Solutions of Mock CAT - 04 (CAT 2015 Pattern)

 Scorecard

 Accuracy

 Qs Analysis

 Booster Analysis

 Video Analysis

 Solutions

 Bookmarks

 VRC

 LRDI

 QA

Sec 1

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Despite the presence of women as heads of state across Europe during the eighteenth
century, the literary canon for femmes savantes and femmes d’esprit was limited during
this era. However successful a literary work from a female writer, this would never be
enough for her to make a living. Indeed, as English Showalter outlined, writing for
women at this time was not a livelihood, but merely a form of self-expression, if not an
obsession. The majority of women who were able to participate in the world of high
culture had to do so through the hosting of salons, the most famous
of salonnières probably being Germaine de Staël. However, the majority of these
women participating in cultural life – and this is certainly the case for Mme de Staël –
were born into this world of privilege.

This was the Age of Enlightenment, an age of tolerance and freedom of expression, in its
theories and philosophical discourse (certain historical events may point to the
contrary, however, such as the affaire Calas (1761) and affaire du chevalier de la
Barre (1764), two cases of injustice and intolerance through religious fanaticism). It was
a pan-European intellectual movement of the eighteenth century, thought to cover much
of the seventeenth century too.

Enlightenment involves three stages: first comes self-emancipation, where a categorical

imperative of thinking is required, to overcome the laziness which leads to the inability
to use one’s reason. Second is political and social emancipation: society’s impositions
can create a state of immaturity, therefore social and intellectual inhibitions must be
eliminated and political freedom must be increased, so one can achieve Enlightenment
through the use of one’s reason. Third is cultural emancipation, which stipulates that
the emergence from immaturity is a historically progressive process, which is achieved
on the personal level (‘Have courage to use your own understanding!’, is the motto for
Enlightenment, according to Kant), and on the societal level through education and
culture. As long as the subject performs his duties to the state in the private sphere, he
may engage in critical discourse in the public sphere. According to Kant, freedom to
publish and debate publicly would gradually enable people to develop the tendency to
free thought. Once developed, this affects the character of a people, who, gradually,
become more capable of free action, which would eventually influence government.
Intellectual freedom must, therefore, precede and prepare the way for greater political
and civil freedom, or in other words, Enlightenment.

Enlightenment, however, is not just about reason. The reason and rationality are
inextricably linked with la sensibilité; in other words, as discussed by Mortier,
Enlightenment involves hearts and minds. Sensibilité is a doctrine, according to which
our knowledge comes from our feelings. In Germany, this notion of sensibility is best
portrayed through the epistolary novel par excellence, Goethe’s Die Leiden des jungen
Werthers [The Sorrows of Young Werther]. This novel gave rise to the phenomenon
known as the ‘Werther-Fieber’: that is to the say the copy-cat suicide of the novel’s
protagonist throughout Europe. In England, the notion is best conveyed through the
title of Jane Austen’s novel Sense and Sensibility. And in France, Rousseau’s La
Nouvelle Héloïse and Bernadin de Saint-Pierre’s Paul et Virginie are the best examples
of the roman du sentiment.

Q.1
The significance of sensibilité can best be described through which of the following
options?

a It led to the mimicry of a novelists writing style throughout Europe.

b It refers to the significance of knowledge disseminated through letters.

c It refers to the relationship between knowledge and feelings.

d It helped the production of many copy cat plots in novels throughout England
and the rest of Europe.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Despite the presence of women as heads of state across Europe during the eighteenth
century, the literary canon for femmes savantes and femmes d’esprit was limited during
this era. However successful a literary work from a female writer, this would never be
enough for her to make a living. Indeed, as English Showalter outlined, writing for
women at this time was not a livelihood, but merely a form of self-expression, if not an
obsession. The majority of women who were able to participate in the world of high
culture had to do so through the hosting of salons, the most famous of salonnières
probably being Germaine de Staël. However, the majority of these women participating
in cultural life – and this is certainly the case for Mme de Staël –were born into this
world of privilege.

This was the Age of Enlightenment, an age of tolerance and freedom of expression, in its
theories and philosophical discourse (certain historical events may point to the
contrary, however, such as the affaire Calas (1761) and affaire du chevalier de la
Barre (1764), two cases of injustice and intolerance through religious fanaticism). It was
a pan-European intellectual movement of the eighteenth century, thought to cover much
of the seventeenth century too.

Enlightenment involves three stages: first comes self-emancipation, where a categorical

imperative of thinking is required, to overcome the laziness which leads to the inability
to use one’s reason. Second is political and social emancipation: society’s impositions
can create a state of immaturity, therefore social and intellectual inhibitions must be
eliminated and political freedom must be increased, so one can achieve Enlightenment
through the use of one’s reason. Third is cultural emancipation, which stipulates that
the emergence from immaturity is a historically progressive process, which is achieved
on the personal level (‘Have courage to use your own understanding!’, is the motto for
Enlightenment, according to Kant), and on the societal level through education and
culture. As long as the subject performs his duties to the state in the private sphere, he
may engage in critical discourse in the public sphere. According to Kant, freedom to
publish and debate publicly would gradually enable people to develop the tendency to
free thought. Once developed, this affects the character of a people, who, gradually,
become more capable of free action, which would eventually influence government.
Intellectual freedom must, therefore, precede and prepare the way for greater political
and civil freedom, or in other words, Enlightenment.

Enlightenment, however, is not just about reason. The reason and rationality are
inextricably linked with la sensibilité; in other words, as discussed by Mortier,
Enlightenment involves hearts and minds. Sensibilité is a doctrine, according to which
our knowledge comes from our feelings. In Germany, this notion of sensibility is best
portrayed through the epistolary novel par excellence, Goethe’s Die Leiden des jungen
Werthers [The Sorrows of Young Werther]. This novel gave rise to the phenomenon
known as the ‘Werther-Fieber’: that is to the say the copy-cat suicide of the novel’s
protagonist throughout Europe. In England, the notion is best conveyed through the
title of Jane Austen’s novel Sense and Sensibility. And in France, Rousseau’s La
Nouvelle Héloïse and Bernadin de Saint-Pierre’s Paul et Virginie are the best examples
of the roman du sentiment.

Q.2
The age of Enlightenment can best be described by which of the following options?

a An age that saw the dawn of tolerance as well as the instances of prejudice and
narrow-mindedness.

b An age when humankind emerged from its immaturity and allowed for
acceptance and free speech.

c An age in which humankind went through many changes that were necessary for
societal reckoning.

d An emancipation of the soul, of thinking and of perception that humankind

underwent.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Despite the presence of women as heads of state across Europe during the eighteenth
century, the literary canon for femmes savantes and femmes d’esprit was limited during
this era. However successful a literary work from a female writer, this would never be
enough for her to make a living. Indeed, as English Showalter outlined, writing for
women at this time was not a livelihood, but merely a form of self-expression, if not an
obsession. The majority of women who were able to participate in the world of high
culture had to do so through the hosting of salons, the most famous of salonnières
probably being Germaine de Staël. However, the majority of these women participating
in cultural life – and this is certainly the case for Mme de Staël –were born into this
world of privilege.

This was the Age of Enlightenment, an age of tolerance and freedom of expression, in its
theories and philosophical discourse (certain historical events may point to the
contrary, however, such as the affaire Calas (1761) and affaire du chevalier de la
Barre (1764), two cases of injustice and intolerance through religious fanaticism). It was
a pan-European intellectual movement of the eighteenth century, thought to cover much
of the seventeenth century too.

Enlightenment involves three stages: first comes self-emancipation, where a categorical

imperative of thinking is required, to overcome the laziness which leads to the inability
to use one’s reason. Second is political and social emancipation: society’s impositions
can create a state of immaturity, therefore social and intellectual inhibitions must be
eliminated and political freedom must be increased, so one can achieve Enlightenment
through the use of one’s reason. Third is cultural emancipation, which stipulates that
the emergence from immaturity is a historically progressive process, which is achieved
on the personal level (‘Have courage to use your own understanding!’, is the motto for
Enlightenment, according to Kant), and on the societal level through education and
culture. As long as the subject performs his duties to the state in the private sphere, he
may engage in critical discourse in the public sphere. According to Kant, freedom to
publish and debate publicly would gradually enable people to develop the tendency to
free thought. Once developed, this affects the character of a people, who, gradually,
become more capable of free action, which would eventually influence government.
Intellectual freedom must, therefore, precede and prepare the way for greater political
and civil freedom, or in other words, Enlightenment.

Enlightenment, however, is not just about reason. The reason and rationality are
inextricably linked with la sensibilité; in other words, as discussed by Mortier,
Enlightenment involves hearts and minds. Sensibilité is a doctrine, according to which
our knowledge comes from our feelings. In Germany, this notion of sensibility is best
portrayed through the epistolary novel par excellence, Goethe’s Die Leiden des jungen
Werthers [The Sorrows of Young Werther]. This novel gave rise to the phenomenon
known as the ‘Werther-Fieber’: that is to the say the copy-cat suicide of the novel’s
protagonist throughout Europe. In England, the notion is best conveyed through the
title of Jane Austen’s novel Sense and Sensibility. And in France, Rousseau’s La
Nouvelle Héloïse and Bernadin de Saint-Pierre’s Paul et Virginie are the best examples
of the roman du sentiment.

Q.3
Which of the following can best be inferred from the passage about the stages of
enlightenment?

a Enlightenment leads to the emancipation of humankind.

b Enlightenment is a process of self-realization of the individual as well as of

society.

c They help to overcome the inhibitions that an individual would have developed
over the years.

d The initial stage is imperative for personal growth that eventually leads to social
progress for the individual.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Despite the presence of women as heads of state across Europe during the eighteenth
century, the literary canon for femmes savantes and femmes d’esprit was limited during
this era. However successful a literary work from a female writer, this would never be
enough for her to make a living. Indeed, as English Showalter outlined, writing for
women at this time was not a livelihood, but merely a form of self-expression, if not an
obsession. The majority of women who were able to participate in the world of high
culture had to do so through the hosting of salons, the most famous of salonnières
probably being Germaine de Staël. However, the majority of these women participating
in cultural life – and this is certainly the case for Mme de Staël –were born into this
world of privilege.

This was the Age of Enlightenment, an age of tolerance and freedom of expression, in its
theories and philosophical discourse (certain historical events may point to the
contrary, however, such as the affaire Calas (1761) and affaire du chevalier de la
Barre (1764), two cases of injustice and intolerance through religious fanaticism). It was
a pan-European intellectual movement of the eighteenth century, thought to cover much
of the seventeenth century too.
Enlightenment involves three stages: first comes self-emancipation, where a categorical
imperative of thinking is required, to overcome the laziness which leads to the inability
to use one’s reason. Second is political and social emancipation: society’s impositions
can create a state of immaturity, therefore social and intellectual inhibitions must be
eliminated and political freedom must be increased, so one can achieve Enlightenment
through the use of one’s reason. Third is cultural emancipation, which stipulates that
the emergence from immaturity is a historically progressive process, which is achieved
on the personal level (‘Have courage to use your own understanding!’, is the motto for
Enlightenment, according to Kant), and on the societal level through education and
culture. As long as the subject performs his duties to the state in the private sphere, he
may engage in critical discourse in the public sphere. According to Kant, freedom to
publish and debate publicly would gradually enable people to develop the tendency to
free thought. Once developed, this affects the character of a people, who, gradually,
become more capable of free action, which would eventually influence government.
Intellectual freedom must, therefore, precede and prepare the way for greater political
and civil freedom, or in other words, Enlightenment.

