Mock CAT - 10 (2016)

Sec 1

Directions for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is followed by a set of six
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

History is valuable, to begin with, because it is true; and this, though not the
whole of its value, is the foundation and condition of all the rest. That all
knowledge, as such, is in some degree good would appear to be at least probable;
and the knowledge of every historical fact possesses this element of goodness,
even if it possesses no other. Modern historians, for the most part, seem to
regard truth as constituting the whole of the value of history. On this ground
they urge the self-effacement of the historian before the document; every
intrusion of his own personality, they fear, will involve some degree of
falsification. Objectivity before all things is to be sought, they tell us; let the facts
be merely narrated, and allowed to speak for themselves – if they can find
tongues. It follows, as a part of the position, that all facts are equally important;
and, although this doctrine can never be quite conformed to in practice, it seems
nevertheless to float before many minds as an ideal toward which research may
gradually approximate.

That the writing of history should be based on the study of documents, is an

opinion which it would be absurd to controvert. For they alone contain evidence
as to what really occurred; and it is plain that untrue history can have no great
value. Moreover, there is more life in one document than in fifty histories
(omitting a very few of the best); by the mere fact that it contains what belongs
to that actual past time, it has a strangely vivid life-in-death, such as belongs to
our own past when some sound or scent awakens it. And a history written after
the event can hardly make us realize that the actors were ignorant of the future;
it is difficult to believe that the late Romans did not know their empire was about
to fall, or that Charles I was unaware of so notorious a fact as his own execution.

But if documents are, in so many ways, superior to any deliberate history, what
function remains to the historian? There is, to begin with, the business of
selection. This would be admitted by all; for the materials are so vast, that it is
impossible to present the whole of them. But it is not always realized that
selection involves a standard of value among facts, and therefore implies that
truth is not the sole aim in recording the past. For all facts are equally true; and
selection among them is only possible by means of some other criterion than
their truth. And the existence of some such criterion is obvious; no one would
maintain, for example, that the little Restoration scandals recorded by
Grammont are as important as the letters on the Piedmontese massacres, by
which Milton, in the name of Cromwell, summoned the tardy potentates of
Europe.

It may be said, however, that the only true principle of selection is the purely
scientific one; those facts are to be regarded as important which lead to the
establishment of general laws. Whether there ever will be a science of history, it
is quite impossible to guess; at any rate it is certain that no such science exists at
present, except to some slight degree in the province of economics. In order that
the scientific criterion of importance among facts should be applicable, it is
necessary that two or more hypotheses should have been invented, each
accounting for a large number of the facts, and then a crucial fact should be
discovered which discriminates between the rivals. Facts are important, in the
inductive sciences, solely in relation to theories; and new theories give
importance to new facts.

Q.1
Which of the following would the author be most likely to agree with?

a The sole value of all of history depends upon its truthfulness and the
degree to which the interpretative role of historian is kept to a minimum.

b The well established economic principles seem to have been derived by

scientifically studying historical documents, such that a single crucial fact is
found to discriminate between competing hypotheses.

c Stressing on using purely anecdotal elements present in a document to

outline history may lead to an anaemic telling of history, where the historian is
bereft of his role.

d Historians, while pursuing to present an unbiased and purely truthful

retelling of events, may use a criterion of selection which is not based solely on
truth.

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Solution:
Option (a) is incorrect as the first sentence of the paragraph clearly mentions
that the author feels that truth is ‘not the whole of its value.’ Option (b) is
incorrect as it is not based on the passage. We can see that the author nowhere
accords economics a ‘well established’ status; in fact he uses the phrase ‘to a
slight degree’ to refer to the historical method applied in economics. Option (c) is
incorrect as the author believes that documents are important. Also, there is no
reference to the pitfalls of stressing on documents as the source of history.
Option (d) is the correct answer as the first paragraph clearly states that
historians put objectivity before all things. The third paragraph meanwhile
clearly states, ‘...truth is not the sole aim in recording the past’. This has been
given in reference to the criterion of selection which is value-based. This makes
option (d) correct.

