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Solved MAT 2004 Paper With Solutions

The document provides instructions and questions for a data analysis and sufficiency practice test. It includes 22 multiple choice questions with statements and quantitative data related to topics like geometry, statistics, profit analysis, and graph and data interpretation. The correct answers to each question are also given.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
207 views61 pages

Solved MAT 2004 Paper With Solutions

The document provides instructions and questions for a data analysis and sufficiency practice test. It includes 22 multiple choice questions with statements and quantitative data related to topics like geometry, statistics, profit analysis, and graph and data interpretation. The correct answers to each question are also given.

Uploaded by

Anshuman Narang
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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MAT 2004

All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, distributed, or


transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying,
recording or otherwise, or stored in any retrieval system of any nature without the
permission of cracku.in, application for which shall be made to [email protected]

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Data Analysis & Sufficiency
Instructions

Each item is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each question using the following Options :

Question 1

A rectangular floor that is 4 metres wide is to be completely covered with squaretiles, each with the side
of length 0.25 metre. What is the least number of suchtiles required?
A. The length of the floor is three times the width.
B. The area of the floor is 48 square metres.

A If the question can be answered by one of the statements alone and not by the other.

B If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either
C
statement alone.

D If the question cannot be answered evenby using both the statements together.

Answer: B

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Question 2

Each student in a class of 40 students voted for exactly one of the three candidates A, B or C for the post
of class representative. Did candidate A receive the maximum votes from the 40 votes cast?
A. Candidate A received 11 of the votes
B. Candidate C received 14 of the votes

A If the question can be answered by one of the statements alone and not by the other.

B If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either
C
statement alone.

D If the question cannot be answered evenby using both the statements together.

Answer: A

Question 3

I1 , I2 and I3 are lines in a plane. Is I1 perpendicular to I3 ?


A. I1 is perpendicular to I2

B. I2 is perpendicular to I3

A If the question can be answered by one of the statements alone and not by the other.

B If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either
C
statement alone.

D If the question cannot be answered evenby using both the statements together.

Answer: C

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Question 4

Was 70 the average grade on a class test?


A. On the test, half of the class had grades below 70 and half of the class had grades above 70.
B. The lowest grade on the test was 45 and the highest grade on the test was 95.

A If the question can be answered by one of the statements alone and not by the other.

B If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either
C
statement alone.

D If the question cannot be answered evenby using both the statements together.

Answer: D

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Question 5

If x is an integer, then what is the value of x2 ?


1 1 1
A. ( 5 ) < ( (x+1) ) < ( 2 )

B. (x − 3)(x − 4) = 0

A If the question can be answered by one of the statements alone and not by the other.

B If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either
C
statement alone.

D If the question cannot be answered evenby using both the statements together.

Answer: C

Instructions

Refer to the given line graph and the pie charts to answer these questions:

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Question 6

How many hectares of FSI has been distributed between 1994-2002?

A 3,00,500

B 2,77,500

C 6,57,000

D 9,00,000

Answer: D

Question 7

How many years witnessed a decline in FNI and an increase in FSI?

A 2

B 3

C 4

D 5

Answer: A

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Question 8

During 1994-2002, the greatest proportion of FNI was put to commercial use in

A 1994

B 1996

C 1999

D 2002

Answer: D

Instructions

Study the information given below to answer these questions:

Investing in real estate would be a profitable venture at this time. A survey in House magazine revealed that 85% of
the magazine's readers are planning to buy a second home over the next few years. A study of the real estate
industry, however, revealed that the current supply or homes could only provide for 65%of that demand each year.

Question 9

Which of the following, if true, reveals a weakness in the evidence cited above?

A Real estate is a highly labour-intensive business.

B Home builders are not eventy distributed across the country.

C The number of people who want second homeshas been increasing each year for the past 10 years.

D Readers of House magazine are morelikely than most people to want second homes.

Answer: A

Question 10

Which of the following, if true, would undermine the validity of the investment advice in the paragraph
above?

A Some home-owners are satisfied with only one home.

B About half of the people who buy homesareinvestingin their first home.

C Only a quarter of the homes that are built are sold within the first 2 weeks.

D Only a quarter of those who claim that they want o second home actually end up purchasing one.

Answer: D

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Instructions

The following graph represents the Gross Receipts of three fast food restaurants from 2000-2002. Use it to answer
these questions:

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Question 11

The 2000-2002 gross receipts for Mega Burger exceeded those of Pizza Pie by approximately

A 0.2 million

B 2 million

C 8.2 million

D 8.4 million

Answer: B

Question 12

From 2001-2002, the percent increase in receipts for Pizza Pie exceeded the percent increase of Mega
Burger by approximately

A 2.67 %

B 2%

C 10%

D 15%

Answer: A

Question 13

The 2002 decline in Crunchy Chicken receipts may beattributed to the

A Increase in popularity of burgers

B Increase in popularity of pizzas

C Decrease in demandfor chicken

D Cannot be determined

Answer: C

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Instructions

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The Following graphs represent Gross Receipts of all the major fast Food restaurants from 2001-2003. Use them to
answer these questions:

Question 14

The gross receipts for 2001 are approximately what percent of the gross receipts for all the three years?

A 30%

B 46.3%

C 46.7%

D Cannot be determined

Answer: A

Question 15

Over all the three years, the average percentage of gross receipts for Crunchy Chop exceeds the average
percentage of gross receipts for Pizza Pie by approximately

A 53%

B 30%

C 23%

D 8%

Answer: B

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Question 16

The gross receipts earned by the other restaurants in 2002 amount to precisely

A Rs. 18,10,650

B Rs. 7,53,300

C Rs. 5,47,500

D Rs. 4,53,150

Answer: D

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Instructions

The data in the following table and graph pertains to the Fellow and Associate categories of professionals. Study the
data and line graph given below to answer these Questions:

Number of branches in each region

I. Western Region — 14
II. Southern Region — 26
III. Eastern region — 3
IV. Central Region — 17
V. Northern Region — 7

Question 17

The total number of associates is nearly ............ times the total number of Follows of all the five regions.

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A Four

B Five

C Three

D Two

Answer: B

Question 18

The category showing the total number of Fellows of all the regions as nearly one - ninth of the total
Associates of all the regions is

A In Full time practice

B In part time practice

C Not in practice

D None of these

Answer: C

Question 19

The regions having the number of branches in the ratio 1 : 2 are

A Central and Southern

B Western and Southern

C Central and Eastern

D Northern and Western

Answer: D

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Question 20

The average number of Fellows per branch of the Eastern region is approximately

A 982

B 780

C 690

D 885

Answer: B

Question 21

The average growth of membership per year is

A 3600

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B 3964

C 4238

D 4100

Answer: B

Instructions

Each of these questions consists of two quantities, one in Column A and the other in Column B. Compare the two
quantities and mark your answer as

Question 22

Quantities 1 : The number of posts needed for a fence 144 m long when posts are placed 1.2 m apart.
Quantities 2 : 12 posts.

A If the quantity in Column A is greater.

B If the quantity in Column B is greater.

C If the two quantities are equal.

D If the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Answer: A

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Question 23
1
Quantities 1 : 3 ( 2 ) %
35
Quantities 2 : 3 ( 1000 )

A If the quantity in Column A is greater.

B If the quantity in Column B is greater.

C If the two quantities are equal.

D If the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Answer: B

Question 24

Quantities 1 : Distance covered by a motorist going at 50 km per hour from 10:55 p.m. to 11:25 p.m. the
same evening is
Quantities 2 : 25 km

A If the quantity in Column A is greater.

B If the quantity in Column B is greater.

C If the two quantities are equal.

D If the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Answer: C

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Question 25
x
Quantities 1 : ( 4 ) % of 400
Quantities 2 : x

A If the quantity in Column A is greater.

B If the quantity in Column B is greater.

C If the two quantities are equal.