Enlightenment, however, is not just about reason. The reason and rationality are
inextricably linked with la sensibilité; in other words, as discussed by Mortier,
Enlightenment involves hearts and minds. Sensibilité is a doctrine, according to which
our knowledge comes from our feelings. In Germany, this notion of sensibility is best
portrayed through the epistolary novel par excellence, Goethe’s Die Leiden des jungen
Werthers [The Sorrows of Young Werther]. This novel gave rise to the phenomenon
known as the ‘Werther-Fieber’: that is to the say the copy-cat suicide of the novel’s
protagonist throughout Europe. In England, the notion is best conveyed through the
title of Jane Austen’s novel Sense and Sensibility. And in France, Rousseau’s La
Nouvelle Héloïse and Bernadin de Saint-Pierre’s Paul et Virginie are the best examples
of the roman du sentiment.

Q.4
From the argument in the third paragraph, it can be inferred that

a If the state were to curtail the freedom of an individual, it could curtail their
right to debate and engage in critical discourse.

b If a person conforms to the requirements of the state, he is allowed to engage in

critical discussions at various levels.

c The ability to engage in critical discourse can help a person develop the tendency
to free thought.

d The argument for autonomy also pertains to the freedom to engage in critical
discourse.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a
Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

In 1961 A.J.P. Taylor suffered a caustic book review at the hands of Hugh Trevor-
Roper, another British historian. The book put Taylor’s standing as a serious academic
in peril, said his reviewer. Taylor responded with an article: “How to quote: exercises
for beginners”. In it he juxtaposed quotations from his book alongside passages from
the review. They were somewhat at odds. Trevor-Roper’s methods of quotation might
harm his reputation for seriousness, concluded Taylor, “if he had one”.

Half a century later, the seriousness of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
(TRAI) has been questioned in a Taylor-style takedown by SaveTheInternet.in. The
group, which lobbies for net neutrality (the equal treatment of all internet traffic), has
analysed a text box in a recent TRAI discussion paper, which the agency attributed
to The Economist. Compared with the two original articles on which the box was based,
in our January 31st 2015 issue, the campaigners found that arguments against strict net
neutrality had been inserted while arguments for it had been removed or tweaked. For
instance, “net neutrality is under threat” became: “net neutrality is difficult to sustain”.
Robert Ravi of TRAI denies any deception. The text does not purport to be verbatim, he
says. And the tweaks? “I don’t find there is a great difference between ‘difficult to
sustain’ and ‘under threat’”. Yet one implies the status quo may change; the other that
it must.

The threat seems real enough in India. The purpose of the TRAI paper was to ask
whether “over-the-top” services such as data, internet telephony and instant messaging,
which rely on mobile networks’ data connections and which in some cases compete with
those networks’ basic call and text services, should be treated differently from other
traffic. BhartiAirtel, India’s biggest operator, recently launched a scheme that gives
customers free access to a select group of data services. Airtel says this is little different
from letting businesses provide toll-free phone lines, and that it is committed to net
neutrality. But SaveTheInternet.in argues that Airtel’s differential pricing means it is
not being neutral between providers of online content, and that consumer choice will
suffer.

Indian regulators do not generally enjoy a reputation for independence. And the net-
neutrality activists see TRAI’s misquoting of our articles as evidence that it is doing the
operators’ bidding. The industry’s poor profitability, the result of intense competition,
might indeed be boosted if it were allowed to charge variable prices for data traffic. But
its squeezed profits also mean a lack of money to invest in improving call quality and
extending mobile coverage. Perhaps that is why the sacrifice of net neutrality is being
mooted in India.

Q.5
How did Taylor takedown Trevor-roper?

a By exemplifying the causticity of the review posted by Trevor-roper in his article.

b By illustrating the apparent dichotomy between the work and its review.
c By ravaging Trevor-roper’s review by questioning the seriousness of his review.

d By rearranging the review in the context of the book to tarnish Trevor-roper’s

reputation.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

In 1961 A.J.P. Taylor suffered a caustic book review at the hands of Hugh Trevor-
Roper, another British historian. The book put Taylor’s standing as a serious academic
in peril, said his reviewer. Taylor responded with an article: “How to quote: exercises
for beginners”. In it he juxtaposed quotations from his book alongside passages from
the review. They were somewhat at odds. Trevor-Roper’s methods of quotation might
harm his reputation for seriousness, concluded Taylor, “if he had one”.

Half a century later, the seriousness of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
(TRAI) has been questioned in a Taylor-style takedown by SaveTheInternet.in. The
group, which lobbies for net neutrality (the equal treatment of all internet traffic), has
analysed a text box in a recent TRAI discussion paper, which the agency attributed
to The Economist. Compared with the two original articles on which the box was based,
in our January 31st 2015 issue, the campaigners found that arguments against strict net
neutrality had been inserted while arguments for it had been removed or tweaked. For
instance, “net neutrality is under threat” became: “net neutrality is difficult to sustain”.
Robert Ravi of TRAI denies any deception. The text does not purport to be verbatim, he
says. And the tweaks? “I don’t find there is a great difference between ‘difficult to
sustain’ and ‘under threat’”. Yet one implies the status quo may change; the other that
it must.

The threat seems real enough in India. The purpose of the TRAI paper was to ask
whether “over-the-top” services such as data, internet telephony and instant messaging,
which rely on mobile networks’ data connections and which in some cases compete with
those networks’ basic call and text services, should be treated differently from other
traffic. BhartiAirtel, India’s biggest operator, recently launched a scheme that gives
customers free access to a select group of data services. Airtel says this is little different
from letting businesses provide toll-free phone lines, and that it is committed to net
neutrality. But SaveTheInternet.in argues that Airtel’s differential pricing means it is
not being neutral between providers of online content, and that consumer choice will
suffer.

Indian regulators do not generally enjoy a reputation for independence. And the net-
neutrality activists see TRAI’s misquoting of our articles as evidence that it is doing the
operators’ bidding. The industry’s poor profitability, the result of intense competition,
might indeed be boosted if it were allowed to charge variable prices for data traffic. But
its squeezed profits also mean a lack of money to invest in improving call quality and
extending mobile coverage. Perhaps that is why the sacrifice of net neutrality is being
mooted in India.

Q.6
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

a Regulatory bodies in India are usually not independent of the industries they
regulate.

b The telecom industry might face intense competition as variable prices for data
traffic would make the industry more attractive.

c SaveTheInternet.in has mooted the point of net neutrality as preference to some

providers of online content will eventually affect the consumer choice.

d TRAI wants to change the status quo.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

In 1961 A.J.P. Taylor suffered a caustic book review at the hands of Hugh Trevor-
Roper, another British historian. The book put Taylor’s standing as a serious academic
in peril, said his reviewer. Taylor responded with an article: “How to quote: exercises
for beginners”. In it he juxtaposed quotations from his book alongside passages from
the review. They were somewhat at odds. Trevor-Roper’s methods of quotation might
harm his reputation for seriousness, concluded Taylor, “if he had one”.

Half a century later, the seriousness of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
(TRAI) has been questioned in a Taylor-style takedown by SaveTheInternet.in. The
group, which lobbies for net neutrality (the equal treatment of all internet traffic), has
analysed a text box in a recent TRAI discussion paper, which the agency attributed
to The Economist. Compared with the two original articles on which the box was based,
in our January 31st 2015 issue, the campaigners found that arguments against strict net
neutrality had been inserted while arguments for it had been removed or tweaked. For
instance, “net neutrality is under threat” became: “net neutrality is difficult to sustain”.
Robert Ravi of TRAI denies any deception. The text does not purport to be verbatim, he
says. And the tweaks? “I don’t find there is a great difference between ‘difficult to
sustain’ and ‘under threat’”. Yet one implies the status quo may change; the other that
it must.

The threat seems real enough in India. The purpose of the TRAI paper was to ask
whether “over-the-top” services such as data, internet telephony and instant messaging,
which rely on mobile networks’ data connections and which in some cases compete with
those networks’ basic call and text services, should be treated differently from other
traffic. BhartiAirtel, India’s biggest operator, recently launched a scheme that gives
customers free access to a select group of data services. Airtel says this is little different
from letting businesses provide toll-free phone lines, and that it is committed to net
neutrality. But SaveTheInternet.in argues that Airtel’s differential pricing means it is
not being neutral between providers of online content, and that consumer choice will
suffer.

Indian regulators do not generally enjoy a reputation for independence. And the net-
neutrality activists see TRAI’s misquoting of our articles as evidence that it is doing the
operators’ bidding. The industry’s poor profitability, the result of intense competition,
might indeed be boosted if it were allowed to charge variable prices for data traffic. But
its squeezed profits also mean a lack of money to invest in improving call quality and
extending mobile coverage. Perhaps that is why the sacrifice of net neutrality is being
mooted in India.

Q.7
Why has the author used the example of Airtel in the passage?

a To show that the consumer is being given more choice even though certain
organizations suggest the contrary

b To reveal that telecom companies may prefer differential pricing over net
neutrality irrespective of their statements

c To prove that the industry is in favour of net neutrality and is hand in glove with
the regulatory authority

d To justify the stand of Indian organizations of the relevant industry in the face of
poor profitability

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

In 1961 A.J.P. Taylor suffered a caustic book review at the hands of Hugh Trevor-
Roper, another British historian. The book put Taylor’s standing as a serious academic
in peril, said his reviewer. Taylor responded with an article: “How to quote: exercises
for beginners”. In it he juxtaposed quotations from his book alongside passages from
the review. They were somewhat at odds. Trevor-Roper’s methods of quotation might
harm his reputation for seriousness, concluded Taylor, “if he had one”.

Half a century later, the seriousness of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
(TRAI) has been questioned in a Taylor-style takedown by SaveTheInternet.in. The
group, which lobbies for net neutrality (the equal treatment of all internet traffic), has
analysed a text box in a recent TRAI discussion paper, which the agency attributed
to The Economist. Compared with the two original articles on which the box was based,
in our January 31st 2015 issue, the campaigners found that arguments against strict net
neutrality had been inserted while arguments for it had been removed or tweaked. For
instance, “net neutrality is under threat” became: “net neutrality is difficult to sustain”.
Robert Ravi of TRAI denies any deception. The text does not purport to be verbatim, he
says. And the tweaks? “I don’t find there is a great difference between ‘difficult to
sustain’ and ‘under threat’”. Yet one implies the status quo may change; the other that
it must.

The threat seems real enough in India. The purpose of the TRAI paper was to ask
whether “over-the-top” services such as data, internet telephony and instant messaging,
which rely on mobile networks’ data connections and which in some cases compete with
those networks’ basic call and text services, should be treated differently from other
traffic. BhartiAirtel, India’s biggest operator, recently launched a scheme that gives
customers free access to a select group of data services. Airtel says this is little different
from letting businesses provide toll-free phone lines, and that it is committed to net
neutrality. But SaveTheInternet.in argues that Airtel’s differential pricing means it is
not being neutral between providers of online content, and that consumer choice will
suffer.

Indian regulators do not generally enjoy a reputation for independence. And the net-
neutrality activists see TRAI’s misquoting of our articles as evidence that it is doing the
operators’ bidding. The industry’s poor profitability, the result of intense competition,
might indeed be boosted if it were allowed to charge variable prices for data traffic. But
its squeezed profits also mean a lack of money to invest in improving call quality and
extending mobile coverage. Perhaps that is why the sacrifice of net neutrality is being
mooted in India.

