Solved MAT 2004 Paper With Solutions
Solved MAT 2004 Paper With Solutions
Each item is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each question using the following Options :
Question 1
A rectangular floor that is 4 metres wide is to be completely covered with squaretiles, each with the side
of length 0.25 metre. What is the least number of suchtiles required?
A. The length of the floor is three times the width.
B. The area of the floor is 48 square metres.
A If the question can be answered by one of the statements alone and not by the other.
If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either
C
statement alone.
D If the question cannot be answered evenby using both the statements together.
Answer: B
Each student in a class of 40 students voted for exactly one of the three candidates A, B or C for the post
of class representative. Did candidate A receive the maximum votes from the 40 votes cast?
A. Candidate A received 11 of the votes
B. Candidate C received 14 of the votes
A If the question can be answered by one of the statements alone and not by the other.
If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either
C
statement alone.
D If the question cannot be answered evenby using both the statements together.
Answer: A
Question 3
B. I2 is perpendicular to I3
A If the question can be answered by one of the statements alone and not by the other.
If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either
C
statement alone.
D If the question cannot be answered evenby using both the statements together.
Answer: C
A If the question can be answered by one of the statements alone and not by the other.
If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either
C
statement alone.
D If the question cannot be answered evenby using both the statements together.
Answer: D
B. (x − 3)(x − 4) = 0
A If the question can be answered by one of the statements alone and not by the other.
If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either
C
statement alone.
D If the question cannot be answered evenby using both the statements together.
Answer: C
Instructions
Refer to the given line graph and the pie charts to answer these questions:
A 3,00,500
B 2,77,500
C 6,57,000
D 9,00,000
Answer: D
Question 7
A 2
B 3
C 4
D 5
Answer: A
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During 1994-2002, the greatest proportion of FNI was put to commercial use in
A 1994
B 1996
C 1999
D 2002
Answer: D
Instructions
Investing in real estate would be a profitable venture at this time. A survey in House magazine revealed that 85% of
the magazine's readers are planning to buy a second home over the next few years. A study of the real estate
industry, however, revealed that the current supply or homes could only provide for 65%of that demand each year.
Question 9
Which of the following, if true, reveals a weakness in the evidence cited above?
C The number of people who want second homeshas been increasing each year for the past 10 years.
D Readers of House magazine are morelikely than most people to want second homes.
Answer: A
Question 10
Which of the following, if true, would undermine the validity of the investment advice in the paragraph
above?
B About half of the people who buy homesareinvestingin their first home.
C Only a quarter of the homes that are built are sold within the first 2 weeks.
D Only a quarter of those who claim that they want o second home actually end up purchasing one.
Answer: D
The following graph represents the Gross Receipts of three fast food restaurants from 2000-2002. Use it to answer
these questions:
The 2000-2002 gross receipts for Mega Burger exceeded those of Pizza Pie by approximately
A 0.2 million
B 2 million
C 8.2 million
D 8.4 million
Answer: B
Question 12
From 2001-2002, the percent increase in receipts for Pizza Pie exceeded the percent increase of Mega
Burger by approximately
A 2.67 %
B 2%
C 10%
D 15%
Answer: A
Question 13
D Cannot be determined
Answer: C
Question 14
The gross receipts for 2001 are approximately what percent of the gross receipts for all the three years?
A 30%
B 46.3%
C 46.7%
D Cannot be determined
Answer: A
Question 15
Over all the three years, the average percentage of gross receipts for Crunchy Chop exceeds the average
percentage of gross receipts for Pizza Pie by approximately
A 53%
B 30%
C 23%
D 8%
Answer: B
The gross receipts earned by the other restaurants in 2002 amount to precisely
A Rs. 18,10,650
B Rs. 7,53,300
C Rs. 5,47,500
D Rs. 4,53,150
Answer: D
The data in the following table and graph pertains to the Fellow and Associate categories of professionals. Study the
data and line graph given below to answer these Questions:
I. Western Region — 14
II. Southern Region — 26
III. Eastern region — 3
IV. Central Region — 17
V. Northern Region — 7
Question 17
The total number of associates is nearly ............ times the total number of Follows of all the five regions.
B Five
C Three
D Two
Answer: B
Question 18
The category showing the total number of Fellows of all the regions as nearly one - ninth of the total
Associates of all the regions is
C Not in practice
D None of these
Answer: C
Question 19
Answer: D
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Question 20
The average number of Fellows per branch of the Eastern region is approximately
A 982
B 780
C 690
D 885
Answer: B
Question 21
A 3600
C 4238
D 4100
Answer: B
Instructions
Each of these questions consists of two quantities, one in Column A and the other in Column B. Compare the two
quantities and mark your answer as
Question 22
Quantities 1 : The number of posts needed for a fence 144 m long when posts are placed 1.2 m apart.
Quantities 2 : 12 posts.
Answer: A
Answer: B
Question 24
Quantities 1 : Distance covered by a motorist going at 50 km per hour from 10:55 p.m. to 11:25 p.m. the
same evening is
Quantities 2 : 25 km
Answer: C
Answer: C
Answer: A
Instructions
In each of these questions, there is a statement with two assumptions numbered I and II. Consider the statement and
the assumptions to decide which assumption is/are implicit in the statement. Give your answer as
Question 27
Of all the newspapers published in Bangalore, readership of TTI is the highest in the metropolis.
I. TTI is not popular in mofussil areas.
II. TTI has the popular feature of political cartoons in it.
A If assumption I is implicit.
B If assumption II is implicit.
Answer: D
Question 28
If any time, you have financial difficulties, come to me, I will help you out.
I. You have financial difficulties.
II. promise to provide you financial help.
A If assumption I is implicit.
B If assumption II is implicit.