Correct Answer : d
Directions for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is followed by a set of six
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

History is valuable, to begin with, because it is true; and this, though not the
whole of its value, is the foundation and condition of all the rest. That all
knowledge, as such, is in some degree good would appear to be at least probable;
and the knowledge of every historical fact possesses this element of goodness,
even if it possesses no other. Modern historians, for the most part, seem to
regard truth as constituting the whole of the value of history. On this ground
they urge the self-effacement of the historian before the document; every
intrusion of his own personality, they fear, will involve some degree of
falsification. Objectivity before all things is to be sought, they tell us; let the facts
be merely narrated, and allowed to speak for themselves – if they can find
tongues. It follows, as a part of the position, that all facts are equally important;
and, although this doctrine can never be quite conformed to in practice, it seems
nevertheless to float before many minds as an ideal toward which research may
gradually approximate.

That the writing of history should be based on the study of documents, is an

opinion which it would be absurd to controvert. For they alone contain evidence
as to what really occurred; and it is plain that untrue history can have no great
value. Moreover, there is more life in one document than in fifty histories
(omitting a very few of the best); by the mere fact that it contains what belongs
to that actual past time, it has a strangely vivid life-in-death, such as belongs to
our own past when some sound or scent awakens it. And a history written after
the event can hardly make us realize that the actors were ignorant of the future;
it is difficult to believe that the late Romans did not know their empire was about
to fall, or that Charles I was unaware of so notorious a fact as his own execution.

But if documents are, in so many ways, superior to any deliberate history, what
function remains to the historian? There is, to begin with, the business of
selection. This would be admitted by all; for the materials are so vast, that it is
impossible to present the whole of them. But it is not always realized that
selection involves a standard of value among facts, and therefore implies that
truth is not the sole aim in recording the past. For all facts are equally true; and
selection among them is only possible by means of some other criterion than
their truth. And the existence of some such criterion is obvious; no one would
maintain, for example, that the little Restoration scandals recorded by
Grammont are as important as the letters on the Piedmontese massacres, by
which Milton, in the name of Cromwell, summoned the tardy potentates of
Europe.

It may be said, however, that the only true principle of selection is the purely
scientific one; those facts are to be regarded as important which lead to the
establishment of general laws. Whether there ever will be a science of history, it
is quite impossible to guess; at any rate it is certain that no such science exists at
present, except to some slight degree in the province of economics. In order that
the scientific criterion of importance among facts should be applicable, it is
necessary that two or more hypotheses should have been invented, each
accounting for a large number of the facts, and then a crucial fact should be
discovered which discriminates between the rivals. Facts are important, in the
inductive sciences, solely in relation to theories; and new theories give
importance to new facts.

Q.2
What assumption is made by the author in the last paragraph of the passage to
draw a conclusion regarding the ‘scientific criteria of importance’?

a In the province of economics, a pattern of a scientific selection criteria can

be seen where the establishment of general laws is the goal.

b All historical events can be boiled down to competing hypotheses where a

single one can be chosen based on a crucial fact.

c There may be certain histories where there aren’t enough facts to build
competing hypotheses.

d The science of history will be evolved by pursuing a scientific selection

criterion with the goal of establishing general laws.

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Solution:
The last sentence of the passage speaks of building competing theories of which
one would be validated based on a single fact. Here the author assumes that all
historical event will provide us with an opportunity to do this. This makes option
(b) correct. Option (a) is incorrect because the author has clearly said that
economics slightly represents a scientific attitude towards history. It is nowhere a
certainty as shown in option (a). Option (c) is incorrect as the author has, in fact,
overlooked this possibility in order to come up with his theory. Option (d) is
incorrect as there is no certainty regarding the development of a science of
history in the passage.

Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is followed by a set of six
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

History is valuable, to begin with, because it is true; and this, though not the
whole of its value, is the foundation and condition of all the rest. That all
knowledge, as such, is in some degree good would appear to be at least probable;
and the knowledge of every historical fact possesses this element of goodness,
even if it possesses no other. Modern historians, for the most part, seem to
regard truth as constituting the whole of the value of history. On this ground
they urge the self-effacement of the historian before the document; every
intrusion of his own personality, they fear, will involve some degree of
falsification. Objectivity before all things is to be sought, they tell us; let the facts
be merely narrated, and allowed to speak for themselves – if they can find
tongues. It follows, as a part of the position, that all facts are equally important;
and, although this doctrine can never be quite conformed to in practice, it seems
nevertheless to float before many minds as an ideal toward which research may
gradually approximate.

