2 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

4. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. infection of Entamoeba histolytica

(1) It is a protozoan parasite of human
Chapter 17 (2) It is characterised by constipation and abdominal pain
(3) It is a parasite in small intestine of man
(4) Houseflies act as mechanical carriers and serve to transmit the parasite from faeces of infected person

Human Health and Disease to food and food products

Sol. Answer (3)
Entamoeba histolytica is a parasite of large intestine of man.

5. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding malarial infection?

Solutions
(1) Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites through the bite of freshly moulted female Anopheles
mosquito
SECTION - A (2) High fever recurring every three to four days
Objective Type Questions (3) Sporozoites initially multiply within the liver cells and then attack the RBCs resulting in their rupture

(Common Diseases in Humans) (4) When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person, these parasites enter the mosquito’s body
and undergo further development
1. Which of the following toxic substance is responsible for the chill and high fever recurring every three to four
days in malaria? Sol. Answer (1)

(1) Haemotoxin (2) Haemoglobin (3) Haemozoin (4) Sporozoites Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquito.

Sol. Answer (3) 6. Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and blockage of the intestinal passage are the common
Haemozoin– Malarial parasite digest haemoglobin and release high quantities of free heme, this free heme is symptoms of
toxic to cells and parasite convert it into an insoluble crystalline form called haemozoin. (1) Amoebiasis (2) Elephantiasis (3) Ascariasis (4) Typhoid
Haemotoxin– Toxic substances in animal's venom, such as snake's venom. Sol. Answer (3)

Haemoglobin– Iron containing metalloprotein in red blood cells. Amoebiasis– Abdominal pain, stools with excess mucus and blood clots.

Sporozoites– Infectious form of malarial parasite. Elephantiasis– Inflammation of organ in which they reside, swelling of legs, scrotum and other parts of body.
Typhoid– Sustained high fever, weakness, loss of apetite, headache, stomach pain.
2. In which of the following disorder, the alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe problems in respiration?

(1) Common cold (2) Whooping cough (3) Diphtheria (4) Pneumonia 7. Which of the following fish is introduced in pond to control or eliminate the vector responsible for the
transmission of malaria and filariasis?
Sol. Answer (4)
(1) Exocoetus (2) Pristis (3) Scoliodon (4) Gambusia
Pneumonia: It is characterised by infection of lungs. Due to filling of fluid in alveoli gas exchange cannot occur
Sol. Answer (4)
properly loading to severe problems in respiration.
Gambusia is a larvivorous fish that feeds on mosquito larvae.
3. Typhoid fever could be confirmed by
8. The use of vaccines and immunisation programmes have enabled us to completely eradicate a deadly disease
(1) Widal test (2) Mantoux test (3) Schick test (4) Dick test
like
Sol. Answer (1)
(1) Polio (2) Tetanus (3) Diphtheria (4) Small pox
Mantoux test– Tuberculosis
Sol. Answer (4)
Schick test– Diphtheria It was a deadly disease which is now completely eradicated by using vaccine discovered by Edward Jenner
Dick test– Scarlet fever in 1798.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 3 4 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

9. In the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual stages (gametocytes) begin to develop in (Immunity)
(1) Stomach of mosquito (2) Intestine of man
14. Which of the following is a non-specific type of defense that is present at the time of birth?
(3) Liver of man (4) Red blood cells of man
(1) Acquired immunity (2) Humoral immune response
Sol. Answer (4)
(3) Cell mediated immunity (4) Innate immunity
Gametocyte begin to form in RBC of man and completes its further development to form gametes as sexual
cycle in mosquito. Sol. Answer (4)

It is non-specific as it act against any type of foreign agent .

10. Out of the following diseases which are caused due to bacterial infection?
Acquired Immunity– It is pathogen specific and it initiates when a host encounters pathogen during first attack
a. Typhoid
Humoral Immunity– Type of acquired immunity– B-lymphocyte mediated in which antibodies are produced.
b. Elephantiasis
Cell mediated immunity– T-lymphocyte mediated.
c. Cholera

d. Tuberculosis 15. Acid in stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes, all prevent microbial growth belong to which of the
(1) a & b only (2) b & c only (3) a, c & d only (4) a, b, c & d following barrier?

Sol. Answer (3) (1) Physical barrier (2) Physiological barrier

Typhoid, Cholera and Tuberculosis are caused by bacteria. Elephantiasis is caused by helminth. (3) Cellular barrier (4) Cytokine barrier

Sol. Answer (2)

11. The pathogens of genera, Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible for
One of the barrier of innate immunity
(1) Botulism (2) Conjunctivitis (3) Ringworm (4) Skin allergy
Physical barrier– Skin, muscous coating of epithelium
Sol. Answer (3)
Cellular barrier– WBC– PMNL, monocytes, NK– cells
It is a fungal disease caused by Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton.
Cytokine barrier– Interferons
Botulism– (Food poisining)– Clostridium botulinum– bacterial disease.

Conjunctivitis– Viral, bacterial or an allergic reaction. 16. Which of the following immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in colostrum?
Skin Allergy– Caused by different allergens. (1) IgA (2) IgG (3) IgM (4) IgE

Sol. Answer (1)

12. The use of anti-histamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of
IgA– Colostrum is a golden liquid substance that a nursing mother expels from her breasts 24-48 hours after
(1) Fungal diseases (2) Viral diseases (3) Allergy (4) Helminthic diseases
delivery.
Sol. Answer (3)
IgG– Only antibody that can cross the placenta and confer immunity to the foetus.
Allergic reaction is due to the release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin from mast cells and use of
drugs like anti-histamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly reduces the symptom of allergy. IgE– Mediator in allergic response.

