CCNA 2 (v5.0.3 + v6.0) Chapter 2 Exam Answers 2019 - 100% Full
CCNA 2 (v5.0.3 + v6.0) Chapter 2 Exam Answers 2019 - 100% Full
CCNA 2 (v5.0.3 + v6.0) Chapter 2 Exam Answers 2019 - 100% Full
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1. What are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the
network.*
Static routing scales well with expanding networks.
Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct
implementation.
Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing.*
Static routing is relatively easy to configure for large networks.
Static routing requires a thorough understanding of the entire network for proper
implementation. It can be prone to errors and does not scale well for large networks.
Static routing uses fewer router resources, because no computing is required for
updating routes. Static routing can also be more secure because it does not advertise
over the network.
2. Refer to the exhibit. What routing solution will allow both PC A and PC B to
access the Internet with the minimum amount of router CPU and network
bandwidth utilization?
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Configure a static route from R1 to Edge and a dynamic route from Edge to R1.
Configure a static default route from R1 to Edge, a default route from Edge to
the Internet, and a static route from Edge to R1.*
Configure a dynamic route from R1 to Edge and a static route from Edge to R1.
Configure a dynamic routing protocol between R1 and Edge and advertise all
routes.
Two routes have to be created: a default route in R1 to reach Edge and a static route in
Edge to reach R1 for the return traffic. This is a best solution once PC A and PC B belong
to stub networks. Moreover, static routing consumes less bandwidth than dynamic
routing.
Floating static routes are used as backup routes, often to routes learned from dynamic
routing protocols. To be a floating static route, the configured route must have a higher
administrative distance than the primary route. For example, if the primary route is
learned through OSPF, then a floating static route that serves as a backup to the OSPF
route must have an administrative distance greater than 110. The administrative
distance on a floating static route is put at the end of the static route: ip route
209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 120.
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4. What is a characteristic of a static route that matches all packets?
A default static route is a route that matches all packets. It identifies the gateway IP
address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or
static route. A default static route is simply a static route with 0.0.0.0/0 as the destination
IPv4 address. Configuring a default static route creates a gateway of last resort.
5. What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing
table contains no specific route to the destination network?
dynamic route
default route*
destination route
generic route
By default, dynamic routing protocols have a higher administrative distance than static
routes. Configuring a static route with a higher administrative distance than that of the
dynamic routing protocol will result in the dynamic route being used instead of the static
route. However, should the dynamically learned route fail, then the static route will be
used as a backup.
IP phones – 50
PCs – 70
IP cameras – 10
wireless access points – 10
network printers – 10
network scanners – 2
3/24
Which block of addresses would be the minimum to accommodate all of these
devices if each type of device was on its own network?
172.16.0.0/25
172.16.0.0/24*
172.16.0.0/23
172.16.0.0/22
The network for the PCs would require a subnet mask of /25 in order to accommodate
70 devices. That network could use IP addresses 0 through 127. Phones require a subnet
mask of /26 for 50 devices (addresses 128-191). Three /28 networks are needed in order
to accommodate cameras, APs, and printers. The network scanner network can use a
/30. A block of addresses with a mask of /24 will accommodate this site as the minimum
amount needed.
8. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing
interface associated with that route goes into the down state?
When the interface associated with a static route goes down, the router will remove the
route because it is no longer valid.
9. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0
255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
A# show ip route
Gateway of last resort is not set
S 10.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 172.16.40.2
64.0.0.0/16 is subnetted, 1 subnets
C 64.100.0.0 is directly connected, Serial0/1/0
C 128.107.0.0/16 is directly connected, Loopback2
172.16.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets
C 172.16.40.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
C 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected,FastEthernet0/0/0
S 192.168.2.0/24 [1/0] via 172.16.40.2
C 198.132.219.0/24 is directly connected, Loopback0
4/24
Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the
10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
The two required commands are A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
and A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2.
11. Which type of static route that is configured on a router uses only the exit
interface?
When only the exit interface is used, the route is a directly connected static route. When
the next-hop IP address is used, the route is a recursive static route. When both are
used, it is a fully specified static route.
12. Refer to the graphic. Which command would be used on router A to configure a
static route to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?
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A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2
A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2*
A(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.2 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.0
The destination network on LAN C is 192.168.4.0 and the next-hop address from the
perspective of router A is 192.168.3.2.
13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure a default
route on the Border router. Which command would the administrator use to
configure a default route that will require the least amount of router processing
when forwarding packets?