Answer: B
Given below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assume the statements to be true
even if they show variance from your own experience. Decide which conclusion logically follows from the two
statements. Give your answer as
Question 29
Answer: C
Question 30
Answer: D
Instructions
In each of these questions, there is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of
action is an administrative step or decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or further action regarding the
problem on the basis of the information in the statement. Assume everything in the statement to be true and decide
which course of action follows logically from the given statement. Give your answer as
Question 31
In spite of the principal's repeated warnings, a child was caught exploding crackers secretly in the
school.
I. All crackers should be taken away from the child and he should be threatened never to do it again.
II. The child should be severely punished for his wrong act.
Answer: B
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Question 32
Most children in India are unable to get an education as they get involved in earning a livelihood during
their childhood itself.
I. Education should be made compulsoryfor all children upto the age of 14.
II. Employment of children under the age of 14 years should be banned.
Answer: A
Question 33
The Asian Development Bank has approved a $285 million loan to finance a project to construct coal
ports by Madras port and Paradip porttrusts.
I. India should use financial assistance from other international financial organisations to develop such
ports in other places.
II. India should not seek assistance from foreign agencies.
Answer: C
Instructions
In answering these questions, you have to use the revenue data for the three companies A, B and C provided in the
graph:
A First
B Second
C Third
D Fourth
Answer: D
What is the total revenue for all the companies in all the garters?
A 89
B 90
C 91
D 93
Answer: D
Instructions
In each of these question, you are given two statements. To answer these questions, you can use oneor both the
statements. Give your answer as
Question 36
How many hours will it take for all the students and teachers together to put up a tent?
A. There are 4 teachers and 7 students.
B. All the teachers working together can put up the tent in 5 hours while all the students working
together can do so in 3 hours.
A If statement A ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement B alone is not.
B If statement B ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement A alone is not.
D If both the statements are INDEPENDENTLY sufficient to answer the given question.
Answer: B
Question 37
A If statement A ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement B alone is not.
B If statement B ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement A alone is not.
If both the statements TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the given question, but neither statement alone is
C
sufficient.
D If both the statements are INDEPENDENTLY sufficient to answer the given question.
Answer: A
A If statement A ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement B alone is not.
B If statement B ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement A alone is not.
If both the statements TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the given question, but neither statement alone is
C
sufficient.
D If both the statements are INDEPENDENTLY sufficient to answer the given question.
Answer: C
Question 39
a, b and c are the three digits of a number abc. abc is a multiple of 3. Find (a + b + C).
A. a = 3, b = 4.
B. C is an odd number.
A If statement A ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement B alone is not.
B If statement B ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement A alone is not.
If both the statements TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the given question, but neither statement alone is
C
sufficient.
D If both the statements are INDEPENDENTLY sufficient to answer the given question.
Answer: C
A If statement A ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement B alone is not.
B If statement B ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement A alone is not.
If both the statements TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the given question, but neither statement alone is
C
sufficient.
D If both the statements are INDEPENDENTLY sufficient to answer the given question.
Answer: D
Six items — U, V, W, X, Y and Z are being separated into 3 Groups — Group 1, Group 2 and Group3, according to the
following conditions:
(i) The number of items in Group 1 is less than or equal to the number of items in Group 2.
(ii) The number of items in Group2 is less than or equal to the number of items in Group 3.
(iii) Vand W cannot be in the same group.
(iv) X can be in Group 3 onlyif Y is in Group 3.
Question 41
Answer: D
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Question 42
If Group 1 contains only the item Y, then which of the following must be true?
C V is in Group 3
D X is in Group 2
Answer: D
If W and Y are in the same group and V is in Group 3, then which of the following must be false?
D U is in Group 3
Answer: B
Question 44
If Group 2 contains only one item, which is neither W nor V, then which of the following must be true?
B Group 3 contains W
D Group 2 contains Z
Answer: A
in each of these questions, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions. Give your answer as
Question 45
Statement: This world is neither good nor evil; each man manufactures a world for himself.
Conclusions:
I. Some people find this world quite good.
II. Some people find this world quite bad.
Answer: C
Question 46
Statement: Domestic demand has been increasing faster than the production of indigenous crude oil.
Conclusions:
I. Crude oil must be imported.
II. Domestic demand must be reduced.
Answer: C
Question 47
Statement: Parents are prepared to pay any price for an elite education to their children.
Conclusions:
I. All parents these days are very well off.
II. Parents have an obsessive passion for a perfect development of their children through good schooling.
Answer: B
Statement: From the next academia year, students will have the option of dropping Mathematics and
Science for their school living.
Conclusions:
I. Students who are weak in Science and Mathematics will be admitted.
II. Earlier, the students did not have the choice of continuing their education without these subjects.
Answer: B
Instructions
Question 49
A BA
B AF
C CE
Answer: D
Question 50
A Lawyer
B Architect
C Lecturer
D Accountant
Answer: B
A Can't say
B 2
C 3
D 4
Answer: C
Question 52
How is B related to C?
A Brother or sister
B Brother
C Sister
D Can't say
Answer: D
Question 53
Which of the statements (i) to (vii) is superfluous to find answers to the questions above?
A i
B ii
C iv
D None
Answer: D
Question 54
B A is D's daughter
Answer: C
Question 55
A D is A's aunt
B D is A's uncle
C A is D's niece
Answer: D
Instructions
Anna, Bhai, Nana, Dada, Appa and Bal are brothers. They are having their dinner seated at a round table. Appa is next
to Nana who is 3 seats from Dada. Annais seated 2 seats away from Bal.
Question 56
Answer: B
Answer: B
Question 58
D None of these
Answer: D
Instructions
Find the missing link in the sequences given in each of these questions:
Question 59
2, 3, 8, 63, ?
