PHARM. CHEM.

2 OF ORGANIC MEDICINALS – REVIEWER

1. Which of the following is/are required for a drug to be e. AOTA

absorbed? 10. The route of administration which will by-pass the GIT
a. The drug must be unionized and in an aqueous degradation and hepatic metabolism is:
solution a. Intravenous injection c. buccal
b. The drug must be ionized and in a non-aqueous b. Sublingual d. all of the above
solution 11. If the drug permeates through the capillary walls and
c. The drug must be unionized and in a non-aqueous enter the blood stream:
solution a. Adsorption c. absorption
d. The drug must be ionized and in an aqueous solution b. permeation d. sorption
2. Which of the following is true about the use of 12. The metabolizing capacity developed in 3 months
prodrugs? infant include the ff, except:
I. Prodrugs are used to promote early metabolism a. Glycine conjugation c. Cysteine conjugation
of drugs. b. Glucuronidation d. Glutathione conjugation
II. Prodrugs are utilized to facilitate formulation of 13. The Biotransformation of the parent drug Dopamine
dosage forms. results in the formation of this active metabolite:
III. Prodrugs are used to enhance solubility of drug a. Desalkylflurazepam c. Norepinephrine
products. b. Desipramine d. Normeperidine
IV. Prodrugs are used to retard drug absorption. 14. Which of the following functional groups usually
a. I & II only c. II & III undergo glucuronidation?
b. III & IV only d. I, II & III a. Aldehydes and Ketones
e. II, III & IV b. Carboxylic acids
3. Which of the following is/are not a factor/s affecting c. Primary and aromatic amines
drug absorption? d. Esters and amides
I. Chemical structure III. Type of tablet e. Phenolic and alcoholic groups
matrix 15. This phase II reaction is the major route of
II. Type of tablet coating IV. Drug solubility acetaminophen metabolism in the pediatric group:
a. I only c. I & IV a. Glucuronidation c. Glycine conjugation
b. All except IV d. IV only b. Sulfate conjugation d. Glutathione conjugation
e. II & III e. Acetylation
4. Which of the ff is/are parent drug/s? 16. This is the reaction involved in the inactivation of
I. Digitoxin III. Primidone physiologically active biogenic amines:
II. Hydrocortisone IV. Propranolol a. Acetylation c. Methylation
a. I and II only c. I, II and IV only b. Oxidation d. Hydrolysis
b. III and IV only d. I, III, and IV only e. Reduction
e. AOTA 17. An important pathway by which chemically reactive
5. Which of the following is an enzyme inhibitor? electrophilic compounds are detoxified:
a. chronic alcoholism b. acute alcoholism a. Glutathione conjugation
c. smoking d. St. Jonh’s wort b. Acetylation
6. Which of the ff is/are considered slow acetylators: c. Glucuronidation
I. Eskimos III. Filipinos d. Glutamine conjugation
II. Egyptians IV. Mediterranean Jews 18. Which of the following may induce metabolism of
a. III only c. III and IV only other drugs?
b. I and II only d. II and IV only a. Phenytoin, Cimetidine, Rifampicin
e. I and III only b. Phenytoin, Allopurinol, Meprobamate
7. A very big group of the CYP families which is c. Phenytoin, Meprobamate, Rifampicin
responsible for the major metabolism of more than d. Phenytoin, Ketoconazole, Rifampicin
50% of commercial drugs: 19. Phase I reactions:
a. CYP 1A2 c. CYP 2C9 a. Involves the addition of an endogenous
b. CYP 2C19 d. CYP 2D6 e.CYP 3A4, 5, 7 substrate to the medication
8. Excess bilirubin in neonate results in b. Aka conjugation reactions
hyperbilirubinemia called as: c. 6 major pathways are involved in this
a. Gray baby syndrome c. Bone fraction biotransformation phase, the most common of
b. Reye’s syndrome d. Kernicterus which is glucuronidation
d. The end products of this biotransformation
9. Which of the following is/are factors affecting drug phase are very polar, resulting in rapid drug
metabolism: elimination from the body.
I. Age e. Involves oxidation, reduction and enzymatic
II. Economic status hydrolysis
III. Species and strain
IV. Gender 20.If the administered drug is a prodrug, which requires
a. I only c. I, III and IV only metabolism in the liver to convert it to the active
b. I and II only d. I, II and III only form of the drug, then:
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 a. The oral route may produce quite high levels of 32. The most common cause of severe diarrhea in
the active drug in the systemic circulation children:
compared with the intravenous route. a. Hepatitis virus c. Mumps virus
b. The oral route may produce quite low levels of b. Rotavirus d.Varicella-zoster
the active drug in the systemic circulation virus
compared with the intravenous route. Antinfectives 33-44
c. Both a & b are correct 33. Compounds that kill or prevent the growth of
d. None of the choices microorganisms when applied to living tissues:
a. disinfectant c. fungicides
Immunobiologicals 21-32 b. antiseptics d. systemic anti-infectives
21. Source of small pox vaccine:
a. Living embryo of domestic fowl 34. A combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants
(Gallus domesticus) with iodine:
b. Living virus of vaccinia (cowpox) a. Povidone-Ioduine c. Iodine Tincture
c. Embryonic fluid of chick embryo
b. Strong I2 solution d. I2 in KI solution
d. Cultures of Rhesus monkey kidney
e. Cultures of Avian embryo or human 35. The most potent anti-bacterial alcohol:
diploid a. primary c. tertiary
22. Source of Polio vaccine: b. secondary
a. Living embryo of domestic fowl d. quaternary
(Gallus domesticus) 36. An agent that prevents infection by the destruction of
b. Living virus of vaccinia (cowpox) pathogenic microorganisms when applied to inanimate
c. Embryonic fluid of chick embryo objects:
d. Cultures of Rhesus monkey kidney a. Antiseptic c. Sanitizer
e. Cultures of Avian embryo or human b. Disinfectant d. pesticide
diploid e. Antibiotic
23. Attenuvax is: 37. For the treatment of systemic mycosis, which of the
following antifungal agents can be administered by
a. Mumps vaccine c. Hepatitis vaccine intravenous route?
b. Measles vaccined. Chickenpox vaccine a. miconazole c. ketoconazole
24. Meruvax II is: b. amphotericin B d. clioquinol
