B. Protons and Neutrons
B. Protons and Neutrons
B. Protons and Neutrons
A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutron
D. Molecule
3. What is the positively charged particle of an atom?
A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutron
D. Molecule
4. What is the particle of an atom that has no electrical charge?
A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutron
D. Molecule
5. The word “atom” comes from Greek “Atomos” which means what?
A. Extremely Small
B. Invisible
C. Indivisible
D. Microscopic
6. Who was the first person to propose that atoms have weights?
A. Ernest Rutherford
B. Democritus
C. John Dalton
D. Joseph John Thomson
7. Who discovered the electron?
A. James Chadwick
B. Eugene Goldstein
C. Niels Bohr
D. Julius Lothar Meyer
10. What is anything that occupies space and has mass?
A. Element
B. Ion
C. Matter
D. Molecule
11. All forms of matter are composed of the same building blocks
called______.
A. molecules
B. atom
C. elements
D. ions
12. How are substances classified?
A. Elements or Compounds
B. Metals or Non-metals
C. Acids or Bases
D. Homogeneous or Heterogeneous
13. What is a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler
substances?
A. Ion
B. Atom
C. Molecule
D. Element
14. What is the result from the combination, in definite proportion of mass,
of two or more elements?
A. Mixture
B. Compound
C. Substance
D. Chemical Reaction
15. How are mixtures classified?
A. Elements or Compounds
B. Metals, Nonmetals or Metalloids
C. Homogeneous or Heterogeneous
D. Suspension, Colloids or Solutions
16. The mixture of soil and water is an example of what classification of a
mixture?
A. Homogeneous
B. Suspension
C. Colloid
D. Solution
17. A very fine particle of soil when mixed to water will form a cloudy
mixture. How is this mixture classified?
A. Colloid
B. Suspension
C. Solution
D. Compound
18. The particles of sugar dispersed in water are so small that a clear
homogeneous mixture. What is this homogeneous mixture called?
A. Colloid
B. Compound
C. Suspension
D. Solution
19. How are elements classified?
A. Ductility
B. Malleability
C. Luster
D. Elasticity
23. What is the property of metals that reflects the light that strikes their
surfaces, making them appear shiny?
A. Malleability
B. Ductility
C. Luster
D. Plasticity
24. Which of the following is NOT a property of metals?
A. Gases
B. Solids
C. Liquids
D. Metalloids
26. Which of the following is NOT a property of acids?
A. Taste sour
B. Feel slippery on the skin
C. Turn litmus paper to red
D. Dissolve metals producing various salts and hydrogen gas
27. Which of the following is NOT a property of bases?
A. hydrogen gas
B. salt
C. oxide
D. hydroxide
29. Vinegar is a solution of water and what kind of acid?
A. Phosphoric acid
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Acetic acid
30. What acid is added to carbonated drinks to produce a tart test?
A. Citric acid
B. Phosphoric acid
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Nitric acid
31. Table salt or sodium chloride may be formed by the reaction of:
A. Physical change
B. Chemical change
C. Catalyst
D. Chemical reaction
33. What occurs when a substance changes it appearance without changing
its composition?
A. Chemical reaction
B. Chemical change
C. Physical change
D. Catalyst
34. What is another term for “chemical change”?
A. Chemical reaction
B. Phase change
C. State change
D. Composition change
35. A material is said to be ______ if its composition and properties are
uniform throughout.
A. homogeneous
B. heterogeneous
C. pure substance
D. pure compound
36. A material is said to be ______ if its composition and properties are not
uniform throughout.
A. Un-pure
B. homogeneous
C. heterogeneous
D. malicable
37. The properties of a material that changes when the amount of substance
changes are called _______ properties.
A. intensive
B. extensive
C. physical
D. chemical
38. The properties of a material that do not change when the amount of
substance changes are called _______ properties.
A. intensive
B. extensive
C. chemical
D. physical
39. Which of the following is NOT an intensive property of a material?
A. Color
B. Surface area
C. Melting point
D. Taste
40. Which of the following is NOT an extensive property of a material?
A. Length
B. Volume
C. Density
D. Weight
41. “When two or more elements form more than one compound, the ratio
of the masses of one element that combine with a given mass of another
element in the different compounds is the ratio of small whole numbers.”
This statement is known as:
A. John Dalton
B. Humphrey Davy
C. Henri Becquerel
D. Ernest Rutherford
44. Who revised the atomic theory by replacing the hard, indestructible
spheres imagined by Dalton and proposed the “raisin bread model” of the
atom?
A. Pierre Curie
B. Robert Andrews Millikan
C. Joseph John Thomson
D. Humphrey Davy
45. How does Joseph John Thomson call his model of the atom?
A. Orbital model
B. Planetary model
C. Radioactive model
D. Plum-pudding model
46. The discovery of radioactivity further confirms the existence of
subatomic particles. Who discovered radioactivity?
A. Henri Becquerel
B. Marie Curie
C. Pierre Curie
D. Niels Bohr
47. What is the common unit used to indicate the mass of a particle?
A. Coulomb
B. Charge unit
C. Atomic mass unit
D. Lepton
49. What is the charge of an electron in coulomb?
A. -1.70217733 x 10^-19
B. -1.60217733 x 10^-19
C. -1.50217733 x 10^-19
D. -1.40217733 x 10^-19
50. What is the charge of an electron in charge unit?
A. 0
B. 1 +
C. 1 –
D. 0 –
51. What is the charge of a proton in coulombs?
A. + 1.70217733 x 10^-19
B. + 1.60217733 x 10^-19
C. + 1.50217733 x 10^-19
D. + 1.40217733 x 10^-19
52. What is the charge of a proton in charge unit?
A. 0
B. 1 +
C. 1 –
D. 0 –
53. What is the mass of an electron in gram?
A. 10203 x 10^-23
B. 8.218290 x 10^-25
C. 1.672623 x 10^-24
D. 9.109387 x 10^-28
54. What is the mass of an electron in amu?
A. 2.490210 x 10^-4
B. 3.890140 x 10^-4
C. 1.007276 x 10^-4
D. 5.485799 x 10^-4
55. What is the mass of a proton in gram?
A. 2.490210 x 10^-24
B. 3.890140 x 10^-24
C. 1.007276 x 10^-24
D. 5.485799 x 10^-24
56. What is the mass of a proton in amu?
A. 1.0052981
B. 1.0072765
C. 1.0086600
D. 1.0066241
57. What is the mass of a neutron in grams?
A. 1.47495 x 10^24
B. 1.37495 x 10^-24
C. 1.67495 x 10^-24
D. 1.77495 x 10^-24
58. What is the mass of a neutron in amu?
A. 1.00866
B. 1.00521
C. 1.00324
D. 1.00000
59. The protons and neutrons are not considered are fundamental particles
because they consist of a smaller particles called__________.
A. bosons
B. quarks
C. leptons
D. fermions
60. The atomic number of an element is:
A. molecules
B. ions
C. nuclides
D. isotopes
62. What is an atom specific isotope called?
A. Nuclide
B. Ion
C. Molecule
D. Fermion
63. The number of _______ in an atom defines what element the atom is.
A. neutron
B. electrons
C. protons
D. protons and electrons
64. The number of __________ in an atom defines the isotopes of an
element.
A. neutrons
B. protons
C. electrons
D. protons and neutrons
65. If electrons are removed from or added to a neutral atom, a charged
particle of the same element, called _______ is formed.
A. ion
B. cation
C. anion
D. isotope
66. A negatively charged ion which results when an electron is added to an
atom called _____.
A. Boson
B. Fermion
C. Cation
D. Anion
67. A positively charged ion which results when an electron is removed from
an atom is called ____.
A. Anion
B. Cation
C. Fermion
D. Lepton
68. What is “density number” of an atom?
A. Atomic number
B. Mass number
C. Atomic mass
D. Atomic weight
69. The _______ of an atom is the sum of the number of protons and
neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.
