INDEX

Corrosion Page 2
Weld and Metal Defects Page 6
Photography Page 9
Concrete Page 13
Ultrasonic Testing Page 16
Magnetic Particle Inspection Page 24
General Page 28

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Corrosion

1 Corrosion can best be defined as:

a physical breakdown of a material
b oxidation of materials
c surface rust
d metal reverting to its original state

2 The galvanic series in seawater is:

a a list of metals that corrode in seawater
b a list of metals in order of increasing
tendency to corrode in seawater
c a list of noble and less noble metals
d a list of metals that react with one another
when placed in seawater

3 The cathode is: a positive and protected

b negative and protected
c positive and corrodes
d negative and corrodes

4 General corrosion differs from pitting corrosion because:

a there is always more general pitting corrosion
b pitting corrosion is more significant
c in general corrosion on the anodic areas shift around
d general corrosion only occurs at depths below 20m

5 The desired pH level to inhibit corrosion is:

a 8
b 10
c 12
d 14

6 A brass bolt is fitted into an aluminium plate, what will be the result:
a it will remain secure as brass does not corrode
b the brass will corrode and the bolt will fail
c the aluminium will corrode
d both will corrode equally as they are in contact

7 Marine growth may cause:

a galvanic corrosion
b erosion corrosion
c general corrosion
d crevice corrosion

8 The rate of corrosion will be increased by:

a a rise in the pH level
b stagnation of the water
c increase in temperature
d increase in the amount of light

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9 Cathodic protection is described as:
a a series of sacrificial anodes placed on a structure
b the establishment of a preferential corrosion
cell sympathetic to the material to be protected
c the application of an external current equal to or
greater than all of the microscopic cell currents
at the steel surface
d the suppression of corrosion

10 Sacrificial anodes may be made of:

a zinc
b magnesium
c aluminium
d all of the above

11 With relation to the structure it is protecting, a sacrificial anode should be:

a more noble
b well insulated
c less noble
d similar

12 Impressed current anodes are energised up to:

a 240 volts AC, 13 amps
b 90 volts DC, 340 amps
c 80 volts DC, 750 amps
d 60 volts DC, 600 amps

13 When cathodic protection is employed to prevent corrosion of a metal surface that surface
is:
a the anode
b the cathode
c radioactive
d none of the above

14 Anodes in the impressed current system may be made of:

a zinc
b magnesium
c aluminium
d niobium

15 The negative terminal of the generator in an impressed current system should be attached
to:
a the anode
b the earth anchorage away from the structure
c the insulated conductor
d the structure

(return to index)

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16 Impressed current anodes should be switched off:
a 6 hours in every 24 hours
b one week in a month
c never
d when it may be a hazard

17 An inspection of a cathode protection system will normally include the from its base
structure and:
a major pipelines up to 20m
b all pipelines up to 200m from its base
c nothing else
d pipeline connections

18 A CP meter measures:
a the corrosion that has taken place
b the wall thickness of the steel
c the potential to corrode
d the corrosion rate

19 The expected range of readings for unprotected steel in seawater is:

a -500 to -600 mV
b -800 to -900 mV
c -400 to -650 mV
d -450 to -600 mV

20 A potential reading of -100 mV would indicate that the material under test was:
a heavily corroding steel
b zinc / magnesium anode
c monel
d silver

21 The stainless steel prod on a corrosion potential meter forms what part of the galvanic cell:
a the anode
b the cathode
c the electrolyte
d the electrical path

22 For inspection dives with a CP meter:

a calibration is not required
b calibration should be done before the dive
c calibration should be done after the dive
d calibration should be done before
and after the dive

23 A reading of -700 mV on a steel structure would indicate:

a the structure was adequately protected
b the meter was faulty
c there was inadequate local protection
d the structure was unprotected
(return to index)

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24 When using a proximity meter the reference half cell should:
a be in direct contact with the structure
b be at least 300mm from the steel surface
c be as close as possible without making contact
d never be used