a. Rubella vaccine c. Smallpox vaccine e. nystatin
b. Polio vaccine d. Influenza vaccine 38. A very toxic and carcinogenic substance used in the
25. Varivax is: sterilization of temperature-labile equipment that
a. Mumps vaccine c. Hepatitis vaccine cannot be autoclaved:
b. Measles vaccine d. Varicella vaccine a. Phenol c. ethylene oxide
26. The most common cause of severe diarrhea in b. formaldehyde d. glutaraldehyde
children: 39. Which of the following is true about Liquefied Phenol,
a. Hepatitis virus c. Mumps virus USP?
b. Rotavirus d. Varicella-zoster a. Phenol containing 10% water
virus b. Phenol containing 20% water
27. The most common type of bacterial meningitis and is c. Solid phenol which liquefied upon exposure
a major cause of systemic disease in children less d. Phenol containing 70% water
than 6 years old: 40. The most effective topical OTC agent for the control
a. Pertussis c. Cholera of acne:
b. Tuberculosis d. Haemophilus a. Hydrogen peroxide
influenzae type B b. Carbamide peroxide
28. Tuberculosis vaccine is also referred to as: c. Hydrous Benzoyl Peroxide
a. Hib-cv c. DTP
d. Benzoyl Peroxide
b. BCG d. IPV
29. A disease also known as “lockjaw” 41. A preparation of 5% iodine in water with potassium
a. Diphtheria c. Tetanus iodide:
b. Pneumococcus d. Cholera a. Iodine solution c. Lugol’s solution
30. The most common type of bacterial meningitis and is a b. Iodine tincture d. Mayer’s reagent
major cause of systemic disease in children less than 6 e. Wagner’s reagent
years old:
a. Pertussis c. Cholera 42. Which of the following is/are true regarding Povidone-
b. Tuberculosis d. Haemophilus Iodine?
influenzae type B I. A water soluble complex that releases iodine
slowly
31. Tuberculosis vaccine is also referred to as: II. Provides a nontoxic, nonirritating, nonvolatile and
a. Hib-cv c. DTP nonstaining form of iodine
b. BCG d. IPV III. Used as an antiseptic for skin application before
surgery and injection
a. I & III c. I, II & III
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 b. I & II d. III only a. Will be effective for radical cure
e. II only b. Will be effective for suppressive prophylaxis
43. A dye available as vaginal suppositories for the c. Will not be clinically effective
treatment of yeast infections d. Will both be effective for prophylaxis and
a. Malachite green c. Phenolphthalein radical use
b. Methylene blue d. Gentian violet 55. Infusions of this plant and the purified alkaloids
e. Basic fushcin obtained from it were of significance in the treatment of
44. A potent antifungal substance with a polyene structure malaria:
from Streptomyces nodosus a. opium alkaloids c. ergot alkaloids
a. Nystatin c. Natamycin b. Cinchona alkaloids d. xanthine alkaloids
b. Griseofulvin d. Candicidin 56. This is common in all antimalarial agents:
e. Amphotericin B a. a quinoline ring c. acridiine ring
b. a benzene ring d. quinuclidine ring
Antimalarials 45-56
45. Mechanism of action of quinolones: Antibacterials 57-68
a. injury to plasma membrane 57. Which statement is true about a substance classified
b. inhibition of DNA gyrase
as antibiotic:
c. protein synthesis inhibition
d. production of toxic free radicals
a. if it is effective in low concentrations.
46. Prodrugs of active anti-malarial metabolites, the b. If it antagonizes the growth and/or survival of
dihydrotriazines: one or more species of microorganisms.
a. quinolines c. beta-lactams c. If it is a by-product of metabolism.
b. biguanides d. quinolones d. If it is a synthetic product produced as a
structural analog of a naturally occurring antibiotic.
47. The drug is effective against both exoerythrocytic and
erythrocytic forms of malaria: 58. These are the most widely effective antibiotics and are
a. chloroquine c. amodiaquine among the least toxic drugs known:
b. quinine d. cycloguanil a. cephalosphorins c. carbapenems
b. penicillins d. monobactams
48. Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for
59. The typical applications of Ampicillin includes the ff.
malaria:
a. amodiaquine c. atabrine except:
b. mefloquine d. daraprim a. Gram (-) bacilli c. Gram (-) enteric rods
b. Gram (+) bacilli d. none of the choices
49. The drug most effective against malarial parasites in 60. Which of the ff. is true about ß – lactamases:
the liver but not effective against parasites within a. This family of enzymes hydrolyzes the cyclic amide
erythrocytes:
bond of the ß – lactam ring
a. primaquine c. quinacrine
b. pyrimethamine d. chloroquine b. There is decreased permeability to drug.
50. Amongst the following, the drug of choice for acute c. They are not acquired by the transfer of plasmids
attack of Plasmodium vivax malaria is: d. All of the above
a. amodiaquine c. primaquine 61. These drugs are administered intramuscularly and
b. chloroquine d. quinine serve as depot forms and are slowly absorbed into the
e. mefloquine circulation over a long period of time:
a. Procaine penicillin G c. benzathine penicillin G
51. Drugs which act on erythrocytic cycle of malarial b. Penicillin V d. both a & B
parasite: e. both a & c
a. will be effective for radical cure 62. The following are adverse reactions of penicillins
b. will be effective for suppressive prophylaxis except:
c. will not be clinically effective a. hypersensitivity c. vomiting e. neurotoxicity
d. will both be effective for prophylaxis and radical use b. diarrhea d. platelet dysfunction
52. The following antimalarials are synthetic drugs,
except: 63. In this generation of penicillin, cephalosphorins act as
a. Atabrine c. Camoquin penicillin G substitutes that are resistant to the
b. Aralen d. Quinine staphylococcal penicillinase:
53. The drug of choice for acute attack of Plasmodium a. First Generation c. Third Generation
vivax malaria is: b. Second Generation d. all of the choices
a. Amodiaquine c. Primaquine 64. Cephalosphorins are ineffective against the ff.
b. Chloroquine d. Quinine methicillin resistant organisms except:
e. mefloquine a. Bacillus anthracis c. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Clostridium difficile d. Listeria monocytogenes