A. mass number
B. atomic weight
C. atomic mass
D. atomic number
70. “When the elements are arranged in the order of increasing atomic
number, elements with similar properties appear at periodic intervals.” This
statement is known as _________.
A. Periods
B. Groups
C. Families
D. Groups or families
73. What are the rows in the periodic table called?
A. Periods
B. Transitions
C. Groups
D. Families
74. Elements in Gropu1A in the periodic table are ______.
A. Boron group
B. Alkaline earth metals
C. Alkali metals
D. Carbon group
75. Elements in Group IIA in the periodic table are _____.
A. Halogens
B. Alkaline earth metals
C. Alkali metals
D. Nitrogen group
76. The boron group is what group in the periodic table?
A. Group III A
B. Group IV A
C. Group V A
D. Group VI A
77. What group in the periodic table is the carbon group?
A. Group III A
B. Group IV A
C. Group V A
D. Group VI A
78. What group in the periodic table is the nitrogen group?
A. Group V A
B. Group VI A
C. Group VII A
D. Group IV A
79. The chalcogens are elements in what group in the periodic table?
A. Group V A
B. Group VI A
C. Group VII A
D. Group IV A
80. Halogens belong to what group in the periodic table?
A. Group IV A
B. Group V A
C. Group VI A
D. Group VII A
81. The elements, germanium and silicon, which are commonly use for
semiconductors belongs what group of elements?
A. Boron group
B. Carbon group
C. Nitrogen group
D. Halogens
82. What group in the periodic table are the noble gases?
A. Group 0
B. Group VIII A
C. Group VII A
D. Group 0 or VIII A
83. Which of the following is NOT a noble gas?
A. Argon
B. Xenon
C. Radon
D. Antimony
84. What is the atomic number for oxygen?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
85. What is the atomic number of germanium?
A. 14
B. 32
C. 18
D. 23
86. What is the atomic number of carbon?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 10
87. Which alkaline earth metal has the smallest atomic number?
A. Beryllium
B. Magnesium
C. Calcium
D. Barium
88. Which noble gas has the smallest atomic number?
A. Argon
B. Krypton
C. Neon
D. Helium
89. What is the most abundant element in terms of the number of atoms?
A. Hydrogen
B. Helium
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen
90. What is the most abundant element in the human body?
A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Calcium
91. What is the second most abundant element in the human body?
A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen
92. Which of the following is NOT a metalloid?
A. Antimony
B. Boron
C. Magnesium
D. Silicon
93. Caustic soda is used in making soap, textiles and paper. What is another
term for caustic soda?
A. Sodium benzoate
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Potassium chlorate
D. Cesium bromide
94. What is used for the manufacture of explosives and fireworks?
A. Magnesium hydroxide
B. Potassium chlorate
C. Potassium perchlorate
D. Cesium bromide
95. All alkaline metals will tarnish in air except ________.
A. Magnesium
B. Barium
C. Radium
D. Beryllium
96. What alkali metal is usually used for x-ray apparatus because of its
ability to allow x-rays to pass though with minimum absorption?
A. Magnesium
B. Radium
C. Beryllium
D. Barium
97. What element is used as a coating for iron to make galvanized iron a
corrosion-resistant material?
A. Magnesium
B. Titanium
C. Zinc
D. Chromium
98. What element is used as electric power source for pacemakers artifact
hearts?
A. Promethium
B. Neodymium
C. Uranium
D. Plutonium
99. What element is commonly used in making lasers?
A. Chromium
B. Neodymium
C. Promethium
D. Terbium
100. What is regarded as the most unique element in the periodic table?
A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon
D. Uranium
101. What is the most abundant element in the atmosphere?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Helium
D. Inert gases
102. What is the only gas in Group VIA in the periodic table?
A. Argon
B. Krypton
C. Oxygen
D. Helium
103. What is the second most abundant element in the atmosphere?
A. Hydrogen
B. Helium
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen
104. What element is used in advertising signs?
A. Neon
B. Helium
C. Sodium
D. Xenon
105. What principle states about the fundamental limitation that, for a
particle as small as the electron, one cannot know exactly where it is and at
the same time know its energy how it is moving?
A. Autbau principle
B. Uncertainty principle
C. Pauli exclusion principle
D. Kinetic molecular theory
106. Who discovered the uncertainty principle?
A. Autbau principle
B. Uncertainty principle
C. Pauli exclusion principle
D. Kinetic molecular theory
108. What principle states that no two electrons in the same atom can have
the same set of four quantum numbers?
A. Autbau principle
B. Uncertainty principle
C. Pauli exclusion principle
D. Kinetic molecular theory
109. What describes how the electrons and distributed among the orbitals?
A. spin number
B. quantum mechanical model
C. quantum number
D. azimuthal number
111. What are the main energy levels where the valence electrons belong
called?
A. Valence shells
B. Azimuthal shells
C. Spin shells
D. Quantum shells
112. The elements of groups IA, IIA, IIIA, IVA, VA, VIA, VIIA and VIIIA are
called main group elements or
A. transition
B. representatives
C. inner transitions
D. metals or nonmetals
113. For the representative elements, the number of valence electrons is the
same as the _____.
A. number of electrons
B. number of neutrons
C. the rightmost digit of the group number of the element
D. number of electrons less the number of neutrons
114. For transition elements, the number of valence electron is the same as
_______.
A. Albert Einstein
B. SatyendraNath Bose
C. Carl Wieman
D. WollgangKetterie
118. The ionization energy is _________ to the atomic size of atom.
A. directly proportional
B. inversely proportional
C. equal to
D. not related
119. What refers to the measure of the atom’s tendency to attract an
additional electron?
A. Period number
B. Electron affinity
C. Ionization energy
D. Electronegativity
120. The process of gaining or losing an electron results to the formation of
a charged atom or molecule called _______.
A. ion
B. cation
C. anion
D. crystal
121. Aside from liquid, gas and solid, there are two other states of matter.
A. William Crookes
B. Irving Langmuir
C. Albert Einstein
D. Eric Cornell
123. Who coined the term “plasma” in 1928?
A. William Crookes
B. Irving Langmuir
C. Albert Einstein
D. Eric Cornell
124. What is made of gas atoms that have been cooled to near absolute zero
at which temperature the atoms slow down, combine and forms a single
entity known called a superatom?
A. Ionized gas
B. Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC)
C. Plasma
D. Quark
125. The fifth state of matter, the BEC (Bose-Einstein condensate) was first
created in what year?
A. 1992
B. 1993
C. 1994
D. 1995
126. What is a high-energy, electrically charged gas produced by heating the
gas until the electrons in the outer orbitals of the atoms separate, leaving
the atoms with a positive charge?
A. Quartz
B. Quark
C. BEC
D. Plasma
127. Water has bigger density when it is in what state?
A. Liquid
B. Gas
C. Solid
D. Vapor
128. What is the temperature of water in solid state at 1 atm?
A. 40C
B. 250C
C. 00C
D. 50C
129. The density of water is the largest at what temperature?
A. 20C
B. 10C
C. 30C
D. 40C
130. What element has a very high melting point and ideal for filaments of
light bulbs?
A. Barium
B. Aluminum
C. Tungsten
D. Titanium
131. Metals can be drawn into wires. This illustrates what property of
metals?
A. Malleability
B. Ductility
C. Rigidity
D. Plasticity
132. Steel is the widely used construction material because of its high tensile
strength. It is a combination of what element?
A. Electronic bond
B. Metallic bond
C. Covalent bond
D. Ionic bond
134. What states that atoms tend to gain, lose or share electrons until they
are surrounded by eight valence electrons?
A. Figure of 8 rule
B. Octet rule
C. Ionic rule
D. Lewis rule
135. What indicates the number of valence electrons to the atom
represented by dots scattered on four sides of the atomic symbol?
A. Covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Metallic bond
D. Electronic band
137. What is the distance between the nuclei of two bonded atoms called?
A. Bond length
B. Molecular length
C. Atomic distance
D. Atomic radius
138. The overall shape of a molecule is described by which two properties?
A. Atomic angle
B. Bond angle
C. Molecular angle
D. Ionic angle
140. “The best arrangement of a given number of shared and unshared
electrons is the one that minimizes the repulsion among them”. This is
known as ___________.
A. Electronegativity
B. Electron affinity
C. Ionization energy
D. Periodic number
143. What type of bond occurs when the difference in electronegativity is
greater than or equal to 2?
A. Ionic
B. Nonpolar covalent
C. Polar covalent
D. Either nonpolar covalent or polar covalent
144. Nonpolar covalent bond occurs if the difference in electronegativity
ranges from:
A. 0.00 to 0.40
B. 0.50 to 1.90
C. 1.90 to 2.00
D. 2.00 and up
145. When can we say that a molecule is polar?
A. Atomic mass
B. Molecular mass
C. Formula mass
D. Atomic weight
147. What refers to the number of atoms in exactly 12 grams of carbon-12?
A. Avogadro’s number
B. Mole
C. Molar mass
D. amu
148. Which one is the Avogado’s number?
A. 6.20 x 10^23
B. 6.62 x 10^23
C. 6.32 x 10^23
D. 6.22 x 10^23
149. What is defined as the amount of substance that contains 6.02 x 1023
particles of that substance?
A. Mole
B. Molar mass
C. Atomic mass
D. amu
150. What refers to the mass in grams of one mole of a substance?
A. Molar mass
B. Molecular mass
C. Atomic mass
D. Atomic weight
151. What is the unit of molar mass?
A. amu
B. mole
C. grams
D. grams per mole
152. “The total pressure of a mixture of gases equals the sum of the partial
pressures of each of the gases in the mixture”. This statement is known as
__________.
A. 73.1%
B. 74.4%
C. 76.1%
D. 78.1%
154. The dry air is composed of how many percent oxygen?
A. 20.9 %
B. 21.2 %
C. 22.1 %
D. 23.7 %
155. How much carbon dioxide is present in dry air?
A. 0.003 %
B. 0.03 %
C. 0.3 %
D. 3 %
156. What is the mixing of gases due to molecular motion called?
A. Diffusion
B. Effusion
C. Fission
D. Fusion
157. What refers to the passage of molecules of a gas from one container to
another through a tiny opening between the containers?
A. Diffusion
B. Effusion
C. Fission
D. Fusion
158. The rate of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root
of its molar mass. Who discovered this?
A. Gilbert Lewis
B. John Tyndall
C. Robert Brown
D. Thomas Graham
159. What law states that the rate of effusion of a gas, which is the amount
of gas that through the hole in a given amount of time, is inversely
proportional to the square root of its molar mass?
A. Henry’s law
B. Graham’s law of effusion
C. Hund’s law
D. Lewis theory
160. What is a poisonous gas generated mostly by motor vehicles?
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Hydroxide
D. Nitric acid
161. What is considered as one of the pollutants responsible for among and
acid rain?
A. Sulfur dioxide
B. Nitrogen dioxide
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Hydroxide
162. What refers to the forces of attraction that exist between molecules in a
compound?
A. Interaction forces
B. Dispersion forces
C. Intermolecular forces
D. Induction forces
163. All are basic types of van der Waals forces except one. Which one?
A. Dipole-dipole interaction
B. London dispersion forces
C. Heat bonding
D. Hydrogen bonding
164. The three types of intermolecular forces exist in neutral molecules are
collectively known as van der Waals forces. This is named after ________.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
166. Compounds containing hydrogen and other element are known as
_________.
A. Hydroxides
B. Hydrides
C. Hydros
D. Hydrates
167. What is a special kind of dipole-dipole interaction formed when a
hydrogen atom bonded to a highly electronegative atom is attracted to the
lone pair of a nearby electronegative atom?
A. Hydride bond
B. Hydro bond
C. Hydrogen bond
D. Hydrate bond
168. What is the process of changing from gas state to liquid state?
A. Sublimation
B. Condensation
C. Deposition
D. Vaporization
169. What is the process of changing from liquid state to solid state?
A. Melting
B. Freezing
C. Sublimation
D. Condensation
170. What is the process of changing fro, liquid state to gas state?
A. Vaporization
B. Sublimation
C. Condensation
D. Deposition
171. What is the process of changing from solid state to gas state?
A. Vaporization
B. Deposition
C. Sublimation
D. Condensation
172. What is the process of changing from gas state to solid state?
A. Deposition
B. Vaporization
C. Condensation
D. Sublimation
173. What is the process of changing from solid state to liquid state?
A. Freezing
B. Melting
C. Condensation
D. Vaporization
174. What refers to the amount of heat absorbed by one mole of a
substance to change from solid to liquid?
A. volatile
B. nonvolatile
C. surfactant
D. hydrophilic
179. What refers to the temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied
by an increase in pressure?
A. Absolute temperature
B. Absolute zero
C. Critical temperature
D. Maximum temperature
180. What is a homogeneous mixture made of particles that exist as
individual molrcules or ions?
A. Solution
B. Solute
C. Solvent
D. Colloid
181. What is the component of a solution that is dissolved?
A. Solvent
B. Solute
C. Catalyst
D. Colloid
182. What is the component of the solution in which the solute is dissolved?
A. Solvent
B. Catalyst
C. Reactant
D. Medium
183. Bronze is a solid solution of copper and tin. Which of the following is
true?
A. Tin is a solvent.
B. Copper is a solute.
C. Copper is the solvent.
D. The solution is called aqueous solution.
184. When the solvent of the solution is water, it is a/an _____ solution.
A. wet
B. liquid
C. aqueous
D. fluid
185. What is the most common solvent in medicines?
A. Paracetamol
B. Acid
C. Ethanol
D. Starch
186. What is the term generally used to describe the combination of solute
molecules or ions with solvent molecules?
A. Solubility
B. Solvation
C. Saturation
D. Transformation
187. What is the term used to describe the maximum amount of solute that
a given solvent can dissolve to give a stable solution at a given
temperature?
A. Solubility
B. Solvation
C. Saturation
D. Transformation
188. When the maximum amount of solute is dissolved in the given solvent
at a stated temperature, this solution formed is __________.
A. unsaturated
B. saturated
C. supersaturated
D. undersaturated
189. When the solution contains less solute particles than the maximum
amount the solvent can dissolve at that temperature, the solution is
____________.
A. unsaturated
B. saturated
C. supersaturated
D. undersaturated
190. When the solution contains more solute particles than the solvent can
normally hold, the solution is ________.
A. unsaturated
B. saturated
C. supersaturated
D. undersaturated
191. What is the most common solution on earth?
A. Air
B. Seawater
C. Blood
D. Freshwater
192. Solutions composed of two or more metals are called ________.
A. saturated solutions
B. supersaturated solutions
C. unsaturated solutions
D. alloys
193. The solubility of a substance in another substance is affected by the
following factors except __________.
A. miscible
B. immiscible
C. soluble
D. nonsoluble
195. Water and alcohol are both liquids that can be mixed in any proportion.
They are said to be __.
A. miscible
B. immiscible
C. soluble
D. nonsoluble
196. How will an increase in temperature in solids affect the solubility?
A. It decreases solubility.
B. It does not affect solubility at all.
C. It slightly affects solubility.
D. It increases solubility.
199. How does pressure affects the solubility in liquids or of liquids in
another liquid?
A. It decreases solubility.
B. It does not affect solubility at all.
C. It slightly affects solubility.
D. It increases solubility.
200. “The solubility of a gas in liquid is directly proportional to the partial
pressure of the gas above the solution.” This is known as ______.