25 Which of the following is considered to be the highest reading:

a -600 mV
b -700 mV
c -650 mV
d -900 mV

26 What is used to measure the corrosion rate on a steel structure:

a MPI
b 'A' scan unit
c UT meter
d CP meter

27 The corrosion rate of steel will increase:

a if the water temperature increases
b if the water temperature decreases
c water temperature does not affect the corrosion
rate of steel
d if the water was freshwater

28 Corrosion will start if:

a pH is too high
b pH is too low
c metal in electrochemical environment
d if one metal is more noble than another

29 With reference to the galvanic series, which produces more electricity:

a silver and lead
b copper and lead
c copper and silver
d silver and aluminium

30 Impressed current anodes can be made of:

a niobium and tungsten and lead
b niobium and silver and lead
c niobium and tungsten and aluminium
d niobium and titanium

31 Impressed current anodes are used on platforms:

a to increase the electrical flow
b to reduce the weight loading
c to use less power and maintenance
d to reduce the electrical flow

(return to index)

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32 What method is used to determine internal corrosion:
a CP metering
b MPI
c 'A' scan presentation
d visual inspection

Weld and Metal defects

1 The weld zone is:

a the part of the parent metal that is melted
into the weld metal
b the area of the parent metal that has been
affected by heat
c the area containing the weld metal
d the boundary between the fusion zone
and the heat affected zone

2 The weld face is;

a the surface of the weld
b the edge where the parent metal has been
prepared
c the surface join where weld metal meets
parent metal
d the boundary between the fusion zone
and the heat affected zone

3 Into how many groups are welding defects classified

a 4
b 5
c 6
d 7

4 Imperfect shape is the classification given to:

a lack of fusion
b lack of penetration
c porosity
d incompletely filled groove

5 Which of the following are planar defects:

a overlap
b lack of fusion
c solid inclusions
d porosity

6 Which of the following are volumetric defects:

a laminations
b cracks
c worm holes
d lack of sidewall fusion
(return to index)

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7 Where are fatigue cracks most likely to appear:
a welds - on the surface
b welds - internally
c parent metal
d heat affected zone

8 When cleaning a weld for close visual inspection what cleaning standard should be
adopted:
a SA 3
b SA 2.5
c BS 5405
d BS 5200

9 When cleaning a weld for inspection what area should normally be included:
a the whole weld
b 10 cm either side and the weld itself
c 15 cm either side and the weld itself
d 20 cm either side and the weld itself

10 When reporting a defect during a weld inspection accurate measurement is in:

a o'clock positions
b centimetres
c millimetres from datum
d millimetres from nearest known feature

11 Oxide in welds can cause discontinuities which are similar to non-metallic inclusions but
these oxide related discontinuities are called:
a crater cracks
b seams
c slag inclusions
d TIG inclusions

12 A groove in the toe of the weld caused by excessive arc when welding is termed:
a under lap
b incompletely filled groove
c undercut
d insufficient reinforcement

13 an excess of weld metal at the face of a butt weld should be termed:

a overlapping
b excessive convexity
c excessive reinforcement
d overlay

14 An excess of weld metal at the face a of a fillet weld should be termed:

a over capping
b excessive convexity
c excessive reinforcement
d overlay

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15 A reduction in thickness of metal caused by excessive grinding is:
a under flushing
b over flushing
c under dressing
d grinding mark

16 A crack running straight along the centre of the weld would be called:
a transverse
b compress ional
c longitudinal
d branching

17 Which of the following may normally be identified by close visual inspection of a weld
from the reinforcement side:
a lack of fusion
b lack of penetration
c undercut
d excessive penetration

18 What causes slag to form on the weld run:

a oxides produced at the surface
b impurities in the electrode
c melting of the flux coating
d incompletely fused metal