65. All cephalosphorins must be administered in this

54. Drugs which act on erythrocytic cycle of malarial manner because of their poor absorption:
parasite: a. intramuscularly c. antraarterial
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 b. intravenously d. subcutaneously 76. Which of the following is an infectious complication
66. Cephalosphorins have been classified as first, associated with HIV?
second, and third generations largely on the basis of the I. Mycobacterium avium complex
ff. reasons: II. oral candidiasis
a. resistance to ß – lactamases III. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
b. functionality to the penicillins a. I only c. I and II only
c. bacterial susceptibility patterns b. III only d. II and III only e. I, II, and III
d. a & c e. a & b
67. Which of the ff. do not belong to the penicillin group: 77. Which of the following agents is (are) indicated for the
a. methicillin c. penicillin G treatment of Parkinson's disease?
b. nafcillin d. penicillin V I. amantadine (Symmetrel)
e. cephalexin II. bromocriptine (Parlodel)
68. This drug is obtained commercially from III. selegiline (Eldepryl)
Micromonospora purpurea and has a broad spectrum of a. I only c. I and II only
activity against Psuedomonoas aeruginosa and other b. III only d. II and III only e. I, II, and III
gram-negative enteric bacilli.
a. Neomycin Sulfate c. Paromomycin Sulfate 78. Which of the following is true of zanamivir ?
b. Streptomycin d. Gentamicin Sulfate I. It is indicated for the treatment of AIDS.
II. It is administered orally.
Antivirals 69-80 III. The drug is usually taken in a five-day regimen.
69. Which of the following drugs is (are) classified as a. I only c. I and II only
protease inhibitors? b. III only d II and III only e. I, II, and III
I. cidofovir 79. Structural congener of Symmetrel which is used for
II. acyclovir viral influenza:
III. nelfinavir a. ribavirin c. gancyclovir
a. I only c. I and II only b. rimantadine d. foscarnet
b. III only d. II and III only e. I, II, and III 80. Superior to acyclovir in the treatment of herpes viruses
in the CNS in neonates:
70. Vidarabine (Vira-A) is an antiviral agent indicated a. idoxuridine c. vidarabine
for the treatment of b. ribavirin d. amantadine
a. rubella c. influenza
e. zidovudine
b. AIDS d. herpes simplex encephalitis
e. pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)
Antineoplastics 81-92
71. Zidovudine (Retrovir) is indicated for the
81. Vincristine is used primarily in the treatment of which
treatment of patients with
of the following?
I. hepatitis B infection
a. Hodgkin’s disease c. liver cancer
II. herpes simplex infections
b. lung cancer d. melanoma
III. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection
a. I only c. I and II only e. prostate cancer
b. III only d. II and III only e. I, II, and III 82. A semi-synthetic derivative of podophyllotoxin which in
72. Acyclovir is indicated for the treatment combination with other chemotherapeutic agents is the
of first choice treatment for small-cell lung cancer:
a. multiple sclerosis c. HIV infection a. Vinblastine c. Doxorubicin
b. psoriasis d. shingles b. Vincristine d. Daunorubicin
e. mononucleosis e. Etoposide
73. Stavudine is an antiviral agent employed in the 83. A tumor is benign if:
treatment of a. metastasis is evident
a. HIV infection c. lupus erythematosus b. cell originating from the tumor may invade other tissues
b. influenza A virus d. herpes zoster and cause damage
e. Mycobacterium avium complex c. tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression
74. All of the following are viral infections EXCEPT: of remaining cells occur
a. influenza c. mumps d. cause damage to surrounding structures
b measles d. hepatitis e. typhoid fever 84. A progesterone derivative which is used for the
75. Which of the following agents are indicated for the treatment of endometrial cancer:
treatment of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) a. tamoxifen c. flutamide
infection? b. depo-provera d. goserelin
I. ifosfamide
II. cytarabine
III. didanosine 85. The plant containing the anticancer drug, vincristine
a. I only c. I and II only and vnblastine:
b. III only d. II and III only e. I, II, and III a. Mayapple c. European year
b. Periwinkle d. Datura alba