D If the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Answer: C

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Question 26
1
Quantities 1 : The average of √81, 60%, 1 ( 2 )
Quantities 2: 3

A If the quantity in Column A is greater.

B If the quantity in Column B is greater.

C If the two quantities are equal.

D If the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Answer: A

Instructions

In each of these questions, there is a statement with two assumptions numbered I and II. Consider the statement and
the assumptions to decide which assumption is/are implicit in the statement. Give your answer as

Question 27

Of all the newspapers published in Bangalore, readership of TTI is the highest in the metropolis.
I. TTI is not popular in mofussil areas.
II. TTI has the popular feature of political cartoons in it.

A If assumption I is implicit.

B If assumption II is implicit.

C If either assumption I or II is implicit.

D If neither assumption I nor II is implicit.

Answer: D

Question 28

If any time, you have financial difficulties, come to me, I will help you out.
I. You have financial difficulties.
II. promise to provide you financial help.

A If assumption I is implicit.

B If assumption II is implicit.

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C If either assumption I or II is implicit.

D If neither assumption I nor II is implicit.

Answer: B

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Instructions

Given below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assume the statements to be true
even if they show variance from your own experience. Decide which conclusion logically follows from the two
statements. Give your answer as

Question 29

Some nurses are nuns.


Maya is a nun.
I. Some nuns are nurses.
II. Some nurses are not nuns.

A If only conclusion I follows.

B If only conclusion II follows.

C If either of the conclusions follows.

D If neither of the conclusions follows.

Answer: C

Question 30

All apples are oranges.


Some oranges are papayas.
I. Some apples are papayas.
II. Some papayas are apples.

A If only conclusion I follows.

B If only conclusion II follows.

C If either of the conclusions follows.

D If neither of the conclusions follows.

Answer: D

Instructions

In each of these questions, there is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of
action is an administrative step or decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or further action regarding the
problem on the basis of the information in the statement. Assume everything in the statement to be true and decide
which course of action follows logically from the given statement. Give your answer as

Question 31

In spite of the principal's repeated warnings, a child was caught exploding crackers secretly in the
school.
I. All crackers should be taken away from the child and he should be threatened never to do it again.
II. The child should be severely punished for his wrong act.

A If only action I follows.

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B If only action II follows.

C If either action I or II follows.

D If neither action I nor II follows.

Answer: B

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Question 32

Most children in India are unable to get an education as they get involved in earning a livelihood during
their childhood itself.
I. Education should be made compulsoryfor all children upto the age of 14.
II. Employment of children under the age of 14 years should be banned.

A If only action I follows.

B If only action II follows.

C If either action I or II follows.

D If neither action I nor II follows.

Answer: A

Question 33

The Asian Development Bank has approved a $285 million loan to finance a project to construct coal
ports by Madras port and Paradip porttrusts.
I. India should use financial assistance from other international financial organisations to develop such
ports in other places.
II. India should not seek assistance from foreign agencies.

A If only action I follows.

B If only action II follows.

C If either action I or II follows.

D If neither action I nor II follows.

Answer: C

Instructions

In answering these questions, you have to use the revenue data for the three companies A, B and C provided in the
graph:

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Question 34

Which quarter has the highest average revenue?

A First

B Second

C Third

D Fourth

Answer: D

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Question 35

What is the total revenue for all the companies in all the garters?

A 89

B 90

C 91

D 93

Answer: D

Instructions

In each of these question, you are given two statements. To answer these questions, you can use oneor both the
statements. Give your answer as

Question 36

How many hours will it take for all the students and teachers together to put up a tent?
A. There are 4 teachers and 7 students.
B. All the teachers working together can put up the tent in 5 hours while all the students working
together can do so in 3 hours.

A If statement A ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement B alone is not.

B If statement B ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement A alone is not.

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If both the statements TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the given question, but neither statement alone is
C sufficient.

D If both the statements are INDEPENDENTLY sufficient to answer the given question.

Answer: B

Question 37

What is the remainder when the square of N is divided by 5?


A. When N is divided by 5, the remainder is 3.
B. N is an even integer.

A If statement A ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement B alone is not.

B If statement B ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement A alone is not.

If both the statements TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the given question, but neither statement alone is
C
sufficient.

D If both the statements are INDEPENDENTLY sufficient to answer the given question.

Answer: A

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Question 38

What is the value of the 2-digit number ab?


A. The difference between its digits is 4.
B. The sum of its digits is 4.

A If statement A ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement B alone is not.

B If statement B ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement A alone is not.

If both the statements TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the given question, but neither statement alone is
C
sufficient.

D If both the statements are INDEPENDENTLY sufficient to answer the given question.

Answer: C

Question 39

a, b and c are the three digits of a number abc. abc is a multiple of 3. Find (a + b + C).
A. a = 3, b = 4.
B. C is an odd number.

A If statement A ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement B alone is not.

B If statement B ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement A alone is not.

If both the statements TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the given question, but neither statement alone is
C
sufficient.

D If both the statements are INDEPENDENTLY sufficient to answer the given question.

Answer: C

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Question 40

N is an integer between 1 and 93. What is the value of N?


A. N is both the square and the cube of an integer.
B. The square root of is divisible by 8.

A If statement A ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement B alone is not.

B If statement B ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement A alone is not.

If both the statements TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the given question, but neither statement alone is
C
sufficient.

D If both the statements are INDEPENDENTLY sufficient to answer the given question.

Answer: D

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Intelligence & Critical Reasoning


Instructions

Refer the Following information to answer these questions:

Six items — U, V, W, X, Y and Z are being separated into 3 Groups — Group 1, Group 2 and Group3, according to the
following conditions:
(i) The number of items in Group 1 is less than or equal to the number of items in Group 2.
(ii) The number of items in Group2 is less than or equal to the number of items in Group 3.
(iii) Vand W cannot be in the same group.
(iv) X can be in Group 3 onlyif Y is in Group 3.

Question 41

Which one of the following is an acceptable grouping of the six items?

A Group 1 - UV Group 2 - WXY Group 3 - Z

B Group 1 - X Group 2 - Y Group 3 - VZUW

C Group 1 - V Group 2 - YW Group 3 - XUZ

D Group 1 - V Group 2 - Z Group 3 - XYUW

Answer: D

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Question 42

If Group 1 contains only the item Y, then which of the following must be true?

A Group 3 contains four items

B Group 2 contains the same number of items as Group 3

C V is in Group 3

D X is in Group 2

Answer: D

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Question 43

If W and Y are in the same group and V is in Group 3, then which of the following must be false?

A W and Y are in Group 2

B U is the only item in Group 1

C X is the only item in Group 1

D U is in Group 3

Answer: B

Question 44

If Group 2 contains only one item, which is neither W nor V, then which of the following must be true?

A Group 1 contains only V or only W

B Group 3 contains W

C Group 1 contains both U and V

D Group 2 contains Z

Answer: A

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Instructions

in each of these questions, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions. Give your answer as

Question 45

Statement: This world is neither good nor evil; each man manufactures a world for himself.
Conclusions:
I. Some people find this world quite good.
II. Some people find this world quite bad.

A If only conclusion I follows.

B If only conclusion II follows.

C If either conclusion I or II follows.

D If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Answer: C

Question 46

Statement: Domestic demand has been increasing faster than the production of indigenous crude oil.
Conclusions:
I. Crude oil must be imported.
II. Domestic demand must be reduced.

A If only conclusion I follows.

B If only conclusion II follows.

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C If either conclusion I or II follows.

D If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Answer: C

Question 47

Statement: Parents are prepared to pay any price for an elite education to their children.
Conclusions:
I. All parents these days are very well off.
II. Parents have an obsessive passion for a perfect development of their children through good schooling.

A If only conclusion I follows.

B If only conclusion II follows.

C If either conclusion I or II follows.