19 When measuring a defect in the HAZ such as spatter what information would you give:
a distance from datum
b diameter, depth
c distance from adjacent toe
d all of the above

20 Arc strikes are:

a reported but not significant
b not acceptable by many fabrication codes
c not detectable on a visual inspection
d never occur offshore

21 In which of the following would you expect to find Lamellar tearing:

a Un-welded steel plates
b large aluminium casting
c centre of butt welds
d none of the above

22 One method of reducing the possibility of fatigue failure in a welded joint is;
a use backing strips
b flexible coatings
c weld toe profiling
d concrete coating

(return to index)

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23 Laminations and solid inclusions:
a are found in steel plates
b are found in steel pipes
c can be found with ultrasonic inspection
d all of the above

24 If both sides are accessible, which of following can not be detected by visual inspection:
a excessive penetration
b worm holes
c cold lap and overlap
d laminations

25 Two or more members welded together are called:

a span
b node
c junction
d platform

Photography

1 Which colour light is absorbed first:

a green
b blue
c red
d all the same

2 What term is given to the reflective effect of suspended minerals, silt etc in weakening the
light intensity:
a attenuation
b absorption
c scattering
d refraction

3 A camera that allows viewing through the lens prior to taking the photograph is called:
a viewfinder camera
b TLR camera
c SLR camera
d SDP camera

4 Lenses with short focal lengths are called:

a normal
b telephoto
c inverse
d wide angle
5 The distance between the nearest and farthest points in focus for any particular lens setting
is called:
a the F stop
b the depth of field
c the focal length
d the focal point

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6 Depth of field increases when:
a the F number is increased
b the subject to camera distance is increased
c the lens focal length is decreased
d all of the above

7 The F number on a camera is calculated by:

a dividing the focal length by the diameter of
the aperture
b multiplying the focal length by the diameter
of the aperture
c adding the camera to subject distance to the
depth of field
d dividing the focal length by the lens size

8 Fast film is film with an ASA of:

a 50 - 64
b 100 - 200
c 400 - 6000
d 20 - 35

9 Film process using the E6 technique:

a colour negative
b colour reversal
c colour retrieval
d monochrome negative

10 What film size is used in the sea & sea motor marine camera:
a 126
b 35 mm
c 110
d 70 mm

11 How much larger or smaller is the image on 70 mm when compared with 35 mm film:
a two times larger
b four times larger
c two times smaller
d four times smaller

12 What term is used to express the light output of a strobe or flash unit:
a wattage
b strobe number
c guide number
d lux

(return to index)

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13 When making a photo-mosaic of an nodal weld what overlap on individual frames should
be used:
a 30 - 40 %
b 40 - 50 %
c 60 - 70 %
d 70 - 80 %

14 What is the frame size of the nikonos camera when fitted with close-up lens and prods:
a 12 cm x 9 cm
b 11 cm x 8 cm
c 7 cm x 5 cm
d 18 cm x 20 cm

15 What is the speed setting on the nikonos camera:

a 1/60th second
b 1/100th second
c M90
d 1/30th - 1/2000th second

16 What F stops would you bracket around when taking a stand-off photograph from 1 m
underwater:
a F8
b F 11
c F 16
d F 22

17 What is the essential ingredient of a good inspection photograph:

a a label noting the subject
b a scale with either imperial or metric markings
c holding the camera in a horizontal position
d ensuring the flash is orientated correctly

18 What is the most important reason for filling out logs during photography:
a to save time during the writing of the report
b as a record of photographs having been taken
c to record the basic details of the film, such as
subject, diver and date
d to count the number of exposures used

19 The speed of photographic emulsion is affected by:

a the size of the film
b size of the aperture
c amount of light available
d none of the above

20 As light travels through water:

a the spectrum changes
b it gains in intensity
c the beam is not affected by scattering
d it is not affected at the air water interface

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21 To darken the negative of a black and white film:
a type of camera
b type of film
c adjust the aperture
d adjust the development