14. What two pieces of information are needed in a fully specified static route to
eliminate recursive lookups? (Choose two.)
6/24
A fully specified static route can be used to avoid recursive routing table lookups by the
router. A fully specified static route contains both the IP address of the next-hop router
and the ID of the exit interface.
15. Refer to the exhibit. What command would be used to configure a static route
on R1 so that traffic from both LANs can reach the 2001:db8:1:4::/64 remote
network?
To configure an IPv6 static route, use the ipv6 route command followed by the
destination network. Then add either the IP address of the adjacent router or the
interface R1 will use to transmit a packet to the 2001:db8:1:4::/64 network.
16. Refer to the exhibit. Which default static route command would allow R1 to
potentially reach all unknown networks on the Internet?
To route packets to unknown IPv6 networks a router will need an IPv6 default route. The
static route ipv6 route ::/0 G0/1 fe80::2 will match all networks and send packets out the
specified exit interface G0/1 toward R2.
a default route
a static route to the 192.168.10.0/24 network*
an OSPF-learned route to the 192.168.10.0/24 network
an EIGRP-learned route to the 192.168.10.0/24 network
The administrative distance of 5 added to the end of the static route creates a floating
static situation for a static route that goes down. Static routes have a default
administrative distance of 1. This route that has an administrative distance of 5 will not
be placed into the routing table unless the previously entered static route to the
192.168.10.0/24 goes down or was never entered. The administrative distance of 5
added to the end of the static route configuration creates a floating static route that will
be placed in the routing table when the primary route to the same destination network
goes down. By default, a static route to the 192.168.10.0/24 network has an
administrative distance of 1. Therefore, the floating route with an administrative distance
of 5 will not be placed into the routing table unless the previously entered static route to
the 192.168.10.0/24 goes down or was never entered. Because the floating route has an
administrative distance of 5, the route is preferred to an OSPF-learned route (with the
administrative distance of 110) or an EIGRP-learned route (with the administrative
distance of 110) to the same destination network.
8/24
Gateway of last resort is not set
10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 2 subnets
C 10.0.0.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
C 10.0.0.4 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1
192.168.10.0/26 is subnetted, 3 subnets
S 192.168.10.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
C 192.168.10.64 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
S 192.168.10.128 [1/0] via 10.0.0.6
When a static route is configured with the next hop address (as in the case of the
192.168.10.128 network), the output of the show ip route command lists the route as
“via” a particular IP address. The router has to look up that IP address to determine
which interface to send the packet out. Because the IP address of 10.0.0.6 is part of
network 10.0.0.4, the router sends the packet out interface Serial0/0/1.
19. A network administrator has entered a static route to an Ethernet LAN that is
connected to an adjacent router. However, the route is not shown in the routing
table. Which command would the administrator use to verify that the exit
interface is up?
The network administrator should use the show ip interface brief command to verify that
the exit interface or the interface connected to the next hop address is up and up. The
show ip route command has already been issued by the administrator. The show ip
protocols command is used when a routing protocol is enabled. The tracert command is
used from a Windows PC.
A floating static is a backup route that only appears in the routing table when the
interface used with the primary route is down. To test a floating static route, the route
must be in the routing table. Therefore, shutting down the interface used as a primary
route would allow the floating static route to appear in the routing table.
21. R1 router has a serial connection to the ISP out s0/0/1. R1 router has the
10.0.30.0/24 LAN connected to G0/0. R1 has the 10.0.40.0/24 LAN connected to G0/1.
Finally, R1 has the s0/0/0 10.0.50.0/24 network shared with R2. R2 also has the
10.0.60.0/24 LAN connected through G0/0. The following information is below R1.
10/24
Refer to the exhibit. The small company shown uses static routing. Users on the R2
LAN have reported a problem with connectivity. What is the issue?
R1 has a default route to the Internet. R2 has a default route to R1. R1 is missing a static
route for the 10.0.60.0 network. Any traffic that reached R1 and is destined for
10.0.60.0/24 will be routed to the ISP.
22. Which three IOS troubleshooting commands can help to isolate problems with
a static route? (Choose three.)
show version
ping*
tracert
show ip route*
show ip interface brief*
show arp
The ping, show ip route, and show ip interface brief commands provide information to
help troubleshoot static routes. Show version does not provide any routing information.
The tracert command is used at the Windows command prompt and is not an IOS
11/24
command. The show arp command displays learned IP address to MAC address
mappings contained in the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) table.
0
1
32
100*
24. Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown
wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup
ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of
commands would accomplish this goal?