Q.8
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the passage?

a The Economist wants to show that truth used to prevail and still prevails, no
matter what the situation is.

b The Economist wants to clarify its position regarding net neutrality and bring
into focus the two-faced approach of telecom operators.

c The Economist is blaming the TRAI for misquoting its articles and being hand in
glove with the telecom operators.

d The Economist is presenting the situation surrounding net neutrality in light of

the misquoting of its articles by TRAI

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
 Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The distinction between public and private has become challenged and transformed via
digital media practices. Indeed it has been contended that via the use of online
confessional practices, as well as the accumulating masses of data that are generated
about digital technology users’ everyday habits, activities and preferences, the concept
of privacy has changed. Increasingly, as data from many other users are aggregated and
interpreted using algorithms, one’s own data has an impact on others by predicting
their tastes and preferences. The concept of ‘networked privacy’ developed by Danah
Boyd (2012) acknowledges this complexity. As she points out, it is difficult to make a
case for privacy as an individual issue in the age of social media networks and
sousveillance. Many people who upload images or comments to social media sites
include other people in the material, either deliberately or inadvertently. As Boyd
observes, ‘I can’t even count the number of photos that were taken by strangers with
me in the background at the TajMahal’.

Many users have come to realise that the information about themselves and their
friends and family members that they choose to share on social media platforms may be
accessible to others, depending on the privacy policy of the platform and the ways in
which users have operated privacy settings. Information that is shared on Facebook, for
example, is far easier to limit to Facebook friends if privacy settings restrict access than
are data that users upload to platforms such as Twitter, YouTube or Instagram, which
have few, if any, settings that can be used to limit access to personal content. Even
within Facebook, however, users must accept that their data may be accessed by those
that they have chosen as friends. They may be included in photos that are uploaded by
their friends even if they do not wish others to view the photo, for example.

Open source data harvesting tools are now available that allow people to search their
friends’ data. Using a tool such as Facebook Graph Search, people who have joined that
social media platform can mine the data uploaded by their friends and search for
patterns. Such elements as ‘photos of my friends in New York’ or ‘restaurants my
friends like’ can be identified using this tool. In certain professions, such as academia,
others can use search engines to find out many details about one’s employment details
and accomplishments (just one example is Google Scholar, which lists academics’
publications as well as how often and where they have been cited by others). Such
personal data as online photographs or videos of people, their social media profiles and
online comments can easily be accessed by others by using search engines.

Furthermore, not only are individuals’ personal data shared in social networks, they
may now be used to make predictions about others’ actions, interests, preferences or
even health states. When people’s small data are aggregated with others to produce big
data, the resultant datasets are used for predictive analytics. As part of algorithmic
veillance and the production of algorithmic identities, people become represented as
configurations of others in the social media networks with which they engage and the
websites people,characterised as ‘like them’, visit. There is little, if any, opportunity to
opt out of participation in these data assemblages that are configured about oneself.
 Q.9
Which of the following is true of Facebook, according to the passage?

a This social networking site is safer in terms of privacy, as compared to the other
social networking sites.

b This social networking site gives you access to tools which allow you to search for
any relevant data related to their friends.

c This social networking site does not provide any fool-proof methods of
maintaining the privacy of your data.

d You cannot control the privacy of data related to yourselves even after limiting
the access to your data on Facebook.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The distinction between public and private has become challenged and transformed via
digital media practices. Indeed it has been contended that via the use of online
confessional practices, as well as the accumulating masses of data that are generated
about digital technology users’ everyday habits, activities and preferences, the concept
of privacy has changed. Increasingly, as data from many other users are aggregated and
interpreted using algorithms, one’s own data has an impact on others by predicting
their tastes and preferences. The concept of ‘networked privacy’ developed by Danah
Boyd (2012) acknowledges this complexity. As she points out, it is difficult to make a
case for privacy as an individual issue in the age of social media networks and
sousveillance. Many people who upload images or comments to social media sites
include other people in the material, either deliberately or inadvertently. As Boyd
observes, ‘I can’t even count the number of photos that were taken by strangers with
me in the background at the TajMahal’.

Many users have come to realise that the information about themselves and their
friends and family members that they choose to share on social media platforms may be
accessible to others, depending on the privacy policy of the platform and the ways in
which users have operated privacy settings. Information that is shared on Facebook, for
example, is far easier to limit to Facebook friends if privacy settings restrict access than
are data that users upload to platforms such as Twitter, YouTube or Instagram, which
have few, if any, settings that can be used to limit access to personal content. Even
within Facebook, however, users must accept that their data may be accessed by those
that they have chosen as friends. They may be included in photos that are uploaded by
their friends even if they do not wish others to view the photo, for example.
Open source data harvesting tools are now available that allow people to search their
friends’ data. Using a tool such as Facebook Graph Search, people who have joined that
social media platform can mine the data uploaded by their friends and search for
patterns. Such elements as ‘photos of my friends in New York’ or ‘restaurants my
friends like’ can be identified using this tool. In certain professions, such as academia,
others can use search engines to find out many details about one’s employment details
and accomplishments (just one example is Google Scholar, which lists academics’
publications as well as how often and where they have been cited by others). Such
personal data as online photographs or videos of people, their social media profiles and
online comments can easily be accessed by others by using search engines.

Furthermore, not only are individuals’ personal data shared in social networks, they
may now be used to make predictions about others’ actions, interests, preferences or
even health states. When people’s small data are aggregated with others to produce big
data, the resultant datasets are used for predictive analytics. As part of algorithmic
veillance and the production of algorithmic identities, people become represented as
configurations of others in the social media networks with which they engage and the
websites people,characterised as ‘like them’, visit. There is little, if any, opportunity to
opt out of participation in these data assemblages that are configured about oneself.

Q.10
Which of the following best describes the complexity acknowledged by Danah Boyd?

a Your data is not relevant only to you but to others also who use algorithms to
interpret it.

b With private lives available on social media, your privacy is no longer your
private issue.

c Photographs taken at tourist places need not necessarily include only those people
on whom the camera was aimed.

d Your social identity is created by the algorithms even if there is a lack of personal
data.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The distinction between public and private has become challenged and transformed via
digital media practices. Indeed it has been contended that via the use of online
confessional practices, as well as the accumulating masses of data that are generated
about digital technology users’ everyday habits, activities and preferences, the concept
of privacy has changed. Increasingly, as data from many other users are aggregated and
interpreted using algorithms, one’s own data has an impact on others by predicting
their tastes and preferences. The concept of ‘networked privacy’ developed by Danah
Boyd (2012) acknowledges this complexity. As she points out, it is difficult to make a
case for privacy as an individual issue in the age of social media networks and
sousveillance. Many people who upload images or comments to social media sites
include other people in the material, either deliberately or inadvertently. As Boyd
observes, ‘I can’t even count the number of photos that were taken by strangers with
me in the background at the TajMahal’.

Many users have come to realise that the information about themselves and their
friends and family members that they choose to share on social media platforms may be
accessible to others, depending on the privacy policy of the platform and the ways in
which users have operated privacy settings. Information that is shared on Facebook, for
example, is far easier to limit to Facebook friends if privacy settings restrict access than
are data that users upload to platforms such as Twitter, YouTube or Instagram, which
have few, if any, settings that can be used to limit access to personal content. Even
within Facebook, however, users must accept that their data may be accessed by those
that they have chosen as friends. They may be included in photos that are uploaded by
their friends even if they do not wish others to view the photo, for example.

Open source data harvesting tools are now available that allow people to search their
friends’ data. Using a tool such as Facebook Graph Search, people who have joined that
social media platform can mine the data uploaded by their friends and search for
patterns. Such elements as ‘photos of my friends in New York’ or ‘restaurants my
friends like’ can be identified using this tool. In certain professions, such as academia,
others can use search engines to find out many details about one’s employment details
and accomplishments (just one example is Google Scholar, which lists academics’
publications as well as how often and where they have been cited by others). Such
personal data as online photographs or videos of people, their social media profiles and
online comments can easily be accessed by others by using search engines.

Furthermore, not only are individuals’ personal data shared in social networks, they
may now be used to make predictions about others’ actions, interests, preferences or
even health states. When people’s small data are aggregated with others to produce big
data, the resultant datasets are used for predictive analytics. As part of algorithmic
veillance and the production of algorithmic identities, people become represented as
configurations of others in the social media networks with which they engage and the
websites people,characterised as ‘like them’, visit. There is little, if any, opportunity to
opt out of participation in these data assemblages that are configured about oneself.

Q.11
The author is most likely to agree with the following statements, except

a A mother tagging her brother in a childhood photograph and in turn, revealing

her maiden name is putting her child’s online activities at risk of being hacked.

b People share a lot of personal details on social networking sites because they
assume that its possible to have privacy on these sites.
c Privacy has different meaning in the context of the online and offline world.

d People are usually averse to the loss of their own privacy and yet, are more than
interested in other people’s lives.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The distinction between public and private has become challenged and transformed via
digital media practices. Indeed it has been contended that via the use of online
confessional practices, as well as the accumulating masses of data that are generated
about digital technology users’ everyday habits, activities and preferences, the concept
of privacy has changed. Increasingly, as data from many other users are aggregated and
interpreted using algorithms, one’s own data has an impact on others by predicting
their tastes and preferences. The concept of ‘networked privacy’ developed by Danah
Boyd (2012) acknowledges this complexity. As she points out, it is difficult to make a
case for privacy as an individual issue in the age of social media networks and
sousveillance. Many people who upload images or comments to social media sites
include other people in the material, either deliberately or inadvertently. As Boyd
observes, ‘I can’t even count the number of photos that were taken by strangers with
me in the background at the TajMahal’.

Many users have come to realise that the information about themselves and their
friends and family members that they choose to share on social media platforms may be
accessible to others, depending on the privacy policy of the platform and the ways in
which users have operated privacy settings. Information that is shared on Facebook, for
example, is far easier to limit to Facebook friends if privacy settings restrict access than
are data that users upload to platforms such as Twitter, YouTube or Instagram, which
have few, if any, settings that can be used to limit access to personal content. Even
within Facebook, however, users must accept that their data may be accessed by those
that they have chosen as friends. They may be included in photos that are uploaded by
their friends even if they do not wish others to view the photo, for example.

Open source data harvesting tools are now available that allow people to search their
friends’ data. Using a tool such as Facebook Graph Search, people who have joined that
social media platform can mine the data uploaded by their friends and search for
patterns. Such elements as ‘photos of my friends in New York’ or ‘restaurants my
friends like’ can be identified using this tool. In certain professions, such as academia,
others can use search engines to find out many details about one’s employment details
and accomplishments (just one example is Google Scholar, which lists academics’
publications as well as how often and where they have been cited by others). Such
personal data as online photographs or videos of people, their social media profiles and
online comments can easily be accessed by others by using search engines.
Furthermore, not only are individuals’ personal data shared in social networks, they
may now be used to make predictions about others’ actions, interests, preferences or
even health states. When people’s small data are aggregated with others to produce big
data, the resultant datasets are used for predictive analytics. As part of algorithmic
veillance and the production of algorithmic identities, people become represented as
configurations of others in the social media networks with which they engage and the
websites people,characterised as ‘like them’, visit. There is little, if any, opportunity to
opt out of participation in these data assemblages that are configured about oneself.