A 1038
B 3008
C 3968
D 3268
Answer: C
1, 4, 9, 25, ?
A 48
B 49
C 52
D 56
Answer: B
Question 61
B NOP
C NPR
D None of these
Answer: C
Question 62
4 9 39
9 , 20 , (?), 86
17
A 40
19
B 42
20
C 45
29
D 53
Answer: B
A Y66B
B Y44B
C Y88B
D Z88B
Answer: C
Question 64
A 27U24
B 47U15
C 45U15
D 47V14
Answer: B
Instructions
Given below are pairs of events 'A' and 'B". You haveto read both the events ‘A' and "B' to decide their nature of
relationship. You have to assumethat the information given in ‘A’ and "B"is true and you will not assume anything
beyond the given information in deciding your answer. Give your answer as
Event A: The national selectors have decided to retain the same 14 players for the third and final test
series against New Zealand.
Event B: India has won the second test against New Zealand.
A If 'A' is the effect and 'B' is its immediate and principal cause.
B If ‘A’ is the immediate and principal cause and 'B'is its effect.
C If 'A' is an effect but 'B' is not its immediate and principal cause.
D If 'B' is an effect but ‘A’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
Answer: A
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Question 66
Event A : Since Rani's own child had died at birth, she was desperate for another.
Event B : Rani had quietly kidnapped the child, less than two days old, and shipped it out of the hospital.
A If 'A' is the effect and 'B' is its immediate and principal cause.
B If ‘A’ is the immediate and principal cause and 'B'is its effect.
C If 'A' is an effect but 'B' is not its immediate and principal cause.
D If 'B' is an effect but ‘A’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
Answer: B
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Question 67
Renu is elder than Anita. Rocky is younger than Anita. Sohan is elder than Renu. Who is the eldest in the
group?
A Renu
B Anita
C Sohan
D Rocky
Answer: C
Question 68
Among the six cities — P, Q, R, S, T and U — P is not a hill station; Q and T are historical places; S is not
an industrial city; P and S are not historical cities; P and Q are not similar kinds of cities. Which of two
cities are historical places?
A P and S
B R and S
C P and R
Answer: D
Mr. Brijesh : A public sector company 'ABC' was privatised 3 years ago. It has increased profitability since
then. This is a clear indication that industries will fare better in the private sector than in the public
sector.
Mr. Sinha : That's wrong. Closer perusal of ABC's balance sheets shows that it has been profitable since
the appointment of a professional managing director 3 years ago, while it was still in the public sector.
Which best describes the weakness in Mr. Brijesh's judgement which Mr. Sinha is using?
B Professional management whether in a private or public sector company can earn more profits
Answer: B
Question 70
Informed people generally assimilate information from several divergent sources before coming to an
opinion. However, most popular news organisations view foreign affairs solely through the eyes of our
State Department. In reporting the political crisis in foreign country B, the news organisations must
endeavour to find out alternative sources of information.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the argument above?
To the degree that a news source gives an account of another country that mirrors that of our State Department,
A
that reporting is suspect.
To protect their integrity, news media should avoid the influence of State Department releases in their coverage of
B
foreign affairs.
The alternative sources of information mentioned in the passage might not share the same viewsas the State
C
Department.
Areport cannot be seen as influenced by the State Departmentif it accurately depicts the events in a foreign
D
country.
Answer: C
Question 71
A 6
C 16
D 10
Answer: D
A. light bulb company produces 2000 light bulbs per week. The manager wants to ensure that standards
of quality remain constant from week to week. The manager therefore claims that out of 2000 light bulbs
produced per week, 500 light bulbs are rejected. Of the following, the best criticism of the manager's
planis that the plan assumes that
A Light bulb manufacturers cannot accept all light bulbs that are produced.
D The 1,500 light bulbs that are accepted will be of the same quality from week to week.
Answer: D
Question 73
Animesh walked 30 metres towards West, turned to his right and walked 20 metres. He then turnedto his
left and walked 10 metres, then turnedto his left and walked 40 metres. He turned to his left and walked
5 metres. He again turned to his left and continued walking. In which direction is Animesh walking now?
A North-East
B North
C South-East
D West
Answer: B
Question 74
A greater number of fresh vegetables is sold in Kanpur than in Lucknow. Therefore, the people in Kanpur
have better nutritional habits than those in Lucknow. Each of the following, if true, weakens the
conclusions above, except
B Most of the people in Lucknow workin Kanpur and buy their vegetables there.
C The per capita consumption of the junk food in Kanpur is three times that of Lucknow.
The average price per pound of the vegetables in Lucknowis lower than the average price per pound of vegetables
D
in Kanpur.
Answer: C
Traffic safety experts predict that the installation of newly designed seat belts in all cars in India would
reduce the average number offatalities per traffic accident by 30%. In order to save lives, the
Department of Transport (DOT) is considering requiring automobile
manufacturersto install belts of this design in all cars produced after 2005.
Which of the following, if true, represents the strongest challenge to the DOT's proposal?
Belts of the new design are more given to being inadvertently triggered, an occurrence that can some times result
A
in fatal traffic accidents.
The DOT is planning to require automobile manufacturers to produce these belts according to very strict
B
specifications.
C After installing belts in new cars, automobile manufacturers will experience an increase in sales.
D The proposed belts installation program will adversely affect the resale of cars manufactured prior to 2005.
Answer: D
Question 76
A decade after a logging operation in India began cutting downtrees in a territory that served as a
sanctuary for Bengal tigers, the incidence of tigers attacking humans in nearby villages has increased by
300%. Since the logging operation has reduced the number of acres of woodland per tiger on an average
from 16 acres to approximately 12 acres, the scientists have theorised that tigers must need a minimum
number of acres of woodland in order to remain content.