D If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Answer: B

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Question 48

Statement: From the next academia year, students will have the option of dropping Mathematics and
Science for their school living.
Conclusions:
I. Students who are weak in Science and Mathematics will be admitted.
II. Earlier, the students did not have the choice of continuing their education without these subjects.

A If only conclusion I follows.

B If only conclusion II follows.

C If either conclusion I or II follows.

D If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Answer: B

Instructions

Read the following statements to answer these questions.

(i) A,B,C, D, E and F form a group of friends from a club.


(ii) There are two house wives, one lecturer, one architect, one accountant and one lawyer in the group.
(iii) There are 2 married couples in the group.
(iv) The lawyer is married to D who is a housewife.
(v) No lady in the group is either an accountantor architect.
(vi) C, the accountant, is married to F, the lecturer.
(vii) Ais married to D, and E is not a housewife.

Question 49

Which of the following is a married couple?

A BA

B AF
C CE

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None of the these
D

Answer: D

Question 50

What is E's profession?

A Lawyer

B Architect

C Lecturer

D Accountant

Answer: B

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Question 51

How many members of the group are males?

A Can't say

B 2

C 3

D 4

Answer: C

Question 52

How is B related to C?

A Brother or sister

B Brother

C Sister

D Can't say

Answer: D

Question 53

Which of the statements (i) to (vii) is superfluous to find answers to the questions above?

A i

B ii

C iv

D None

Answer: D

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Instructions

Study the information given below to answer these questions:

A, B, C, D are all related. A is the daughter of B. B is the son of C. C is the father of D.

Question 54

Which of the following statements is true?

A B and D are brothers

B A is D's daughter

C If E is B's daughter, then sheis A's sister

D If F is C's grand-daughter, then she is A's sister

Answer: C

Question 55

Which of the following is necessarily false?

A D is A's aunt

B D is A's uncle

C A is D's niece

D A is D's father's son's grand daughter

Answer: D

Instructions

Study the information given below to answer these questions:

Anna, Bhai, Nana, Dada, Appa and Bal are brothers. They are having their dinner seated at a round table. Appa is next
to Nana who is 3 seats from Dada. Annais seated 2 seats away from Bal.

Question 56

Which is necessarily true?

A Anna is next to Dada

B Anna is next to Bhai

C Anna is next to Appa

D Anna is opposite Nana

Answer: B

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Question 57

If Bal does not want to be with Bhai, then

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A Appa hasto sit next to Bhai

B Bhai has to sit next to Anna

C Dada is next to Appa

D Dada and Appaare both next to Anna

Answer: B

Question 58

Which of the following is necessarily true?

A Appa is to the right of Nana

B Appa is to the left of Dada

C Nona is to the left of Anna

D None of these

Answer: D

Instructions

Find the missing link in the sequences given in each of these questions:

Question 59

2, 3, 8, 63, ?

A 1038

B 3008

C 3968

D 3268

Answer: C

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Question 60

1, 4, 9, 25, ?

A 48

B 49

C 52

D 56

Answer: B

Question 61

ACD, EG1, JLM, ?

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A MNO

B NOP

C NPR

D None of these

Answer: C

Question 62
4 9 39
9 , 20 , (?), 86

17
A 40

19
B 42

20
C 45

29
D 53

Answer: B

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Question 63

Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, ?

A Y66B

B Y44B

C Y88B

D Z88B

Answer: C

Question 64

2Z5, 7Y7, 14X9, 23W11, 34V13, ?

A 27U24

B 47U15

C 45U15

D 47V14

Answer: B

Instructions

Given below are pairs of events 'A' and 'B". You haveto read both the events ‘A' and "B' to decide their nature of
relationship. You have to assumethat the information given in ‘A’ and "B"is true and you will not assume anything
beyond the given information in deciding your answer. Give your answer as

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Question 65

Event A: The national selectors have decided to retain the same 14 players for the third and final test
series against New Zealand.
Event B: India has won the second test against New Zealand.

A If 'A' is the effect and 'B' is its immediate and principal cause.

B If ‘A’ is the immediate and principal cause and 'B'is its effect.

C If 'A' is an effect but 'B' is not its immediate and principal cause.

D If 'B' is an effect but ‘A’ is not its immediate and principal cause.

Answer: A

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Question 66

Event A : Since Rani's own child had died at birth, she was desperate for another.
Event B : Rani had quietly kidnapped the child, less than two days old, and shipped it out of the hospital.

A If 'A' is the effect and 'B' is its immediate and principal cause.

B If ‘A’ is the immediate and principal cause and 'B'is its effect.

C If 'A' is an effect but 'B' is not its immediate and principal cause.

D If 'B' is an effect but ‘A’ is not its immediate and principal cause.

Answer: B

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 67

Renu is elder than Anita. Rocky is younger than Anita. Sohan is elder than Renu. Who is the eldest in the
group?

A Renu

B Anita

C Sohan

D Rocky

Answer: C

Question 68

Among the six cities — P, Q, R, S, T and U — P is not a hill station; Q and T are historical places; S is not
an industrial city; P and S are not historical cities; P and Q are not similar kinds of cities. Which of two
cities are historical places?

A P and S

B R and S

C P and R

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D Q and U

Answer: D

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Question 69

Mr. Brijesh : A public sector company 'ABC' was privatised 3 years ago. It has increased profitability since
then. This is a clear indication that industries will fare better in the private sector than in the public
sector.

Mr. Sinha : That's wrong. Closer perusal of ABC's balance sheets shows that it has been profitable since
the appointment of a professional managing director 3 years ago, while it was still in the public sector.

Which best describes the weakness in Mr. Brijesh's judgement which Mr. Sinha is using?

A Brijesh’s evidence is of a single company

B Professional management whether in a private or public sector company can earn more profits

C Profitability of ABC may be temporary

D No examples of profit making private sector companies was cited by him

Answer: B

Question 70

Informed people generally assimilate information from several divergent sources before coming to an
opinion. However, most popular news organisations view foreign affairs solely through the eyes of our
State Department. In reporting the political crisis in foreign country B, the news organisations must
endeavour to find out alternative sources of information.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the argument above?

To the degree that a news source gives an account of another country that mirrors that of our State Department,
A
that reporting is suspect.

To protect their integrity, news media should avoid the influence of State Department releases in their coverage of
B
foreign affairs.

The alternative sources of information mentioned in the passage might not share the same viewsas the State
C
Department.

Areport cannot be seen as influenced by the State Departmentif it accurately depicts the events in a foreign
D
country.

Answer: C

Question 71

How many squares are there in the given figure?

A 6

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B 8

C 16

D 10

Answer: D

MAT Free Solved Previous Papers


Question 72

A. light bulb company produces 2000 light bulbs per week. The manager wants to ensure that standards
of quality remain constant from week to week. The manager therefore claims that out of 2000 light bulbs
produced per week, 500 light bulbs are rejected. Of the following, the best criticism of the manager's
planis that the plan assumes that

A Light bulb manufacturers cannot accept all light bulbs that are produced.

B Each light bulb reviewed is worthy of being reviewed.

C It is difficult to judge the quality of a light bulb.

D The 1,500 light bulbs that are accepted will be of the same quality from week to week.

Answer: D

Question 73

Animesh walked 30 metres towards West, turned to his right and walked 20 metres. He then turnedto his
left and walked 10 metres, then turnedto his left and walked 40 metres. He turned to his left and walked
5 metres. He again turned to his left and continued walking. In which direction is Animesh walking now?

A North-East

B North

C South-East

D West

Answer: B

Question 74

A greater number of fresh vegetables is sold in Kanpur than in Lucknow. Therefore, the people in Kanpur
have better nutritional habits than those in Lucknow. Each of the following, if true, weakens the
conclusions above, except

A Kanpur has more people living in it than Lucknow.

B Most of the people in Lucknow workin Kanpur and buy their vegetables there.