A static route that has no administrative distance added as part of the command has a
default administrative distance of 1. The backup link should have a number higher than
12/24
1. The correct answer has an administrative distance of 10. The other quad zero route
would load balance packets across both links and both links would appear in the routing
table. The remaining answers are simply static routes (either a default route or a floating
static default route).
25. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer the question.
Why are the pings from PC0 to Server0 not successful?
26. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer the question. What IPv6 static route can be configured on router R1 to
make a fully converged network?
To reach the remote network, R1 will need a static route with a destination IPv6 address
of 2001:db8:10:12::/64 and an exit interface of S0/0/1. The correct static route
configuration will be as follows:ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/1.
Older Version
27. Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used
to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?
VLAN 1*
Fa0/0
Fa0/1
interface connected to the default gateway
VLAN 99
28. Which statement describes the port speed LED on the Cisco Catalyst 2960
switch?
30. In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch
command?
14/24
32. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to
allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network
administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement?
33. What is one difference between using Telnet or SSH to connect to a network
device for management purposes?
Telnet uses UDP as the transport protocol whereas SSH uses TCP.
Telnet does not provide authentication whereas SSH provides authentication.
Telnet supports a host GUI whereas SSH only supports a host CLI.
Telnet sends a username and password in plain text, whereas SSH encrypts
the username and password*.
34. In which type of attack does a malicious node request all available IP addresses
in the address pool of a DHCP server in order to prevent legitimate hosts from
obtaining network access?
36. Which two features on a Cisco Catalyst switch can be used to mitigate DHCP
starvation and DHCP spoofing attacks? (Choose two.)
port security*
extended ACL
DHCP snooping*
DHCP server failover
strong password on DHCP servers
37. Which two basic functions are performed by network security tools? (Choose
two.)
15/24
revealing the type of information an attacker is able to gather from
monitoring network traffic*
educating employees about social engineering attacks
simulating attacks against the production network to determine any existing
vulnerabilities*
writing a security policy document for protecting networks
controlling physical access to user devices
39. Which action will bring an error-disabled switch port back to an operational
state?
40. Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/2 has already been configured appropriately. The
IP phone and PC work properly. Which switch configuration would be most
appropriate for port Fa0/2 if the network administrator has the following goals?
41. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)
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The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch
reboots.*
The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable
ports.
After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are
converted to secure MAC addresses.
If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are
configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until
the maximum number is reached.*
42. A network administrator configures the port security feature on a switch. The
security policy specifies that each access port should allow up to two MAC
addresses. When the maximum number of MAC addresses is reached, a frame with
the unknown source MAC address is dropped and a notification is sent to the
syslog server. Which security violation mode should be configured for each access
port?
restrict *
protect
warning
shutdown
43. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about port security from the
information that is shown?
17/24
44. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer the question.
Fill in the blank.
Do not use abbreviations.What is the missing command on S1?
45. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer the question. Which event will take place if there is a port security
violation on switch S1 interface Fa0/1?
A notification is sent.
A syslog message is logged.
Packets with unknown source addresses will be dropped.*
The interface will go into error-disabled state.
mdix auto
a coaxial cable
a console cable*
a crossover cable
a straight-through cable
49. A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a Switch> prompt. What two
facts can be determined? (Choose two.)
50. Which command displays information about the auto-MDIX setting for a
specific interface?
show interfaces
show controllers*
show processes
show running-config
51. Refer to the exhibit. What media issue might exist on the link connected to
Fa0/1 based on the show interface command?
19/24
52. Which protocol or service sends broadcasts containing the Cisco IOS software
version of the sending device, and the packets of which can be captured by
malicious hosts on the network?
CDP*
DHCP
DNS
SSH
53. Refer to the exhibit. Which S1 switch port interface or interfaces should be
configured with the ip dhcp snooping trust command if best practices are
implemented?
54. The network administrator enters the following commands on a Cisco switch:
Switch(config)# interface vlan1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
What is the effect of entering these commands?
20/24
55. Fill in the blank.
When port security is enabled, a switch port uses the default violation mode of
shutdown until specifically configured to use a different violation mode.
56. Which three statements are true about using full-duplex Fast Ethernet?
(Choose three.)
21/24
step 3
– not scored –
step 1
step 4
step 2
step 5
step 6
60. Match the Link State to the interface and protocol status.
22/24
Place the options in the following order:
disable -> admin down
Layer 1 problem -> down/down
– not scored –
Layer 2 problem -> up/down
operational -> up/up
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