Which of the following statements, if true, would most strengthen the scientists’ hypothes is ?
In other wildlife areas in India where the number of acres of wood land per tiger remains at least 15 acres, there
A
has been no increase in the number oftiger attacks on humans.
B Before the logging operation began, there were many less humans living in the area.
C Other species of wild animals have begun competing with the Bengal tigers for the dwindling food supply.
D The Bengal tiger has become completely extinct in other areas of Asia.
Answer: A
Question 77
In a certain code language, if A is written as C, Bas D, C as E and so on up to Z, then how will PECULIAR
be written in that code?
A RGEXNKCT
B RGEWNKBT
C RGEWNKCT
D RGEWKNCS
Answer: C
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A company recently registered a big jump in clothing sales after hiring a copywriter and a graphic artist
to give its clothing catalogue a magazine-like format designed to appeal to a more upscale clientele. The
company is now planning to launch a house wares catalogue
using the same concept. The company's plan assumes that
C The same copywriter and graphic artist could be employed for both the clothing and the housewares catalogues.
Answer: C
Question 79
If TV is called Radio’, 'Radio is called Aeroplane’, ‘Aeroplane is called Helicopter’, ‘Helicopter is called
Bus’, 'Bus is called Bike’, "Bike is called Water’, "Water is called Frog’, ‘Frog is called Tomato’, ‘Tomato is
called Furniture’ and ‘Furniture is called Cigarette’, then what is Tomato sauce made up of?
A Water
B Furniture
C Frog
D None of these
Answer: B
Question 80
The Election Commission has revised upwards the ceiling of total expenditure on all counts for Lok Sabha
candidatesto Rs. x lakh.
Which of the following, if true, will make the ceiling an effective measure for a free andfair election?
D Submission of the accounts in time for all election expenses of the candidate to the Election Commission
Answer: D
Language Comprehension
Instructions
Passage I :
One of the basic principles of people management for most of the 20th century was to narrow an individual's task
down to a small, heavily monitored, transparently cost-effective unit of work. This was particularly the case in many
areas of manufacturing, where it was felt to be a necessary route to greater competitiveness. It left the individual with
little chance to show any initiative. Today, that tenet is being turned largely on its head. Much more is expected from
Question 81
D The individual is expected to do much less today than what he used to do earlier.
Answer: A
C Its consideration that its employees are combatantsin a battle, thus giving them more responsibility.
Answer: D
Question 83
B The decisions are usually taken by the top management, thus leading to success.
Answer: C
Question 84
D None of these.
Answer: C
B Employees may make mistakes and hence giving them responsibility would not be beneficial.
Answer: B
Instructions
Passage II :
Definitions of ‘culture’ are contested. In anthropological usage, the word refers to a system of shared meanings
through which collective existence becomes possible. However, aS many recent critiques of this position point out, this
sense of culture gives no place to the idea of judgement, and hence to the relations of power by which the dominance
of ideas and tastesis established. As Said says about Matthew Arnold's view of culture:
"What is at stake in society is not merely the cultivation of individuals, or the development of a class of finely tuned
sensibilities, or the renaissance of interests in the classics, but rather the assertively achieved and won hegemonyof
an identifiable set of ideas, which Arnold honorifically colls, culture, over all other ideas in society.”
The implications of Arnold's view of culture are profound; they lead us towards a position in which culture must be
seen in terms of that which it eliminates as much as that which it establishes. Said argues that when culture is
consecrated by the state, it becomes a system of discriminations and evaluations through which a series of exclusions
can be legislated from above. By the enactment of such legislation, the state comes to be the primary giver of values.
Anarchy, disorder, irrationality, inferiority, bad taste and immorality are, in this way, defined and then located outside
culture and civilisation by the state and its institutions. This exclusion of alterity is an important device by which the
hegemony of the state is established; either certain ‘others’ are defined as being outside culture, as are ‘mad' people;
or they are domesticated, as with penal servitude—Foucault’s monumental studies on the asylum and the prison
demonstrate this.
It is this context which we must understand in order to fully appreciate the challenge posed by the community to the
hegemony of the state, especially to the notion that the state is the sole giver of values. At the same time, the
dangeris that we may in the process he tempted to valourise the community as somehow representing a more organic
mode, and therefore a more authentic method of organising culture. Many scholars feel that culture is more
organically related to the traditions of groups, whereastraditions are falsely invented by the hands of state. The issues
are by no meansas simple, for culture and tradition are not instituted in society once and forever, but are subject to
the constant change and flux which are an essential feature of every society. Indeed, the very attempt to freeze and
fix cultural traditions may be inimical to their survival. Finally, in the contests between state, communities and
collectivities of different kinds on one hand and the individual on the other, we can see the double life of culture: its
potential to give radical recognition to the humanity of its subjects as well as its potential to keep the individual within
such tightly defined bounds that the capacity to experiment with selfhood—which is also a mark of
humanity—may be jeopardised.
So, we arrive at this double definition of culture. By this | mean that the word ‘culture’ refers to both a system of
shared meanings which defines the individual's collective life, as well as a system for the formulation of judgements
which are used to exclude alterities, and which thus keep the individual strictly within the bounds defined by the
society. It is in view of this that the question of cultural rights seems to me to be placed squarely with in the question
of passions rather than interests. It is time now to define passion. After the classical work of Hirschman on political
passions, if was usual to think of passions as obstructions in the path of reason. Passions had to be overcome for
enlightened interest to emerge. This view of passions is extremely limited. Indeed, certain kinds of revelations,
including the recognition of oneself as human, become possible only through passion. If the self is constituted only
through the Other—so that desire, cognition, memory
and imagination become possible through the play of passion—then the revelatory role of passion must be
acknowledgednot only in the life of the individual but also in the life of the collective. Passion then mustplaya role in
politics.