22 Scatter is caused by:

a light reflecting on particles in the water
b light exciting the molecules
c the ASA of the film
d moving the camera

23 Which lens is for underwater or surface use:

a 35 - 70 mm
b 16 - 35 mm
c 35 - 125 mm
d 28 - 35 mm

24 Light reflects through water:

a towards the object
b away from the object
c does not change
d from the object

25 The speed of 64 ASA film is:

a twice as much as 200 ASA
b once as much as 200 ASA
c once less than 200 ASA
d four times less than 200 ASA

26 200 ASA film is:

a twice as sensitive as 50 ASA film
b has larger grains than 50 ASA film
c has smaller grains than 50 ASA film
d half as sensitive as 50 ASA film

27 As sunlight enters the water it:

a refracts towards the normal
b refracts away from the normal
c carries straight on its original path
d is all reflected

28 The size of 35 mm film is:

a measured diagonally
b width of film
c size of aperture
d number of exposures

(return to index)

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Concrete

1 Concrete is a mixture of:

a cement - water - additives
b cement - sand - water
c cement - gravel - sand - water - additives
d cement - sand - additives

2 Vertical lines on the face of a concrete structure would indicate:

a pre-stressing
b slip-forming
c shuttering
d cable tracks

3 Concrete corrosion refers to:

a the disintegration of the concrete matrix
b the erosion of the corner edges
c the corrosion of the re-bar through loss of cover
d loss of cover

4 Steel reinforcement must have adequate cover:

a to protect from seawater penetration
b to protect from accidental damage
c to protect from spalling
d all of the above

5 A wide crack is a crack with a width of:

a 0 - 1 mm
b 1 - 2 mm
c more than 2 mm
d less than 2 mm

6 Salts appearing on the surface of concrete having been washed out from a crack are called:
a exudation
b incrustation
c spalling
d carbonation

7 If concrete is poured from heights greater than 2 m what is likely to occur:

a slip forming
b deterioration
c honeycombing
d jointing

8 The gritty joint formed by insufficient surface wetting in hot conditions is:
a a cold joint
b a dry joint
c a panel joint
d a construction joint
(return to index)

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9 Which of the following is not likely to cause discoloration:
a additives
b steam curing
c rust
d mould oil

10 Concrete is designed to protect the rebar a situation called passivation; what pH level does
the concrete need to be to achieve this:
a 4
b 8
c 12
d 14

11 Which of the following statements about concrete is true:

a it is impermeable so protecting the rebar
b it is totally porous but protects the rebar
through passivation
c it is porous but if cover is sufficient water
will not penetrate
d it is porous but the rebar can not rust as no
oxygen is present

12 What should she-bolts indicate:

a pre-stressing cables
b fixing points
c shoddy workmanship
d shuttered construction

13 A jarlan wall is:

a a slip-formed wall
b a perforated wave wall
c a caisson wall
d a shuttered wall

14 Which of the following are considered to be important features:

a loss of cover
b surface discoloration
c fine cracks
d all of the above

15 Which of the following are considered to be unimportant features:

a stains on the concrete
b surface crazing
c honeycombing
d spalling

(return to index)

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16 Pre-stressed tendons are installed to:
a prevent the concrete falling apart
b to impart tension
c to impart compression
d to keep the shuttering in place

17 Construction joints are:

a planned joints during construction
b joints where wet concrete has accidentally
been poured on dry concrete
c unplanned steps during construction
d marks left by the shuttering

18 Excessive vibration during construction will cause:

a bleeding channels
b sand streaks
c water pockets
d stratification

19 Loss of cover is particularly important because:

a the wall thickness is decreased
b corrosion may take place
c it may not be possible to find it again
d it allows wind and rain to get in