A. Hund’s law
B. Pascal’s law
C. Henry’s law
D. Dalton’s law
201. What refers to the measure of how fast a substance dissolves?
A. Rate of solubility
B. Rate of agitation
C. Rate of dissolution
D. Rate of solution
202. How can the rate of dissolution be increased?
A. Concentrated
B. Dilute
C. Saturated
D. Unsaturated
204. ________ means there is a large amount of solute dissolved in the
solution.
A. Concentrated
B. Dilute
C. Saturated
D. Unsaturated
205. What is the ratio of the number of moles of one component of a
solution to the total number of moles of all the components?
A. Molarity
B. Molality
C. Formality
D. Mole fraction
206. What is the ratio of the number of moles of solute to the volume of the
solution in liters?
A. Molarity
B. Molality
C. Formality
D. Mole fraction
207. What is the ratio of the number of moles of solute per kilogram of
solvent?
A. Molarity
B. Molality
C. Formality
D. Mole fraction
208. What is the process of making a solution less concentrated as in the
addition of more solvent?
A. Concentration
B. Dilution
C. Saturation
D. Colligation
209. What is the process of changing liquid to gas that is usually
accompanied by the production of the bubbles of vapor in the liquid?
A. Vaporizing
B. Boiling
C. Condensing
D. Sublimation
210. What is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid
equals the prevailing atmospheric pressure?
A. Boiling point
B. Triple point
C. Saturation point
D. Critical point
211. What is the temperature at which liquid and solid are in equilibrium?
A. Boiling point
B. Resting point
C. Freezing point
D. Critical point
212. What refers to the decrease in the freezing point of a pure liquid when
another substance is dissolved in the liquid?
A. hypertonic
B. hypotonic
C. isotonic
D. photonic
214. If one of the two solutions has a bigger concentration of solute particles
than the other, the one with the higher concentration is described as _____.
A. hypertonic
B. hypotonic
C. isotonic
D. photonic
215. If one of the two solutions has a bigger concentration of solute particles
than the other, the one with the lower concentration is described as _____.
A. hypertonic
B. hypotonic
C. isotonic
D. photonic
216. The movement of solvent particles through a semi-permeable
membrane from the region lower solute concentration to the region of higher
solute concentration is called _________.
A. osmosis
B. hymolysis
C. orenation
D. dialysis
217. The term “colloid” comes from the Greek “kolla” and “oidos” which
means _________.
A. cloudy appearance
B. cloudy shape
C. glue appearance
D. glue color
218. What are suspensions of liquid or solid particles in a gas called?
A. Emulsions
B. Aerosols
C. Foams
D. Sols
219. What in some aerosol products that can cause harm to the
atmosphere?
A. Smog
B. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)
C. Emulsifying agent
D. Hydrocarbons
220. What are colloidal dispersion of gas bubbles in liquids or solids?
A. Emulsions
B. Aerosols
C. Foams
D. Sols
221. What is a colloidal dispersion of a liquid in either a liquid or a solid?
A. Emulsions
B. Gels
C. Foams
D. Sols
222. What is a solid dispersed in either a solid or a liquid?
A. Emulsions
B. Gels
C. Foams
D. Sols
223. What is a colloidal system in which the dispersed phase consists of
fibrous, interwoven particles called fibrils which exert a marked effect on the
physical properties of the dispersing medium?
A. Emulsions
B. Gels
C. Foams
D. Sols
224. Most cosmetics and ointments and creams used in medicines are
______.
A. emulsions
B. gels
C. foams
D. sols
225. The substance usually used in cleaning toilets bowls and tiles is
muriatic acid. What is another term for this?
A. Nitric acid
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Phosphoric acid
226. “Upon dissociation in water, acids yield hydrogen ions while gases yield
hydroxide ions.” What is this statement commonly called?
A. Arrhenius theory
B. pH concept
C. Bronstead-Lowry theory
D. Le Chatelier’s principle
227. What is defined as a substance which, upon reaction with water causes
an increase in the concentration of the solvent cation, H3O?
A. Lewis acid
B. Lewis base
C. Arrhenius base
D. Arrhenius acid
228. What is defined as a substance which, upon reaction with water causes
an increase in the concentration of the solvent anion, OH?
A. Lewis acid
B. Lewis base
C. Arrhenius base
D. Arrhenius acid
229. What is the dissolution constant of water at 250C?
A. 1.8 x 10-15
B. 1.8 x 10-16
C. 1.8 x 10-17
D. 1.8 x 10-18
230. What theory states that an acid in any substance that donates a proton
to another substance, and a base is any substance that can accept a proton
from any other substance?
A. Arrhenius theory
B. Bronsted-Lowry theory
C. Lewis theory
D. pH concept
231. What theory states that an acid is a substance that can accept a lone
pair from another molecule, and a base is a substance that has a lone pair of
electrons?
A. Arrhenius theory
B. Bronsted-Lowry theory
C. Lewis theory
D. pH concept
232. An acid described as an electron pair acceptor is the _________ acid.
A. Arrhenius
B. Pure
C. Lewis
D. Bronsted-Lowry
233. The Bronsted-Lowry acid is:
A. a proton donor
B. a proton acceptor
C. an electron pair acceptor
D. an electron pair donor
234. The Bronsted-Lowry base is:
A. a proton donor
B. a proton acceptor
C. an electron pair acceptor
D. an electron pair donor
235. According to Gilbert Lewis an acid-base reaction as the sharing of an
electron pair will form what type of bond?
A. Oxyacids
B. Binary acids
C. Acibas
D. Adduct
238. Acids composed of only two elements; hydrogen and nonmetal are
called __________.
A. Binary acids
B. Ternary acids
C. Oxyacids
D. Organic acids
239. What is added to hydrochloride to form hydrochloric acid?
A. Oxygen
B. Sulfur
C. Water
D. Carbon
240. Acids consist of three element; hydrogen and two nonmetals are called
_____.
A. Triacids
B. Ternary acids
C. Oxyacids
D. Organic acids
241. If one of the two nonmetals of a ternary acid is oxygen, the acid is
called ____.
A. Oxide
B. Oxyacid
C. Oxide acid
D. Acidic acid
242. Which of the following is the formula of sulfuric acid?
A. H2SO4
B. H2SO3
C. HNO2
D. HNO3
243. Which of the following is the formula of nitric acid?
A. HNO4
B. H2NO3
C. HNO2
D. HNO3
244. What acid is usually used in vinegars?
A. Sulfuric acid
B. Acetic acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Carbonic acid
245. What acid is used in glass itching?
A. Acetylsalicylic acid
B. Hydrofluoric acid
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Hydrochloric acid
246. What acid is usually present in some fruits?
A. Citric acid
B. Carbonic acid
C. Organic acid
D. Nitric acid
247. What acid is used in carbonated drinks?
A. Carbonic acid
B. Hydrofluoric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Citric acid
248. What acid usually used to reduce pain and inflammation such as aspirin
and other pain relievers?
A. Carbonic acid
B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Phosphoric acid
249. What acid is usually used in the manufacture of fertilizers?
A. Carbonic acid
B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Phosphoric acid
250. What acid is usually used in the manufacture of explosives?
A. Carbonic acid
B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Phosphoric acid
251. What acid is used in the batteries of cars or automobiles?
A. Carbonic acid
B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Phosphoric acid
252. Bases are compounds consisting of:
A. Lithium hydroxide
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Aluminum hydroxide
D. Magnesium hydroxide
254. What base is used as an antacid with no dosage restriction?
A. Magnesium hydroxide
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Aluminum hydroxide
D. Lithium hydroxide
255. Magnesium hydroxide is a base used as antacid if consumed in small
amounts and laxative if consumed in large dosage. What is common term for
magnesium hydroxide?
A. Skim if Magnesia
B. Oil of Magnesia
C. Cream of Magnesia
D. Milk of Magnesia
256. What is the most convenient way of expressing hydronium ion
concentration?