As we hove seen, the demandfor cultural rights at this historical momentis in a context, where cultural symbols have
been appropriated by the state, which tries to establish a monopoly over ethical pronouncements. The state is thus
experienced as a threat by smaller units, who feel that their ways of life are penetrated, if not engulfed, by this larger
unit. The situation is quite the opposite of the relation between the part and the whole in hierarchical systems, a
relation seen as the characteristics mark of traditional politics in South Asia. In a hierarchical system, differences
between constitutional units were essential for the ‘whole’ to be constituted.
In other words, small units came to be defined by being bearer of special marks in a hierarchical entity. And although
by definition they could not be equal in such a system, the very logic of hierarchy assured that they could not be
simply engulfed into the higher totality. This was both a source of their oppression as well as a guarantee of their
acceptance (though not a radical acceptance) of their place in the world, My argument is not an appeal for a return to
hierarchy as a principle of organisation. Rather, it is an effort to locate the special nature of the threat which smaller
groups feel.
Question 86
B Idea of judgement
C Relations of power
Answer: D
Question 87
D Exclusionof alterity
Answer: A
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Question 88
B Passion contributesto the life of the collective but only after playing a role in the life of the individual
C Passion's contribution to the life of the collective can be appreciated only if a broader view is adopted
D Passion's contribution to culture can be enhancedif it is not allowed to obstruct the path of reason
Answer: B
Question 89
B Jeopardising humanity
Answer: A
Question 90
Answer: C
For the following verbal analogies pick the pair that exhibits the most similar relationship to the given analogy:
Question 91
Autumn; Wither
A Fall; Digress
B Winter; Retreat
C Spring; Flower
D Season; Change
Answer: C
Question 92
Augur; Future
A Knigh; Medieval
B Poet; Century
C Vanguard; Pack
D Historian; Past
Answer: D
Question 93
Stately; Demeanour
A Ascetic; Deportment
B Narrow; Vessel
C Fertile; Nature
D Sober; Mien
Answer: D
Rash; Stoic
A Articulate; Orator
C Dolorous; Spouse
D Agnostic; Cleric
Answer: D
Instructions
From the alternatives provided, choose the one that best fills the blank:
Question 95
They lament and express their despair ............. the way Gandhi has been forgotten in his own land.
A Over
B Of
C In
D With
Answer: A
Question 96
A Is divided
B Are divided
C Is being divided
D Divided
Answer: B
C I was alone
Answer: A
Question 98
I have known her .......... the end of the World War II.
A From
B Since
D Towards
Answer: B
Question 99
A Has gossiped
C Gossiped
D Has gossiping
Answer: B
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Instructions
In each of these questions, you are given a sentence. A part of the sentence is underlined. This is followed by four
ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choice (1) repeats the original; the other three are different. Select the version
that best rephrases the underlined part:
Question 100
Many employers now believe that the advancement in technology has improved the, environment for the
workers who can now work up to 18 hours a day and still does not feel physically tired.
Advancements in technology has improved the environment for the workers who can now work up to 18 hours a
A
dayand still does
Advancement in technology have improved the environment for the workers who can now work up to 18 hours a
B
day and still does
Advancements in technologies have improved the environment for the workers who can now workup to 18 hours a
C
day and still does
Advancements in technology have improved the environment for the workers who can now work up to 18 hours a
D
day and still do
Answer: D
Question 101
It is difficult to diagnose malaria because its first symptoms are similar to any viral fever.
Answer: B
To create a new game means expending lot of sweat, and calls for all the members of the development
team to play its role with aplomb throughout the long - drawn - out procedure before the game sees the
light of the day.
A For all the membersof the development team to playits role with aplomb throughout
B For all the membersin the developmentteam to play their role with aplomb throughout
C For all the members of the development team to play their roles with aplomb throughout
D All the members of the developmentteam to play their roles with aplomb throughout
Answer: C
The state has at least twenty colleges of whom only six are officially recognised.
Answer: D
Question 104
The all-pervasiveness of the Internet has led to a joke, that a few bored homosapiens left to themselves
in a single room with a couple of computers for some days, would eventually produce something that
would either make Shakespeare jealous or plain wild.
Answer: B
Instructions
Each of the sentences against these questions has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted.
Choosethe set of words for each blank that best fits the meating of the sentence as a whole:
Question 105
The term ‘rare earths’ is in fact a , .............. for paradoxically, the rare-earth elements are in actuality
............., being presentin low concentration in virtually all the minerals.
A Truism — essential
B Misnomer — ubiquitous
D Metaphor — figurative
Answer: B
According to the 12th century cosmologies, the natural philosopher must strive to .......... a state of
detached objectivity in order to free his capacity for constructing useful hypothesis from the .................
of unquestioned assumptions and accepted opinions about nature.
A Capture — contemplation
B Achieve — tyranny
C Imitate — discipline
D Attain — confusion
Answer: B
Question 107
The columnist was very gentle when he mentioned his friends but was bitter and ever ........... when he
discussed people who ............ him.
A Laconic — infuriated
B Acerbic — irritated
C Remorseful — encouraged
D Militant — distressed
Answer: D
Question 108
She conducted the interrogation not only with dispatch but with .........., being a person who is ......... in
manner yet subtle in discrimination.
A Elan — enthusiastic
B Equanimity — abrupt
C Finesse — expeditious
D Zeal — doctrinaire
Answer: A
In these questions, find out the part of the sentence that has an error. Choose 'D' if there is no error.