C The per capita consumption of the junk food in Kanpur is three times that of Lucknow.

The average price per pound of the vegetables in Lucknowis lower than the average price per pound of vegetables
D
in Kanpur.

Answer: C

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Question 75

Traffic safety experts predict that the installation of newly designed seat belts in all cars in India would
reduce the average number offatalities per traffic accident by 30%. In order to save lives, the
Department of Transport (DOT) is considering requiring automobile
manufacturersto install belts of this design in all cars produced after 2005.

Which of the following, if true, represents the strongest challenge to the DOT's proposal?

Belts of the new design are more given to being inadvertently triggered, an occurrence that can some times result
A
in fatal traffic accidents.

The DOT is planning to require automobile manufacturers to produce these belts according to very strict
B
specifications.

C After installing belts in new cars, automobile manufacturers will experience an increase in sales.

D The proposed belts installation program will adversely affect the resale of cars manufactured prior to 2005.

Answer: D

Question 76

A decade after a logging operation in India began cutting downtrees in a territory that served as a
sanctuary for Bengal tigers, the incidence of tigers attacking humans in nearby villages has increased by
300%. Since the logging operation has reduced the number of acres of woodland per tiger on an average
from 16 acres to approximately 12 acres, the scientists have theorised that tigers must need a minimum
number of acres of woodland in order to remain content.
Which of the following statements, if true, would most strengthen the scientists’ hypothes is ?

In other wildlife areas in India where the number of acres of wood land per tiger remains at least 15 acres, there
A
has been no increase in the number oftiger attacks on humans.

B Before the logging operation began, there were many less humans living in the area.

C Other species of wild animals have begun competing with the Bengal tigers for the dwindling food supply.

D The Bengal tiger has become completely extinct in other areas of Asia.

Answer: A

Question 77

In a certain code language, if A is written as C, Bas D, C as E and so on up to Z, then how will PECULIAR
be written in that code?

A RGEXNKCT

B RGEWNKBT

C RGEWNKCT

D RGEWKNCS

Answer: C

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Question 78

A company recently registered a big jump in clothing sales after hiring a copywriter and a graphic artist
to give its clothing catalogue a magazine-like format designed to appeal to a more upscale clientele. The
company is now planning to launch a house wares catalogue
using the same concept. The company's plan assumes that

A Other housewares catalogues with magazine-like formats do not already exist.

B An upscale clientele would be interested in a housewares catalogue.

C The same copywriter and graphic artist could be employed for both the clothing and the housewares catalogues.

D A magazine-like format requires a copywriter and a graphic artist.

Answer: C

Question 79

If TV is called Radio’, 'Radio is called Aeroplane’, ‘Aeroplane is called Helicopter’, ‘Helicopter is called
Bus’, 'Bus is called Bike’, "Bike is called Water’, "Water is called Frog’, ‘Frog is called Tomato’, ‘Tomato is
called Furniture’ and ‘Furniture is called Cigarette’, then what is Tomato sauce made up of?

A Water

B Furniture

C Frog

D None of these

Answer: B

Question 80

The Election Commission has revised upwards the ceiling of total expenditure on all counts for Lok Sabha
candidatesto Rs. x lakh.
Which of the following, if true, will make the ceiling an effective measure for a free andfair election?

A Strict implementation of the above law

B Maintaining law and order for a free and fair poll

C Maintaining present price level at the time of the next elections

D Submission of the accounts in time for all election expenses of the candidate to the Election Commission

Answer: D

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Language Comprehension
Instructions

Read the following passages carefully to answer the questions.

Passage I :

One of the basic principles of people management for most of the 20th century was to narrow an individual's task
down to a small, heavily monitored, transparently cost-effective unit of work. This was particularly the case in many
areas of manufacturing, where it was felt to be a necessary route to greater competitiveness. It left the individual with
little chance to show any initiative. Today, that tenet is being turned largely on its head. Much more is expected from

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employees; their value to a company's well-being is increasingly acknowledged, even if not necessarily properly
recognised. This transition has been accompanied by the emergence of ‘human resource management’,a term not
universally
acknowledged as representing much more than ‘personnel management’, but one which does signify a broader ambit
than in the past. Just how much broader is discussed here, along with the widely differing attitudes of trade unions to
human resource management and the issues that management must confront. Also examined are the issues that have
been preoccupying human resource managers themselves. An example is the rapid emergence of new technology,
which puts pressures on workers that cannot always be easily resolved. It is on the nature of good management
practice that nothing, in isolation, provides the answer to every prayer. As John Grapper relates, British Airways, which
lays claim to being the world’s favourite airline, has embraced human resource management to what is generally
considered to be good effect. It sees its employees as frontline troops in the competitive battle with other airlines. Its
overall success is acknowledged; witness its ability to produce profits while rivals notch up huge losses. Grapper
traces the pressure to re-think heavily monitored, narrowly defined work patterns as having come from Japan,
where the team approach, with decisions made by the consensus, is acknowledged to be a potent competitive
weapon. Much of the shift is due to the fact that traditionally structured principles are incompatible with rapid
technological change. This is especially so in service industries, where labour accounts for a large majority of total
costs, and where employees can beat the forefront of enhancing standards of service. The mixed attitudes of unions to
HRM emerge against a background of distrust. Inevitably, if responsibility is pushed further down the organisation,
with established lines of authority being eroded, the union's traditional role is called into question. This suspicion is
exemplified by a national officer of the Transport and General Workers’ Union, who also accuses employers of often
having as their real motivation, a desire to weaken collective strength. An academic's view is that HRM sits
uncomfortably with industrial relations, since among other things, managers will endeavour to bypass unions achieve
their ends. But not all unions are opposed to HRM, one particularly perceptive view being that it is inevitably an
acknowledgement by management that workers should be more involved in decision making. A rider to this is that it
brings managers under greater pressure to deliver and opens them to accusations of merely playing lip-service to the
concept if they prove unhappy about being challenged. A further view is that HRM in the United Kingdom is a pale
shadow of the regimesthat exist in Continental Europe, since the ‘power’ offered to workers is rather illusory and
allows little scope for feedback from the workers to the upper echelons of management. This argument could well be
supported by the attitudes which are reported in Christopher Lorenz's article about whether or not a value can be put
on human resources and if, indeed, management really wishes to do so. Lorenz points to the growing numberof chief
executives who are at least paying attention to concepts which enhance the status of employees. But the question is
whether this has any more substances than is revealed by the perfunctory acknowledgement in so many company
annual reports of how valuable employees are to the organisation. One of the inevitable outcomes of ‘empowerment’
of employeesis that they will make mistakes and that they should be left (for helped) to learn by them. Yet this
prospect help make some management's draw back from delegating real power of decision further down the line and
thus from taking HRM to its proper conclusion. In a world of rapid technological advance, human resources play a
crucial role—but not just in ensuring that the latest piece of technology performs. They are also a barometer of what is
achievable and whatis not, as Michael Dixon illustrates. What is particularly clear is that employees' reactions to new
technology must be read carefully if they are not to be misinterpreted. For, however impressive any technology might
be, some of its technical possibilities may have to be sacrificed in order to match what employees are happy—or can
be persuaded—to work with. Even in companies where HRM becomes very much the chief executive's remit, much of
the responsibility for ensuring that employees’ views are understood by managementstill falls to the human resource
manager. Many managersstill feel vulnerable in the organisational hierarchy. However, Simon Holberton suggests that
while they Know whattheir role should be, many human resource managers find themselves insufficiently informed by
their companies to design programmes to meet manager's demands. Significantly, training is at the top of the list of
their priorities. And while the economic climate has changed considerably for the worse with budgets slashed or put on
hold, training is still widely perceived to be one of the most pressing requirements if a wide swathe of companies is
not to be left unprepared to take advantage of an economic upturn.

Question 81

The author would agree with which of the following ?