Q.12
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

a A person can be judged on the basis of the websites his online friends and
associates visit.

b Your parents may not find out, through the digital media, that you went to the
party last night because no one pasted any photographs of the party on the social media
websites.

c The digital age has changed the definition of what was considered private and
what needs to be considered private.

d The ease of accessing information has opened new business avenues for
organizations.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The current debate on the land law is important because it affords us a chance to reflect
more deeply on the nature of India’s development process and the experience of
democracy for a majority of our citizens. I see the 2013 land law as part of a response —
highly belated in my view — to the perception of millions of our people that while
India’s economy was booming over the last two decades, they were not part of the
growth story.

Indeed, many people feel that development has happened at their cost. Official
estimates place the number of people displaced due to development projects since
Independence at 60 million, less than a third of whom have been properly resettled.
Most of the displaced are the assetless rural poor, marginal farmers, poor fisherfolk and
quarry workers. Around 40 per cent of them are Adivasis and 20 per cent Dalits.
Official statistics testify that on all indicators of development, Dalits and Adivasis have
been the worst off groups. Already at the bottom of the development pyramid, being
deprived of their land and livelihoods has completely pauperised them, forcing many to
move and live in subhuman conditions in our metros. The last two decades have also
seen unprecedented agrarian distress, with more than two lakh farmers committing
suicide, as per the National Crime Records Bureau. This is something that had never
happened before in Indian history.

It is in this backdrop that we need to understand the heightened sensitivities and

palpable anger over forcible land acquisition. Given that 90 per cent of our coal, more
than 50 per cent of most minerals, and prospective dam sites are mainly in Adivasi
regions, there has been, and is likely to be, continuing tension over issues of land
acquisition. Through these tensions, not only has a question mark been placed over our
development strategy, the delicate fabric of Indian democracy has become terribly
frayed at the edges. In the remote Adivasi heartlands of India, people feel such a deep
and abiding sense of hurt, alienation and cynicism that they have allowed themselves to
be helplessly drawn into a terrible vortex of violence and counter-violence, even when
they know in their heart of hearts that it will lead to their own destruction.

The 2013 land law tried to reach out to these people, by undoing a draconian colonial
Act more suited to a 19th century empire than to a 21st century vibrant democracy. At
the heart of the 2013 law was the provision of seeking the consent of those whose lands
were to be acquired and of caring for those whose livelihoods would be destroyed in the
process. Undoing these provisions is a virtual resurrection of undiluted powers of
“eminent domain”, which the 1894 law conferred on the state.

I do not dispute the fact that there can be many situations where land is needed for a
development project that could actually benefit those whose lands are being acquired.
What could be the possible harm in seeking the prior, informed consent of these people,
after making the effort of explaining to them how they would stand to benefit? There
are those who argue that farmers would be better off giving up farming. Indeed, they
say farmers do not want to farm any more. Why would these farmers conceivably say
no if we were to propose more attractive and tangible alternative options to them in
return for their land? Is it not for farmers to assess whether the project will actually be
of benefit to them and whether the recompense offered to them is a fair bargain?

Q.13
Which of the following options would the author most agree with?

a India cannot continue with a pattern of industry that generates so few jobs but
has such a large displacement outcome.

b India’s development has been at the cost of the marginal farmer who has never
received adequate compensation for the price of progress.

c The land law debate must be the occasion to talk about key national agendas.

d Displacement of individuals is part of the story of any developmental thrust.

o Bookmark
 o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The current debate on the land law is important because it affords us a chance to reflect
more deeply on the nature of India’s development process and the experience of
democracy for a majority of our citizens. I see the 2013 land law as part of a response —
highly belated in my view — to the perception of millions of our people that while
India’s economy was booming over the last two decades, they were not part of the
growth story.

Indeed, many people feel that development has happened at their cost. Official
estimates place the number of people displaced due to development projects since
Independence at 60 million, less than a third of whom have been properly resettled.
Most of the displaced are the assetless rural poor, marginal farmers, poor fisherfolk and
quarry workers. Around 40 per cent of them are Adivasis and 20 per cent Dalits.
Official statistics testify that on all indicators of development, Dalits and Adivasis have
been the worst off groups. Already at the bottom of the development pyramid, being
deprived of their land and livelihoods has completely pauperised them, forcing many to
move and live in subhuman conditions in our metros. The last two decades have also
seen unprecedented agrarian distress, with more than two lakh farmers committing
suicide, as per the National Crime Records Bureau. This is something that had never
happened before in Indian history.

It is in this backdrop that we need to understand the heightened sensitivities and

palpable anger over forcible land acquisition. Given that 90 per cent of our coal, more
than 50 per cent of most minerals, and prospective dam sites are mainly in Adivasi
regions, there has been, and is likely to be, continuing tension over issues of land
acquisition. Through these tensions, not only has a question mark been placed over our
development strategy, the delicate fabric of Indian democracy has become terribly
frayed at the edges. In the remote Adivasi heartlands of India, people feel such a deep
and abiding sense of hurt, alienation and cynicism that they have allowed themselves to
be helplessly drawn into a terrible vortex of violence and counter-violence, even when
they know in their heart of hearts that it will lead to their own destruction.

The 2013 land law tried to reach out to these people, by undoing a draconian colonial
Act more suited to a 19th century empire than to a 21st century vibrant democracy. At
the heart of the 2013 law was the provision of seeking the consent of those whose lands
were to be acquired and of caring for those whose livelihoods would be destroyed in the
process. Undoing these provisions is a virtual resurrection of undiluted powers of
“eminent domain”, which the 1894 law conferred on the state.

I do not dispute the fact that there can be many situations where land is needed for a
development project that could actually benefit those whose lands are being acquired.
What could be the possible harm in seeking the prior, informed consent of these people,
after making the effort of explaining to them how they would stand to benefit? There
are those who argue that farmers would be better off giving up farming. Indeed, they
say farmers do not want to farm any more. Why would these farmers conceivably say
no if we were to propose more attractive and tangible alternative options to them in
return for their land? Is it not for farmers to assess whether the project will actually be
of benefit to them and whether the recompense offered to them is a fair bargain?

Q.14
It can be inferred that when the author refers to “eminent domain” he means

a The provision to seek consent from those whose lands were to be acquired.

b The power of the State to acquire land forcibly from the owners of private
property.

c The inevitability that the land owned by people would eventually be up for
acquisition by the state.

d Land has more eminent and powerful uses when it is acquired for government
use.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The current debate on the land law is important because it affords us a chance to reflect
more deeply on the nature of India’s development process and the experience of
democracy for a majority of our citizens. I see the 2013 land law as part of a response —
highly belated in my view — to the perception of millions of our people that while
India’s economy was booming over the last two decades, they were not part of the
growth story.

Indeed, many people feel that development has happened at their cost. Official
estimates place the number of people displaced due to development projects since
Independence at 60 million, less than a third of whom have been properly resettled.
Most of the displaced are the assetless rural poor, marginal farmers, poor fisherfolk and
quarry workers. Around 40 per cent of them are Adivasis and 20 per cent Dalits.
Official statistics testify that on all indicators of development, Dalits and Adivasis have
been the worst off groups. Already at the bottom of the development pyramid, being
deprived of their land and livelihoods has completely pauperised them, forcing many to
move and live in subhuman conditions in our metros. The last two decades have also
seen unprecedented agrarian distress, with more than two lakh farmers committing
suicide, as per the National Crime Records Bureau. This is something that had never
happened before in Indian history.

It is in this backdrop that we need to understand the heightened sensitivities and

palpable anger over forcible land acquisition. Given that 90 per cent of our coal, more
than 50 per cent of most minerals, and prospective dam sites are mainly in Adivasi
regions, there has been, and is likely to be, continuing tension over issues of land
acquisition. Through these tensions, not only has a question mark been placed over our
development strategy, the delicate fabric of Indian democracy has become terribly
frayed at the edges. In the remote Adivasi heartlands of India, people feel such a deep
and abiding sense of hurt, alienation and cynicism that they have allowed themselves to
be helplessly drawn into a terrible vortex of violence and counter-violence, even when
they know in their heart of hearts that it will lead to their own destruction.

The 2013 land law tried to reach out to these people, by undoing a draconian colonial
Act more suited to a 19th century empire than to a 21st century vibrant democracy. At
the heart of the 2013 law was the provision of seeking the consent of those whose lands
were to be acquired and of caring for those whose livelihoods would be destroyed in the
process. Undoing these provisions is a virtual resurrection of undiluted powers of
“eminent domain”, which the 1894 law conferred on the state.

I do not dispute the fact that there can be many situations where land is needed for a
development project that could actually benefit those whose lands are being acquired.
What could be the possible harm in seeking the prior, informed consent of these people,
after making the effort of explaining to them how they would stand to benefit? There
are those who argue that farmers would be better off giving up farming. Indeed, they
say farmers do not want to farm any more. Why would these farmers conceivably say
no if we were to propose more attractive and tangible alternative options to them in
return for their land? Is it not for farmers to assess whether the project will actually be
of benefit to them and whether the recompense offered to them is a fair bargain?

Q.15
Which of the following options would go against the argument in the passage?

a Determining the Social Impact of a project can help the government understand
if a proposed project is necessary.

b Many people are rightly concerned about the cost of the decisions taken in
development projects.

c If we want to acquire the land of farmers to serve larger goals, the projects in
which they are embodied must not be of the kinds that repeat the mistakes of the past.

d The last two decades have seen a man made agrarian crisis that has been
unprecedented.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The current debate on the land law is important because it affords us a chance to reflect
more deeply on the nature of India’s development process and the experience of
democracy for a majority of our citizens. I see the 2013 land law as part of a response —
highly belated in my view — to the perception of millions of our people that while
India’s economy was booming over the last two decades, they were not part of the
growth story.

Indeed, many people feel that development has happened at their cost. Official
estimates place the number of people displaced due to development projects since
Independence at 60 million, less than a third of whom have been properly resettled.
Most of the displaced are the assetless rural poor, marginal farmers, poor fisherfolk and
quarry workers. Around 40 per cent of them are Adivasis and 20 per cent Dalits.
Official statistics testify that on all indicators of development, Dalits and Adivasis have
been the worst off groups. Already at the bottom of the development pyramid, being
deprived of their land and livelihoods has completely pauperised them, forcing many to
move and live in subhuman conditions in our metros. The last two decades have also
seen unprecedented agrarian distress, with more than two lakh farmers committing
suicide, as per the National Crime Records Bureau. This is something that had never
happened before in Indian history.

It is in this backdrop that we need to understand the heightened sensitivities and

palpable anger over forcible land acquisition. Given that 90 per cent of our coal, more
than 50 per cent of most minerals, and prospective dam sites are mainly in Adivasi
regions, there has been, and is likely to be, continuing tension over issues of land
acquisition. Through these tensions, not only has a question mark been placed over our
development strategy, the delicate fabric of Indian democracy has become terribly
frayed at the edges. In the remote Adivasi heartlands of India, people feel such a deep
and abiding sense of hurt, alienation and cynicism that they have allowed themselves to
be helplessly drawn into a terrible vortex of violence and counter-violence, even when
they know in their heart of hearts that it will lead to their own destruction.

The 2013 land law tried to reach out to these people, by undoing a draconian colonial
Act more suited to a 19th century empire than to a 21st century vibrant democracy. At
the heart of the 2013 law was the provision of seeking the consent of those whose lands
were to be acquired and of caring for those whose livelihoods would be destroyed in the
process. Undoing these provisions is a virtual resurrection of undiluted powers of
“eminent domain”, which the 1894 law conferred on the state.