They cook meals, lay the table and wash up (A)/ clean the house (B)/ and mend the clothes (C)
A A
B B
C C
D D
Answer: C
Question 110
He seemed distracted (A)/ thinking less about what he was doing tonight (B)/than what he would be
doing on the morrow (C).
A A
B B
C C
D D
Answer: B
Question 111
For an educated man of the time, virtualy the only way to gain power and prestige (A)/ was studying the
Confucian classics (B)/and work his way up the ladder (C)/as a scholar-official.
A A
B B
C C
D D
Answer: C
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Question 112
For several reasons (A)/social psychologists have been studying (B)/ the effects competition (C)/ on
performance and productivity.
A A
B B
C C
D D
Answer: D
Instructions
Question 113
DESULTORY
A Organised
B Disorganised
C Drive
D Romantic
Answer: B
Question 114
SACCHARINE
A Clumsy
B Carriage
C Syrupy
D Caustic
Answer: C
TENACIOUS
A Determined
B Peevish
C Brazen
D Impious
Answer: A
Question 116
CONJURER
A Wicked
B Entertainer
C Jester
D Palpable
Answer: B
Each of these questions consists of a word, followed by four words. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in
meaning to the word given in question:
Question 117
RADICAL
A Fashionable
B Diabolic
C Conservative
D Myopic
Answer: C
FLAMBOYANT
A Lateral
B Dull
C Maverick
D Antique
Answer: B
Question 119
TANTALISING
A Toiling
B Seance
C Repulsive
D Seamy
Answer: C
Question 120
INEFFABLE
A Describable
B Frivolous
C Eclectic
D Blasphemy
Answer: A
Mathematical Skills
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Question 121
The average of 10 numbersis 40.2. Later it is found that two numbers have been wrongly added. The first
is 18 greater than the actual number and the second number added is 13 instead of 31. Find the correct
average.
A 40.2
B 40.4
C 40.6
D 40.8
Answer: A
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Question 122
In a class of 50 students, 23 speak English, 15 speak Hindi and 18 speak Punjabi. 3 speak only English
and Hindi, 6 speak only Hindi and Punjabi and 6 speak only English and Punjabi. If 9 can speak only
English, then how many students speak all the three languages?
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 5
Answer: D
Question 123
Two spinning machines A and B can together produce 3,00,000 metres of cloth in 10 hours. If machine B
alone can produce the same amountof cloth in 15 hours, then how much cloth can machine A produce
alone in 10 hours?
A 2,00,000 metres
B 1,00,000 metres
C 1,50,000 metres
D 50,000 metres
Answer: B
Question 124
37.85% and 92% alcoholic solutions are mixed to get 35 litres of an 89% alcoholic solution. How many
litres of each solution are there in the new mixture?
Answer: A
A train leaves Station X at 5 a.m. and reaches Station Y at 9 a.m. Another train leaves Station Y at 7 a.m.
and reaches Station X at 10.30 a.m. At what time do the two trains cross each other?
A 7.36 a.m.
B 7.56 a.m.
C 8.36 a.m.
D 8.56 a.m.
Answer: B
Question 126
What is the value of M and N respectively if M39048458N is divisible by 8 and 11, where M and are single
digit integers ?
A 7, 8
B 8, 6
C 6, 4
D 5, 4
Answer: C
Question 127
Peter got 30% of the maximum marks in an examination and failed by 10 marks. However. Paul who took
the some examination got 40% of the total marks and got 15 marks more than the passing marks. What
were the passing marksin the examination?
A 35
B 250
C 75
D 85
Answer: D
The marked price of a certain commodity is 30%higher than its cost price. A discount of 20% on the
marked price makes the selling price Rs. 208. What is the net profit as a percentof cost price?
A 10%
B 4%
C 8%
D 12%
Answer: B
Question 129
The perimeter of a rectangular field is 52 m. If the length of the field is 2 m more than thrice the
breadth, then what is the breadth of the field?
A 6.5 m
B 6.25 m
C 13 m
D 6m
Answer: D
Question 130
In a class-room, there are 6 students. We needto divide them into 3 pairs for the purpose of assigning
homework. In how many ways can we make such pairs?
A 5
B 6
C 15
D 24
Answer: C
Train A travelling at 60km/hr leaves Mumbai for Delhi at 6 p.m. Train B travelling at 90 km/hr also leaves
Mumbai for Delhi at 9 p.m. Train C leaves Dethi for Mumbai at 9 p.m. If all the three trains meet at the
some time between Mumbai and Delhi, then what is the speed of Train C if the distance between Delhi
and Mumbai is 1260 km?
A 60 km/hr
B 90 km/hr
C 120 km/hr
D 135 km/hr
Question 132
A boat, while going down-stream in a river covered a distance of 50 miles at an average speed of 60
miles per hour. While returning, because of the water resistance, it took one hour fifteen minutes to
cover the same distance. What was the average speed during the
whole journey?
A 40 mph
B 48 mph
C 50 mph
D 55 mph
Answer: B
Question 133
What is the third term in a sequence of numbers that leave remainders of 1, 2 and 3 when divided by 2, 3
and 4 respectively?
A 11
B 17
C 19
D 35
Answer: D
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Question 134
In a special racing event, the person who enclosed the maximum area would be the winner and would get
Rs 100 for every square meter of area covered by him/her. Johnson, who successfully completed the race
and was the eventual winner, enclosed the area shown in figure below. What is the prize money won?
(Note: The arc from C to D makes a complete semi-circle).
AB = 3 m, BC = 10 m, CD = BE = 2 m
A Rs 2914
B Rs 2457
C Rs 2614
D Rs 2500
Answer: B
1
A 2
2
B 3
C 1
3
D 2
Answer: D
Question 136
A and B can finish a job in 10 days while B and C can doit in 18 days. A started the job, workedfor 5 days,
then B worked for 10 days and the remaining job wasfinished by C in 15 days. In how many days could C
alone havefinished the whole job?