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86. Which of the following antineoplastics is not
considered an antimetabolite? a. 2- Methylpropanoic acid
a. methotrexate c. etoposide b. 2- Ethylbutanoic acid
b. thioguanine d. fluorouracil c. 2- Propylpentanoic acid
e. cytarabine d. 2- Butylhexanoic acid
87. A glycopeptide antibiotic complex isolated from e. 2- Pentylheptanoic acid
Streptomyces verticillus.
95. It is the only unicyclic Antidepressant:
a. Anthracycline c. Pyrimidine drugs
a. Lexapro -escitalopram
b. Bleomycin d. Purine drugs
b. Prozac - fluoxetine
88. Antineoplastic drug isolated from Stretomyces c. Wellbutrin - bupropion
caespitosus in 1985 by Japanese workers and is d. Remeron – mirtazapine
considered the prototype of the bioreductive alkylating 96. Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are
angents. usually:
a. Pyrimidine drugs c. Mitomycin a. long acting c. short acting
b. Purine drugs d. Bleomycin b. intermediate acting d. ultra short acting
89. This agent is a second line therapy in the treatment of 97. Barbiturates with an intermediate duration of action:
acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) and may cause a. amorbital c. pentobarbital
the degradation of a protein that blocks myeloid b. Phenobarbital d. secobarbital
differentiation.
a. Tretinoin c. Asparaginase For nos.98-102:
b. Arsenic trioxide d. Estramustine PO4 Choices: a. Dopamine
90. The drug is a substrate for Pgp and an additional b. Short Acting β-Agonist
efflux transporter known as breast cancer resistance c. Long Acting β-Agonist
protein (BCRP): d. Epinephrine
a. Gefitinib c. Dasatinib e. Norepinephrine
b. Erlotinib HCl d. Imatinib mesylate d98. 1st line cardiac stimulant (1st choice in
91. The pyrimidine derivative designed to block the Advanced Cardiac Life Support - use of drugs and
conversion of uridine to thymidine: machine that introduce electric shock)
a. 5-fluorouracil c. Capecitabine e/a99. 1st line inotropic in the mx of septic(infection)
b. Mercaptopurine d. Gemcitabine shock
92. An antimetabolite that inhibits the binding of substrate a100. 1st line drug in the Mx of cardiogenic shock
folic acid to the enzyme dihydrofolate reductases, and acute HF
resulting in the reductions in the synthesis of nucleic b101. Give the meaning of the acronym SABAs
acid bases: c102. Give the meaning of the acronym LABAs
a. Methotrexate c. Thioguanine
b. 6-Thioinosinate d. 5-flourouracil For nos.: 103-104. GABA Receptors. Benzodiazepines
b103. Flurazepam Hydrochloride, USP a. Valium
a104. Diazepam, USP b. Dalmane

CNS Depressants 93-104 CNS Stimulants 105-116

93. The structure given below represents the common 105. Which of the following drug is also known as 1,3-
structure of which group of drugs: dimethylxanthine:
a. Theophylline
b. Caffeine
c. Theobromine
d. Pentoxyfylline
e. Doxofylline
106. Among the three xanthines, it is drug of choice for
a. Benzodiazepine obtaining a stimulating effect of the CNS.
b. Barbiturates a. caffeine c. theobromine
c. Phenothiazine b. theophylline d. all of the above
d. SSRIs
e. MAOIs

94. What is the IUPAC name of Valproic acid: For nos. 107-111: CNS stimulants used for appetite
reduction in severe obesity.
A B
107.benzphetamine a a. Didrex