That the writing of history should be based on the study of documents, is an

opinion which it would be absurd to controvert. For they alone contain evidence
as to what really occurred; and it is plain that untrue history can have no great
value. Moreover, there is more life in one document than in fifty histories
(omitting a very few of the best); by the mere fact that it contains what belongs
to that actual past time, it has a strangely vivid life-in-death, such as belongs to
our own past when some sound or scent awakens it. And a history written after
the event can hardly make us realize that the actors were ignorant of the future;
it is difficult to believe that the late Romans did not know their empire was about
to fall, or that Charles I was unaware of so notorious a fact as his own execution.

But if documents are, in so many ways, superior to any deliberate history, what
function remains to the historian? There is, to begin with, the business of
selection. This would be admitted by all; for the materials are so vast, that it is
impossible to present the whole of them. But it is not always realized that
selection involves a standard of value among facts, and therefore implies that
truth is not the sole aim in recording the past. For all facts are equally true; and
selection among them is only possible by means of some other criterion than
their truth. And the existence of some such criterion is obvious; no one would
maintain, for example, that the little Restoration scandals recorded by
Grammont are as important as the letters on the Piedmontese massacres, by
which Milton, in the name of Cromwell, summoned the tardy potentates of
Europe.

It may be said, however, that the only true principle of selection is the purely
scientific one; those facts are to be regarded as important which lead to the
establishment of general laws. Whether there ever will be a science of history, it
is quite impossible to guess; at any rate it is certain that no such science exists at
present, except to some slight degree in the province of economics. In order that
the scientific criterion of importance among facts should be applicable, it is
necessary that two or more hypotheses should have been invented, each
accounting for a large number of the facts, and then a crucial fact should be
discovered which discriminates between the rivals. Facts are important, in the
inductive sciences, solely in relation to theories; and new theories give
importance to new facts.

Q.3
Based on the passage, what can be said about the author’s views regarding the
personality of the historian vis-a-vis history?

a The author is partially supportive of the tendency of the historians to

exclude their own narrative and biases while writing.

b The author not only is against this outlook but also makes an attempt to
show the absurdity of this approach.

c The author is strongly supportive of the outlook.

d Nothing can be said with certainty regarding the author’s views on the
subject.

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Solution:
Option (b) is correct as we can see from phrases in the first paragraph such as,
‘if they can find tongues’ or ‘to float before many minds’ which shows his
disapproval of the idea. Also the selection criteria mentioned in the third
paragraph is where the author is trying to show that involvement of the historian
will always be value-based. The other options are invalidated in the light of this
information.

Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is followed by a set of six
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

History is valuable, to begin with, because it is true; and this, though not the
whole of its value, is the foundation and condition of all the rest. That all
knowledge, as such, is in some degree good would appear to be at least probable;
and the knowledge of every historical fact possesses this element of goodness,
even if it possesses no other. Modern historians, for the most part, seem to
regard truth as constituting the whole of the value of history. On this ground
they urge the self-effacement of the historian before the document; every
intrusion of his own personality, they fear, will involve some degree of
falsification. Objectivity before all things is to be sought, they tell us; let the facts
be merely narrated, and allowed to speak for themselves – if they can find
tongues. It follows, as a part of the position, that all facts are equally important;
and, although this doctrine can never be quite conformed to in practice, it seems
nevertheless to float before many minds as an ideal toward which research may
gradually approximate.

That the writing of history should be based on the study of documents, is an

opinion which it would be absurd to controvert. For they alone contain evidence
as to what really occurred; and it is plain that untrue history can have no great
value. Moreover, there is more life in one document than in fifty histories
(omitting a very few of the best); by the mere fact that it contains what belongs
to that actual past time, it has a strangely vivid life-in-death, such as belongs to
our own past when some sound or scent awakens it. And a history written after
the event can hardly make us realize that the actors were ignorant of the future;
it is difficult to believe that the late Romans did not know their empire was about
to fall, or that Charles I was unaware of so notorious a fact as his own execution.