I do not dispute the fact that there can be many situations where land is needed for a
development project that could actually benefit those whose lands are being acquired.
What could be the possible harm in seeking the prior, informed consent of these people,
after making the effort of explaining to them how they would stand to benefit? There
are those who argue that farmers would be better off giving up farming. Indeed, they
say farmers do not want to farm any more. Why would these farmers conceivably say
no if we were to propose more attractive and tangible alternative options to them in
return for their land? Is it not for farmers to assess whether the project will actually be
of benefit to them and whether the recompense offered to them is a fair bargain?
 Q.16
Which of the following options is the best solution that the author seems to suggest at
the end of the passage?

a The government must listen to farmers and allow them to suggest solutions to
land acquisition issues.

b Social provisions must be made for those farmers who are to be affected by the
land acquisition policies of the government.

c The compensation to farmers must be commensurate to the cost that they incur as
a result of giving up their land.

d Malpractices in land acquisition should be checked with the setting up of a

regulatory body.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.17
The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that
best captures the essence of the text.

On the whole, do you trust people? Considerable research suggests fewer and fewer
Americans do, and given the well-established link between trust and well-being, that’s
concerning. Fortunately, a newly published paper suggests your faith in your fellow
man will very likely go up as the years go by. “An aging world may become a more
trusting world,” write Michael Poulin of the University of Buffalo and Claudia Haase of
Northwestern University. Their research, based on data from 83 countries, finds
individuals typically turn more trusting over the course of their lives—and confirms
that this shift in attitude is, on balance, a positive thing.

a Americans become more trusting as they age as their faith in the other person
increases with age.

b There could be a positive shift in the attitude of people as they age due to their
increased ability to trust others.

c As the ability to trust people comes with age, well-being does not concern the
younger people.

d Studies related to the faith people have in others have confirmed a positive
attitude in an aging world.
 o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.18
The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that
best captures the essence of the text.

New mobile networks come along once every decade or so. Starting around 1980, the
first generation of cellular phones relied on analogue technology. When the second-
generation arrived in 1991, the networks began to go digital. By 2001, the third-
generation swapped clunky old circuit-switching for efficient packet-switching. Around
2010, fourth-generation networks adopted IP technology in a big way, providing mobile
devices with broadband access to the internet. What to expect from 5G? At this stage,
one of the few things that can be said about 5G with certainity is that—if it is to meet
society’s growing demands for ubiquitous and instantaneous connectivity—such
networks will need to have a response time of about one millisecond.

a The generational changes in mobile networks have been brought about as an

answer to the growing demands of society. 5G is the future of mobile networks as it will
change how people use mobiles.

b Mobile networks see a change after each decade and this change is in line with the
expectation of society. 5G is what people will be using in the future.

c Each generational change in mobile networks has seen additions to the various
basic features for which mobiles are used. The future now is 5 G which will bring
instant connectivity to the fore.

d Mobile networks are constantly upgraded with introduction of new technology.

5G is the future of mobile networks right now.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.19
The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that
best captures the essence of the text.

That Hanoi, that city shrouded in incense and shadows, is but a distant memory. Now
neon lights up the night. Forty years after war’s end and the country’s reunification and
political rapprochement with the West, Vietnam’s population has more than doubled.
Golf courses are replacing rice paddies. New cities have sprouted where only thatched-
roof hamlets squatted, and high rises tower in once low-key metropolises like Hanoi, Da
Nang, and Ho Chi Minh City. Even longtime residents fail to recognize their own city
when they venture downtown.

a The increase in population has brought about various social, economic and
political changes in Hanoi.

b There is a sea of change in Hanoi forty years after the war ended and Vietnam
achieved cordial political relations with the Western World.

c Hanoi has changed in so many ways that it is difficult even for the longtime
residents to recognize their own city.

d An increase in population has resulted in urbanization in Hanoi since Vietnam

achieved cordial political relations with the West.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.20
There are two gaps in the sentence/paragraph given below. From the pairs of words
given, choose the one that fills the gaps most appropriately.

In order to address the limitations, we propose a more ________ though transparent

approach to embedding economic information that is less _______ to misspecification.

a liberal, responsive

b arcane, fuliginous

c parsimonious, vulnerable

d acute, perceptive

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.21
There are two gaps in the sentence/paragraph given below. From the pairs of words
given, choose the one that fills the gaps most appropriately.

Living at the intertextuality of culture, one can feel the ________ of a variable and an
____________ creative life.

a propinquity, exhilaratingly

b fragility, amusingly

c remoteness, earnestly

d perplexity, eagerly

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.22
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

Here’s another reason to get vaccinated against measles - researchers have found that
the measles virus makes kids’ immune systems “forget” most of what they have learned,
leaving children vulnerable to other diseases for as long as three years. “Our findings
suggest that measles vaccines have benefits that extend beyond just protecting against
measles itself,” said Michael Mina, a medical student at Emory University who worked
on the study while doing postdoctoral research at Princeton University.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument made in favor of
the vaccination against measles?

a Studies have suggested that vaccines can have broader benefits than simply
protecting against a single disease.

b If you get measles, three years later, you could die from something that you would
not die from had you not been infected with measles.

c Various scientists are working to find out whether reducing measles incidence will
cause a drop in deaths from other infectious diseases.

d The findings, published in the journal Science, help explain why deaths and
illnesses from a range of diseases plummet in countries after they introduced measles
vaccine campaigns.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d
 Q.23
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

It’s no surprise that, in an era of rapid change, island nations will be among the first to
feel the effects of climate change. A common sentiment shared among the islands of the
Pacific is that they suffer a great deal from the phenomenon while contributing the least
to the problem. These islands are located in a region that’s sandwiched by two of the
world’s largest carbon-emitting countries, the United States and China, which means
that any concerns they voice on the global stage often come out as mere whispers.

Which of the following, if true, would support the ‘common sentiment’ mentioned in the
passage?

a Plastic pollution in oceans is an enormous problem globally but the island

nations suffer the most due to this as plastic harms the very aquatic life that island
nations depend on for their economic progress.

b Carbon emissions are directly proportional to the size of the population of a

country and the resulting increase in sea-level poses the greatest threat to the low-lying
island nations, despite their relatively small populations.

c Island nations have banded together in the international arena to call on other
countries to limit their emissions in order to curtail the devastating impacts of climate
change on their vulnerable nations.

d The island nations are more vulnerable to the physical impacts of climate change
due to a number of socioeconomic stressors like high population growth, over-pumping
of groundwater, pollution, etc.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.24
Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify
the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and
usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

A. China is currently affording an opportunity to nations in the region

B. to become a part of a Beijing-contrived “security alliance”, holding forth
C. the promise of a new Asian security paradigm, previously embedded
D. as Chinese President Xi Jinping’s “Code of Conduct for Asia”.

a A only
b C only

c A and C

d B and D

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.25
Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify
the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and
usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

A. This was crucial since the government is trying to revive economy growth.
B. The economy has experienced slow growth in spite of the
C. revised national income data that has indicated faster growth. Industry,
D. exports and so on, had shown tepid growth in recent years.

a A and C

b B and D

c A and D

d B, C and D

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.26
The words given below have been used in the given sentences in four different ways.
Choose the option corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is
incorrect or inappropriate.

Work

a The sudden withdrawal of the guest speaker really threw a monkey wrench in
the works.

b As Jim wasn’t left with any money, he had no option but to work through his
debt.

c The lady did some investigation to find out how she could work on her employer
to elicit more information.

d The team really worked the opponent over in the final game of the tournament.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.27
The words given below have been used in the given sentences in four different ways.
Choose the option corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is
incorrect or inappropriate.

Back

a The mansion backs onto a gigantic oak tree.

b The unnecessary delays at the showroom got the customer’s back up.

c The bold business tycoon is flat on his back after a string of major losses.

d Her strong sense of sympathy did not allow her to turn her back at anyone who
was suffering.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.28
Five sentences are given below, labeled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the
most appropriate sequence.

1. But it will soon have plenty of greying company, from wealthy countries such as
Finland and South Korea to developing giants, including China and Russia.
2. They also expect heavier fiscal burdens, with governments providing for more
pensioners from a smaller tax base.
3. When it comes to the economic impact of demography, Japan is the wizened canary
in the world’s coal mine.
4. Economists generally agree that the ageing of populations leads to slower growth,
because a country’s potential output tends to fall as its labour force shrinks.
5. It has become older faster than any other big country: its median age went from 34 in
1980 to 46 today, and will continue rising for decades.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 35142

Q.29
Five sentences are given below, labeled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the
most appropriate sequence

1. It is estimated that over 99 per cent of Bangalore silk saris are being made with
Chinese silk yarn.
2. Markets across Indian towns and cities that are flooded with Chinese products, more
so around festivals such as Deepavali, are grim reminders of how Made-in-China has
come to dominate homes and offices.
3. JLR’s China launch has set alarm bells ringing for the Modi government: “Make in
India” will have to go quickly from being a statement of intent to real action on the
ground.
4. From furniture and gadgets to industrial equipment, India is importing almost all
products from its neighbour, even yarn for saris.
5. The five-year period of 2005-06 to 2009-10 was one of a smart 10 per cent plus growth
for the manufacturing sector when several advantages — engineering skills, a growing
domestic market, a raw material base and a large pool of skilled labour — trumped the
vast barriers to doing business in India.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 53241

Q.30
Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the
most appropriate sequence

A. If a machine operated in such a way, it could not comprehend the gravity of making
an immoral decision, and it would be difficult to differentiate that machine from other
instances that (necessarily) operate in the same way.
B. One problem that arises immediately when discussing moral Artificial Intelligence is
whether that freedom, and individuality, remains.
C. Rather than creating preprogrammed “moral drones” that are unconsciously
restricted from acting immorally, I would create an AI that was aware of the full range
of possible decisions, but always (or at least often) acted morally.
D. Perhaps latent in the term “robot” itself is the notion that constraining a personally
intelligent machine such that it is incapable of acting immorally would restrict its
freedom.
E. However, this is not how I would expect to develop moral artificial intelligence.

a BDAEC

b CBEDA

c ECBDA

d BDECA

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.31
Five sentences are given below, labeled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the
most appropriate sequence

1. Isolated internationally, the government is currently haggling with international

creditors over a cash-for-reform deal to keep the debt-stricken country afloat.
2. The volte-face was greeted with despondency and dismay by international
campaigners.
3. In the event that the international tribunal rejected the claim, Greece should take the
case to the European court of human rights, the lawyers said.
4. With Athens negotiating its worst crisis in modern times – and public finances at an
all time low – many feared that prime minister Alexis Tsipras’ coalition of far-left
radicals and rightwing populists had got cold feet.
5. The legal study suggested that Athens make a formal request for the marbles’
repatriation before submitting a legal claim to the international court at The Hague if
the request was turned down as expected.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 53241

Q.32
A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the
given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate
way.

In the introduction of her book, Kondo quantifies the power of her advice—she
estimates that she’s helped her clients dispose of no fewer than a million items. This
number is astonishing, but a key element of Kondo’s argument is that hardly anyone is
aware of how many items he or she owns. Most wouldn’t even notice if some of those
items are gone, she argues, but the problem is that throwing things out and putting
belongings in the right place requires jumping through some psychological hoops.

a She takes strong stances against these irrational habits that govern us.

b Financial Times columnist Tim Harford agrees that Kondo’s methods are not
only intuitive, but compelling to economists.

c Why do people have so much trouble throwing things out?

d Another way of looking at this fallacy is as a form of loss aversion—that humans

psychologically hate acquiring new belongings.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.33
A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the
given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate
way.