A. Hydrometer reading
B. pH scale
C. Alkalinity
D. Basicity
257. Who proposed the pH scale in 1909?
A. Albert Einstein
B. J. Williard Gibbs
C. Henri Hess
D. Soren Sorensen
258. What does the symbol pH stands for?
A. 6.1
B. 6.5
C. 7
D. 7.4
260. Which two substances have the same pH, which is 6.5?
A. Vinegar
B. Calamansi juice
C. Carbonated drink
D. Orange juice
262. Which is the best description of strong acids?
A. pH
B. pOH
C. indicator
D. OH-
265. What is a measure of the OH- concentration of a solution?
A. pH
B. pOH
C. Indicator
D. H30+
266. What is the pH of a neutral solution?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
267. Which of the following pH is the most basic?
A. pH 8
B. pH 9
C. pH 11
D. pH 13
268. What is the substance that changes color at a certain pH range?
A. Litmus paper
B. Indicator
C. Balancer
D. Lichen
269. What refers to the reaction between an acid and a base forming salt
and water?
A. Neutralization
B. Titration
C. Hydrolysis
D. Buffer
270. What is the process of measuring the concentration of an acid or base
in one solution by adding a base or acid solution of known concentration
until the acid or base in the solution of unknown concentration is fully
neutralized?
A. Neutralization
B. Titration
C. Hydrolysis
D. Buffer
271. What refers to the point at which the added base or acid solution in
titration is enough to fully neutralize the acid or base?
A. Neutral point
B. Titrant point
C. Central point
D. Equivalence point
272. What refers to the reaction between the ions of a salt and the ions of
water?
A. Salt titration
B. Salt buffering
C. Salt neutralization
D. Salt hydrolysis
273. What is a solution consisting of a weak acid and its conjugate base, or
of a weak base and its conjugate aid?
A. Seawater
B. Salt
C. Buffer
D. Aqueous solution
274. What is the most common chemical reaction, which is the reaction of
materials with oxygen accompanied by the giving off of energy in the form of
heat?
A. Combustion
B. Exothermic reaction
C. Endothermic reaction
D. Kinetic reaction
275. What is the area of chemistry that concerns with the rate at which
chemical reactions occur?
A. Initial energy
B. Activation energy
C. Ignition energy
D. Catalystic energy
277. If the energy is released as the reaction occurs, it is a _____ reaction.
A. instantaneous
B. spontaneous
C. exothermic
D. endothermic
278. If the energy is absorbed during the reaction, it is a _____ reaction.
A. instantaneous
B. spontaneous
C. exothermic
D. endothermic
279. What is a substance that, when added to a reaction mixture, increases
the rate of the reaction but is itself unchanged after the reaction is done?
A. Hydroxide ions
B. Accelerations
C. Catalyst
D. Neutral substance
280. What is a substance that slows down a chemical reaction?
A. Inhibitors
B. Retardant
C. Catalyst
D. Decelerators
281. How are catalysts classified?
A. Homogeneous catalyst
B. Heterogeneous catalyst
C. Pure catalyst
D. Composite catalyst
283. What type of catalyst exists in separate phase as the reactants in the
reaction mixture?
A. Homogeneous catalyst
B. Heterogeneous catalyst
C. Pure catalyst
D. Composite catalyst
284. Most heterogeneous catalyst are ________.
A. liquids
B. solids
C. gases
D. plasma
285. Which one is a factor that affects the rate of chemical reactions?
A. Temperature
B. Concentration and surface area of reactants
C. Presence of a catalyst
D. All of the above
286. What refers to the state at which the rates of the forward and backward
reactions are equal?
A. Chemical equilibrium
B. Reversible equilibrium
C. Reaction equilibrium
D. Haber equilibrium
287. What is the study of heat formed or required by the chemical reaction?
A. Stoichemistry
B. Thermochemistry
C. Thermodynamics
D. Enthalpy
288. What is the ratio of the equilibrium concentration of the products to the
equilibrium concentration reactants with each species concentration raised to
the corresponding stoichemistric coefficient found in the balanced reaction?
A. Equilibrium constant
B. Equilibrium concentration
C. Chemical equilibrium
D. Reaction quotient
289. What term is used as a qualitative description of the extent of a
chemical reaction?
A. Equilibrium position
B. Chemical equilibrium
C. Equilibrium
D. Reaction equilibrium
290. What quantity is used to determine how far from equilibrium the
chemical reaction is?
A. Reaction index
B. Chemical quotient
C. Equilibrium quotient
D. Reaction quotient
291. What states that if a change in conditions is imposed on a system at
equilibrium, the equilibrium position will shift in the direction that tends to
reduce the effects of that change?
A. Hess’ principle
B. Catalyst effect
C. Haber process principle
D. Le Chateller’s principle
292. What refers to the reaction of oxygen with an element or compound?
A. Reduction
B. Oxidation
C. Oxygenation
D. Oxygenization
293. The loss of electron by a substance is known as ___________.
A. oxidation
B. covalent process
C. reduction
D. ionic process
294. The gain of electrons by a substance is known as ___________.
A. oxidation
B. covalent process
C. reduction
D. ionic process
295. What represents the charge that the atom would have if the electrons
in each bond belonged entirely to the more electronegative atom?
A. Oxidation number
B. Atomic number
C. Atomic weight
D. Electron affinity
296. A reduced substance is what type of agent?
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Redox agent
C. Reducing agent
D. Nonredox agent
297. The oxidized substance is what type agent?
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Redox agent
C. Reducing agent
D. Nonredox agent
298. What reaction does not involve any change in oxidation number?
A. Redox reaction
B. Nonredox reaction
C. Reducing reaction
D. Oxidizing reaction
299. What is an apparatus that uses a spontaneous redox reaction to
generate electricity?
A. Voltaic cell
B. Fuel cell
C. Lead cell
D. Nickel cadmium cell
300. What is a branch of chemistry which is the study of carbon-containing
molecules known as organic compounds?
A. Organic chemistry
B. Inorganic chemistry
C. Stoichemistry
D. Biochemistry
301. Which of the following is a crystalline form of carbon?
A. Diamond
B. Graphite
C. Fullerenes
D. All of the above
302. What crystalline carbon is soft, black, slippery solid that possess
metallic luster and conduct electricity?
A. Charcoal
B. Graphite
C. Diamond
D. Coke
303. What is formed when hydrocarbons such as methane are heated in the
presence of very little oxygen?
A. Carbon black
B. Charcoal
C. Coke
D. Diamond
304. What type of carbon is produced when wood is heated intensely in the
absence of air?
A. Carbon black
B. Charcoal
C. Coke
D. Diamond
305. What type of carbon is used to remove undesirable odors from air?
A. Carbon black
B. Charcoal
C. Coke
D. Diamond
306. What carbon is produced when coal is strongly heated in the absence of
air?
A. Carbon black
B. Charcoal
C. Coke
D. Diamond
307. What type of carbon is used in the manufacture of car tires?
A. Carbon black
B. Charcoal
C. Coke
D. Diamond
308. Which of the following is NOT a property of inorganic compounds?
A. Carbides
B. Oxides
C. Carbon Oxides
D. Hydrocarbons
313. Based on the type of bond existing between two carbon atoms, how do
hydrocarbons classified?
A. Alkanes
B. Alkyne
C. Alkene
D. Benzene
315. When a hydrocarbon consists of carbon links that form a long, straight
or branched chain, it is classified as __________ type.
A. Cyclic
B. Chain
C. Pole
D. Linear
316. When hydrocarbon consists of carbon links that form a ring, it is
classified as __________ type.
A. Cyclic
B. Chain
C. Pole
D. Linear
317. The aromatic hydrocarbons contain the structural unit called
__________.
A. Alkyne
B. Benzene
C. Alkene
D. Alkane
318. What is a six- carbon ring with three alternating double bonds, or
closely related rings or rings of similar nature where nitrogen replaces
carbon in one or more ring positions?