20 The strongest form of concrete is produced by:

a slip-form shuttering
b board shuttering
c pre-cast sections
d integration

21 The underside of a concrete beam is:

a soffit
b splay
c overhang
d underside

22 Concrete in service defects are:

a fatigue cracks
b hot tears
c diffraction mottling
d none of the above

23 What is the most common method of inspection for concrete:

a MPI
b UT metering
c visual inspection
d radiography

(return to index)

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Ultrasonic

1 The bending of a sound beam as it passes through an interface:

a reflection
b refraction
c attenuation
d absorption

2 Transverse (shear) waves are described as having:

a particle motion normal (90o) to the direction
of propagation and a velocity approximately
half that of longitudinal waves
b exceptionally high sensitivity due to low
attenuation resulting from longer wavelengths
when propagating through water
c a velocity approximately twice that of surface
waves in the direction of propagation
d particle motion perpendicular to the direction
of propagation and no attenuation in water

3 A digital thickness meter uses which principle:

a resonance
b pulse - echo
c through transmission
d harmonics

4 When the angle of incidence for a longitudinal wave exceeds the first critical angle:
a shear wave mode will be totally reflected
b longitudinal waves will be totally reflected

5 When the angle of incidence for shear wave exceeds the second critical angle we have:
a only the surface mode enters the specimen

6 In ultrasonic testing energy is transmitted through a solid material by a series of small

material displacements within the material:
a true
b false

7 The condition of starting at a centre position, moving toward a maximum position,

returning through the centre position to a maximum position in the opposite direction and
finally returning to the centre position is called:
a frequency
b period
c cycle
d wavelength

(return to index)

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8 The back and forth movements of particles within a medium are called:
a cycles
b wavelengths
c vibrations
d displacements

9 The time required to perform one complete cycle is called:

a period
b frequency
c wavelength
d velocity

10 The number of cycles per second (Hz) a vibration occurs is called:

a period
b frequency
c wavelength
d velocity

11 A vibration can be said to have the following property:

a cycle
b period
c frequency
d all of these

12 Ultrasonic sound propagates through a medium as waves of particle vibration

a true
b false

13 Ultrasonic sound is usually described as sound:

a which may or may not be heard by human ear
b too high to be heard by human ear
c too low to be heard by human ear
d which can be heard in the audible range only

14 The velocity of sound is constant for a given material but varies from one material to
another:
a true
b false

15 Ultrasonic vibrations are generally defined as having a frequency of:

a 5 kHz
b 20 kHz
c 100 kHz
d 1 MHz

16 Ultrasonic sound can be either continuous or pulsed:

a true
b false
(return to index)

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17 Wavelength is described as:
a the distance a wave travels to the back surface of the
specimen
b the distance a waveform advances while a particle
makes one complete vibration or orbit
c the number of cycles produced per second
d the time required for a wave to reach a certain
point in the specimen

18 Transducers used in ultrasonic testing exhibit which of the following:

a ferromagnetic
b piezoelectric
c electromechanical
d hyper-acoustic

19 A definite relationship exists among the three factors; velocity, frequency and wavelength.
this relationship is expressed by the formula:
a l = v/f
b l = f/v
c l = fv
d x = l/f

20 A device that converts electrical energy to mechanical energy and mechanical energy to
electrical energy is called a:
a generator
b transceiver
c transducer
d converter

21 The zone in an ultrasonic beam where irregular intensities exist is called the:
a near zone
b far zone
c irregular zone
d free field

22 The loss of energy as sound moves through a specimen is called:

a absorption
b propagation
c reflection
d attenuation

23 Acoustic impedance (Z) is defined as:

a the product of material density and wave velocity
b the ratio of material density to wave velocity
c the ratio of wave velocity to sound density
d the product of wave velocity and frequency

(return to index)

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24 The lower the impedance mismatch between materials making up an interface, the greater
the sound loss:
a true
b false