In an unsupported expedition, North Pole travelers must ski, snowshoe, swim, and
climb, all while towing a 300-pound sled of supplies approximately 480 miles, which
takes about 50 to 70 days. There are mounds of ice as big as houses to get over and
stretches of 30-degree water to traverse, which travelers swim across wearing a full-
body rubber suit. Air temperatures often hover around 40 degrees below zero.

a “The future of skiing to the North Pole is dim.”

b “It’s the most difficult expedition on the planet that nobody really knows about,”
says Larsen.

c During a 2007 expedition, Weber walked for 10 to 12 hours a day, but because the
ice he was on was drifting south, he stayed in virtually the same spot.

d Further complicating the matter, the weather window for reaching the North
Pole is short—and getting shorter every year—lasting from early March to early May,
when the harshest temperatures of winter abate and the summer melt cycle is just
 beginning.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.34
A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the
given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate
way.

One thing I remember is that I never saw my father running. This odd fact came to me
one day recently when I was sprinting for a train, and I brooded on it for a long time
afterwards. He must have run, of course, sometimes and on some necessary occasions,
but if he did, and if I saw him, I have no memory of it. His life, moving at an even and
unruffled pace, was limited on all sides by the circumstances of his time, his class and
his age.

a Perhaps I am being patronising by thinking my father’s life monotonous.

b For him, as for so many of his class and time, life had its fixed phases: childhood,
the brief flowering of adolescence, then adulthood, marriage and the long plateau
stretching to retirement.

c To me they seemed, until their final years, to be of an indeterminate age,

creatures essentially of a different species, permanent and unchanging, simply there.

d Thinking back on the lives of one’s parents and making comparisons with one’s
own life can be a dizzying exercise.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Sec 2

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

After a survey was conducted in a college to gauge how the students use their free time,
the folowing observations were made:
120 students like to spend their time with girl-friends. 150 students like playing video
games. 200 students like playing cricket and 170 students like watching television. 20
students like spending their time with girlfriends and playing cricket. 25 students like
spending their time with girl-friends and playing video games. 25 students like watching
television and playing cricket. 20 students like watching television and playing video
games. 10 students like spending their time with girl-friends and watching television. 30
students like playing cricket and video games.

Q.35
If no student has more than two interests, then how many students like playing video
games or cricket but do not like watching television or spending time with their girl-
friends?

a 230

b 245

c 225

d 270

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

After a survey was conducted in a college to gauge how the students use their free time,
the folowing observations were made:
120 students like to spend their time with girl-friends. 150 students like playing video
games. 200 students like playing cricket and 170 students like watching television. 20
students like spending their time with girlfriends and playing cricket. 25 students like
spending their time with girl-friends and playing video games. 25 students like watching
television and playing cricket. 20 students like watching television and playing video
games. 10 students like spending their time with girl-friends and watching television. 30
students like playing cricket and video games.

Q.36
If no student has more than two interests, then how many students like at least one out
of playing video games, watching television and spending time with girl friends, but not
playing cricket?

a 370

b 410

c 400

d 310
 o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

After a survey was conducted in a college to gauge how the students use their free time,
the folowing observations were made:
120 students like to spend their time with girl-friends. 150 students like playing video
games. 200 students like playing cricket and 170 students like watching television. 20
students like spending their time with girlfriends and playing cricket. 25 students like
spending their time with girl-friends and playing video games. 25 students like watching
television and playing cricket. 20 students like watching television and playing video
games. 10 students like spending their time with girl-friends and watching television. 30
students like playing cricket and video games.

Q.37
It is also known that the number of students who like exactly three activities is double
the number of students who like all the four activities. The number of students who like
any three activities, is the same for all possible combinations of three activities out of the
four. Find the maximum number of students who can like all the four activities given
that number of student(s) is/are an integer only.

a 5

b 4

c 2

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

After a survey was conducted in a college to gauge how the students use their free time,
the folowing observations were made:
120 students like to spend their time with girl-friends. 150 students like playing video
games. 200 students like playing cricket and 170 students like watching television. 20
students like spending their time with girlfriends and playing cricket. 25 students like
spending their time with girl-friends and playing video games. 25 students like watching
television and playing cricket. 20 students like watching television and playing video
games. 10 students like spending their time with girl-friends and watching television. 30
students like playing cricket and video games.

Q.38
It is also known that the number of students who like exactly three activities is double
the number of students who like all the four activities. The number of students who like
any three activities, is the same for all possible combinations of three activities out of the
four. If 79 students like to spend their time with their girl-friends only, then find the
number of students who like playing cricket only.

a 129

b 139

c 166

d 183

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The following table shows the information related to population and a few other
parameters for 5 states of India for the year 2010.

Q.39
In rural region of state P, all women i.e. 188 Lakh are literate and all men are illiterate.
The literacy rate among urban men in state P is atleast

a 40%
b 0%

c 4%

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The following table shows the information related to population and a few other
parameters for 5 states of India for the year 2010.

Q.40
If the literate population, staying in urban area, of each state is maximum possible, then
in how many states urban population can be 100% literate?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 3

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The following table shows the information related to population and a few other
parameters for 5 states of India for the year 2010.
 Q.41
In each state 10% of rural population migrates to urban areas of the same state.If this
migrant population is illiterate then which state will have lowest literacy rates in its
urban areas?

a Q

b R

c S

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The following table shows the information related to population and a few other
parameters for 5 states of India for the year 2010.
 Q.42
If 70% of literate population of each state lives in urban areas, then which state has the
lowest percentage of literacy in rural areas?

a Q

b R

c S

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The tables below show the fare structure and the average number of passengers who travel per
day for a bus service connecting villages A, B, C and D.

A passanger who wants to travel by using the given bus service, can buy a ticket between any
two of the given stations only. It is also known that a commuter has to buy a ticket at the
boarding station.

Q.43
At which station is the collection the maximum?

a A

b B

c C
d D

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The tables below show the fare structure and the average number of passengers who travel per
day for a bus service connecting villages A, B, C and D.

A passanger who wants to travel by using the given bus service, can buy a ticket between any
two of the given stations only. It is also known that a commuter has to buy a ticket at the
boarding station.

Q.44
What is the total daily collection (in Rs.) on the route B–C–D–C–B ?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 679

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The tables below show the fare structure and the average number of passengers who travel per
day for a bus service connecting villages A, B, C and D.
A passanger who wants to travel by using the given bus service, can buy a ticket between any
two of the given stations only. It is also known that a commuter has to buy a ticket at the
boarding station.

Q.45
If the fare is charged at a rate 40p per km along all the routes except BD, along which it is 60p
per km, what is the approximate length (in km) of the route BDAC?

a 118

b 138

c 158

d 177

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The tables below show the fare structure and the average number of passengers who travel per
day for a bus service connecting villages A, B, C and D.
A passanger who wants to travel by using the given bus service, can buy a ticket between any
two of the given stations only. It is also known that a commuter has to buy a ticket at the
boarding station.

Q.46
A revenue inspector residing in village C travels to villages A, B and D in that order, on regular
basis. His pattern of travel is such that he travels to only one village each day and returns to his
home village at the end of the same day. What are his expenses on bus fare in the month of
September 1999 considering he does not travel on Sundays? It is further known that 31st July is
a Sunday and the inspector travelled to village D on 30th September.

a Rs. 580

b Rs. 666

c Rs. 780

d Data inconsistent

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Company A and company B are two rival enterprises operating in the same market
segment. Company A can adopt any one of X, Y, or Z strategy, and company B can, in
turn, can adopt any one of P, Q, or R strategy. The following table gives the pay-off to
company A depending on which strategy it adopts and which strategy company B
adopts in response. A positive sign indicates that company A gains and company B
loses, whereas a negative sign indicates company A loses and company B gains.
Further, both company A and company B incur a cost in adopting any of the strategies
and the costs are given in the following table.

Q.47
Which strategy should company A adopt such that whatever is company B’s response, it
will always make a net profit even after deducting the cost incurred?

a X

b Y

c Z

d Such a situation is not possible

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Company A and company B are two rival enterprises operating in the same market
segment. Company A can adopt any one of X, Y, or Z strategy, and company B can, in
turn, can adopt any one of P, Q, or R strategy. The following table gives the pay-off to
company A depending on which strategy it adopts and which strategy company B
adopts in response. A positive sign indicates that company A gains and company B
loses, whereas a negative sign indicates company A loses and company B gains.
Further, both company A and company B incur a cost in adopting any of the strategies
and the costs are given in the following table.

Q.48
If company A has very good cash flow and is aggressive, and its sole objective is to
maximize the ratio of its gains to the losses of company B, which strategy should
company A adopt?

a X

b Y

c Z

d Either X or Y

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Company A and company B are two rival enterprises operating in the same market
segment. Company A can adopt any one of X, Y, or Z strategy, and company B can, in
turn, can adopt any one of P, Q, or R strategy. The following table gives the pay-off to
company A depending on which strategy it adopts and which strategy company B
adopts in response. A positive sign indicates that company A gains and company B
loses, whereas a negative sign indicates company A loses and company B gains.

Further, both company A and company B incur a cost in adopting any of the strategies
and the costs are given in the following table.
 Q.49
What is the difference between the maximum gain that company B and company A can
make?

a 500

b 700

c 12500

d 13200

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Company A and company B are two rival enterprises operating in the same market
segment. Company A can adopt any one of X, Y, or Z strategy, and company B can, in
turn, can adopt any one of P, Q, or R strategy. The following table gives the pay-off to
company A depending on which strategy it adopts and which strategy company B
adopts in response. A positive sign indicates that company A gains and company B
loses, whereas a negative sign indicates company A loses and company B gains.

Further, both company A and company B incur a cost in adopting any of the strategies
and the costs are given in the following table.

Q.50
Company A has to act first by choosing a strategy and then company B will respond, i.e.
company B has an advantage of knowing what strategy A has adopted. In such a
situation, which strategy should company A adopt such that the ‘advantage’ to
company B is least? (‘Advantage’ to company B is defined as the sum of the gain of
company B and the loss of company A.)
a X

b Y

c Z

d Either Y or Z

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

A house tax inspector, Choitram, evaluated the houses of Arpan, Bunty, Chhotu, Dinku
and Eshwar. The house of each of them belong to a different category from among A, B,
C, D, and E. The categories are based on the year of its completion, which are prior to
1970, 1970 to 1979, 1980 to 1989, 1990 to 1999 and 2000 onwards. Each of these houses
are either self-occupied or tenanted, given out on rent.

Additional information are given:

I. Chhotu’s house is one of the two houses which are tenanted.
II. Bunty’s house was constructed earlier than that of Arpan’s.
III. Eshwar’s house is the newest and Dinku’s house is the oldest. Neither of the two
belongs to categories A or B.
IV. Bunty’s house belongs to category D.
V. The tenanted houses belong to categories B and D.
VI. Chhotu built his house in 1987.

Q.51
What is the correct sequence (oldest to newest) of houses in terms of year of
construction?

a Dinku, Bunty, Arpan, Chhotu, Eshwar

b Dinku, Chhotu, Bunty, Arpan, Eshwar

c Dinku, Bunty, Chhotu, Arpan, Eshwar

d Dinku, Arpan, Bunty, Chhotu, Eshwar

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
 Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

A house tax inspector, Choitram, evaluated the houses of Arpan, Bunty, Chhotu, Dinku
and Eshwar. The house of each of them belong to a different category from among A, B,
C, D, and E. The categories are based on the year of its completion, which are prior to
1970, 1970 to 1979, 1980 to 1989, 1990 to 1999 and 2000 onwards. Each of these houses
are either self-occupied or tenanted, given out on rent.

