natural numbers is increased by
1, then it will necessarily be divisible by

a 18

b 9

c 12

d All (a), (b) and (c)

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.76
How many even natural numbers are there between 100 and 1000 with all distinct
digits?

a 324
b 320

c 328

d 648

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.77

a 11 : 14 : 4

b 4 : 14 : 11

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.78

A quadrant of a solid sphere of volume is cut out and a small sphere is

kept at the space created therein. Find the maximum possible surface area of the
smaller sphere if no part of it goes beyond the periphery of the larger sphere.

d None of these
 o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.79
If x is real and |x – 1| > 1 – x, then which of the following is/are definitely true regarding
3

x?
i. x < – 1
ii. 0 < x < 1
iii. x > 1

a Only(iii)

b (ii) and (iii)

c (i) and (ii)

d All (i), (ii) and (iii)

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.80
What is the remainder when (789346783) is divided by 9?
78

a 5

b 7

c 8

d 1

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.81
The highest power of 12 that can divide 190! completely is
x

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 92

Q.82
If 2 |x| + 3 |y| = 10 and |x| – [x] = 8, where |x| denotes the absolute value of x and [x]
denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, then which of the following is a
possible value of ‘y’?

a y = 4/3

b y = -1/3

c y = -2/3

d Cannot be determined

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.83
The radius of the incircle of a triangle is 24 cm and the segments into which one side is
divided by the point of contact are 36 cm and 48 cm. The lengths of the other two sides
of the triangle are

a 80 cm and 96 cm

b 85 cm and 68 cm

c 90 cm and 78 cm

d 95 cm and 76 cm

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.84
A total of ‘a’ litres of pure acid was drawn from a tank containing 729 litres of pure
acid and was replaced with water. The resulting mixture was thoroughly mixed to
obtain a homogenous solution and then again ‘a’ litres of solution was drawn, and
replaced with water. The resulting mixture was thoroughly mixed. This procedure was
performed six times and thereby the tank contained 64 litres of pure acid. Find the
value of ‘a’.

a 162

b 243

c 81

d None of these

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.85
An urn contains 5 white and 7 black balls. A second urn contains 7 white and 8 black
balls. A ball is drawn from the first urn and put into the second urn without noting its
colour. Now, if a ball is drawn from the second urn, the probability that it is white is

a 49/96

b 89/192

c 77/192

d 61/192

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.86
The correct equation that represents the given graph is
a

d None of these

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.87
Two cars P and Q are moving at uniform speeds, 50 km/hr and 25 km/hr respectively,
on two straight roads intersecting at right angle to each other. P passes the intersecting
point of the roads when Q has still to travel 50 km to reach it. What is the shortest
distance between the cars during the journey?

a 20√5 km

b 50 km

c 25 km

d 25√2 km

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a
 Q.88
A rectangle PQRS is inscribed in a circle. Let TU, the diameter of the circle, be parallel
to the side PQ. If , then the ratio of the area of the rectangle to the area of
the circle is

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.89
How many numbers are there in between 1000 and 10,000 which when divided by 4, 5, 6
and 7 give remainder 1, 3, 3 and 5 respectively?

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 21

Q.90
What is the least value of (x -1) + (x - 2) for real value of x?
2 2

a 0

b 1

c 3/2

d 1/2

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 o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.91
A painter needed 3 days to paint the walls of a room. How long would the painter take
to paint the walls of a room twice as long, twice as wide and twice as high?

a 6 days

b 9 days

c 24 days

d None of these

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.92
The roots of x – 8 |x| + 12 = 0
2

a do not form a progression

b form an Arithmetic Progression with zero sum

c form an Arithmetic Progression with non-zero sum

d form a Geometric Progression

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Correct Answer : b

Q.93
What is the remainder when 7 is divided by 20?
83

a 13

b 3
c 7

d None of these

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Correct Answer : b

Q.94
A quadrilateral is obtained by joining the mid points of a rectangle. Further, a rectangle
is obtained by joining the mid points of the quadrilateral obtained above. Again another
quadrilateral is obtained by joining the mid points of the second rectangle. This process
is repeated infinite number of times. The ratio of the sum of areas of all the rectangles to
the sum of the areas of all the quadrilaterals is

a 4:1

b 3:1

c 2:1

d Cannot be determined

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Correct Answer : c

Q.95
The maximum number of days possible in five consecutive calendar years is

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 1827

Q.96
A microbe doubles itself every second and in one minute it fills a jar. How long would it
take to fill the same jar if you start with four microbes?

a 15 seconds
b 20 seconds

c 40 seconds

d None of these

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Correct Answer : d

Q.97
The perimeter of a rectangle, with integer sides, is 300 m. This rectangle can be divided
into any of 7 or 11 or 13 parts (each part having equal areas in each case) such that the
area of each part is again an integer (in square metres). Also the rectangle cannot be
divided into any other number of parts that are prime (other than 7, 11 and 13) such
that all parts have equal area and the area is an integer. If the length of the rectangle is
greater than breadth, then the length of the rectangle is

a 91 m

b 77 m

c 143 m

d Cannot be determined

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Correct Answer : c

Q.98

a 2 7

b 2 27

c 72

d 2 49
 o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.99

‘a’ and ‘b’ are coprime such that a < b. If is maximum, then (a + b) is equal to

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 3

Q.100
In Badlapur, it was found that 90% of the people drink coffee and 80% drink tea. Also,
70% of people drink whiskey and 60% drink vodka. No person drinks all four
beverages, and they all drink exactly three of the four beverages. What percent of the
people drink liquor? [Both Vodka and Whiskey are liquors.]

a 70%

b 80%

c 90%

d 100%

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Correct Answer : d