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108.diethylpropion b b. Tenuate b. Beta 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
109.phendimetrazine c c. Bontril d. Alpha 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
110.phentermine d d. Ionamine 125. Produces competitive antagonism of
111.sibutramine e/a e. Meridia catecholamine by blockade of alpha 1 receptors:
a. Phenoxybenzamine c. Ephedrine
112. A. potent hallucinogen possessing both an b. Phentolamine d. all
indolethylamine group and a phenylethylamine group: e. none
a. Cocaine c. Mescaline 126. All of the ff. are catecholamines, EXCEPT:
b. LSD d. ∆1-Tetrahydrocannabinol a. Acetylcholine c. 5HT
113. A much studied hallucinogen with many complex b. Norepinephrine d. Dopamine
effects on the CNS that occurs in the peyote cactus. 127. Parkinson’s disease is due to:
a. Cocaine c. Mescaline a. excessive cholinergic activity
b. LSD d. ∆1-Tetrahydrocannabinol b. damage to the basal ganglia
114. The following are SSRI drugs, except: c. deficiency of dopamine level in the brain
a. fluvoxamine c. reboxetine d. all of these
b. fluoxetine d. paroxetine 128. Parkinson-like symptoms are side effects of
115. . Meprobamate, USP is: phenothiazines; this is because phenothiazine causes:
a. Robaxin c. Placidyl a. blockade of the muscarinic receptors
b. Miltown d. Soma b. blockade of the alpha adrenergic receptors
116. The dosage of caffeine which acts as a cortical c. blockade of the dopamine receptors
stimulant and facilitates a clear thinking and wakefulness, d. stimulation of the nicotinic receptors
promotes an ability to concentrate on the task at hand,
and lessens fatigue. Cholinergic Drugs and related agents 129-140
a. 50-85mg c. 85-250mg 129. The side effects of steroids used for asthma are
b. 85-100mg d. 85-500mg minimized when the drug is given:
a. orally c. via inhalation
Adrenergic agents 117-128 b. intravenously d. rectally
a. Adrenergic drugs 130. Atropine is an:
b. Sympathomimetics a. Anti-narcotic drug
c. sympatholytics, antiadrenergics b. Anti-cholinergic drug
d. Adrenergic stimulants c. Anti-asthmatic drug
e. adrenergic-blocking agents d. Anti-infective drug
a117. Drugs that exert their principal pharmacological and e. None of the above
therapeutic effects by either enhancing or reducing the
activity of the various components of the sympathetic 131-134: Cholinergic Receptor Antagonist Drugs
division of the autonomic nervous system. Choices:
b118. Substances that produce effects similar to a. Pilocarpus jaborandi
stimulation of sympathetic nervous activity are known as: b. Urecholine
d119. Other name for # 118. c. Evoxac
b120. Substances that decrease sympathetic activity are d. carbachol
referred to as: b131. Bethanechol Choride, USP
e/a121. Other name for #120. a132. Pilocarpine Hydrochloride, USP
c133. Cevimeline
d134. Methacholine Chloride
122. Substances that produce effects similar to stimulation
of sympathetic nervous activity are known as: 135-139: Cholinesterase Inhibitors
a. Sympathomimetics a. Humorsol
b. Adrenergic stimulants b. Exelon
c. sympatholytics, c. Tensilon
d. antiadrenergics or adrenergic-blocking agents. d. Aricept
e. a & b e. Prostigmin bromide
123. The following are Direct – Acting Sympathomimetics, e/a135. Neostigmine Bromide
except: a136. Demecarium Bromide, USP
a. Dopamine (Intropin) d137. Donepezil
b. Norepinephrine (Levophed) c138. Edrophonium Chloride, USP
c. Propylhexedrine (Benzedrex) b139. Rivastigmine
d. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
e. Tetrahydrozoline (Tyzine, Visine) 140. Agents that block the transmission of ACh at the
124. Responsible for reducing the release of NE from motor end plate.
sympathetic nerves: a. Acetylcholine
a. Beta 1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor b. neuromuscular blocking agents
c. Alpha 1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor c. Atropine