A The individual's value in any organisation is today properly reorganised.

B The individual's value in any organisation was always recognised.

C The individual's value is not recognised even today in any organisation.

D The individual is expected to do much less today than what he used to do earlier.

Answer: A

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Question 82

The success of British Airways can be attributed to

A Its adaptation of human resource management principles.

B Its superior service and timely running offlights.

C Its consideration that its employees are combatantsin a battle, thus giving them more responsibility.

D Both (1) and (3).

Answer: D

Question 83

One of the salient features of the Japanese work patternis that

A All the Japanese regard work as worship.

B The decisions are usually taken by the top management, thus leading to success.

C The belief in teamwork and taking decisions by consensus.

D The respectfor elders and their style of working.

Answer: C

Question 84

The trade unions oppose human resource management policies because

A If workers become moreresponsible, the traditional role of unions is jeopardised.

B It is the tendency of the unions to oppose anything new.

C It will lead to greater interference by the management in union activity.

D None of these.

Answer: C

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Question 85

Why do some managements not allow seeping down of responsibility?

A They want to take all the decisions themselves.

B Employees may make mistakes and hence giving them responsibility would not be beneficial.

C They have a basic attitude problem.

D Both (1) and (3).

Answer: B

Instructions

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Read the following passages carefully to answer these questions given at the end of each passage:

Passage II :

Definitions of ‘culture’ are contested. In anthropological usage, the word refers to a system of shared meanings
through which collective existence becomes possible. However, aS many recent critiques of this position point out, this
sense of culture gives no place to the idea of judgement, and hence to the relations of power by which the dominance
of ideas and tastesis established. As Said says about Matthew Arnold's view of culture:

"What is at stake in society is not merely the cultivation of individuals, or the development of a class of finely tuned
sensibilities, or the renaissance of interests in the classics, but rather the assertively achieved and won hegemonyof
an identifiable set of ideas, which Arnold honorifically colls, culture, over all other ideas in society.”

The implications of Arnold's view of culture are profound; they lead us towards a position in which culture must be
seen in terms of that which it eliminates as much as that which it establishes. Said argues that when culture is
consecrated by the state, it becomes a system of discriminations and evaluations through which a series of exclusions
can be legislated from above. By the enactment of such legislation, the state comes to be the primary giver of values.
Anarchy, disorder, irrationality, inferiority, bad taste and immorality are, in this way, defined and then located outside
culture and civilisation by the state and its institutions. This exclusion of alterity is an important device by which the
hegemony of the state is established; either certain ‘others’ are defined as being outside culture, as are ‘mad' people;
or they are domesticated, as with penal servitude—Foucault’s monumental studies on the asylum and the prison
demonstrate this.

It is this context which we must understand in order to fully appreciate the challenge posed by the community to the
hegemony of the state, especially to the notion that the state is the sole giver of values. At the same time, the
dangeris that we may in the process he tempted to valourise the community as somehow representing a more organic
mode, and therefore a more authentic method of organising culture. Many scholars feel that culture is more
organically related to the traditions of groups, whereastraditions are falsely invented by the hands of state. The issues
are by no meansas simple, for culture and tradition are not instituted in society once and forever, but are subject to
the constant change and flux which are an essential feature of every society. Indeed, the very attempt to freeze and
fix cultural traditions may be inimical to their survival. Finally, in the contests between state, communities and
collectivities of different kinds on one hand and the individual on the other, we can see the double life of culture: its
potential to give radical recognition to the humanity of its subjects as well as its potential to keep the individual within
such tightly defined bounds that the capacity to experiment with selfhood—which is also a mark of
humanity—may be jeopardised.

So, we arrive at this double definition of culture. By this | mean that the word ‘culture’ refers to both a system of
shared meanings which defines the individual's collective life, as well as a system for the formulation of judgements
which are used to exclude alterities, and which thus keep the individual strictly within the bounds defined by the
society. It is in view of this that the question of cultural rights seems to me to be placed squarely with in the question
of passions rather than interests. It is time now to define passion. After the classical work of Hirschman on political
passions, if was usual to think of passions as obstructions in the path of reason. Passions had to be overcome for
enlightened interest to emerge. This view of passions is extremely limited. Indeed, certain kinds of revelations,
including the recognition of oneself as human, become possible only through passion. If the self is constituted only
through the Other—so that desire, cognition, memory
and imagination become possible through the play of passion—then the revelatory role of passion must be
acknowledgednot only in the life of the individual but also in the life of the collective. Passion then mustplaya role in
politics.

As we hove seen, the demandfor cultural rights at this historical momentis in a context, where cultural symbols have
been appropriated by the state, which tries to establish a monopoly over ethical pronouncements. The state is thus
experienced as a threat by smaller units, who feel that their ways of life are penetrated, if not engulfed, by this larger
unit. The situation is quite the opposite of the relation between the part and the whole in hierarchical systems, a
relation seen as the characteristics mark of traditional politics in South Asia. In a hierarchical system, differences
between constitutional units were essential for the ‘whole’ to be constituted.

In other words, small units came to be defined by being bearer of special marks in a hierarchical entity. And although
by definition they could not be equal in such a system, the very logic of hierarchy assured that they could not be
simply engulfed into the higher totality. This was both a source of their oppression as well as a guarantee of their
acceptance (though not a radical acceptance) of their place in the world, My argument is not an appeal for a return to
hierarchy as a principle of organisation. Rather, it is an effort to locate the special nature of the threat which smaller
groups feel.

Question 86

Culture refers to the

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A Shared meanings and collective existence

B Idea of judgement

C Relations of power

D All of the above

Answer: D

Question 87

Culture is established through

A Achievement of hegemonyof on identifiable set of ideas over other ideas

B Consecration by the state

C Institutionalisation of a system of discriminations and evaluations

D Exclusionof alterity

Answer: A

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Question 88

Which of the following is true?

A Passion contributesto the life of the collective

B Passion contributesto the life of the collective but only after playing a role in the life of the individual

C Passion's contribution to the life of the collective can be appreciated only if a broader view is adopted

D Passion's contribution to culture can be enhancedif it is not allowed to obstruct the path of reason

Answer: B

Question 89

Achieving selfhood involves

A Balancing one's own desires with the boundaries of the state

B Jeopardising humanity

C Leading a double life

D All of the above

Answer: A

Question 90

The role of the stole is to

A Establish a monopoly over ethical pronoun-cements

B Appropriate cultural symbols

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C Becomethe primary giver of the values

D All of the above

Answer: C

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Instructions

For the following verbal analogies pick the pair that exhibits the most similar relationship to the given analogy:

Question 91

Autumn; Wither

A Fall; Digress

B Winter; Retreat

C Spring; Flower

D Season; Change

Answer: C

Question 92

Augur; Future

A Knigh; Medieval

B Poet; Century

C Vanguard; Pack

D Historian; Past

Answer: D

Question 93

Stately; Demeanour

A Ascetic; Deportment

B Narrow; Vessel

C Fertile; Nature

D Sober; Mien

Answer: D

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Question 94

Rash; Stoic

A Articulate; Orator

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B Dubious; Scoundrel

C Dolorous; Spouse

D Agnostic; Cleric

Answer: D

Instructions

From the alternatives provided, choose the one that best fills the blank:

Question 95

They lament and express their despair ............. the way Gandhi has been forgotten in his own land.

A Over

B Of

C In

D With

Answer: A

Question 96

The government ........... on this issue.

A Is divided

B Are divided

C Is being divided

D Divided

Answer: B

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Question 97

After having sought my help, .............

A My friend left me all alone

B I was left all alone by my friend

C I was alone

D I asked her to leave me alone

Answer: A

Question 98

I have known her .......... the end of the World War II.

A From

B Since

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C During

D Towards

Answer: B

Question 99

The landlady .......... since morning.