25 Snell's law is used to find:

a critical angles
b angular relationships
c velocity
d wavelength

26 The purpose of couplant is to:

a filter undesirable reflections from the specimen
b tune the transducer to the correct frequency
c reduce attenuation within the specimen
d transmit ultrasonic waves from the transducer
to the specimen

27 The angle of reflection of an ultrasonic beam is

a equal to the angle of incidence
b approximately four times the angle of incidence
c approximately half the angle of incidence
d equal to the angle of refraction

28 Longitudinal (compression) waves produce vibrations which are:

a in the same direction as the motion of the sound
b perpendicular to the motion of the sound
c elliptical
d symmetrical

29 In an 'A' scan presentation, the horizontal sweep (x axis) is:

a elapsed time or distance
b signal amplitude
c distance travelled by the transducer
d direction of wave travel

30 In the 'A' scan presentation the vertical deflection on the cathode ray tube represents:
a elapsed time or distance
b signal amplitude
c distance travelled by the transducers
d direction of wave travel

31 The ideal surface for ultrasonic testing is:

a a rough surface
b a contoured surface
c an irregular or polished surface
d a flat smooth surface

(return to index)

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32 Which of the following will not produce spurious indications:
a mode conversion
b attenuation
c reflection
d refraction

33 A digital thickness meter will give a reading best described as:

a the thickness of the material
b the size of the defect
c the distance to the area of greatest discontinuity
d the distance to the back wall including the probe

34 Ultrasonic testing equipment used underwater operates on which principle:

a pulse - echo
b through transmission
c resonance
d all of the above

35 When using a digital thickness meter which does not have a built in system for calibration,
which of the following statements is correct:
a calibration is unnecessary
b the meter should be calibrated once a week
c the meter should be calibrated before and after
every reading is taken
d the meter should be check calibrated before and
after every dive on which it is to be used

36 The higher the frequency of a transducer the:

a greater the beam spread and depth of penetration
b less the beam spread and the greater the sensitivity
and resolution
c less the sound beam attenuates thus increasing
penetration
d less the sensitivity and the greater the penetration

37 The acoustic impedance of an ideal couplant should be:

a less than that of the transducer
b higher than that of the transducer
c between that of the transducer and the test specimen
d irrelevant

38 An ultrasonic test instrument that displays pulses representing the function of time and
distance is a:
a continuous wave
b 'A' scan presentation
c 'B' scan presentation
d 'C' scan presentation

(return to index)

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39 Which of the following frequencies would probably result in the greatest attenuation loss:
a 1.0 MHz
b 10.0 MHz
c 25 kHz
d 25 MHz

40 What is a decibel:
a a linear measurement of sound intensity
b a logarithmic comparison
c a unit of sound velocity
d none of the above

41 An increase in signal amplitude of 6 dB will increase the amplitude by how many times:
a 2
b 6
c 8
d 10

42 An increase in signal amplitude of 20 dB will increase the amplitude by how many times:
a 2
b 6
c 8
d 10

43 Taking the softest sound power level the ear can detect as 1 dB what is the loudest sound
the ear can accept:
a 100 dB
b 120 dB
c 200 dB
d 260 dB

44 A high frequency probe will have:

a good resolution
b good sensitivity
c poor measuring accuracy
d all of the above

45 When calibrating the 'A' scan unit which indication should be at full scale height:
a first back wall echo
b initial pulse
c primary discontinuity
d all peaks

46 If the probe is placed over the groove on the V1 test block and three clearly defined
indications are produced what can be said of the unit:
a it is properly calibrated
b it has good linearity
c it has good sensitivity
d it has good resolution
(return to index)

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47 When great accuracy is required in sizing a discontinuity what method should be used:
a 6 dB drop
b 20 dB drop
c 10 dB drop
d Sea probe

48 Checking the time base linearity is the term given to:

a 'C' scan presentation
b 'A' scan presentation
c checking A scan with a digital thickness meter
d checking the resolution