But if documents are, in so many ways, superior to any deliberate history, what
function remains to the historian? There is, to begin with, the business of
selection. This would be admitted by all; for the materials are so vast, that it is
impossible to present the whole of them. But it is not always realized that
selection involves a standard of value among facts, and therefore implies that
truth is not the sole aim in recording the past. For all facts are equally true; and
selection among them is only possible by means of some other criterion than
their truth. And the existence of some such criterion is obvious; no one would
maintain, for example, that the little Restoration scandals recorded by
Grammont are as important as the letters on the Piedmontese massacres, by
which Milton, in the name of Cromwell, summoned the tardy potentates of
Europe.

It may be said, however, that the only true principle of selection is the purely
scientific one; those facts are to be regarded as important which lead to the
establishment of general laws. Whether there ever will be a science of history, it
is quite impossible to guess; at any rate it is certain that no such science exists at
present, except to some slight degree in the province of economics. In order that
the scientific criterion of importance among facts should be applicable, it is
necessary that two or more hypotheses should have been invented, each
accounting for a large number of the facts, and then a crucial fact should be
discovered which discriminates between the rivals. Facts are important, in the
inductive sciences, solely in relation to theories; and new theories give
importance to new facts.

Q.4
Why, according to author, are documents important for an accurate
representation of history?

a Histories are lifeless unlike documents which are full of life.

b The role of the historian’s personality is removed and so a true retelling of

past events can be achieved.

c A written history is retrospective while only documents contain evidence of

the past.

d The function of the historian is significantly reduced.

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Solution:
Option (a) is incorrect as the author clearly mentions that a few histories are
actually as good as documents in terms of their vivacity. Option (b) is incorrect
as the author is critical of the desire to remove all personality or bias from the
document. Option (d) is also incorrect because of the same reason. Option (c) is
correct because the author clearly mentions that the documents ‘alone’ contain
evidence.

Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is followed by a set of six
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

History is valuable, to begin with, because it is true; and this, though not the
whole of its value, is the foundation and condition of all the rest. That all
knowledge, as such, is in some degree good would appear to be at least probable;
and the knowledge of every historical fact possesses this element of goodness,
even if it possesses no other. Modern historians, for the most part, seem to
regard truth as constituting the whole of the value of history. On this ground
they urge the self-effacement of the historian before the document; every
intrusion of his own personality, they fear, will involve some degree of
falsification. Objectivity before all things is to be sought, they tell us; let the facts
be merely narrated, and allowed to speak for themselves – if they can find
tongues. It follows, as a part of the position, that all facts are equally important;
and, although this doctrine can never be quite conformed to in practice, it seems
nevertheless to float before many minds as an ideal toward which research may
gradually approximate.

That the writing of history should be based on the study of documents, is an

opinion which it would be absurd to controvert. For they alone contain evidence
as to what really occurred; and it is plain that untrue history can have no great
value. Moreover, there is more life in one document than in fifty histories
(omitting a very few of the best); by the mere fact that it contains what belongs
to that actual past time, it has a strangely vivid life-in-death, such as belongs to
our own past when some sound or scent awakens it. And a history written after
the event can hardly make us realize that the actors were ignorant of the future;
it is difficult to believe that the late Romans did not know their empire was about
to fall, or that Charles I was unaware of so notorious a fact as his own execution.

But if documents are, in so many ways, superior to any deliberate history, what
function remains to the historian? There is, to begin with, the business of
selection. This would be admitted by all; for the materials are so vast, that it is
impossible to present the whole of them. But it is not always realized that
selection involves a standard of value among facts, and therefore implies that
truth is not the sole aim in recording the past. For all facts are equally true; and
selection among them is only possible by means of some other criterion than
their truth. And the existence of some such criterion is obvious; no one would
maintain, for example, that the little Restoration scandals recorded by
Grammont are as important as the letters on the Piedmontese massacres, by
which Milton, in the name of Cromwell, summoned the tardy potentates of
Europe.