A. Alkyne
B. Benzene
C. Alkene
D. Alkane
319. What is another term for “Alkanes”?
A. Olefins
B. Acetylene
C. Paraffins
D. Methyl
320. What is the simplest alkane which is a major component of nature gas?
A. Methane
B. Octane
C. Olefin
D. Acetylene
321. What are hydrocarbons that contain one or more double bonds?
A. Alkyne
B. Benzene
C. Alkene
D. Alkane
322. What is another term for “alkenes”?
A. Olefins
B. Ethene
C. Paraffins
D. Methyls
323. What is the simplest alkene, which is a plant hormone that plays
important role in seed germination and ripening of fruits?
A. Anthracene
B. Propyl
C. Ethyne
D. Ethene
324. What are hydrocarbons that contain one or more triple bonds?
A. Alkyne
B. Benzene
C. Alkene
D. Alkane
325. What is the simplest alkyne which is a highly reactive molecule?
A. Ethene
B. Acetylene or Ethyne
C. Propyl
D. Alkyl
326. The compounds, benzene, naphthalene and anthracene are examples
of what hydrocarbon?
A. Alphatic hydrocarbon
B. Aromatic hydrocarbon
C. Alkenes
D. Alkynes
327. What aromatic hydrocarbon is used as a component of mothballs?
A. Benzene
B. Naphthalene
C. Anthracine
D. Methyl
328. In 1956, the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry
(IUPAC) devised a systematic way of naming organic compounds. What is
this called?
A. System of Nomenclature
B. System of Identification
C. System of Verification
D. System of Unification
329. In naming of hydrocarbons, what refers to a side chain that is formed
by removing a hydrogen atom from an alkane?
A. Alkyl group
B. Alken group
C. Methyl group
D. Alkyn group
330. Compounds that contain halogens are called __________.
A. Amines
B. Halides
C. Ethers
D. Aldehydes
331. The organic compounds that contains oxygen but not in the carbonyl
group are called __________.
A. Alcohols and Ethers
B. Amines and Amides
C. Halides
D. Aldehydes
332. What organic compounds contain the hydroxyl as the functional group
and are considered derivates of water?
A. Alcohols
B. Ethers
C. Aldehydes
D. Ketones
333. What organic compounds contain nitrogen?
A. Halides
B. Amines and Amides
C. Alcohols
D. Ethers
334. What organic compounds in which two hydrocarbon groups that can be
aliphatic or aromatic are attached to one oxygen atom?
A. Amines
B. Alcohols
C. Ethers
D. Halides
335. Which of the following gases is usually used as a refrigerant?
A. Ketone
B. Muscone
C. Propyl ether
D. Dimethyl ether
336. Which of the following statements regarding organic substances is
FALSE?
A. Base
B. Acid
C. Electrolyte
D. Solvent
338. Which of the following is most likely to prove that a substance is
inorganic?
A. Helium
B. Neon
C. Carbon Dioxide
D. Sodium
340. What element is known as the lightest metal?
A. Aluminum
B. Manganese
C. Magnesium
D. Lithium
341. What refers to the attraction between like molecules?
A. Absorption
B. Diffusion
C. Adhesion
D. Cohesion
342. Which of the following is the strongest type of bonds?
A. Van de Waals
B. Metallic
C. Covalent
D. Ionic
343. When all of the atoms of a molecule are the same, the substance is
called a/an __________.
A. Compound
B. Chemical
C. Element
D. Ion
344. Reactions generally proceed faster at high temperatures because of
which of the following?
A. Specific Gravity
B. Acid Content
C. Voltage output
D. Current value
346. An element maybe defined as a substance with all atoms of which have
the same __________.
A. Number of neutrons
B. Radioactivity
C. Atomic weight
D. Atomic number
347. The device which measures the acid content of the cell is called
__________.
A. Acid meter
B. Hydrometer
C. Hygrometer
D. Pyrometer
348. In a copper atom, the valence ring contains how many electrons?
A. No electron
B. One electron
C. Two electrons
D. Four electrons
349. A __________ is a cell designed to produce electric current and can be
recharged
A. Secondary cell
B. Electrolyte cell
C. Chemical cell
D. Battery
350. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
A. Acid
B. Fluid
C. Carbon
D. Oxide
352. The amount of electricity a battery can produce is controlled by the
__________.
A. Molecular number
B. Proton number
C. Mass number
D. Atomic number
354. The electrolyte is a solution of water and __________.
A. Sulfuric acid
B. Uric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Formic acid
355. What is deuteron?
A. Plutonium
B. Californium
C. Uranium
D. Cobalt
357. The formula for DinitrogenPentoxide is:
A. N2O5
B. NO3
C. NO
D. N3O4
358. One of the following statements is wrong. Which one is it?
A. Aldehydes
B. Amines
C. Isomers
D. Esters
360. What is formed when a carboxylic acid and an alcohol react, with water
as a by-product?
A. Amine
B. Ester
C. Polymer
D. Teflon
361. What common carboxylic acid is found in yogurt?
A. Lactic acid
B. Citric acid
C. Tartaric acid
D. Lauric acid
362. What carboxylic acid is found in grapes?
A. Lactic acid
B. Citric acid
C. Tartaric acid
D. Lauric acid
363. What carboxylic acid is found in coconut oil?
A. Lactic acid
B. Citric acid
C. Tartaric acid
D. Lauric acid
364. What do you call the distance pattern in space which the atoms of
metal arranged themselves when they combine to produce a substance of
recognizable size?
A. Space-lattice
B. Crystal
C. Grain
D. Unit cell
365. When a solid has crystalline structure, the atoms arranged in repeating
structures called ________.
A. Lattice
B. Unit cell
C. Crystal
D. Domain
366. What refers to a crystal imperfection characterized by regions of severe
atomic misfit where atoms are not properly surrounded by neighbor atoms?
A. Discrystallization
B. Dislocation
C. Slip step
D. Dispersion
367. In electrochemistry, oxidation is a loss of __________.
A. Ion
B. Electron
C. Proton
D. Anode
368. What is the process of putting back the lost electrons to convert the ion
back to a metal?
A. Oxidation
B. Corrosion
C. Reduction
D. Ionization
369. Oxidation in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?
A. At the anode
B. At the cathode
C. At the electrode
D. At both cathode and anode
370. Reduction in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?
A. At the anode
B. At the cathode
C. At the electrode
D. At both cathode and anode
371. What is equal to the fraction of the isotope in a naturally occurring
sample of the element?
A. The chemical atomic weight of the isotope
B. The relative abundance of the isotope
C. The electromagnetivity of the isotope
D. The quantum number of the isotope
372. What refers to salts of weak bases dissolving in water to form acidic
solution?
A. Hydrolysis
B. Neutralization
C. Bufferization
D. Titration
373. Which of the following elements has the highest atomic number?
A. Titanium
B. Plutonium
C. Uranium
D. Radium
374. All are properties of gaseous state except one. Which one?
A. Aromatic hydrocarbon
B. Aliphatic hydrocarbon
C. Simple hydrocarbon
D. Carbon hydrocarbon
377. What is an organic compound that contains the hydroxyl group?
A. Base
B. Acid
C. Alcohol
D. Wine
378. What is a reaction in which one molecule adds to another?
A. Partial reaction
B. Monomolecular reaction
C. Molecular reaction
D. Additional reaction
379. What refers to the minimum amount of energy required to initiate a
chemical reaction?
A. Atomic energy
B. Activation energy
C. Initial energy
D. Reaction energy
380. Oxygen comprises what percent in mass in the earth’s crust?
A. 50.0
B. 49.5
C. 48.5
D. 47.5
381. What percent of the human body is carbon?
A. 22 %
B. 20 %
C. 18 %
D. 16 %
382. What refers to how closely a measured value agrees with the correct
value?