49 How is the dead zone checked on a single crystal probe:

a by switching to twin crystal and noting
the difference
b by checking the relevant tables
c by measuring the length of the initial pulse
d the dead zone cannot be checked

50 UT waves in water are:

a surface waves
b shear waves
c longitudinal waves
d all of the above

51 The wave length is dependant on the:

a diameter of the probe
b density of material under test
c sound velocity and frequency
d all of the above

52 Vibrations are:
a chemical energy
b electro/chemical energy
c mechanical energy
d heat energy

53 Reducing the frequency of a probe will result in:

a a reduction of the attenuation
b small defects will be detected more easily
c penetration will be less
d beam spread will be less

54 Using an 'A' scan display, a lack of parallelism will result in:

a reflection that may not be indicated on the display
b the most likely reflection would result in a display
of numeral indications of variable amplitude
c signal amplitude being greatly increased
d signal amplitude being greatly reduced
(return to index)

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55 An inaccurate wall thickness reading will result if:
a the material is laminated
b there is a lack of parallelism between the back and
front faces
c the material is between 10 and 15 mm thick
d the material is between 30 and 40 mm thick

56 The velocity of compression waves of sound is quickest in:

a steel
b water
c aluminium
d Perspex

57 ACPD is used to:

a measure the depth of a surface breaking crack
b locate a sub surface defect
c measure the length of a surface breaking crack
d determine the width of a crack

58 The 6 dB drop is:

a back wall echo to half height
b back wall echo to the same height as the defect
c defect half height
d none of the above

59 Which has the shortest wavelength:

a 25 kHz
b 10 MHz
c 25 MHz
d 12 kHz

60 Low frequency probes have:

a better resolution
b better penetration
c higher sensitivity
d all of the above

61 Wavelength is calculated by:

a velocity /frequency
b frequency /velocity
c velocity x frequency
d velocity + frequency

62 If the ultrasonic test frequency is decreased:

a penetration is less
b resolution is improved
c attenuation decreases
d small defects detected
(return to index)

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Magnetic Particle Inspection

1 An object that has the ability to strongly attract iron and other magnetic materials is
termed:
a magnetic
b ferromagnetic
c diamagnetic
d magnetisable

2 Which of the following are correct:

a unlike magnetic poles attract one another
b unlike magnetic poles repel one another
c like magnetic poles attract one another
d like magnetic poles invert one another

3 What symbol is used to denote magnetising force:

a H
b B
c Z
d Mg

4 What is the SI unit for magnetising force:

a oersted
b coulomb
c amps per metre turn
d gauss

5 What is the term given to the resistance of a material to a magnetising force:

a resistance
b perspicacity
c reluctance
d potential

6 What is the unit of magnetic flux:

a oersted
b maxwell
c gauss
d tesla

7 What are the lines of force that jump the gap formed by a crack called:
a vector fields
b resultant force
c flux leakage
d hunters
8 What is the SI unit for flux density:
a gauss
b Kg/m2
c tesla
d oersted
(return to index)

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9 Materials that are repelled by a magnetic field such as bismuth are called:
a diamagnetic
b paramagnetic
c antimagnetic
d ferromagnetic

10 High permeability materials will have:

a high retentively
b high residual magnetism
c continually aligned domain
d low retentively

11 What is the reversing magnetising force required to remove residual magnetism from a
material called:
a coercive force
b hysteresis loop
c residual potential
d neg.-residual magnetisation

12 Which of the following will require the greatest coercive force:

a high carbon steel
b soft iron
c Perspex
d all the same

13 Which of the following methods of producing magnetic flux is not used underwater:
a prods
b permanent magnets
c parallel closed loop conductor
d threaded bar

14 Which of the following is generally considered to be the most consistent method for
producing sufficient magnetic flux underwater
a prods
b threaded bars
c permanent magnets
: d parallel closed loop conductors