A 30
B 15
C 45
D 24
Answer: C
If 8x2y = 512 and 33x+2y = (32 )(3∗2) then what is the value of x and y ?
A (1, 3)
B (2, 3)
C (2, 4)
D (1, 4)
Answer: B
Question 138
In his wardrobe, Timothy has 3 trousers. One of them is black, the second blue, and the third brown. In
his wardrobe, he also has 4 shirts. One of them is black and the other 3 are white. He opens his
wardrobe in the dark and picks out one shirt-trouser pair, without examining the colour. What is the
likelihood that neither the shirt nor the trouser is black?
1
A 12
1
B 6
1
C 4
1
Downloaded from cracku.in
1
D 2
Answer: D
Question 139
In a factory, producing parts for an automobile, the parts manufactured on the shop floor are required to
go through three quality checks, each conducted after a specific part of the processing on the raw
material is completed. Only parts that are not rejected at one stage are put through the subsequent
stages of production and testing. If average rejection rates at these three testing machines during a
month are 10%, 5% and 2% respectively, then whatis the effective rejection rate for the whole plant?
A 17%
B 15.20%
C 84.80%
D 16.21%
Answer: D
A country follows a progressive taxation system under which the income tax rate applicable varies for
different slabs of income. Total tax is computed by calculating the tax for each slab and adding them up.
The rates applicable are as follows:
If my annual income is Rs. 1,70,000, then what is the tax payable by me?
A Rs. 51,000
B Rs. 17,000
C Rs. 34,000
D Rs. 25,000
Answer: D
Question 141
The length of a rectangular plot is increased by 25%. To keep its area unchanged, the width of the plot
should be
A Kept unchanged
B Increased by 25%
C Increased by 20%
D Reduced by 20%
Answer: D
A man invests Rs. 5000 for 3 years, at 5% p.a. compound interest reckoned yearly. Income tax at the rate
of 20%on the interest earned is deducted at the end of each year. Find the amountat the end of the third
year.
A Rs. 5624.32
B Rs. 5630.50
C Rs. 5788.125
D Rs. 5627.20
Answer: A
A sum of Rs 36.90 is made up of 180 coins which are either 10 paise coins or 25 paise coins. Determine
the number of each type of coins.
Answer: B
Question 144
A man has 1044 candles. After burning, he can make a new candle from 9 stubs left behind. Find the
maximum number of candles that can be made.
A 116
B 120
C 130
D 140
Answer: C
Question 145
Badri has 9 pairs of dark blue socks and 9 pairs of black socks. He keeps them all in the same bag. If he
picks out three socks at random, then whatis the probability that he will get a matching pair ?
(2 9 C2 9 C1 )
A 18 C
3
(9 C2 9 C1 )
B 18 C
3
C 1
Answer: C
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Question 146
A class photograph has to be taken. The front row consists of 6 girls who are sitting. 20 boys are
standing behind. The two corner positions are reserved for the 2 tallest boys. In how many ways can the
students be arranged?
A 18! × 1440
B 6! × 1440
C 18! × 2! × 1440
D None of these
Answer: A
Question 147
The LCM of two numbersis 280 and their ratio is 7 : 8. The two numbers are
A 70, 80
B 42, 48
C 35, 40
D 28, 32
Answer: C
Question 148
A certain number of people were supposed to complete a work in 24 days. The work, however, took 32
days, since 9 people were absent throughout. How many people were supposed to be working originally?
A 32
B 27
C 36
D 30
Answer: C
In the given diagram, two circles pass through each other's center. If the radius of each circle is 2, then
what is the perimeter of the region marked B?
8
A (3 ) π
4
B (5 ) π
C 4π
5
D (3 ) π
Answer: A
Question 150
Cloth Makers Inc. has p spindles, each of which can produce q metres of cloth on an average in r minutes.
If the spindles are madeto run with no interruption, then how many hours will it take for 20,000 meters
of cloth to be produced?
(pq)
A 20000 r
(rq)
B 20000 p
(pr)
C pq
r
D 20000 60(pq)
Answer: D
Question 151
1 1
If Dennis is 3 rd the age of his father Keith now, and was 4 th the age of his father 5 years ago, then how old
will his father Keith be 5 years from now?
A 20 years
B 45 years
C 40 years
D 50 years
Answer: D
A mail-sorting clerk is given 4 envelopes addressed to different people and 4 letters. She has to carefully
put the letters in the correct envelopes and then mail them. However, she carelessly puts any letter in
any envelope, making sure that each envelope has precisely one of those 4 letters. What is the likelihood
that all the letters are in the correct envelope?
1
A 24
1
B 12
1
C 6
1
D 4
Answer: A
Question 153
The ages of the two persons differ by 20 years. If 5 years ago, the older one be 5 times as old as the
younger one, then their present ages, in years, are
A 25, 5
B 30, 10
C 35, 15
D 50, 30
Answer: B
Question 154
A person has deposited Rs. 13,200 in a bank which pays 14%inferest. He withdraws the money and
invests in Rs. 100 stock at Rs. 110 which pays a dividend of 15%. How much does he gain or lose?
A Loses Rs. 48
B Goins Rs. 48
Answer: A
A c%
B ac/b%
C bc/a%
D abc%
Question 156
The number of boys is more than the numberof girls by 12% of the total strength of the class. The ratio
of the number of boys to thatof the girls is
A 11 : 14
B 14 : 11
C 25 : 28
D 28 : 25
Answer: B
Question 157
Ten points are marked on a straight line and eleven points are marked on another straight line. How
many triangles can be constructed with vertices from among the above points?