6
d. acetylcholinesterase d. is used in the treatment of shock
e. must be used with a potassium supplement
Diuretics 141-152
141. A diuretic that will manifest a competitive inhibition of 152. Thiazides may produce:
the action of a. increased intraocular pressure
a. Triamterene c. Furosemide b. hyperkalemia
b. Spirinolactone d. Chlorothiazide c. impaired glucose tolerance
142. Acetazolamide (Diamox) is rarely the drug of choice d. hypernatremia
for diuretic therapy because it: e. increased renal excretion of ammonia
a. is too potent
Cardiovascular agents 153-164
b. causes systemic acidosis and alkaline urine
153. Which of the following calcium channel blockers is a
c. is habit forming
benzothiazepine:
d. does not exhibit tachyphylaxis a. Verapamil c. Diltiazem
e. induces enzymes, especially carbonic b. Nifedipine d. Amlodipine
anhydrases e. Isradipine
143. A thiazide diuretic can: 154. Which of the following endogenous substances
a. enhance action of amphetamines promote platelet agrregration:
b. antagonize action of guanethidine I. cAmp
c. antagonize action of digitalis drugs II. TXA2
d. enhance action of oral hypoglycemics III. ADP
e. antagonize action of tricyclic a. I only c. I and II only
antidepressants b. III only d. II and III e. AOTA
144. The excretion of weakly basic drug will be 155. The drug that is effective as an antianginal agent
more rapid in acidic urine than in basic urine because it causes redistribution of coronary blood flow to
because: the ischemic regions of the heart and reduces myocardial
a. all drugs are excreted more rapidly in acidic oxygen demand.
urine a. Amyl nitrate, USP
b. the drug will exist primarily in the unionized form, which b. Nitroglycerin
cannot easily be reabsorbed c. Diluted Erythrityl Tetranitrate, USP
c. weak bases cannot be reabsorbed from the kidney (Cardilate)
tubules d. Diluted Isosorbide Dinitrate, USP
d. the drug will exist primarily in the ionized form, which
cannot be easily reabsorbed 156. Drug used in the treatment of, and as prophylaxis
against, attacks of angina pectoris and reduce blood
pressure in arterial hypertonia.
145. This diuretic acts on the distal convulated tubule?
a. Isordil c. Nifedipine
a. Hydrochlorothiazide c. Spironolactone
b. Peritrate d. Cardilate
b. Furosemide d. Acetazolamide
157. This drug relaxes smooth muscle of smaller vessels
146. Also known as high ceiling diuretics: in the coronary vascular tree. Used prophylactically to
a. Spironolactone c. Mannitol reduce the severity and frequency of anginal attacks.
b. Bumetanide d. Indapamide a. Isordil c. Nifedipine
147. Which diuretic-SE pairs is not true? b. Peritrate d. Cardilate
a. Triamterene : Gynecomastia 158 Which of these drugs is a potassium channel blocker?
b. Ethacrynic acid : Ototoxicity a. Amiodarone c. Amiloride
c. Chlorthalidone : Hyperglycemia b. Aliskerin d. Amrinone
d. Brinzolamide : Metabolic alkalosis 159 A person with a persistent BP of 120/95 is considered
148. Which loop diuretic can be given safely to patients to have:
with allergy to sulfonamide antimicrobials? a. Pre-hypertension
a. Ethacrynic acid c. Bumetanide b. Hypertension stage 1
149. The only group of diuretics that does not cause c. Hypertension stage 2
alkalinization of urine: d. Normal
a. Furosemide c. Acetazolamide 160. Exertion-induced angina, which is relieved by rest,
b. HCTZ d. Spironolactone nitroglycerin or both is referred to as:
e. Ethacrynic acid a. Prinzmetal angina c. stable angina
150. Thiazide diuretics decrease the excretion of: b. Unstable angina d. variant
a. chloride c. sodium angina
b. uric acid d. potassium e. preinfarction angina
e. creatinine 161. Among the following drugs, which likely would cause
151. The thiazide derivative diazoxide (Hyperstat) first-dose syncope, postural hypotension, and
a. is a more potent diuretic than hydrochlorothiazide palpitations?
b. is not a diuretic a. Inderal® c. Catapres®
c. produces about the same diuretic response as an b. Minipress® d. Norvasc®
equal dose of hydrochlorothiazide the pancreas
7
162. Reflex tachycardia is an adverse effect most likely to a171. The stage of analgesia lasts from onset of