A Has gossiped

B Has been gossiping

C Gossiped

D Has gossiping

Answer: B

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Instructions

In each of these questions, you are given a sentence. A part of the sentence is underlined. This is followed by four
ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choice (1) repeats the original; the other three are different. Select the version
that best rephrases the underlined part:

Question 100

Many employers now believe that the advancement in technology has improved the, environment for the
workers who can now work up to 18 hours a day and still does not feel physically tired.

Advancements in technology has improved the environment for the workers who can now work up to 18 hours a
A
dayand still does

Advancement in technology have improved the environment for the workers who can now work up to 18 hours a
B
day and still does

Advancements in technologies have improved the environment for the workers who can now workup to 18 hours a
C
day and still does

Advancements in technology have improved the environment for the workers who can now work up to 18 hours a
D
day and still do

Answer: D

Question 101

It is difficult to diagnose malaria because its first symptoms are similar to any viral fever.

A Are similar to any viral fever.

B Are similar to those of any viral fever.

C Are similar to those of any other viral fever.

D Are similar to those of any viral fevers.

Answer: B

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Question 102

To create a new game means expending lot of sweat, and calls for all the members of the development
team to play its role with aplomb throughout the long - drawn - out procedure before the game sees the
light of the day.

A For all the membersof the development team to playits role with aplomb throughout

B For all the membersin the developmentteam to play their role with aplomb throughout

C For all the members of the development team to play their roles with aplomb throughout

D All the members of the developmentteam to play their roles with aplomb throughout

Answer: C

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Question 103

The state has at least twenty colleges of whom only six are officially recognised.

A Of whom only six are officially recognised.

B Of whom only six have been officially recognised.

C Of which only six have official recognition.

D Of which only six are officially recognised.

Answer: D

Question 104

The all-pervasiveness of the Internet has led to a joke, that a few bored homosapiens left to themselves
in a single room with a couple of computers for some days, would eventually produce something that
would either make Shakespeare jealous or plain wild.

A Either make Shakespeare jealous or plain wild.

B Make either Shakespeare jealous or plain wild.

C Made Shakespeare either jealous or plain wild.

D Either make Shakespeare jealous or make him plain wild.

Answer: B

Instructions

Each of the sentences against these questions has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted.
Choosethe set of words for each blank that best fits the meating of the sentence as a whole:

Question 105

The term ‘rare earths’ is in fact a , .............. for paradoxically, the rare-earth elements are in actuality
............., being presentin low concentration in virtually all the minerals.

A Truism — essential

B Misnomer — ubiquitous

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C Disclaimer — ephemeral

D Metaphor — figurative

Answer: B

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Question 106

According to the 12th century cosmologies, the natural philosopher must strive to .......... a state of
detached objectivity in order to free his capacity for constructing useful hypothesis from the .................
of unquestioned assumptions and accepted opinions about nature.

A Capture — contemplation

B Achieve — tyranny

C Imitate — discipline

D Attain — confusion

Answer: B

Question 107

The columnist was very gentle when he mentioned his friends but was bitter and ever ........... when he
discussed people who ............ him.

A Laconic — infuriated

B Acerbic — irritated

C Remorseful — encouraged

D Militant — distressed

Answer: D

Question 108

She conducted the interrogation not only with dispatch but with .........., being a person who is ......... in
manner yet subtle in discrimination.

A Elan — enthusiastic

B Equanimity — abrupt

C Finesse — expeditious

D Zeal — doctrinaire

Answer: A

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Instructions

In these questions, find out the part of the sentence that has an error. Choose 'D' if there is no error.

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Question 109

They cook meals, lay the table and wash up (A)/ clean the house (B)/ and mend the clothes (C)

A A

B B

C C

D D

Answer: C

Question 110

He seemed distracted (A)/ thinking less about what he was doing tonight (B)/than what he would be
doing on the morrow (C).

A A

B B

C C

D D

Answer: B

Question 111

For an educated man of the time, virtualy the only way to gain power and prestige (A)/ was studying the
Confucian classics (B)/and work his way up the ladder (C)/as a scholar-official.

A A

B B

C C

D D

Answer: C

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Question 112

For several reasons (A)/social psychologists have been studying (B)/ the effects competition (C)/ on
performance and productivity.

A A

B B

C C

D D

Answer: D

Instructions

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Each of these questions consists of a word, given in CAPITALS, followed by four words. Choosethe word that is most
nearly the same in meaning to the word givenin CAPITALS. Since some of the questions require you to distinguish the
fine shades of meaning, be sure to consider all the choices before deciding which oneis the best:

Question 113

DESULTORY

A Organised

B Disorganised

C Drive

D Romantic

Answer: B

Question 114

SACCHARINE

A Clumsy

B Carriage

C Syrupy

D Caustic

Answer: C

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Question 115

TENACIOUS

A Determined

B Peevish

C Brazen

D Impious

Answer: A

Question 116

CONJURER

A Wicked

B Entertainer

C Jester

D Palpable

Answer: B

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Instructions

Each of these questions consists of a word, followed by four words. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in
meaning to the word given in question:

Question 117

RADICAL

A Fashionable

B Diabolic

C Conservative

D Myopic

Answer: C

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Question 118

FLAMBOYANT

A Lateral

B Dull

C Maverick

D Antique

Answer: B

Question 119

TANTALISING

A Toiling

B Seance

C Repulsive

D Seamy

Answer: C

Question 120

INEFFABLE

A Describable

B Frivolous

C Eclectic

D Blasphemy

Answer: A

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Mathematical Skills
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 121

The average of 10 numbersis 40.2. Later it is found that two numbers have been wrongly added. The first
is 18 greater than the actual number and the second number added is 13 instead of 31. Find the correct
average.

A 40.2

B 40.4

C 40.6

D 40.8

Answer: A

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Question 122

In a class of 50 students, 23 speak English, 15 speak Hindi and 18 speak Punjabi. 3 speak only English
and Hindi, 6 speak only Hindi and Punjabi and 6 speak only English and Punjabi. If 9 can speak only
English, then how many students speak all the three languages?

A 1

B 2

C 3

D 5

Answer: D

Question 123

Two spinning machines A and B can together produce 3,00,000 metres of cloth in 10 hours. If machine B
alone can produce the same amountof cloth in 15 hours, then how much cloth can machine A produce
alone in 10 hours?

A 2,00,000 metres

B 1,00,000 metres

C 1,50,000 metres

D 50,000 metres

Answer: B

Question 124

37.85% and 92% alcoholic solutions are mixed to get 35 litres of an 89% alcoholic solution. How many
litres of each solution are there in the new mixture?

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A 1.94 of the first and 33.06 of the second

B 20 of the first and 15 of the second

C 15 of the first and 20 of the second

D 12 of the first and 23 of the second

Answer: A

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Question 125

A train leaves Station X at 5 a.m. and reaches Station Y at 9 a.m. Another train leaves Station Y at 7 a.m.
and reaches Station X at 10.30 a.m. At what time do the two trains cross each other?

A 7.36 a.m.

B 7.56 a.m.

C 8.36 a.m.

D 8.56 a.m.

Answer: B

Question 126

What is the value of M and N respectively if M39048458N is divisible by 8 and 11, where M and are single
digit integers ?

A 7, 8

B 8, 6

C 6, 4

D 5, 4

Answer: C

Question 127

Peter got 30% of the maximum marks in an examination and failed by 10 marks. However. Paul who took
the some examination got 40% of the total marks and got 15 marks more than the passing marks. What
were the passing marksin the examination?

A 35

B 250

C 75

D 85

Answer: D

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Question 128

The marked price of a certain commodity is 30%higher than its cost price. A discount of 20% on the
marked price makes the selling price Rs. 208. What is the net profit as a percentof cost price?

A 10%

B 4%

C 8%

D 12%

Answer: B

Question 129

The perimeter of a rectangular field is 52 m. If the length of the field is 2 m more than thrice the
breadth, then what is the breadth of the field?