A 495
B 550
C 1045
D 2475
Answer: C
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Question 158
The sum of two numbers is 462 and their highest common factor is 22. What is the maximum number of
pairs that satisfy these conditions?
A 1
B 3
C 2
D 6
Answer: D
Question 159
In a class, 40% of the boys is same as 1/2 of the girls and there are 20 girls. Total number of students in
the class is
A 70
B 45
C 35
D 25
Question 160
A man bets on number 16 on a roulette whee! 14 times and loses each time. On the 15th spin, he does a
quick calculation and finds out that the number 12 had appeared twice in the 14 spans and is therefore
unable to decide whether to bet on 16 or 12 in the 15th spin Which will give him the best chance and what
are the odds of winning on the bet that he takes? (Roulette has numbers 1 to 36).
A 16 : 22 : 14
B 12 : 72 : 1
C 12 : 7 : 1
D Either : 35 : 1
Answer: C
Question 161
A Lakshman Kadrigamar
B Mohinda Rajapakse
C Ranil Wickremesinghe
D None of these
Answer: B
The ad line 'Experience Yourself’ is connected with the tourism of which state?
A Kerala
B Karnataka
C Andhra Pradesh
D Tamil Nadu
Answer: D
Question 163
Budget is the
C Appropriation bill
D None of these
Answer: B
Question 164
Which is the best selling car name of all time? The model has undergone several redesignsin its history
with 25 million vehicles sold in 142 countries?
A Toyota Corolla
B Skoda Octavia
C Hyndai Elantra
D Chevrolet Optra
Answer: A
An instrument for determining the amount of water vapours present in the atmosphere is known as
A Hygrometer
B Hydrometer
C Chronometer
D None of these
Answer: A
Question 166
A Assam
B Gujarat
C West Bengal
D M.P.
Answer: C
Question 167
Which one of the following companies has notched the lop slot as the largest software exporter?
A Wipro
C TCS
D Satyam Computers
Answer: C
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Question 168
A 12
B 16
C 15
D 20
Answer: B
Question 169
B Economyof scale
D All of these
Answer: A
Question 170
A Indian Oil
B Bharat Petroleum
C Hindustan Petroleum
D IBP
Answer: A
A Indian Bank
B HSBC
Answer: D
Question 172
Recently, India signed the Hawk deal with which of the following nations?
A China
B Britain
C Israel
D Russia
Answer: B
Question 173
A Bharatnatyam
B Kathakali
C Kuchipudi
D Kathak
Answer: D
A Hutch
B Airtel
C Reliance Infocomm
D Nokia
Answer: D
Question 175
A Sayali Bhagat
B Jyoti Brahmin
C Lakshmi Pundit
D Tanushree Dutta
Question 176
A Indian Oil
B HPCL
C Reliance Industries
D All of these
Answer: D
The threat of flooding of Rampur in Himachal Pradesh has been dueto the rains in the catchment area of
............. river in Tibet.
A Sutlej
B Pareechu
C Chenab
D Beas
Answer: B
Question 178
North-South Road Corridor, which is being constructed under National Highways Development Project,
connects
A Jammu to Kanniyakumari
B Srinagar to Cochin
C Srinagar to Madurai
D Srinagar to Kanniyakumari
Answer: D
Question 179
A Milind Deora
B Sachin Pilot
C Sandeep Dikshit
D Ajay Maken
Answer: B
A ONGC
B MMTC
D BHEL
Answer: B
Question 181
Who has been recently appointed as the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission?
A Shyam Saran
B Navin Chawla
C J. N. Dixit
Answer: D
Question 182
A Andhra Pradesh
B Tamil Nadu
C Karnataka
D Kerala
Answer: D
A Hockey
B Cricket
C Golf
D Volleyball
Answer: A
Who among the Following persons won the Best Actor award at the International Indian Film Academy
(UFA) awards function in Singapore in May 2004?
A Amitabh Bachchan
B Shahrukh Khan
C Akshay Kumar
D Hrithik Roshan
Answer: D
Question 185
A 12 July
B 10 July
C 11 July
D 13 July
Answer: C
A Egypt
B Cyprus
C Italy
D Finland
Answer: D
Question 187
A 1997 - 2002
B 1998 - 2003
C 1996 - 2001
D 1999 - 2004
Answer: A
Question 188
B Versa
C Baleno
D Bolero
Answer: D
A Azim Premji
B Vinod Khosla
C Rajiv Gupta
D Sabeer Bhatia
Answer: D
Question 190
A GM
B Toyota
C Ford
D Honda
Answer: A
Question 191
A Russia
B Hong Kong
C Germany
D UK
Answer: B
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Question 192
B Ashok Leylond
C Zee Telefilms
D SAIL
Answer: C
Question 193
A Teaching
Answer: A
Question 194
Who isthe first Indian batsman to score a triple century in Test Cricket?
A V.V.S. Laxman
B Rahul Dravid
C Sachin Tendulkar
D Virender Sehwag
Answer: D
In 1955, the Imperial Bank of India, a leading commercial bank of India of that time, was nationalised and
renamed as
B Bank of India
C Indian Bank
Answer: D
Question 196
A sustained and appreciable increasein the price level over a considerable period of time is known as
A Devaluation
C Inflation
D Depression
Answer: C
Question 197
Where was the formal meeting of the World Trade Oraganisotion (WTO) held in March 2004?
A Geneva
B Delhi
C Mumbai
D Singapore
Answer: A
A Hockey
B Billiards
C Golf
D Cricket
Answer: D
Question 199
A Music
B Films
C Print journalism
D None of these
Answer: C
Question 200
A Cochin
B Panaji
C Mumbai
Answer: A
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