A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Relative precision
D. Relative accuracy
383. What refers to how closely individual measurements agree with each
other?
A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Relative precision
D. Relative accuracy
384. What is the physical appearance of sodium?
A. Silver metal
B. Yellowish metal
C. White crystal
D. Reddish gas
385. What is the physical appearance of chlorine?
A. Silver metal
B. White crystal
C. Yellowish gas
D. White metal
386. What is the physical appearance of sodium chloride?
A. Silver metal
B. White crystal
C. Yellowish gas
D. White metal
387. Who proposed the quantum theory in 1900?
A. J,J Thomson
B. Neils Bohr
C. Max Planck
D. Ernest Rutherford
388. What is a general term that refers to an allowed energy state for an
electron in the atom?
A. Niels Bohr
B. Ernest Rutherford
C. J.J Thompson
D. Max Planck
390. What is an alloy of mercury with another metal or metals?
A. Amalgram
B. Amine
C. Allotrope
D. Alkynes
391. A compound that contains at least one animo group and at least one
carboxyl group is called __________.
A. Allotrope
B. Animo acid
C. Alkenes
D. Alkynes
392. A molecular orbit that is of higher energy and lower stability than the
atomic orbitals from which it was formed is called __________.
A. Compound ion
B. Complex ion
C. Simplex ion
D. Buffer ion
395. Compounds containing CN ion are called __________.
A. Cyanides
B. Cycloalkanes
C. Carbides
D. Carboxylic acids
396. A molecule that does not possess a dipole moment is called
__________.
A. Polar molecule
B. Non- polar molecule
C. Non-electrolytic molecule
D. Electrolytic molecule
397. What refers to a substance that when dissolved in water, gives a
solution that is not electrically conducting?
A. Non-polar
B. Electrolyte
C. Non-electrolyte
D. Polar
398. What refers to a chemical formula that shows how atoms are bonded to
one another in a molecule?
A. Molecular formula
B. Structural formula
C. Standard formula
D. Bonding formula
399. What refers to ions that are not involved in the overall reaction?
A. Guest ion
B. Special ions
C. Spectator ions
D. Extra ions
400. A compound distinguished by a high molar mass, ranging into
thousands and millions of grams, and made up of many repeating cells is
called __________.
A. Electrolyte
B. Polymer
C. Nucleotide
D. Oxoacid
401. Determine the density of the space occupied by the electrons in the Na
atom. The radius of the nucleus is given, and 3.04 fm. The radius of Na
atom is 186 pm and atomic number is 11.
A. 4.21 x 10^-4 g/cm3
B. 3.71 x 10^-4 g/cm3
C. 7.31 x 10^-4 g/cm3
D. 8.31 x 10^-4 g/cm3
402. Calculate the moles of Magnesium (Mg) present in 93.5 g of Mg? (Mg
atomic mass = 24.31g)
A. 3.85 moles
B. 4.15 moles
C. 5.38 moles
D. 3.35 moles
403. How many number of atoms are there in 1.32 x 10^3 g of Lead (Pb)?
Pb atomic mass is 207.7g.
A. 3.84 x 10^23 atoms
B. 4.38 x 10^23 atoms
C. 3.84 x 10^24 atoms
D. 4.38 x 10^24 atoms
404. How many grams are there in 4.57 x 10^21 amu?
A. 6.95 x 10^-3 g
B. 5.45 x 10^-3 g
C. 5.96 x 10^-3 g
D. 7.59 x 10^-3 g
405. Calculate the number of moles of cobalt (Co) atom in seven billion Co
atoms?
A. 1.16 x 10^-14 moles
B. 1.61 x 10^-13 moles
C. 1.16 x 10^-13 moles
D. 1.43 x 10^-14 moles
406. Given 16.7 moles of gold (Au), how many grams of Au are there?
Atomic mass of Au is 197.0g.
A. 3.51 x 10^3 g
B. 3.29 x 10^3 g
C. 2.39 x 10^3 g
D. 3.76 x 10^3 g
407. Determine the mass in grams of a single atom of Ge which has an
atomic mass of 72.59.
A. C2H3NO2
B. C2H5NO3
C. C4H6N2O10
D. C2H3NO5
413. Calculate the molecular mass of methanol (CH4O), given the atomic
masses of C = 12.01 g, H = 1.008 g and O = 16 g.
A. 29.018 amu
B. 34.241 amu
C. 32.042 amu
D. 30.026 amu
414. How many moles of chloroform (CHCl3) are there in 210.45 g of
chloroform? C = 12.01 amu, H = 1.008 amu and Cl = 35.45 amu.
A. 62.25 %
B. 63.34 %
C. 64.45 %
D. 65.25 %
417. If atomic masses of Al and O are 26.98 amu and 16.00 amu,
respectively, how many grams of Al are there in 431g of Al2O3?
A. 228 g
B. 215 g
C. 237 g
D. 114 g
418. Which is the molecular formula of a sample of a compound containing
6.444 g of boron (B) and 1.803 g of hydrogen (H)? The compound has a
molar mass of about 30 g. Given boron (B) has 10.81 amu and hydrogen (H)
has 1.008 amu.
A. B2H3
B. BH
C. B2H6
D. BH3
419. The atomic masses of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen are 12.01g,
1.008g, and 16g respectively. Calculate the molarity of a 90-mL ethanol
(C2H5OH) solution which contains 2.15 g of ethanol.
A. 0.52 M
B. 0.25 M
C. 0.61 M
D. 0.44 M
420. Determine the volume in mL of stock solution that must be diluted to
produce 3.00 x 10^2 mL of 0.856 M NaOH solution, starting with a 5.27 M
stock solution?
A. 47.8 mL
B. 48.7 mL
C. 51.2 mL
D. 48.1 mL
421. Bromine (Br) and Silver has atomic masses of 79.90g and 107.9g,
respectively. In a certain experiment, a sample of 0.3320g of an ionic
compound containing the bromide ion (BrI) is dissolved in water and treated
with an excess of AgNO3 if the mass of the AgBr precipitate that forms is
0.734 g, calculate the percent by mass of Br in the original compound?
A. 42.55 %
B. 49.70 %
C. 84.10 %
D. 94.07 %
422. Solve for the volume occupied by 3.12 moles of nitric oxide (NO) which
exerts 5.43 atm of pressure at a temperature of 82oC.
A. 16.75 L
B. 13.84 L
C. 15.76 L
D. 16.48 L
423. Calculate the volume occupied by 50.6 g of HCl at STP. H = 1.008 amu
and Cl = 35.45 amu.
A. 83.2 L
B. 31.1 L
C. 27.4 L
D. 1.38 L
424. Calculate the final pressure if a sample of a certain gas is cooled from
34oC to -73oC, with an initial pressure of 1.45 atm.
A. 1.42 atm
B. 3.11 atm
C. 0.94 atm
D. 1.63 atm
425. An 867-mL sample of chlorine gas exerts a pressure of 738 mmHg.
Determine the pressure of the gas if the volume is reduced to 321 mL at
constant temperature.
A. 1.99 x 103 mm Hg
B. 2.73 x 103 mm Hg
C. 1.21 x 103 mm Hg
D. 2.13 x 103 mm Hg
426. Determine the final pressure of a gas, initially at 3.0 L, 2.2 atm, and
72oC, which undergoes a change so that its final volume and temperature
are 0.9 L and 41oC.
A. 7.66 atm
B. 6.67 atm
C. 4.18 atm
D. 5.73 atm
427. Calculate the density of uranium hexafluoride (UF6) with pressure of
697 mmHg at 57oC temperature. Atomic masses: U = 238 g; F = 19 g.
A. 90.55 g/L
B. 52.42 g/L
C. 68.98 g/L
D. 11.92 g/L
428. Calculate the molar mass of a certain gaseous organic compound
having a density of 0.00356 g/mL at 2.12 atm and 45oC.