Additional information are given:

I. Chhotu’s house is one of the two houses which are tenanted.
II. Bunty’s house was constructed earlier than that of Arpan’s.
III. Eshwar’s house is the newest and Dinku’s house is the oldest. Neither of the two
belongs to categories A or B.
IV. Bunty’s house belongs to category D.
V. The tenanted houses belong to categories B and D.
VI. Chhotu built his house in 1987.

Q.52
Which of the following combinations of 'Person's house - Category' are necessarily
correct?
I. Arpan’s house – A
II. Dinku’s house – C
III. Chhotu’s house – B

a I and III only

b II and III only

c III only

d All are correct

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

A house tax inspector, Choitram, evaluated the houses of Arpan, Bunty, Chhotu, Dinku
and Eshwar. The house of each of them belong to a different category from among A, B,
C, D, and E. The categories are based on the year of its completion, which are prior to
1970, 1970 to 1979, 1980 to 1989, 1990 to 1999 and 2000 onwards. Each of these houses
are either self-occupied or tenanted, given out on rent.
Additional information are given:
I. Chhotu’s house is one of the two houses which are tenanted.
II. Bunty’s house was constructed earlier than that of Arpan’s.
III. Eshwar’s house is the newest and Dinku’s house is the oldest. Neither of the two
belongs to categories A or B.
IV. Bunty’s house belongs to category D.
V. The tenanted houses belong to categories B and D.
VI. Chhotu built his house in 1987.

Q.53
If Eshwar’s house belongs to the category E, to which category Dinku’s house belongs
to?

a A

b B

c C

d D

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

A house tax inspector, Choitram, evaluated the houses of Arpan, Bunty, Chhotu, Dinku
and Eshwar. The house of each of them belong to a different category from among A, B,
C, D, and E. The categories are based on the year of its completion, which are prior to
1970, 1970 to 1979, 1980 to 1989, 1990 to 1999 and 2000 onwards. Each of these houses
are either self-occupied or tenanted, given out on rent.

Additional information are given:

I. Chhotu’s house is one of the two houses which are tenanted.
II. Bunty’s house was constructed earlier than that of Arpan’s.
III. Eshwar’s house is the newest and Dinku’s house is the oldest. Neither of the two
belongs to categories A or B.
IV. Bunty’s house belongs to category D.
V. The tenanted houses belong to categories B and D.
VI. Chhotu built his house in 1987.

Q.54
Which of the following is the correct sequence (newest to oldest) of self-occupied
houses?
a Dinku, Arpan, Eshwar

b Arpan, Dinku, Eshwar

c Eshwar, Arpan, Dinku

d Eshwar, Dinku, Arpan

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Seven persons namely P, Q, R, S, T, U and V, each of whom is a professor of a different

subject from among Chemistry, Accounts, Electrical, Maths, IT, Biology and
Geography, not necessarily in the same order, are standing in a row.
We have following additional information :
(i) The number of persons to the left of R is the same as the number of persons to the
right of the Biology professor.
(ii) IT professor is standing at the fourth place to the right of V.
(iii) Biology professor is standing as many places to the left of P as S is standing to the
right of Chemistry professor.
(iv) R is standing immediately right of T.
(v) Maths and Geography professors are standing at the first and sixth positions from
the right end.
(vi) Electrical professor is at the fourth place to the right of Accounts professor.

Q.55
Q can not be the professor of

a Biology

b Chemistry

c Electrical

d Maths

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b
Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Seven persons namely P, Q, R, S, T, U and V, each of whom is a professor of a different

subject from among Chemistry, Accounts, Electrical, Maths, IT, Biology and
Geography, not necessarily in the same order, are standing in a row.
We have following additional information :
(i) The number of persons to the left of R is the same as the number of persons to the
right of the Biology professor.
(ii) IT professor is standing at the fourth place to the right of V.
(iii) Biology professor is standing as many places to the left of P as S is standing to the
right of Chemistry professor.
(iv) R is standing immediately right of T.
(v) Maths and Geography professors are standing at the first and sixth positions from
the right end.
(vi) Electrical professor is at the fourth place to the right of Accounts professor.

Q.56
If the number of professors standing between Q and T is same as the number of
professors standing between U and P, then Q is a professor of

a Biology

b Electrical

c Accounts

d This arrangement is not possible

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Seven persons namely P, Q, R, S, T, U and V, each of whom is a professor of a different

subject from among Chemistry, Accounts, Electrical, Maths, IT, Biology and
Geography, not necessarily in the same order, are standing in a row.
We have following additional information :
(i) The number of persons to the left of R is the same as the number of persons to the
right of the Biology professor.
(ii) IT professor is standing at the fourth place to the right of V.
(iii) Biology professor is standing as many places to the left of P as S is standing to the
right of Chemistry professor.
(iv) R is standing immediately right of T.
(v) Maths and Geography professors are standing at the first and sixth positions from
the right end.
(vi) Electrical professor is at the fourth place to the right of Accounts professor.

Q.57
Which of the following pairs of professor can never stand adjacent to each other ?

a Q and T

b R and P

c U and S

d S and T

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Seven persons namely P, Q, R, S, T, U and V, each of whom is a professor of a different

subject from among Chemistry, Accounts, Electrical, Maths, IT, Biology and
Geography, not necessarily in the same order, are standing in a row.
We have following additional information :
(i) The number of persons to the left of R is the same as the number of persons to the
right of the Biology professor.
(ii) IT professor is standing at the fourth place to the right of V.
(iii) Biology professor is standing as many places to the left of P as S is standing to the
right of Chemistry professor.
(iv) R is standing immediately right of T.
(v) Maths and Geography professors are standing at the first and sixth positions from
the right end.
(vi) Electrical professor is at the fourth place to the right of Accounts professor.

Q.58
How many different sitting arrangements are possible?

a 2

b 3

c 5

d more than 5
 o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

In a query answering module called ‘Help Me’, students ask their queries, which are
based on four subject areas namely DI, LR, QA and VA. The queries enter the module
as soon as they are asked and remain there until they are answered. All queries that are
received in the first half of the day are counted as a part of that day and the ones
received in the second half are counted as a part of the next day. There are four persons
– Dudi, Anu, Sam and Tiru – who are responsible for answering queries. Queries are
answered only in the second half of the day.

The following table gives the number of unanswered queries of the previous week, 15th
to 21th May, 2015, from the four subject areas by the end of the week.

The information regarding the number of new queries received in the current week,
22nd to 28th May, 2015, is given in the table below.

· Queries based on VA are answered only by Sam.

· Tiru answers queries based on QA only. Sam answers queries on VA only.
· In the current week, if the number of queries answered by Dudi, Anu, Sam and Tiru
on any day (from Monday to Saturday) are denoted by d, a, s and t respectively, then it
was observed that
6 ≤ d ≤ 12
8 ≤ a ≤ 18
5 ≤ s ≤ 10
2 ≤ t ≤ 15
No query is admitted or answered on Sunday.

Q.59
On which day of the current week could Sam answer the maximum possible number of
queries?
a Wednesday

b Friday

c Saturday

d Either Friday or Saturday

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

In a query answering module called ‘Help Me’, students ask their queries, which are
based on four subject areas namely DI, LR, QA and VA. The queries enter the module
as soon as they are asked and remain there until they are answered. All queries that are
received in the first half of the day are counted as a part of that day and the ones
received in the second half are counted as a part of the next day. There are four persons
– Dudi, Anu, Sam and Tiru – who are responsible for answering queries. Queries are
answered only in the second half of the day.

The following table gives the number of unanswered queries of the previous week, 15th
to 21th May, 2015, from the four subject areas by the end of the week.

The information regarding the number of new queries received in the current week,
22nd to 28th May, 2015, is given in the table below.

· Queries based on VA are answered only by Sam.

· Tiru answers queries based on QA only. Sam answers queries on VA only.
· In the current week, if the number of queries answered by Dudi, Anu, Sam and Tiru
on any day (from Monday to Saturday) are denoted by d, a, s and t respectively, then it
was observed that
6 ≤ d ≤ 12
8 ≤ a ≤ 18
5 ≤ s ≤ 10
2 ≤ t ≤ 15
No query is admitted or answered on Sunday.

Q.60
In the current week, if there were no pending queries of QA at the end of Saturday and
only Tiru answered QA queries, the total number queries of QA that were answered on
the same day when they were received could not be less than

a 4

b 3

c 2

d 1

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

In a query answering module called ‘Help Me’, students ask their queries, which are
based on four subject areas namely DI, LR, QA and VA. The queries enter the module
as soon as they are asked and remain there until they are answered. All queries that are
received in the first half of the day are counted as a part of that day and the ones
received in the second half are counted as a part of the next day. There are four persons
– Dudi, Anu, Sam and Tiru – who are responsible for answering queries. Queries are
answered only in the second half of the day.

The following table gives the number of unanswered queries of the previous week, 15th
to 21th May, 2015, from the four subject areas by the end of the week.

The information regarding the number of new queries received in the current week,
22nd to 28th May, 2015, is given in the table below.
· Queries based on VA are answered only by Sam.
· Tiru answers queries based on QA only. Sam answers queries on VA only.
· In the current week, if the number of queries answered by Dudi, Anu, Sam and Tiru
on any day (from Monday to Saturday) are denoted by d, a, s and t respectively, then it
was observed that
6 ≤ d ≤ 12
8 ≤ a ≤ 18
5 ≤ s ≤ 10
2 ≤ t ≤ 15
No query is admitted or answered on Sunday.

Q.61
Which of the following is not possible?

a All pending queries of the previous week could be answered by the end of
Wednesday.

b All pending queries of the previous week could be answered by the end of
Thursday.

c All pending queries of the previous week could be answered by the end of Friday.

d All pending queries of the previous week could be answered by the end of
Monday.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

In a query answering module called ‘Help Me’, students ask their queries, which are
based on four subject areas namely DI, LR, QA and VA. The queries enter the module
as soon as they are asked and remain there until they are answered. All queries that are
received in the first half of the day are counted as a part of that day and the ones
received in the second half are counted as a part of the next day. There are four persons
– Dudi, Anu, Sam and Tiru – who are responsible for answering queries. Queries are
answered only in the second half of the day.

The following table gives the number of unanswered queries of the previous week, 15th
to 21th May, 2015, from the four subject areas by the end of the week.

The information regarding the number of new queries received in the current week,
22nd to 28th May, 2015, is given in the table below.

· Queries based on VA are answered only by Sam.

· Tiru answers queries based on QA only. Sam answers queries on VA only.
· In the current week, if the number of queries answered by Dudi, Anu, Sam and Tiru
on any day (from Monday to Saturday) are denoted by d, a, s and t respectively, then it
was observed that
6 ≤ d ≤ 12
8 ≤ a ≤ 18
5 ≤ s ≤ 10
2 ≤ t ≤ 15
No query is admitted or answered on Sunday.

Q.62
On Monday, of the current week, a total of 58 queries were answered. Atmost how
many of them could be of QA?

a 45

b 31

c 21

d Data inconsistent

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d
Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

There are ten students – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, J and K. At least five of them decide to

enroll for Correspondence MBA course. Also, at least five of them decide to enroll for
Correspondence Java course.

The following conditions apply:

I. At least four students enroll for both the courses.
II. A enrolls for either Correspondence Java course or Correspondence MBA course,
but not both.
III. H enrolls for Correspondence Java course only.
IV. K and B, each of whom enroll for one of the two courses, enroll for different course.
V. D and C enroll for both the courses.
VI. If J enrolls for both the courses, then E and F will also enroll for both the courses.