Fungal diseases, viral diseases and helminthic infections can be prevented by personal hygiene. IgM– Activates first in initial attack of antigen.

13. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease? 17. The treatment of snake bite by antivenom is an example of

(1) Asthma (2) Cirrhosis (3) AIDS (4) Rheumatoid arthritis (1) Artificially acquired passive immunity (2) Artificially acquired active immunity

Sol. Answer (4) (3) Naturally acquired active immunity (4) Naturally acquired passive immunity

Asthma– Allergic disease Sol. Answer (1)

Cirrhosis– Is a result of advanced liver disease. Because in this preformed antibodies against snake venom are directly injected into the human body.

AIDS– Caused by HIV which decreases natural immunity of the body. Artificially acquired active immunity– Includes resistance induced by vaccines.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 5 6 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

Naturally acquired passive immunity– IgA and IgG antibodies from mother to baby and foetus respectively. (Drug and Alcohol Abuse)
Naturally acquired active immunity– Acquired when antigens gain access into the body during natural infection.
22. Smoking increases ______ content in blood and reduces the concentration of haembound oxygen. Fill the
(AIDS) blank suitably

18. Human immunodeficiency virus is a/an (1) Carbon dioxide

(1) Adeno virus (2) DNA retrovirus (2) Carbaminohaemoglobin

(3) RNA retrovirus (4) Adeno retrovirus (3) Carbon monoxide

Sol. Answer (3) (4) Carboxylic acid
HIV forms DNA from RNA using reverse transcriptase. Sol. Answer (3)

19. HIV decreases natural immunity of the body by When the smoke is inhaled into lungs, CO is rapidly absorbed into blood stream and it binds to the
haemoglobin in the red blood cells 200 times more effectively than oxygen does.
(1) Destroying antibodies
(2) Destroying erythrocytes 23. Which of the following drug is extracted from the latex of poppy plant Papaver somniferum, generally taken
(3) Attacking T-lymphocytes by snorting and injection, is a depressant and slows down body functions?

(4) Attacking B-lymphocytes (1) Cocaine

Sol. Answer (3) (2) Hashish

HIV decreases the number of T-lymphocytes by attacking on it and due to this decrease the person starts (3) Barbiturate
suffering from opportunistic infections of bacteria, viruses, fungi etc.
(4) Heroin
(Cancer)
Sol. Answer (4)

20. Among the noninfectious diseases, which of the following is most common fatal diseases of human beings? Cocaine: obtained from Erythroxylum coca, generally snorted. Causes hallucinations, and has a potent effect

(1) AIDS (2) Cancer (3) Cystic fibrosis (4) Cholera on central nervous system, producing a sense of euphoria and increased energy.

Sol. Answer (2) Hashish: Obtained from Cannabis plant, taken by inhalation and oral ingestion.

AIDS– Communicable/infectious disease and fatal disease. Effects on cardiovascular system.

Cystic fibrosis– It is a genetic disorder. Barbiturates: It is a sedative.

Cholera– Communicable disease but not fatal. Used as a medicine to help patients cope with mental illness like depression, insomnia etc.

Reduces excitement by depressing the CNS activity and lowers physiological activity leading to drownsiness
21. The spread of cancerous cells to distant sites is termed as
or sleep.
(1) Metastasis (2) Metachrosis
(3) Metamorphosis (4) Metagenesis 24. Use of Cannabis products results in
Sol. Answer (1) (1) Stimulation of nervous system thus increases alertness and activity
Metastasis: It is the property of cancerous cells to spread to distant sites through blood and starting a new (2) Suppressed brain function and relief in pain
tumor formation wherever they get lodged in the body.
(3) Depressed brain activity and feeling of calmness
Metachrosis: Ability of animals to change the intensity of colour.
(4) Alteration of perception, thoughts and feelings
Metamorphosis: The process of transformation from an immature form to an adult form in two or more distinct
stages. Sol. Answer (4)

Metagenesis: Phenomenon in which polyp form of a cnidarian alternates asexually with medusoid form. Alteration of perception, thoughts and feelings are hallucinations.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 7 8 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

SECTION - B Sol. Answer (3)

Trichinella spiralis: Causes trichinosis.
Objective Type Questions
Salmonella typhimurium: Causes gastroenteritis in mammals..
(Common Diseases in Humans)
1. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. common cold Xenopsylla: Act as a vector in transmitting plague pathogen Yersinia pestis.

(1) Rhinovirus causes common cold 6. A person who met with road accident is likely to develop tetanus he is immunised by administering
(2) Rhinovirus infects the nose, respiratory passage and lungs
(1) Weakened germs
(3) Common cold is characterised by nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough,
(2) Dead germs
headache, tiredness etc.
(3) Preformed antibodies
(4) Droplets resulting from cough or sneezes of an infected person are inhaled directly or transmitted through
contaminated objects and can cause infection in a healthy person (4) Wide spectrum antibiotics

Sol. Answer (2) Sol. Answer (3)

Rhinovirus infects nose and respiratory passage but not lungs. Preformed antibodies are injected in such injury as pathogen i.e., Clostridium tetani produces a neurotoxin-
tetanospasmin and a quick response is required to stop the action of antigen which is not done by the
2. Intestinal perforation is the characteristic symptom of formation of our own antibodies as it takes time.
(1) Pneumonia (2) Plague (3) Typhoid (4) Pertussis
Weakened germs and dead germs are used in vaccine to develop immunity against them.
Sol. Answer (3)
Wide spectrum antibiotics is used when a person is suffering from many diseases or infections but not for a
In severe cases intestinal perforation and death may occur in typhoid. single disease/infection.
Pneumonia: fever, chills, cough and headache. (Immunity)
Plague: High fever, lump in the groin or the armpit, red patches on skin.
7. Antigen binding site in an antibody is formed by
Pertussis: Mild fever, nasal congestion, sneezing, nasal discharge.
(1) Two light chains
3. Wuchereria bancrofti, the filarial worm that causes elephantiasis belongs to phylum
(2) Two heavy chains
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes
(3) One heavy and one light chain
(3) Coelenterate (4) Arthropoda
(4) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain depending upon the nature of
Sol. Answer (2) antigen
Sol. Answer (3)
4. Recently chikungunya and dengue cases were reported from various parts of the country. Choose the correct
vector responsible for these diseases Antigen binding site is constituted by variable region of light chain and heavy chain.