A 6.5 m

B 6.25 m

C 13 m

D 6m

Answer: D

Question 130

In a class-room, there are 6 students. We needto divide them into 3 pairs for the purpose of assigning
homework. In how many ways can we make such pairs?

A 5

B 6

C 15

D 24

Answer: C

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Question 131

Train A travelling at 60km/hr leaves Mumbai for Delhi at 6 p.m. Train B travelling at 90 km/hr also leaves
Mumbai for Delhi at 9 p.m. Train C leaves Dethi for Mumbai at 9 p.m. If all the three trains meet at the
some time between Mumbai and Delhi, then what is the speed of Train C if the distance between Delhi
and Mumbai is 1260 km?

A 60 km/hr

B 90 km/hr

C 120 km/hr

D 135 km/hr

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Answer: C

Question 132

A boat, while going down-stream in a river covered a distance of 50 miles at an average speed of 60
miles per hour. While returning, because of the water resistance, it took one hour fifteen minutes to
cover the same distance. What was the average speed during the
whole journey?

A 40 mph

B 48 mph

C 50 mph

D 55 mph

Answer: B

Question 133

What is the third term in a sequence of numbers that leave remainders of 1, 2 and 3 when divided by 2, 3
and 4 respectively?

A 11

B 17

C 19

D 35

Answer: D

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Question 134

In a special racing event, the person who enclosed the maximum area would be the winner and would get
Rs 100 for every square meter of area covered by him/her. Johnson, who successfully completed the race
and was the eventual winner, enclosed the area shown in figure below. What is the prize money won?
(Note: The arc from C to D makes a complete semi-circle).

AB = 3 m, BC = 10 m, CD = BE = 2 m

A Rs 2914

B Rs 2457

C Rs 2614

D Rs 2500

Answer: B

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Question 135
1 1
If 22x−1 + 4x = 3x− 2 + 3x+ 2 , then x equals

1
A 2

2
B 3

C 1

3
D 2

Answer: D

Question 136

A and B can finish a job in 10 days while B and C can doit in 18 days. A started the job, workedfor 5 days,
then B worked for 10 days and the remaining job wasfinished by C in 15 days. In how many days could C
alone havefinished the whole job?

A 30

B 15

C 45

D 24

Answer: C

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Question 137

If 8x2y = 512 and 33x+2y = (32 )(3∗2) then what is the value of x and y ?

A (1, 3)

B (2, 3)

C (2, 4)

D (1, 4)

Answer: B

Question 138

In his wardrobe, Timothy has 3 trousers. One of them is black, the second blue, and the third brown. In
his wardrobe, he also has 4 shirts. One of them is black and the other 3 are white. He opens his
wardrobe in the dark and picks out one shirt-trouser pair, without examining the colour. What is the
likelihood that neither the shirt nor the trouser is black?

1
A 12

1
B 6

1
C 4

1
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1
D 2

Answer: D

Question 139

In a factory, producing parts for an automobile, the parts manufactured on the shop floor are required to
go through three quality checks, each conducted after a specific part of the processing on the raw
material is completed. Only parts that are not rejected at one stage are put through the subsequent
stages of production and testing. If average rejection rates at these three testing machines during a
month are 10%, 5% and 2% respectively, then whatis the effective rejection rate for the whole plant?

A 17%

B 15.20%

C 84.80%

D 16.21%

Answer: D

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Question 140

A country follows a progressive taxation system under which the income tax rate applicable varies for
different slabs of income. Total tax is computed by calculating the tax for each slab and adding them up.
The rates applicable are as follows:

If my annual income is Rs. 1,70,000, then what is the tax payable by me?

A Rs. 51,000

B Rs. 17,000

C Rs. 34,000

D Rs. 25,000

Answer: D

Question 141

The length of a rectangular plot is increased by 25%. To keep its area unchanged, the width of the plot
should be

A Kept unchanged

B Increased by 25%

C Increased by 20%

D Reduced by 20%

Answer: D

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Question 142

A man invests Rs. 5000 for 3 years, at 5% p.a. compound interest reckoned yearly. Income tax at the rate
of 20%on the interest earned is deducted at the end of each year. Find the amountat the end of the third
year.

A Rs. 5624.32

B Rs. 5630.50

C Rs. 5788.125

D Rs. 5627.20

Answer: A

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Question 143

A sum of Rs 36.90 is made up of 180 coins which are either 10 paise coins or 25 paise coins. Determine
the number of each type of coins.

A 126 of 10p coins and 54 of 25p coins

B 54 of 10p coins and 126 of 25p coins

C 90 of 10p coins and 90 of 25p coins

D None of the above

Answer: B

Question 144

A man has 1044 candles. After burning, he can make a new candle from 9 stubs left behind. Find the
maximum number of candles that can be made.

A 116

B 120

C 130

D 140

Answer: C

Question 145

Badri has 9 pairs of dark blue socks and 9 pairs of black socks. He keeps them all in the same bag. If he
picks out three socks at random, then whatis the probability that he will get a matching pair ?

(2 9 C2 9 C1 )
A 18 C
3

(9 C2 9 C1 )
B 18 C
3

C 1

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D None of these

Answer: C

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Question 146

A class photograph has to be taken. The front row consists of 6 girls who are sitting. 20 boys are
standing behind. The two corner positions are reserved for the 2 tallest boys. In how many ways can the
students be arranged?

A 18! × 1440

B 6! × 1440

C 18! × 2! × 1440

D None of these

Answer: A

Question 147

The LCM of two numbersis 280 and their ratio is 7 : 8. The two numbers are

A 70, 80

B 42, 48

C 35, 40

D 28, 32

Answer: C

Question 148

A certain number of people were supposed to complete a work in 24 days. The work, however, took 32
days, since 9 people were absent throughout. How many people were supposed to be working originally?

A 32

B 27

C 36

D 30

Answer: C

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Question 149

In the given diagram, two circles pass through each other's center. If the radius of each circle is 2, then
what is the perimeter of the region marked B?

8
A (3 ) π
4
B (5 ) π

C 4π
5
D (3 ) π
Answer: A

Question 150

Cloth Makers Inc. has p spindles, each of which can produce q metres of cloth on an average in r minutes.
If the spindles are madeto run with no interruption, then how many hours will it take for 20,000 meters
of cloth to be produced?

(pq)
A 20000 r

(rq)
B 20000 p

(pr)
C pq

r
D 20000 60(pq)
Answer: D

Question 151
1 1
If Dennis is 3 rd the age of his father Keith now, and was 4 th the age of his father 5 years ago, then how old
will his father Keith be 5 years from now?

A 20 years

B 45 years

C 40 years

D 50 years

Answer: D

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Question 152

A mail-sorting clerk is given 4 envelopes addressed to different people and 4 letters. She has to carefully
put the letters in the correct envelopes and then mail them. However, she carelessly puts any letter in
any envelope, making sure that each envelope has precisely one of those 4 letters. What is the likelihood
that all the letters are in the correct envelope?

1
A 24

1
B 12

1
C 6

1
D 4

Answer: A

Question 153

The ages of the two persons differ by 20 years. If 5 years ago, the older one be 5 times as old as the
younger one, then their present ages, in years, are

A 25, 5

B 30, 10

C 35, 15

D 50, 30

Answer: B

Question 154

A person has deposited Rs. 13,200 in a bank which pays 14%inferest. He withdraws the money and
invests in Rs. 100 stock at Rs. 110 which pays a dividend of 15%. How much does he gain or lose?

A Loses Rs. 48

B Goins Rs. 48

C Loses Rs. 132

D Gains Rs. 132

Answer: A

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Question 155

If a% of x is equal to b% of y, then c% of y is what % of x?