A. 6.20 g/mol
B. 42.84 g/mol
C. 0.043 g/mol
D. 4.384 g/mol
429. Determine the molecular formula of a gaseous compound which is
78.14% boron and 21.86% H. At a temperature of 27oC, 33.2864-mL of the
gas exerted a pressure of 2.5 atm, and the mass of the gas was 0.0934g. B
= 10.81 amu and H = 1.008 amu.
A. BH2
B. BH3
C. B2H6
D. BH3
430. The atomic mass of chlorine is 35.45 g. What is the root-mean-square
of molecular chlorine in m/s at 31oC?
A. 104 m/s
B. 10 m/s
C. 327 m/s
D. 193 m/s
431. Assuming there is no change in volume, determine the molarity of the
acid solution if a 3.12-L sample of hydrogen chloride gas at 2.57 atm and
27.5oC, which is completely dissolved in a 700 mL of water to form
hydrochloric acid solution.
A. 0.644 M
B. 0.000464 M
C. 0.464 M
D. 0.0464 M
432. A certain sample of natural gas contains 0.377 mole of ethane (C2H6),
7.48 moles of methane (CH4), and 0.134 mole of propane (C3H8). Calculate
the partial pressure of propane gas, if the total pressure of the gases is 1.79
atm.
A. 1.68 atm
B. 0.084 atm
C. 0.94 atm
D. 0.03 atm
433. A 2.102g of methanol (CH3OH) was burned in a constant-volume bomb
calorimeter. Consequently, the temperature of the water was rose by
5.13oC. Solve for the molar heat of combustion of methanol, if the heat
capacity of the bomb plus water was 11.8 kJ/oC. Carbon has 12.01 amu,
hydrogen has 1.008 amu and oxygen has 16.00 amu.
A. 922.75 kJ/mol
B. – 922.75 kJ/mol
C. 60.534 kJ/mol
D. – 28.79 kJ/mol
434. Caffeine (C8H10N4O2) is a stimulant found in tea and coffee. What is
its empirical formula?
A. C4H5N2O
B. C5H3NO2
C. C2H6NO3
D. C8H10N4O2
435. Calculate the mass of a piece of platinum metal with a density of 34.1
g/cm3 and has a volume of 5.2 cm3.
A. 17.732 g
B. 1773.2 g
C. 177.32 g
D. 1.7732 g
436. Calculate the number of molecules of oxygen gas present in 1.5 L of air
at STP. Assuming that air contains 31% O2, 67% N2 and 2% Ar, all by
volume.
A. 3.78 g
B. 7.57 g
C. 4.30 g
D. 8.61 g
438. Which of the following is the molar mass of the gas at 752 torr and
41oC? Ten grams of a gas occupy a volume of 5.12 L.
A. 51 g/mol
B. 1.96 g/mol
C. 149 g/mol
D. 1144 g/mol
439. Determine the pressure exerted by hydrogen bromide (HBr) gas having
a density of 2.978 g/L at a temperature of 46oC. Hydrogen and bromine has
atomic masses of 1.008g and 79.9 g, respectively.
A. 73 mm Hg
B. 106 mm Hg
C. 733 mm Hg
D. 0.964 mm Hg
440. How many grams of mercury (Hg = 200.6 amu) are there in 7.18
moles?
A. 0.036 g
B. 1440 g
C. 312 g
D. 1004 g
441. An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition
and measure their individual relative masses.
A. mass spectrometer
B. barometer
C. hygrometer
D. hydrometer
442. These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the
other components.
A. isotope
B. hydrates
C. ion
D. mixture
443. If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound, the
reaction is:
A. combustion reactions
B. replacement reactions
C. metathesis
D. neutralization
444. If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or
more products, the type of reaction is
A. decomposition
B. combination
C. displacement
D. double displacement
445. The numerical value for standard pressure of any gas is
A. 76 mm Hg
B. 760 cm Hg
C. 760 mm Hg
D. 7.6 cm Hg
446. Any process extracting the metal in a fused state is called
A. Calcination
B. Roasting
C. Smelting
D. Froth flotation process
447. Which of the following does not change with change in temperature?
A. volume
B. mass
C. pressure
D. density
448. A device used to measure density.
A. manometer
B. hydrometer
C. spectrometer
D. densimeter
449. The statement “mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical
reaction” is known as:
A. Ionic Bond
B. Covalent Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Chemical Bond
451. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the
electronegativity difference between atoms is less than 1.5?
A. Covalent Bond
B. Ionic Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Chemical Bond
452. The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is Berylium (Be), atomic
number 4. What is the charge on the Be atom?
A. +4
B. +8
C. -4
D. Neutral
453. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in
a Periodic table is called:
A. period
B. group
C. family
D. row
454. Compounds which contain only carbon and hydrogen are called
A. polymorphs
B. hydrocarbons
C. polycarbon
D. plastics
455. The property of liquid which describes their resistance to flow is called
A. viscosity
B. elasticity
C. glueyness
D. stickiness
456. In oxidation-reduction or redox reactions the component receiving the
electrons is called
A. reductant
B. reducing agent
C. oxidant
D. acceptor
457. The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged
as a result of the reaction. In precise form: mass is neither created nor
destroyed. This is known as:
A. specific gravity
B. relative gravity
C. specific weight
D. relative weight
460. How many electrons are there in a covalent bond?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
461. The SI unit of temperature is
A. Fahrenheit
B. Kelvin
C. Celsius
D. Rankine
462. The elements that a compound is composed of are present in fixed and
precise proportion by mass. This is known as:
A. 10 amu
B. 19 amu
C. 15 amu
D. 21 amu
464. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called
A. atomic number
B. percent abundance
C. atomic weight
D. oxidation number
465. The measure of the resistance of an object to a changed in its state of
Motion is called
A. momentum
B. mass
C. inertia
D. velocity
466. Refers to the agreement of a particular value with the true value.
A. precision
B. error
C. tolerance
D. accuracy
467. Refers to the degree of arrangement among several measurements of
the same quantity.
A. accuracy
B. precision
C. error
D. margin
468. A property of matter that is often used by chemist as an “identification
tag” for a substance.
A. mass
B. molarity
C. density
D. volume
469. Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary
particles called
A. quarks
B. ions
C. isotope
D. warks
470. The principle of the constant composition of compounds, originally
called “Proust’s Law” is now known as
A. 1837 times
B. 7300 times
C. 1829 times
D. 1567 times
472. Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of
neutrons are called
A. ions
B. quarks
C. isotopes
D. compounds
473. The forces that hold atoms together are called
A. mechanical bond
B. formula bond
C. atomic bind
D. chemical bond
474. An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is
called
A. ion
B. isotope
C. positron
D. polymer
475. A positive ion is called
A. positron
B. anion
C. cation
D. quark
476. A negative ion is called
A. positron
B. anion
C. cation
D. quark
477. The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called
A. ionic bonding
B. covalent bonding
C. polar bonding
D. metallic bonding
478. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic in a
periodic table is called
A. group
B. period
C. series
D. row
479. The vertical arrangement of elements in the periodic table is called
A. period
B. group
C. series
D. column
480. If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of a gas
the pressure
A. is decreased to half
B. is doubled
C. is increased to four times
D. remains unchanged
481. A symbolic representation to emphasize the valence shell of an atom is
called
A. argand diagram
B. constellation diagram
C. electron dot diagram
D. structural formula
482. For which elements do the number of electrons in their outer or valence
shell correspond to their group number?
A. transition group
B. noble gas
C. representative or main group
D. metals
483. What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit into a “p”
orbital?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
484. Atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration
A. isoelectronic
B. isometric
C. iso-ionic
D. isotope
485. Which group of the periodic table is known as the alkali metals?
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
486. Which group of the periodic table is known as the halogens?
A. Group 4
B. Group 5
C. Group 6
D. Group 7