(1) Anopheles mosquito (2) Xenopsylla (Rat flea)

8. Mark the correct statement
(3) Culex mosquito (4) Aedes mosquito
(1) The anamnestic response against a pathogen is highly intensified
Sol. Answer (4)
(2) The T-lymphocytes produce antibodies
Culex mosquito– Vector of Wuchereria bancrofti which causes Elephantiasis.
(3) The B-lymphocytes produce cell mediated response
Xenopsylla– Vector of Yersinia pestis which causes plague.
(4) An antibody is represented by H2L4
Anopheles mosquito– Vector of Plasmodium which causes malaria.
Sol. Answer (1)
5. Which of the following causes plague? B-lymphocytes produce antibodies
(1) Trichinella spiralis (2) Salmonella typhimurium T-lymphoctes produce cell mediated response.
(3) Yersinia pestis (4) Xenopsylla An antibody is represented by H2L2.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 9 10 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

9. Which of the following will be included under innate immunity? (AIDS)

(1) Mucus membranes (2) Interferons
14. The caustative organism of AIDS spreads by
(3) Natural killer cells (4) All of these
(1) Sharing infected needles and syringes
Sol. Answer (4)
These all are different barriers under innate immunity. (2) Transfusion of infected blood

Mucus membrane– Physical barrier (3) Unsafe sexual relationships

Interferons– Cytokine barrier (4) All of these

Natural Killer cells– Cellular barrier Sol. Answer (4)
AIDS is a fatal communicable/infectious disease.
10. Artificial active immunity can be acquired from
(1) Serious illness (Cancer)

(2) Vaccination 15. Cancer is caused by

(3) Repeated exposure to the some microbes
(1) Rupturing of cells (2) Uncontrolled meiosis
(4) Treatment with penicillin
(3) Uncontrolled mitosis (4) Loss of immunity of the cells
Sol. Answer (2)
Sol. Answer (3)
Repeated exposure to the same microbes or illness develops natural active immunity.
Cancerous cells undergo abnormal and uncontrolled division of cells due to breakdown of regulatory mechanism.
11. One of the inflammatory reaction induced by histamine is Cancer cells do not show the property of contact inhibition (cells when in contact with each other inhibit their
(1) Vasoconstriction of blood vessels (2) Vasodilation of blood vessels uncontrolled growth)

(3) Decreased vascular permeability (4) Accelerated blood clotting Cells are not rupturing.
Sol. Answer (2) Meiosis is reduction division
Presence of histamine in blood causes vasodilation of blood vessels which leads to a decrease in blood Cells do not lose immunity, they combine to form tumors.
pressure drastically often resulting into death.
Histamine increases the permeability of the blood vessels. 16. Oncogene is another name for
(1) Inducer gene (2) Jumping gene (3) Structural gene (4) Cancer causing gene
12. Blood cells involved in inflammatory reactions are
Sol. Answer (4)
(1) Basophils (2) Neutrophils (3) Eosinophils (4) Monocytes
Cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto-oncogenes have been identified in normal cells. Which when activated under
Sol. Answer (1) certain conditions, could lead to oncogenic transformation of the cells.
Basophils: They release histamine and are found in tissues where allergic reactions are occurring and
Cancer causing virus called oncogenic virus have genes called viral oncogenes.
contribute to the severity of these reactions.
Inducer gene: A molecule that regulate gene expression.
Neutrophils: Are phagocytic cells.
Eosinophils: Are important mediator in allergic responses. Jumping genes: Genes that can change their position within the genome.

Monocyte: At site of infection it differentiates into macrophage to elicit an immune response. Structural gene: Genes that codes for any RNA or protein product other than a regulatory protein.

13. The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to 17. The blood cancer is also known as

(1) Thymus (2) Thyroid (3) Thalamus (4) Tonsil (1) Haemolysis (2) Haemophilia (3) Leukaemia (4) Thrombosis

Sol. Answer (1) Sol. Answer (3)

T-lymphocytes mature in thymus. Because it involves proliferation of cell types present in blood and their percursors in bone marrow.
Thyroid: It is an endocrine gland and it produces hormone T3 & T4. Hemolysis: Rupturing of erythrocytes and release of their content.
Thalamus: It is situated between cerebral cortex and midbrain. Act as a relay organ. Haemophilia: Is a genetic disorder that impair the body's ability to control blood clotting.
Tonsil: Lymphoid tissue. Thrombosis: Is the formation of a blood lot.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 11 12 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

(Drug and Alcohol Abuse)

SECTION - C
18. Read the following statements Previous Years Questions
a. Heroin, commonly called smack, is obtained by acetylation of morphine. 1. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease? [NEET-2018]
b. Cocaine is obtained from the latex of Papaver somniferum. (1) Psoriasis (2) Rheumatoid arthritis (3) Vitiligo (4) Alzheimer's disease

c. Dopamine is excitatory neurotransmitter. Sol. Answer (4)

Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder in which antibodies are produced against the synovial membrane
d. Morphine is an effective sedative and pain killer.
and cartilage.
Mark the option which includes both correct statement
Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also characterised as autoimmune disorder.
(1) a & b (2) b & c (3) c & d (4) a & d Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy or sore patches of thick red skin and is also autoimmune whereas
Sol. Answer (4) Alzheimer's disease is due to deficiency of neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
2. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
Both (a) & (d) statements are correct.
[NEET-2018]
b. Is wrong because cocaine is obtained from Erythroxylum coca.
(1) Elephantiasis (2) Ascariasis (3) Amoebiasis (4) Ringworm disease
c. Is wrong because dopamine is inhibitory neurotransmitter. Sol. Answer (1)
Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm, Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by Culex mosquito.
19. L.S.D. is
3. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug “Smack”? [NEET-2018]
(1) Hallucinogenic (2) Sedative (3) Stimulant (4) Tranquiliser
(1) Flowers (2) Latex (3) Leaves (4) Roots
Sol. Answer (1) Sol. Answer (2)
Hallucinogens change one's behaviour, thoughts, feelings and perceptions without any actual sensory stimulus. ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is formed by acetylation of morphine. It is obtained from the latex
of unripe capsule of Poppy plant.
Sedative: Barbiturate and benzodiazepines – Depress brain activity and produce feelings of calmness,
relaxation, drowsiness and deep sleep. 4. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of
immune-response is responsible for such rejections? [NEET-2017]
Stimulant: Caffeine, cocaine, amphetamines– Stimulate nervous system, increases alertness, produce (1) Autoimmune response (2) Cell-mediated immune response
excitement.
(3) Hormonal immune response (4) Physiological immune response
Tranquilisers: Benzodiazepines– Act as anti-depressants. Sol. Answer (2)
Non-acceptance or rejection of graft or transplanted tissues/organs is due to cell mediated immune response.
20. Tick mark the incorrect match with respect to the drug, source and its action.
5. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column - I) with their causative agent (Column - II) and select
the correct option. [NEET-2017]
Durg Source Action
(1) Smack Latex of poppy Depressant slows
Column - I Column- II
plant Papaver down body functions (a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
somniferum
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
(2) Cocaine Sense of euphoria
and increased (c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
energy (d) AIDS (iv) Human Papilloma virus
(3) Coke Atropa Hallucinations
belladona
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Hashish Cannabis Hallucinations, affects Sol. Answer (1)
sativa cardiovascular system Gonorrhoea – Neisseria (Bacteria)
Sol. Answer (3) Syphilis – Treponema (Bacteria)
Genital Warts – Human papilloma virus (Virus)
Drug Source Action
AIDS – HIV (Virus)
Coke Erythroxylum coca Hallucinations
6. MALT constitutes about ___________ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body [NEET-2017]
Rest all options are correct. (1) 50% (2) 20% (3) 70% (4) 10%

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 13 14 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

Sol. Answer (1) 12. Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers [NEET-2016]

MALT is Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue and it constitutes about 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue in (1) Methane (2) Nitrous oxide
human body. (3) Ozone (4) Ammonia
7. Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria? [NEET(Phase-2)-2016] Sol. Answer (3)
(1) Cholera and tetanus (2) Typhoid and smallpox Ozone is found in the upper part of the atmosphere called stratosphere and it acts as a shield absorbing
ultraviolet radiation from sun and so its depletion can lead to incidence of skin cancers.
(3) Tetanus and mumps (4) Herpes and influenza
13. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to [Re-AIPMT-2015]
Sol. Answer (1)
(1) Innate immune response (2) Humoral immune response
Cholera is caused by a bacterium Vibrio cholerae and tetanus is caused by a bacterium Clostridium tetani.
(3) Cell-mediated immune response (4) Passive immune response
8. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV? [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
Sol. Answer (3)
(1) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse Cell mediated immunity (CMI) is responsible for graft rejection.
transcriptase
14. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you look for
(2) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules confirmatory evidence? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
of reverse transcriptase
(1) Serum globulins (2) Fibrinogen in plasma
(3) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus
(3) Serum albumins (4) Haemocytes
(4) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response
Sol. Answer (1)
Sol. Answer (2)
Antibodies are present in serum. They are glycoproteins and also called gammaglobulins synthesized in lymph
Causative agent of AIDS is HIV which is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of ssRNA and nodes.
two molecules of reverse transcriptase. 15. Which of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?
9. Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations? [NEET-2016] [Re-AIPMT-2015]

(1) Mutations inhibit production of telomerase (1) IgG (2) IgD (3) IgM (4) IgA
Sol. Answer (4)
(2) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle
IgA is present in external body secretion including colostrum and milk. They provide naturally acquired passive
(3) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
immunity to child.
(4) Mutations inactivate the cell control 16. Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine [AIPMT-2015]
Sol. Answer (1) Column-I Column-II
Cancerous cells have high telomerase activity. Telomerase inhibitors are used in cancer treatment. a. Tuberculosis (i) Harmless virus
10. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain b. Whooping cough (ii) Inactivated toxin
[NEET-2016]
c. Diphtheria (iii) Killed bacteria
(1) Attenuated pathogens (2) Activated pathogens d. Polio (iv) Harmless bacteria
(3) Harvested antibodies (4) Gamma globulin (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
Sol. Answer (1) Sol. Answer (4)
Oral polio vaccine consists of attenuated pathogen. Tuberculosis vaccine BCG contains inactivated bacteria.
11. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due In DPT, contains killed pathogen of Bordetella pertussis which causes whooping cough.
to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to [NEET-2016] In DPT diphtheria toxoid is present. Sabin polio vaccine contains inactivated virus.
(1) Active immunity (2) Allergic response 17. Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male? [AIPMT-2015]
(3) Graft rejection (4) Auto-immune disease (1) Ebola virus (2) Hepatitis B virus
Sol. Answer (4) (3) Human immunodeficiency virus (4) Chikungunya virus
In autoimmune diseases, the immune cells are unable to distinguish between self cells and non-self cells and Sol. Answer (4)
attack self cells. Chikungunya is caused by Arbovirus and transmitted through the bite of Aedes mosquito.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 15 16 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

18. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying [AIPMT-2015] 24. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by [NEET-2013]
(1) Thrombocytes (2) B lymphocytes (3) Leucocytes (4) Helper T lymphocytes (1) Eating imperfectly cooked pork (2) Tse-tse fly
Sol. Answer (4)
(3) Mosquito bite (4) Drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris
Macrophages are HIV factory, not destroyed by AIDS virus. HIV destroys Helper-T-cells, because after
replication the virus is released by lysis of the cell. Sol. Answer (4)
19. Which of the following is not one of the prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through the 25. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by [NEET-2013]
atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) B lymphocytes (2) Thrombocytes (3) Eythrocytes (4) T lymphocytes
(1) Increased liver cancer (2) Increased skin cancer
Sol. Answer (4)
(3) Reduced Immune System (4) Damage to eyes
Sol. Answer (1) 26. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
Liver cancer can be caused due to aflatoxin (released by Aspergillus fungus), Vinyl chloride but UV-rays do
not cause cancer of liver. (1) Myasthenia gravis - Auto immune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
20. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon [AIPMT-2015] (2) Gout - Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium
(1) Blood only (2) Erythrocytes; mucosa and submucosa of colon
(3) Muscular dystrophy - Age related shortening of muscles
(3) Mucosa and submucosa of colon only (4) Food in intestine
(4) Osteoporosis - Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age
Sol. Answer (2)
Entamoeba histolytica is present in the colon, feeds on mucosa and submucosa and can also phagocytose Sol. Answer (4)
RBCs.
27. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
21. Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but
(1) Morchella esculenta (2) Amanita muscaria (3) Neurospora sp. (4) Ustilago sp.
not the lungs
Sol. Answer (2)
Amanita muscaria is noted for its hallucinogenic properties, with its main psychoactive constituent being the (2) Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease
compound muscimol.
(3) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has no
22. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below? effective vaccine
[AIPMT-2014]
(4) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus
influenzae

Sol. Answer (1)

Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not
the lungs.

28. Widal Test is carried out to test [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Typhoid fever (2) Malaria

(3) Diabetes mellitus (4) HIV/AIDS

(1) Hallucinogen (2) Depressant (3) Stimulant (4) Pain killer
Sol. Answer (1) Sol. Answer (1)
The given diagram is flowering branch of Datura. 29. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
23. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Cocaine (2) Opium
(1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
(2) When the infected retro virus enters host cells (3) Alcohol (4) Tobacco (Chewing)
(3) When HIV damages large number of helper T lymphocytes Sol. Answer (3)
(4) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
With continued alcohol intake, there is destruction of hepatocytes and fibroblasts (cells which form fibres) and
Sol. Answer (3) stimulation of collagen protein formation. This leads to Cirrhosis (liver damage from a variety of causes/
Fall in number of helper T-lymphocytes causes lowering of immunity. replacement of liver cells by fibrosis and lumps that occur due to attempted repair of damaged tissue) of liver.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 17 18 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

30. Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are? 34. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012] CH3
O
N CH3 OH
(1) They show contact inhibition
O
(2) They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients
H
(3) They do not remain confined in the area of formation (a) O (b) OH

(4) They divide in an uncontrolled manner H O

Sol. Answer (1) Options : [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
They do not show contact inhibition. Contact inhibition is a properly of normal cells in which dividing cells Molecule Source Use
when in contact with other cells are inhibited for their uncontrolled growth.
(1) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Accelerates the transport of dopamine
31. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(2) (b) Heroin Cannabis sativa Depressant and slows down body functions
(1) Human liver (2) Gut of female Anopheles
(3) (b) Cannabinoid Atropa belladona Produces hallucinations
(3) Salivary glands of Anopheles (4) Human RBCs
(4) (a) Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and pain killer
Sol. Answer (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Gamete formation starts in human RBC's but rest process continues in Anopheles (female) from mouth gametes
enters into stomach and reproduce sexually to produce zygote. (a) is morphine (b) is cannabinoid molecule

32. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of 35. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
immunity? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012] (1) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B lymphocytes
Examples Type of immunity (2) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake
(1) Mucus coating of epithelium lining the urinogenital – Physiological barriers (3) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T lymphocytes
tract and the HCl in stomach
(4) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains
(2) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes – Cellular barriers
Sol. Answer (2)
(3) Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injections – Active immunity Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.
(4) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes – Physical barriers (2) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by B-lymphocytes.
Sol. Answer (2) (3) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has 2 heavy chain and 2 light chains.
The corrected match are: (4) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of T-lymphocytes.
(1) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes– Physiological barriers. 36. Read the following statements (A-D)
(2) Mucus coating of epithelium lining the urinogenital tract– Physical barrier. (A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigens.
(3) Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injections– Passive immunity. (B) Chikungunya is caused by a Gram negative bacterium.
33. Which one of the following sets of items in the options 1-4 are correctly categorised with one exception in (C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-free plants.
it? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented grape juice.
Items Category Exception How many of the above statement is/are wrong? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) UAA, UAG, UGA Stop codons UAG (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One

(2) Kangaroo, Koala, Wombat Australian marsupials Wombat Sol. Answer (2)
Corrected statements:
(3) Plasmodium, Cuscuta, Trypanosoma Protozoan parasites Cuscuta
(1) Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antibodies.
(4) Typhoid, Pneumonia, Diphtheria Bacterial diseases Diphtheria
(3) Chikungunya is caused by a virus.
Sol. Answer (3) (4) Beer is manufactured without distillation of fermented grape juice.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 19 20 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

37. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of microorganisms in human body? 42. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Caused by a Gram-negative bacterium (2) Not an infectious disease
(1) Skin (2) Epithelium of urogenital tract
(3) Caused by a virus (4) Caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
(3) Tears (4) Monocytes
Sol. Answer (3)
Sol. Answer (3)
Antibiotics are taken against bacterial infections not against viral infections.
38. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
Common cold is an infectious disease.
(1) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
43. Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism and
(2) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito mode of infection [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(3) Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering form malaria Disease Causative Organisms Mode of Infection
(4) Spleen of infected humans (1) Elephantiasis Wuchereria bancrofti With infected water and food
Sol. Answer (2) (2) Malaria Plasmodium vivax Bite of male Anopheles mosquito
Salivary glands of infected female Anopheles mosquito contains sporozoites. (3) Typhoid Salmonella typhi With inspired air
Life cycle of malaria takes place in liver and RBC of human not in spleen. (4) Pneumonia Streptococcus pneumoniae Droplet infection
39. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering form Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. Which diagnostic
Sol. Answer (4)
technique will you recommend for its detection? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
44. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same Kingdom of
(1) WIDAL (2) ELISA (3) MRI (4) Ultrasound
organisms as that of [AIPMT(Mains)-2011]
Sol. Answer (2)
(1) Rhizopus, a mould (2) Ascaris, a round worm
Enzyme linked immuno sorbent assay– Test that uses antibodies and colour change to identify HIV (antigen).
(3) Taenia, a tapeworm (4) Wuchereria, a filarial worm
WIDAL– Typhoid
Sol. Answer (1)
MRI– Magnetic Resonance Imaging– Cancer.
45. Select the correct statement from the ones given below: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
Ultrasound– Used in medical imaging (visual representation of interior of body).
40. Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and immunisation [AIPMT (Mains)-2011] (1) Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth

(1) Certain protozoans have been used to mass produce hepatitis B vaccine (2) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer.

(2) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunisation (3) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate

(3) If due to some reason B and T lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against (4) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery
a pathogen
Sol. Answer (2)
(4) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens causes passive immunity
46. Ringworm in humans is caused by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
Sol. Answer (3)
(1) Viruses (2) Bacteria (3) Fungi (4) Nematodes
41. Read the following statement having two blanks (A and B).
Sol. Answer (3)
“A drug used for (A) patients is obtained from a species of the organism (B) .”
Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton are fungi causing ring worm.
The one correct option for the two blanks is [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
Blank-A Blank-B 47. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Swine flu Monascus (1) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers

(2) AIDS Pseudomonas (2) The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person
(3) Heart Penicillium (3) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection
(4) Organ transplant Trichoderma (4) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per cent with proper care and nutrition
Sol. Answer (4) Sol. Answer (1)

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 21 22 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

48. Fastest distribution of some injectible material/ medicine and with no risk of any kind can be achieved by 54. Alzheimer disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
injecting it into the [AIPMT (Mains)-2010] (1) Glutamic acid (2) Acetylcholine
(1) Muscles (2) Arteries (3) Veins (4) Lymph vessels (3) Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) (4) Dopamine
Sol. Answer (3) Sol. Answer (2)

49. Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancers? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010] 55. Which one of the following statements is correct ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Benign tumours show the property of metastasis.
(1) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (2) Radiography (X-ray)
(2) Heroin accelerates body functions.
(3) Computed tomography (CT) (4) Histopathological studies
(3) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis.
Sol. Answer (1)
(4) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain.
50. A person suffering from a disease caused by Plasmodium, experiences recurring chill and fever at the time Sol. Answer (3)
when? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
56. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick relief from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) The sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen
(1) Nausea (2) Cough (3) Headache (4) Allergy
(2) The trophozoites reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins
Sol. Answer (4)
(3) The parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the stage to enter fresh 57. To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes, belong?
RBCs [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(4) The microgametocytes and megagametocytes are being destroyed by the WBCs (1) Physical barriers (2) Cytokine barriers (3) Cellular barriers (4) Physiological barriers
Sol. Answer (3) Sol. Answer (4)
51. Which one of the following cannot be used for preparation of vaccines against plague?[AIPMT (Mains)-2010] 58. Match the disease in Column I with the appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/treatment) in Column II
(1) Formalin-inactivated suspensions of virulent bacteria [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(2) Avirulent live bacteria Column I Column II

(3) Synthetic capsular polysaccharide material a. Amoebiasis (i) Treponema palladium

(4) Heat-killed suspensions of virulent bacteria b. Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized food and water
Sol. Answer (3) c. Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine
52. Consider the following four statements (a–d) regarding kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out d. Syphilis (iv) Use oral rehydration therapy
of these.
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
a. Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take immuno-suppresants for a long
time. (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
b. The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection. Sol. Answer (1)
c. The B lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft.
59. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
d. The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons. [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
The two correct statements are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010] (1) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria
(1) a & b (2) b & c (3) c & d (4) a & c
(2) Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
Sol. Answer (1)
(3) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations
Corrected statements are:
(4) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions
c. The T-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft.
Sol. Answer (2)
d. The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on matching of tissue.
The corrected statments are:
53. A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Preformed antibodies (2) Wide spectrum antibiotics (1) Barbiturates depresses brain activity and produce feeling of calmness, relaxation.