15 Which of the following configurations can be used with parallel loops

a kettle element
: b free pole
c coil
d all of the above

16 Which of the following field indicators may be used underwater:

a burmah castrol strip
b gauss meter
c berthold pentameter
d all of the above
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17 What flux density is required in the testing area for MPI:
a more than 0.72 tesla a
b more than 0.72 gauss
c more than 365 nanometers
d more that 1.44 gauss

18 Which of the following is best suited to locating surface defects:

a AC
b DC
c HWAC
d full wave 3 phase AC

19 What is the best method for demagnetising an article:

a reversing it in the magnetic field
b reversing the current through the coil
c reversing the coil around the article
d applying an alternating magnetic field and
reduce to zero

20 When using DC for demagnetisation how often should the current be how often should the
current be reversed:
a 50 times per second
b once a second
c every half second
d it should only be reversed once

21 For use in MPI what pull must permanent and electromagnets have:
a more that 18 Kg
b more than 45 Kg
c more than 10.5 Kg
d more than 28 Kg

22 What is the optimum orientation of a defect with relation to the lines of a magnetic
force:
a 0º to 45º
b 0º
c 90º
d 45º to 90º

23 What are the spacing limits for prods:

a 0 - 10 cm
b 5 - 10 cm
c 0 - 20 cm
d 15 - 20 cm

24 For surface wet ink application what inks may be used:

a black
b red
c fluorescent
d all of the above

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25 What is the maximum solid content for fluorescent ink above water:
a not greater than 0.35% by volume
b not greater than 10% by weight
c not greater than 0.35% by weight
d not greater than 10% by volume

26 when checking the U/V light intensity at a distance of 45 cm what is the minimum
requirement:
a 10 lux
b 50 lux
c 150 lux
d 210 lux

27 What wavelength ultra violet light must be emitted during testing:

a less than 320 nanometers
b greater than 365 nanometers
c less than 365 nanometers
d greater than 320 nanometers

28 How long does it take for the UV light to reach full intensity:
a 30 seconds
b 1 minute
c 5 minutes
d 1 hour in seawater

29 Longitudinal defects in a longitudinal weld can be readily detected by:

a longitudinal magnetism
b a circumferential magnetic field
c a coil at 90o to the weld
d none of the above

30 The ease of magnetism is called:

a conductor
b coercive force
c resistance
d permeability

31 UV light emits wavelengths of between:

a 365 - 400 angstroms
b 365 - 400 nanometers
c 1000 - 2000 angstroms
d 500 - 600 nanometers

32 Magnetic ink composition is mainly:

a iron oxide
b ferric chloride
c coarse iron filings
d fine iron filings
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General

1 A pre-dive briefing should include:

a length of dive
b tide condition
c inspection information and why
d none of the above

2 Which of the following methods for removing marine growth is the least detrimental to
the surface of a structure:
a water jet
b pneumatic grinder
c hydraulic grinder
d needle gun

3 The rate of marine growth will increase if:

a the water temperature rises
b the depth of water is increased
c the depth of water is decreased
d none of the above

4 The maximum water depth that pneumatic entrainment of abrasives can efficiently be used
is:
a 3m
b 30m
c 50m
d 120m

5 For the ideal inspection programme on a production platform:

a close down the platform for a given period
b inspect known defects and possible defects
c do it as long as the money is available
d do it as quickly as possible

6 What is the difference between hard and soft marine growth:

a the depth that it grows
b density of the growth
c rate of the growth
d colour of the growth

7 Radiography in underwater inspection is:

a harmful
b never used
c requires access to both sides of the test piece
d is excellent for planar defect detection

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8 Marine growth is influenced by:
a depth
b temperature
c both
d neither

9 For efficient operations it is necessary to establish a procedure covering the sections on

inspection activity because:
a otherwise inspection items will be overlooked
b equipment needs to be prepared in advance
c it will make it quicker
d logical procedures are an essential prerequisite

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