be associated with the use of which of the following drowsiness to loss of eyelash reflex (blinking when the
drugs? eyelash is stroked). Variable levels of amnesia and
a. Hydralazine c. Nadolol analgesia are seen in this stage. The patient is considered
b. Losartan d. Clinidine unconscious at the end of stage 1
163. This is a life-saving drug especially in cases of acute b172.The stage of excitement is characterized by agitation
myocardial infarction: and delirium. During this stage, salivation may be copious.
a. Abciximab c. Streptokinase Heart rate and respiration may be irregular. Induction
b. Warfarin d. Aspirin agents are designed to move the patient through this
164. DOC for prinzmetal angina: undesirable stage quickly.
a. Amlodipine c. Amyl nitrite c173. During this stage, painful stimuli will not elicit a
b. Metoprolol d. Amiodarone somatic reflex or deleterious autonomic response.
174.This stage lasts from onset of apnea to failure of
Local Anesthetics 165-176 circulation and respiration and ends in death.
165. Local anesthetics that is not a derivative of benzoic d175. This class of drug inhibits the conduction of action
acid is: potentials in all afferent and efferent nerve fibers. Thus,
a. lidocaine b. procaine pain and other sensations are not transmitted effectively to
c. dibucaine d. bupivacaine the brain, and motor impulses are not transmitted
166. A good local anesthetic should have all of the effectively to muscles.
following properties, except: 176. Which of the following inhalational anesthetics
a. systemic toxicity should be low produces the greatest augmentation of the effect of
neuromuscular blockers?
b. effective at body fluid pH
a. Isoflurane c. Sevoflurane
c. onset of anesthesia should be gradual and short
b. Halothane d. Desflurane
duration of action to avoid toxicity
d. must be effective regardless of the site of Antihistaminic agents 177-188
application 177. Which of the following actions of histamine is not
e. not irritant to the tissue and should not cause blocked by H1 antagonist:
any permanent structural damage to nerves
a. increase in salivary excretion c.
vasodilation
167. Nitrous oxide, a general anesthetic agent, is
characterized by all of the features of which of the b. increase in gastric secretions d. itchiness
178. Generic name of Benadryl AH:
following groups?
a. high potency, good analgesia, good skeletal a. guaiafenesin c. apomorphine
b. diphenhydramine d. benzonatate
muscle relaxation
b. low potency, good analgesia, poor skeletal
179. Which of the following agents is an example of an
muscle relaxation H2-antihistamine:
c. high potency, poor analgesia, good skeletal a. Telfast -fexofenadine
muscle relaxation b. Pariet - rabeprazole
d. high potency, good analgesia, poor skeletal c. Prevacid – lansoprazole
muscle relaxation d. Aerius -desloratadine
low potency, good analgesia, good skeletal muscle A e. Ulcin – ranitidine
168. Local anesthetics that is not a derivative of benzoic 180. This anti-histamine possesses the same indications
acid is: as that of diphenhydramine:
a. dibucaine c. lidocaine a. meclizine c. dimenhydrinate
b. procaine d. bupivacaine b. hyoscine d. celestamine
e. relaxation
169. All of the following substances are present in opium, 181-185: Antihistamines
except: Choices: a. chlortrimeton
a. thebaine c. codeine e. b. periactin
papaverine c. Dramamine
b. methadone d. morphine d. Benadryl
e. histadyl
170. The most potent of the inhalation anesthetic 181. Methapyrilene Hydrochloride
agents: 182.. Cyproheptadine Hydrochloride
a. methoxyflurane c. enflurane e. isoflurane 183. Dimenhydrinate
b.halothane d. nitrous oxide 184. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride
185. Chlorpheniramine Maleate
171-175. Stages of General Anesthesia 186. The only antihistamine allowed for pilots
a. Stage I A. Surgical Anesthesia a. Virlix c. Loratadine
b. Stage II B. Excitement b. Iterax d. Benadryl
c. Stage III C. Impending Death 187. The highest density receptor that occurs in the CNS
d. Stage IV D. Analgesia mainly in the striatum, substancia nigra, and the cortex.