(3) Weakened germs (4) Dead germs (3) Opium suppresses brain function and produce temporary euphoria.
Sol. Answer (1) (4) Morphine relieve pain and called analgesic.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 23 24 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

60. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008] 69. Aggregates of lymphoid tissue present in the distal portion of the small intestine are known as
(1) It is a non-living layer (2) Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria (1) Villi (2) Peyer's patches
(3) It has no blood supply (4) It is composed of enucleated cells (3) Rugae (4) Choroid plexus
Sol. Answer (3) Sol. Answer (2)
61. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] Villi– small, finger- like projections that protrude from thee epithelial lining of intestinal wall.
(1) 45–70 MHz (2) 30–45 MHz (3) 15–30 MHz (4) 1–15 MHz Rugae– large folds in the mucous membrane.

Sol. Answer (4) Choroid plexus– is a plexus in the ventricles of the brain where cerebrospinal fluid is produced.

62. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007] 70. Which of the following is not the main function of lymph glands?

(1) Most virus-infected cells (2) Certain fungi (1) Forming RBC (2) Destroying bacteria

(3) Certain types of bacteria (4) All viruses (3) Forming WBC (4) Forming antibodies

Sol. Answer (3) Sol. Answer (1)

63. A person showing upredictable moods, outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others RBCs are formed in bone marrow.
is suffering from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006] Lymph glands serve to trap micro-organisms or other antigens which are present in lymph and tissues fluid.
(1) Schizophrenia (2) Borderline personality disorder (BPD) These antigens activate lymphocytes which destroy these antigens.
71. Which one of the following is important as one of the first line of defence against inhaled and ingested
(3) Mood disorders (4) Addictive disorders
pathogen?
Sol. Answer (2)
(1) IgA (2) IgG (3) IgM (4) IgD
64. Antibodies in our body are complex [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
Sol. Answer (1)
(1) Lipoproteins (2) Steroids (3) Prostaglandins (4) Glycoproteins
It is the main immunoglobulin found in mucous secretions, tears, saliva, sweat, colostrum and secretions from
Sol. Answer (4) urinogenital tract, gastro genital tract, prostate and respiratory epithelium, which are all physical and
physiological barriers of innate immunity.
65. Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s chorea are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
72. Saline solution is given to patients of cholera because
(1) Bacteria-related diseases (2) Congenital disorders
(1) Na+ prevents water loss from body (2) NaCl function as regulatory material
(3) Pollutant-induced disorders (4) Virus-related diseases
(3) NaCl produces energy (4) NaCl is antibacterial
Sol. Answer (2)
Sol. Answer (1)
66. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
As Na+ is solute and it retains solvent in the body thus preventing loss of water from the body.
(1) All lymphocytes (2) Activator B cells
73. Interferons are synthesized in response to
(3) T4 lymphocytes (4) Cytotoxic T cells
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Bacteria
Sol. Answer (3)
(3) Viruses (4) Fungi
67. Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produces feelings of calmness, relaxation and
Sol. Answer (3)
drowsiness? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
Interferons stimulate synthesis of anti-viral proteins. So they are used to control viral diseases but they do not
(1) Valium (2) Morphine (3) Hashish (4) Amphetamines
kill the virus.
Sol. Answer (1) 74. The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated disease is
68. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused by virus? (1) Decreased efficiency of the immune system
(1) Rabies, mumps (2) Cholera, tuberculosis (2) Insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics
(3) Typhoid, tetanus (4) AIDS, syphilis (3) Development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics
Sol. Answer (1) (4) Activation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes
Rabies– Rhabdo virus, Mumps– Paramyxo virus Cholera, Tuberculosis, Typhoid, tetanus, syphilis are caused Sol. Answer (3)
by bacteria. Antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria medicated disease because due to continuous exposure
AIDS caused by HIV virus. to antibiotics bacteria develops resistance against these antibiotics by undergoing mutations.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 25 26 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

75. Carcinoma refers to 81. Mark the incorrect statement

(1) Malignant tumours of the connective tissue (1) Opioids are the drugs which bind to opioid receptors present in our central nervous system and
(2) Malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane gastrointestinal tract
(3) Malignant tumours of the bone (2) Cocaine is obtained from coca plant Erythroxylum coca
(4) Benign tumours of the connective tissue
(3) Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the inflorescence of the plant Cannabis sativa
Sol. Answer (2)
(4) LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamide) is most powerful hallucinogen extracted from Papaver somniferum
Carcinoma refers to malignant tumours of epithelial tissue derived from ectoderm.
76. A metastatic cancerous tumour is termed ‘sarcoma’ if the disorder is in Sol. Answer (4)

(1) Fibroblasts (2) Circulatory system (3) Immune system (4) Epithelial cells LSD shows hallucinogenic properties and is obtained from Claviceps purpurea (fruiting body of fungus).
Sol. Answer (1) 82. Which one of the following sets of items in the options (1) - (4) are incorrectly categorised with one exception
in it?
Sarcomas are malignant growths arising in tissues derived from primitive mesoderm.
Fibroblasts are mesodermal in origin. Items Category Exception

77. Human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) has a protein coat and a genetic material which is (1) PMNL, Interferons, NK cells Cellular barrier Interferons