It may be said, however, that the only true principle of selection is the purely
scientific one; those facts are to be regarded as important which lead to the
establishment of general laws. Whether there ever will be a science of history, it
is quite impossible to guess; at any rate it is certain that no such science exists at
present, except to some slight degree in the province of economics. In order that
the scientific criterion of importance among facts should be applicable, it is
necessary that two or more hypotheses should have been invented, each
accounting for a large number of the facts, and then a crucial fact should be
discovered which discriminates between the rivals. Facts are important, in the
inductive sciences, solely in relation to theories; and new theories give
importance to new facts.

Q.5
What is the primary purpose of the passage?

a To show the changing role of the historian.

b To discuss the flaws of modern historians.

c To show that history too can be made into a science.

d To discuss a scientific method to tell history.

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Solution:
Option (a) is incorrect as the changing role has not been discussed in the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect as the passage does not stress on this. Option (c) is
incorrect as the author has clearly stated that whether it can be science or not
cannot be known. Option (d) is correct as can be seen from the last paragraph of
the passage.

Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is followed by a set of six
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

History is valuable, to begin with, because it is true; and this, though not the
whole of its value, is the foundation and condition of all the rest. That all
knowledge, as such, is in some degree good would appear to be at least probable;
and the knowledge of every historical fact possesses this element of goodness,
even if it possesses no other. Modern historians, for the most part, seem to
regard truth as constituting the whole of the value of history. On this ground
they urge the self-effacement of the historian before the document; every
intrusion of his own personality, they fear, will involve some degree of
falsification. Objectivity before all things is to be sought, they tell us; let the facts
be merely narrated, and allowed to speak for themselves – if they can find
tongues. It follows, as a part of the position, that all facts are equally important;
and, although this doctrine can never be quite conformed to in practice, it seems
nevertheless to float before many minds as an ideal toward which research may
gradually approximate.

That the writing of history should be based on the study of documents, is an

opinion which it would be absurd to controvert. For they alone contain evidence
as to what really occurred; and it is plain that untrue history can have no great
value. Moreover, there is more life in one document than in fifty histories
(omitting a very few of the best); by the mere fact that it contains what belongs
to that actual past time, it has a strangely vivid life-in-death, such as belongs to
our own past when some sound or scent awakens it. And a history written after
the event can hardly make us realize that the actors were ignorant of the future;
it is difficult to believe that the late Romans did not know their empire was about
to fall, or that Charles I was unaware of so notorious a fact as his own execution.

But if documents are, in so many ways, superior to any deliberate history, what
function remains to the historian? There is, to begin with, the business of
selection. This would be admitted by all; for the materials are so vast, that it is
impossible to present the whole of them. But it is not always realized that
selection involves a standard of value among facts, and therefore implies that
truth is not the sole aim in recording the past. For all facts are equally true; and
selection among them is only possible by means of some other criterion than
their truth. And the existence of some such criterion is obvious; no one would
maintain, for example, that the little Restoration scandals recorded by
Grammont are as important as the letters on the Piedmontese massacres, by
which Milton, in the name of Cromwell, summoned the tardy potentates of
Europe.

It may be said, however, that the only true principle of selection is the purely
scientific one; those facts are to be regarded as important which lead to the
establishment of general laws. Whether there ever will be a science of history, it
is quite impossible to guess; at any rate it is certain that no such science exists at
present, except to some slight degree in the province of economics. In order that
the scientific criterion of importance among facts should be applicable, it is
necessary that two or more hypotheses should have been invented, each
accounting for a large number of the facts, and then a crucial fact should be
discovered which discriminates between the rivals. Facts are important, in the
inductive sciences, solely in relation to theories; and new theories give
importance to new facts.

Q.6
Based on the passage, which of the options given below best describes the tone of
the author?
a Wistful

b Ambivalent

c Constructive

d Blithe

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Solution:
Option (a) can be ruled out as the author is not regretful. Option (b) is also
incorrect on the same ground. Option (d) means to be careless or indifferent and
not worried, which is also inapplicable as the author is deeply interested in
history. Option (c) is the correct answer as we can see from the last paragraph
where he tries to formulate and suggest a new way to approach the subject.

Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of
six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Reason directs that we should always go the same way, but not always at the
same pace. And, consequently, though a wise man ought not so much to give the
reins to human passions as to let him deviate from the right path, he may,
notwithstanding, without prejudice to his duty, leave it to them to hasten or to
slacken his speed, and not fix himself like a motionless and insensible Colossus.
Could virtue itself put on flesh and blood, I believe the pulse would beat faster
going on to assault than in going to dinner: that is to say, there is a necessity she
should heat and be moved upon this account. I have taken notice, as of an
extraordinary thing, of some great men, who in the highest enterprises and most
important affairs have kept themselves in so settled and serene a calm, as not at
all to break their sleep. Alexander the Great, on the day assigned for that furious
battle betwixt him and Darius, slept so profoundly and so long in the morning,
that Parmenio was forced to enter his chamber, and coming to his bedside, to
call him several times by his name, the time to go to fight compelling him so to
do. The Emperor Otho, having put on a resolution to kill himself that night, after
having settled his domestic affairs, divided his money amongst his servants, and
set a good edge upon a sword he had made choice of for the purpose, and now
staying only to be satisfied whether all his friends had retired in safety, he fell
into so sound a sleep that the gentlemen of his chamber heard him snore. The
death of this emperor has in it circumstances paralleling that of the great Cato,
and particularly this just related for Cato being ready to dispatch himself, whilst
he only stayed his hand in expectation of the return of a messenger he had sent to
bring him news whether the senators he had sent away were put out from the
Port of Utica, he fell into so sound a sleep, that they heard him snore in the next
room; and the man, whom he had sent to the port, having awakened him to let
him know that the tempestuous weather had hindered the senators from putting
to sea, he dispatched away another messenger, and composing again himself in
the bed, settled to sleep, and slept till by the return of the last messenger he had
certain intelligence they were gone. We may here further compare him with
Alexander in the great and dangerous storm that threatened him by the sedition
of the tribune Metellus, who, attempting to publish a decree for the calling in of
Pompey with his army into the city at the time of Catiline’s conspiracy, was only
and that stoutly opposed by Cato, so that very sharp language and bitter
menaces passed betwixt them in the senate about that affair; but it was the next
day, in the forenoon, that the controversy was to be decided, where Metellus,
besides the favour of the people and of Caesar—at that time of Pompey’s
faction—was to appear accompanied with a rabble of slaves and gladiators; and
Cato only fortified with his own courage and constancy; so that his relations,
domestics, and many virtuous people of his friends were in great apprehensions
for him; and to that degree, that some there were who passed over the whole
night without sleep, eating, or drinking, for the danger they saw him running
into; his wife and sisters did nothing but weep and torment themselves in his
house; whereas, he, on the contrary, comforted every one, and after having
supped after his usual manner, went to bed, and slept profoundly till morning,
when one of his fellow-tribunes roused him to go to the encounter. The
knowledge we have of the greatness of this man’s courage by the rest of his life,
may warrant us certainly to judge that his indifference proceeded from a soul so
much elevated above such accidents, that he disdained to let it take any more
hold of his fancy than any ordinary incident.

Q.7
What was the state of Cato’s well-wishers on the eve of his public appearance
against Metellus?

a They were fraught with anxiety.

b They fought with anxiety and grief.

c They completely stopped drinking.

d They all wept through the night.

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Solution:
Option (a) is the right answer as is cited in the last part of the passage. Options
(b) and (d) can be eliminated because these are factually incorrect. Option (c) is
eliminated because it is only partially true.