Q.63
If G enrolls for one of the two courses, then what is the minimum number of students
who enroll for Correspondence Java course?

a 5

b 6

c 7

d 8

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

There are ten students – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, J and K. At least five of them decide to

enroll for Correspondence MBA course. Also, at least five of them decide to enroll for
Correspondence Java course.

The following conditions apply:

I. At least four students enroll for both the courses.
II. A enrolls for either Correspondence Java course or Correspondence MBA course,
but not both.
III. H enrolls for Correspondence Java course only.
IV. K and B, each of whom enroll for one of the two courses, enroll for different course.
V. D and C enroll for both the courses.
VI. If J enrolls for both the courses, then E and F will also enroll for both the courses.

Q.64
If A and B enroll for different courses, then what is the maximum number of students
who enroll for Correspondence MBA course?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 8

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

There are ten students – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, J and K. At least five of them decide to

enroll for Correspondence MBA course. Also, at least five of them decide to enroll for
Correspondence Java course.

The following conditions apply:

I. At least four students enroll for both the courses.
II. A enrolls for either Correspondence Java course or Correspondence MBA course,
but not both.
III. H enrolls for Correspondence Java course only.
IV. K and B, each of whom enroll for one of the two courses, enroll for different course.
V. D and C enroll for both the courses.
VI. If J enrolls for both the courses, then E and F will also enroll for both the courses.

Q.65
If 6 students enroll for Correspondence Java course, then which of the following can be
a complete list of the students who enroll for Correspondence Java course?

a A, C, D, E, F and H

b A, C, D, E, H and K

c B, C, D, E, F and H

d C, D, E, H, J and K

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
 There are ten students – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, J and K. At least five of them decide to
enroll for Correspondence MBA course. Also, at least five of them decide to enroll for
Correspondence Java course.

The following conditions apply:

I. At least four students enroll for both the courses.
II. A enrolls for either Correspondence Java course or Correspondence MBA course,
but not both.
III. H enrolls for Correspondence Java course only.
IV. K and B, each of whom enroll for one of the two courses, enroll for different course.
V. D and C enroll for both the courses.
VI. If J enrolls for both the courses, then E and F will also enroll for both the courses.

Q.66
If 7 students enroll for Correspondence MBA course, then which of the following can be
a list of the students who enroll for Correspondence MBA course?
I. A, B, C, D, E, F and G
II. B, C, D, E, F, J and G
III. C, D, E, F, G, J and K
IV. A, C, D, E, G, J and K

a II or III

b I, II or III

c II or IV

d I, II, III or IV

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Sec 3

Q.67
Which of the following points will be collinear with the points (–3, 4) and (2, –5)?

a (0, 0)

b (7, –14)

c (0, –1)
d (3, 1)

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.68
If 3x + 5y ≤ 15 and 5x + 2y ≤ 10, where both x and y are non-negative real numbers,
what is the maximum possible value of (3x + 10y)?

a 15

b 510/19

c 30

d 585/19

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.69
A letter lock consists of three rings, each of which is marked with 15 different letters. It
is found that Vijay could open the lock only after making half the maximum number of
possible unsuccessful attempts (an attempt is defined as a combination of three letters
on three rings, one letter on each ring at a time) to open the lock. If each attempt takes
10 seconds, then the time he must have spent on opening the lock is not less than

a 4.68 hours

b 5.26 hours

c 6.20 hours

d 7.28 hours

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a
 Q.70
Two persons – A and B – start running simultaneously around a circular track – with
speeds 4 m/sec and 12 m/sec respectively. What is the minimum number of rounds that
A has to make in order to meet B once at the starting point?

a 1

b 12

c 3

d 4

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.71
A circle of radius r is inscribed in a quadrant of a circle of radius x cm. If x < 40, how
many integral values of r are possible?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 16

Q.72
Bill and Clinton take the square of a certain decimal number and express it in base 5
and 7 respectively. Later on, Bush comes and, assuming that the expressions are in base
10, adds these two numbers. Which of the following cannot be the value of the units
digit of the sum obtained?

a 0

b 2

c 8

d 4

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
 Correct Answer : d

Q.73
A contractor, having ‘n’ trucks, did not have space in his garage for 8 of his trucks. He,
therefore,increased the size of his garage by 50% which gave him space for 8 more
trucks than what he owned at that time. What is the value of ‘n’?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 40

Q.74

a 0

b 1

c 2

d 3

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.75
Find the sum of the following series:
1 + 1 × 1 + 2 + 2 × 2 + 3 + 3 × 3 + 4 + 4 × 4 + … + 100 + 100 × 100.

a 343400

b 343300

c 333400

d 333300
 o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.76
If x + y + z ends with zero and xyz is not divisible by 10, where x, y and z are single
x y z

digit natural numbers such that x ≠ y ≠ z, how many distinct values of x are possible?

a 8

b 7

c 5

d 4

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.77
Mayank can do as much work in 2 days as Kulmohan can do in 3 days, and Kulmohan
can do as much in 4 days as Vijay in 5 days. Three of them working together can
complete a piece of work in 20 days. How long would Kulmohan alone take to complete
the work?

a 80 days

b 60 days

c 45 days

d 66 days

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.78
If f(x) = [x], where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, g(x) =
(f(x)) and h(x)= | g(x) |, then which of the following is true?
2
a

c
d

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.79
Let A A A A A A be a regular hexagon inscribed in a circle of unit radius. Find the
0 1 2 3 4 5

product of the lengths of the line segments A A , A A and A A .

0 1 0 2 0 4

a 3√3

b 3

c 9

d √3

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.80
The disaster management fund for the year 2015-16 was Rs. 123123123123123 and it
was distributed amongst 7 states. It was done in such a way that each state got an equal
integral amount (in Rs.) and the remaining amount was given to an NGO. The amount
received by the NGO cannot be less than

a Rs. 123

b Rs. 6 lakh
c Rs. 4

d Rs. 4 lakh

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.81
The germination of seeds is estimated by a probability of 0.8. What is the probability
that out of five seeds sown at least four will germinate?

a 0.73728

b 0.4096

c 0.08192

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.82
What is the area of the largest equilateral triangle that can be constructed inside a
rectangle of dimensions 20 cm x 10 cm?

a 100 sq cm

b 25√3 sq cm

c 100√3 sq cm

d 100/√3 sq cm

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.83
A function f(p, q) is defined for all integeral values of p and q, where p ≥ q and p, q ≥ 0,
as

If x is the remainder when p is divided by q, which of the following values is the same as
f(6, 4)?

a f(54, 52)

b f(56, 52)

c f(52, 48)

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.84
V > 0, an integer, ends with 3. If V – V is divisible by 10, where m and n are integeres
m n

such that m > n > 0, then (m – n) is necessarily divisible by

a 8

b 4

c 10

d 6

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.85
Ram’s watch is 10 min slow but he thinks it is 5 min fast. Rahim’s watch is 5 min fast
but he thinks it is 10 min slow. Both plan to catch a flight, which is supposed to leave at
6 o’clock. If both reach the airport exactly at the expected departure based upon their
understanding of their respective watches, which of the following is definitely true?

a Rahim reached the airport 30 minutes before Ram

b Both reached together at 6’o clock

c Ram reached the airport 15 minutes before Rahim

d Rahim reached the airport 15 minutes before Ram

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.86

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.87
If a, b and c are in a geometric progression and x and y are an arithmetic mean of a, b
and b, c respectively, then what is the value of

a 1

b 2

c 3/2
d 5/2

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.88
In a cuboid, let a, b and c be the length of the diagonals drawn on three faces having a
corner in common. If d is the length of the largest diagonal that can be drawn in the
cuboid, then which of the following is definitely true

a 2d = a + b + c
2 2 2 2

b d =a +b +c
2 2 2 2

c d = 2 (a + b + c )
2 2 2 2

d 3d = a + b + c
2 2 2 2

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.89
Santosh was walking to and fro on a railway platform. He was walking at a uniform
speed of 4 km/ hr in a straight path and he reverses his direction of motion at the end of
fourth, seventh, ninth and thirteenth minutes, how far will he be from the starting point
at the end of the tenth minute?

a 2/15 km

b 3/15 km

c 4/15 km

d 0 km

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a
 Q.90
The difference between the compound interest, compounded annually, and simple
interest earned on an amount at a certain rate of interest for 2 years is Rs.20 and for 3
years it is Rs.64. Find the value of the amount.

a Rs.200

b Rs.400

c Rs.500

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.91
A hollow cube of maximum possible volume is kept inside a sphere and another sphere
of maximum volume is kept inside the cube. What is the ratio of the surface area of the
outer sphere and that of the inner sphere?

a √3 :1

b √2 : 1

c 4:1

d 3:1

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.92
In how many ways can Rs.18.75 be paid by using exactly 85 coins, comprising at least
one coin of each of denominations of 50 p., 25 p. and 10 p.?

a One

b Two
c Four

d Eight

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.93
Each side of an n-sided regular polygon makes an angle θ at the centre of the polygon. If
the value of θ is an integer and 'n' is not a prime number, then how many values of θ
are possible?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 20

Q.94
If you place 9 at the left end of a five-digit number you will get a six-digit number. This
six-digit number is four-times the six-digit number that you get when you put 9 at the
right end of the original five-digit number. What is the sum of the digits of the five-digit
number?

a 18

b 27

c 17

d Data Insufficient

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.95
If x < 0, 0 < y < 1, z > 1, which of the following is definitely false?

a x yz is never negative.
2
b xy is always negative

c yz can be less than one.

d x – z is always positive
2 2

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.96
The life span of a typical kind of bacterium is exactly 1 hour. It gives birth to 27 similar
bacteria at the end of the first hour and dies instantly. Each of these bacteria, in turn,
gives birth to 26 similar bacteria at the end of second hour and dies instantly. Now,
Each of these bacteria, in turn, gives birth to 25 similar bacteria at the end of third hour
and dies instantly. This process continues till the end of 27th hour. Find the number of
bacteria at the end of 27th hour.

a 27!

b 27! – 26!

c 26!

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.97
In a quadrilateral ABCD, AC and BD intersect at O such that AB = 16 cm, AO = 15 cm,
OB = 5 cm, BC = 13 cm, OC = 12 cm, OD = 9 cm and CD = 15 cm. If it is given that one
of the dimensions out of AB, BC and CD is incorrect and all the other dimensions are
correct, then the incorrect dimension is

a AB

b BC

c CD
d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.98
If a × b = 25!, N = a/b and 0 < N < 1, then find the number of possible values of N.
(Given that a and b are co-prime.)

a 128

b 256

c 512

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.99
In a triangle ABC, points P and S are on the sides AB and AC respectively. Points Q, R
and T are on the sides BC. If BP : PA = 1 : 2, BQ : QR : RT : TC = 1 : 1 : 2 : 1, CS : AS
= 2 : 1, then find the ratio of the areas of triangles APR and ASR respectively.

a 2:3

b 1:3

c 4:3

d 3:4

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.100
In a 155 ml homogenous mixture of liquor, water and soda, the concentration of liquor
is highest and that of soda is least. Quantities (in ml) of Soda, water and liquor, which
are integers, are in a Geometric Progression, in the given order. 31 ml of solution is
withdrawn and replaced with liquor. Now, again 31 ml of solution is withdrawn and
replaced with water. What additional amount of water should be mixed to the solution
such that concentration of water becomes 40%?

a 25 ml

b 35 ml

c 45 ml

d 55 ml

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a