(1) Double stranded RNA (2) Double stranded DNA

(2) Rheumatoid arthritis, Myasthenia gravis, AIDS Auto-immune disorders AIDS
(3) Single stranded DNA (4) Single stranded RNA
(3) Plasmodium, Trypanosoma Entamoeba Protozoan parasites Entamoeba
Sol. Answer (4)
(4) Typhoid, Pneumonia, Dengue Bacterial diseases Dengue
Two single stranded molecules of RNA are found in HIV.
78. Which of the following is a viral glycoprotein that plays a role in the infection of human cells by HIV? Sol. Answer (3)
(1) gp 120 (2) CD4 (3) CCR5 (4) Both (1) & (3) Entamoeba is also a protozoan parasite. Interferons are cytokine barriers
Sol. Answer (1) AIDS is not an auto-immune disorder Dengue is a viral disease
gp 120 is viral glycoprotein 83. Which of the following organisation is mainly related with AIDS?
It interacts with CD4+ receptor of the host cell. (1) NACO (2) DOTS (3) RCH (4) WHO
CCR5 acts as a co-receptor. Sol. Answer (1)
79. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (1) NACO : National AIDS control Organisation
(1) The antigen binding site of the antibody molecule is called ‘paratope’ (2) DOTS : Tuberculosis– Directly observed Treatment Short-course.
(2) Toxoids provide with passive immunity (3) RCH : Reproductive and child health care programme– main aim to reduce infant, child and maternal
(3) ‘ATS’ anti-tetanus serum provides us with artificially induced passive immunity mortality rates.

(4) The first gene therapy was done for SCID in which the gene for the enzyme adenosine deaminase was (4) WHO : World Health Organization– Concerned with public health.
introduced 84. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother’s milk to the infant
Sol. Answer (2) is categorised as

Toxoids (inactive toxins) provide active immunity. (1) Active immunity (2) Passive immunity

80. The modern idea about ageing is that our body slowly loses the power of defence against the invasion of germs (3) Cellular immunity (4) Innate non-specific immunity
and pathogens. This process starts by the disappearance of which organ? Sol. Answer (2)
(1) Pituitary gland (2) Spleen (3) Thymus gland (4) Parathyroid gland As readymade antibodies move across the placenta from mother to foetus.
Sol. Answer (3) Active immunity– When antibodies are produced in host body itself.
Thymus provides an inductive environment for development of T-cells. Thymus begins atrophy (partial or complete Cellular immunity: Immunity mediated by different type cells in body.
wasting away of a part of the body) with age which slows down the power of defence against the invasion of
Innate non-specific immunity: Immunity present at the time of birth.
germs.
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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 27 28 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

85. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals? 4. A : Vaccine against AIDS has not been made inspite of repeated attempts.
(1) There are three main types - cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells R : HIV has the ability to get mutated to form several subtypes.
(2) These originate in secondary lymphoid tissues Sol. Answer (1)
(3) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris
5. A : Antibiotics like penicillin can be used to treat common cold.
(4) These are produced in thyroid R : Penicillin causes lysis of viral cells.
Sol. Answer (1) Sol. Answer (4)
This is true about T-cells in mammals. Antibiotics like penicillin are taken against bacterial disease and common cold is viral disease.
The corrected statements are: Penicillin causes lysis of bacterial cells not viral cells.
(2) These originate in primary lymphoid tissues (bone marrow)
6. A : It is considered advantageous to give the polio vaccine orally.
(3) Phagocytic cells like monocytes scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris.
R : It prevents reinfection by causing intestinal immunity.
(4) These get mature in thymus.
Sol. Answer (1)
86. Which of the following pairs of diseases is viral as well as transmitted by mosquitoes?
7. A : Typhoid carriers may be cured by surgical removal of their gall bladder.
(1) Elephantiasis and dengue (2) Yellow fever and sleeping sickness
R : The disease germs remain concentrated in it.
(3) Encephalitis and sleeping sickness (4) Yellow fever and dengue
Sol. Answer (1)
Sol. Answer (4) The bacteria of typhoid remain in gall bladder.
Yellow fever and dengue are caused by virus and transmitted by Aedes mosquito.
8. A : Cancer is contagious and cells can spread from one person to other.
Elephantiasis : Helminthic disease, transmitted by Culex mosquito.
R : Cancerous cells are highly dedifferentiated cells.
Sleeping sickness : Protozoan disease, transmitted by tse-tse fly.
Sol. Answer (4)
87. Identify the incorrectly matched pair
Cancer is not contagious and cells do not spread from one person to other.
(1) Plague – Viral diseases (2) Malignant malaria – Plasmodium falciparum
(3) Common cold – Rhino virus (4) Trichophyton – Ring worm 9. A : A person who has received a cut accidentally and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus treatment.
Sol. Answer (1) R : Anti-tetanus injection provides active immunity by providing preformed antibodies for tetanus.
Corrected is: Plague: Bacterial disease Sol. Answer (3)
A person who has received a cut accident and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus treatment because
SECTION - D antigen causing tetanus may have entered the body against which preformed antibodies have to be injected
to avoid the effect of antigen.
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
Anti-tetanus injection provides passive immunity by providing preformed antibodies for tetanus.
1. A : Live attenuated vaccine is better in terms of immunity provided to the recipient.
R : As secondary lymphoid organs, example peyer's patches are stimulated to protect the individual. 10. A : LSD and marijuana are clinically used as analgesics.
Sol. Answer (1) R : Both these drugs suppress brain function.
2. A : Asthma patients must never be exposed to dust. Sol. Answer (4)
R : Allergic response may cause vasoconstriction and death. LSD and marijuana are hallucinogens.
Sol. Answer (4) Both these drugs do not suppress brain function instead they alter thoughts, feelings and perceptions.

Asthma patients can be exposed to dust but they should avoid exposure to dust as it can act as an allergen.
Allergic response may cause vasodilation and death. ‰ ‰ ‰
3. A : Colostrum is a very efficient means of transferring immunity to a newborn.
R : IgM from mother’s milk protects the baby from the respiratory infection usually affecting in young age.
Sol. Answer (3)
Colostrum is very efficient means of transferring immunity to new born because it has abundant antibodies (IgA)
to protect the infant.
IgA from mother's milk protects the baby from the respiratory infection usually affecting in young age.

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456 Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456