8
 a. H3 c. H1 200. A compound approximately 5 times as potent as
b. H2 d. H4 morphine:
188. H2 antihistamines except:
a. Cimetidine (tagamet) c. Citirizine (virlix) a. Hydropmorphone c. Morphine
b. Ranitidine (zantac) d. Famotidine b. Codeine d. Hydrocodone
(H2block)
e. Nizatidine (accid)

Analgesic agents 189-200

189. Which of the following is/are brand name/s of
Ibuprofen:
I. Tylenol
II. Advil
III. Siverol
a. I only c. I and II only
b. II only d. I and III e.AOTA
190. The hepatotoxic metabolite of Acetaminophen:
a. mercapturic acid form
b. phenacetin
c. N-acetylparabenzoquinone imine
d. none of the choices
191. Which of the following is/are indications of Sulindac?
I. Rheumatoid arthritis
II. Osteoarthritis
III. Ankylosing spondylitis
a. I, II & III c. II & III
b. I & II d. III only
e. II only
192. Which of the following drugs classified as NSAIDs
inhibit/s the COX-2 more than the COX-1 isozymes?
a. Indomethacin c. Mefenamic acid
b. Celecoxib d. Ibuprofen
193. Voltaren is:
a. acemetacin c. diclofenac
b. ibuprofen d. naproxen
194. Opium is an example of:
a. narcotic analgesic
b. non-steroidal analgesic
c. antipyretic analgesic
d. anti-inflammatory analgesic
195. These drugs are narcotic analgesics, except:
a. morphine c. nalbuphine
b. codeine d. mefenamic acid
196. The generic name of nubain.
a. Nalbuphine c. Pentazocine
b. Naloxone d. Methadone
197. All statements regarding antipyretic analgesics are
false, except:
a. produce fall in blood pressure
b. raise the pain threshold
c. develop drug dependence
d. relieve visceral pain e. produce general CNS
depression
198.These are traditional analgesics which are a group of
potent and relatively nonselective CNS stimulants.
a. Anorexiants c. Analeptics
b. Analgesics d. NOTA

199. A non-S2 requiring derivative of codeine used for

mild to moderate pain:
a. Pentazosine c. Fentanyl
b. Meperidine d. Tramadol