A c%

B ac/b%

C bc/a%

D abc%

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Answer: B

Question 156

The number of boys is more than the numberof girls by 12% of the total strength of the class. The ratio
of the number of boys to thatof the girls is

A 11 : 14

B 14 : 11

C 25 : 28

D 28 : 25

Answer: B

Question 157

Ten points are marked on a straight line and eleven points are marked on another straight line. How
many triangles can be constructed with vertices from among the above points?

A 495

B 550

C 1045

D 2475

Answer: C

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Question 158

The sum of two numbers is 462 and their highest common factor is 22. What is the maximum number of
pairs that satisfy these conditions?

A 1

B 3

C 2

D 6

Answer: D

Question 159

In a class, 40% of the boys is same as 1/2 of the girls and there are 20 girls. Total number of students in
the class is

A 70

B 45

C 35

D 25

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Answer: B

Question 160

A man bets on number 16 on a roulette whee! 14 times and loses each time. On the 15th spin, he does a
quick calculation and finds out that the number 12 had appeared twice in the 14 spans and is therefore
unable to decide whether to bet on 16 or 12 in the 15th spin Which will give him the best chance and what
are the odds of winning on the bet that he takes? (Roulette has numbers 1 to 36).

A 16 : 22 : 14

B 12 : 72 : 1

C 12 : 7 : 1

D Either : 35 : 1

Answer: C

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Indian & Global Development


Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 161

Who has been appointed as Prime Minister of Sri Lanka?

A Lakshman Kadrigamar

B Mohinda Rajapakse

C Ranil Wickremesinghe

D None of these

Answer: B

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Question 162

The ad line 'Experience Yourself’ is connected with the tourism of which state?

A Kerala

B Karnataka

C Andhra Pradesh

D Tamil Nadu

Answer: D

Question 163

Budget is the

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A Proposal of taxation

B Annual financial statement

C Appropriation bill

D None of these

Answer: B

Question 164

Which is the best selling car name of all time? The model has undergone several redesignsin its history
with 25 million vehicles sold in 142 countries?

A Toyota Corolla

B Skoda Octavia

C Hyndai Elantra

D Chevrolet Optra

Answer: A

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Question 165

An instrument for determining the amount of water vapours present in the atmosphere is known as

A Hygrometer

B Hydrometer

C Chronometer

D None of these

Answer: A

Question 166

Which of the following States is called the ‘Tiger State’ of India?

A Assam

B Gujarat

C West Bengal

D M.P.

Answer: C

Question 167

Which one of the following companies has notched the lop slot as the largest software exporter?

A Wipro

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B Infosys

C TCS

D Satyam Computers

Answer: C

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Question 168

How many teams took part in the Euro-2004 soccer tournament?

A 12

B 16

C 15

D 20

Answer: B

Question 169

BPO (Business Process Outsourcing) is gaining ground due to

A Factor cost advantage

B Economyof scale

C Business risk mitigation

D All of these

Answer: A

Question 170

X-tra Mile Super Diesel has been launched by

A Indian Oil

B Bharat Petroleum

C Hindustan Petroleum

D IBP

Answer: A

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Question 171

The slogan ‘With you-all the way’ is related to which bank?

A Indian Bank

B HSBC

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C HDFC

D State Bank of India

Answer: D

Question 172

Recently, India signed the Hawk deal with which of the following nations?

A China

B Britain

C Israel

D Russia

Answer: B

Question 173

Shovna Narayan is associated with which classical dance form of India?

A Bharatnatyam

B Kathakali

C Kuchipudi

D Kathak

Answer: D

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Question 174

The ad line ‘Connecting people’is linked with which company?

A Hutch

B Airtel

C Reliance Infocomm

D Nokia

Answer: D

Question 175

Who was crowned the 2004 Pond's Femina Miss India-Universe?

A Sayali Bhagat

B Jyoti Brahmin

C Lakshmi Pundit

D Tanushree Dutta

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Answer: D

Question 176

The elite Fortune 500 list includes which Indian company/companies?

A Indian Oil

B HPCL

C Reliance Industries

D All of these

Answer: D

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Question 177

The threat of flooding of Rampur in Himachal Pradesh has been dueto the rains in the catchment area of
............. river in Tibet.

A Sutlej

B Pareechu

C Chenab

D Beas

Answer: B

Question 178

North-South Road Corridor, which is being constructed under National Highways Development Project,
connects

A Jammu to Kanniyakumari

B Srinagar to Cochin

C Srinagar to Madurai

D Srinagar to Kanniyakumari

Answer: D

Question 179

Who is the youngest member of the 14th Lok Sabha?

A Milind Deora

B Sachin Pilot

C Sandeep Dikshit

D Ajay Maken

Answer: B

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Question 180

Which is not declared as a 'Navratan'?

A ONGC

B MMTC

C Indian Oil Corporation

D BHEL

Answer: B

Question 181

Who has been recently appointed as the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission?

A Shyam Saran

B Navin Chawla

C J. N. Dixit

D Montek Singh Ahluwalia

Answer: D

Question 182

Mohiniattam is a classical dance form of

A Andhra Pradesh

B Tamil Nadu

C Karnataka

D Kerala

Answer: D

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Question 183

Beighton Cup is awarded for which sport?

A Hockey

B Cricket

C Golf

D Volleyball

Answer: A

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Question 184

Who among the Following persons won the Best Actor award at the International Indian Film Academy
(UFA) awards function in Singapore in May 2004?

A Amitabh Bachchan

B Shahrukh Khan

C Akshay Kumar

D Hrithik Roshan

Answer: D

Question 185

World Population Day is observed on

A 12 July

B 10 July

C 11 July

D 13 July

Answer: C

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Question 186

Helsinki is the capital of

A Egypt

B Cyprus

C Italy

D Finland

Answer: D

Question 187

The Ninth Five-Year Plan covered the period

A 1997 - 2002

B 1998 - 2003

C 1996 - 2001

D 1999 - 2004

Answer: A

Question 188

Which vehicle is not a product of Maruti-Suzuki ?

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A Omni

B Versa

C Baleno

D Bolero

Answer: D

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Question 189

Who is the man behind Hotmail ?

A Azim Premji

B Vinod Khosla

C Rajiv Gupta

D Sabeer Bhatia

Answer: D

Question 190

The family car ‘Tavera’ has recently been introduced by

A GM

B Toyota

C Ford

D Honda

Answer: A

Question 191

Cathay Pacific airlines belongs to

A Russia

B Hong Kong

C Germany

D UK

Answer: B

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Question 192

Subhash Chandra is associated with

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A Dr. Reddy's Labs

B Ashok Leylond

C Zee Telefilms

D SAIL

Answer: C

Question 193

Pedagogy is a science which deals with

A Teaching

B Study of human mind

C Weather and climate

D Production of desired off springs

Answer: A

Question 194

Who isthe first Indian batsman to score a triple century in Test Cricket?

A V.V.S. Laxman

B Rahul Dravid

C Sachin Tendulkar

D Virender Sehwag

Answer: D

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Question 195

In 1955, the Imperial Bank of India, a leading commercial bank of India of that time, was nationalised and
renamed as

A Central Bank of India

B Bank of India

C Indian Bank

D State Bank of India

Answer: D

Question 196

A sustained and appreciable increasein the price level over a considerable period of time is known as

A Devaluation

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B Depreciation

C Inflation

D Depression

Answer: C

Question 197

Where was the formal meeting of the World Trade Oraganisotion (WTO) held in March 2004?

A Geneva

B Delhi

C Mumbai

D Singapore

Answer: A

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Question 198

The term ‘Chinaman’ is associatea with

A Hockey

B Billiards

C Golf

D Cricket

Answer: D

Question 199

Pulitzer Prizes of the US are awarded for

A Music

B Films

C Print journalism

D None of these

Answer: C

Question 200

Indian Naval Academyis located at

A Cochin

B Panaji

C Mumbai

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D Thiruvananthapuram

Answer: A

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