Correct Answer : a
Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of
six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Reason directs that we should always go the same way, but not always at the
same pace. And, consequently, though a wise man ought not so much to give the
reins to human passions as to let him deviate from the right path, he may,
notwithstanding, without prejudice to his duty, leave it to them to hasten or to
slacken his speed, and not fix himself like a motionless and insensible Colossus.
Could virtue itself put on flesh and blood, I believe the pulse would beat faster
going on to assault than in going to dinner: that is to say, there is a necessity she
should heat and be moved upon this account. I have taken notice, as of an
extraordinary thing, of some great men, who in the highest enterprises and most
important affairs have kept themselves in so settled and serene a calm, as not at
all to break their sleep. Alexander the Great, on the day assigned for that furious
battle betwixt him and Darius, slept so profoundly and so long in the morning,
that Parmenio was forced to enter his chamber, and coming to his bedside, to
call him several times by his name, the time to go to fight compelling him so to
do. The Emperor Otho, having put on a resolution to kill himself that night, after
having settled his domestic affairs, divided his money amongst his servants, and
set a good edge upon a sword he had made choice of for the purpose, and now
staying only to be satisfied whether all his friends had retired in safety, he fell
into so sound a sleep that the gentlemen of his chamber heard him snore. The
death of this emperor has in it circumstances paralleling that of the great Cato,
and particularly this just related for Cato being ready to dispatch himself, whilst
he only stayed his hand in expectation of the return of a messenger he had sent to
bring him news whether the senators he had sent away were put out from the
Port of Utica, he fell into so sound a sleep, that they heard him snore in the next
room; and the man, whom he had sent to the port, having awakened him to let
him know that the tempestuous weather had hindered the senators from putting
to sea, he dispatched away another messenger, and composing again himself in
the bed, settled to sleep, and slept till by the return of the last messenger he had
certain intelligence they were gone. We may here further compare him with
Alexander in the great and dangerous storm that threatened him by the sedition
of the tribune Metellus, who, attempting to publish a decree for the calling in of
Pompey with his army into the city at the time of Catiline’s conspiracy, was only
and that stoutly opposed by Cato, so that very sharp language and bitter
menaces passed betwixt them in the senate about that affair; but it was the next
day, in the forenoon, that the controversy was to be decided, where Metellus,
besides the favour of the people and of Caesar—at that time of Pompey’s
faction—was to appear accompanied with a rabble of slaves and gladiators; and
Cato only fortified with his own courage and constancy; so that his relations,
domestics, and many virtuous people of his friends were in great apprehensions
for him; and to that degree, that some there were who passed over the whole
night without sleep, eating, or drinking, for the danger they saw him running
into; his wife and sisters did nothing but weep and torment themselves in his
house; whereas, he, on the contrary, comforted every one, and after having
supped after his usual manner, went to bed, and slept profoundly till morning,
when one of his fellow-tribunes roused him to go to the encounter. The
knowledge we have of the greatness of this man’s courage by the rest of his life,
may warrant us certainly to judge that his indifference proceeded from a soul so
much elevated above such accidents, that he disdained to let it take any more
hold of his fancy than any ordinary incident.

Q.8
What is the author’s opinion on those who are capable of sleeping soundly in the
face of situations that are expected to elicit fear?

a He considers such people to be cowardly.

b He finds such people intriguing and suspicious.

c He believes such people are well prepared.

d He thinks such people consider themselves bigger than their problems.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option (d) is the right answer as is evidenced by the last three sentences of the
passage. Option (a) is eliminated because it is opposite to what the passage
suggests. Options (b) and (c) are not supported by the information given in the
passage.

Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of
six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Reason directs that we should always go the same way, but not always at the
same pace. And, consequently, though a wise man ought not so much to give the
reins to human passions as to let him deviate from the right path, he may,
notwithstanding, without prejudice to his duty, leave it to them to hasten or to
slacken his speed, and not fix himself like a motionless and insensible Colossus.
Could virtue itself put on flesh and blood, I believe the pulse would beat faster
going on to assault than in going to dinner: that is to say, there is a necessity she
should heat and be moved upon this account. I have taken notice, as of an
extraordinary thing, of some great men, who in the highest enterprises and most
important affairs have kept themselves in so settled and serene a calm, as not at
all to break their sleep. Alexander the Great, on the day assigned for that furious
battle betwixt him and Darius, slept so profoundly and so long in the morning,
that Parmenio was forced to enter his chamber, and coming to his bedside, to
call him several times by his name, the time to go to fight compelling him so to
do. The Emperor Otho, having put on a resolution to kill himself that night, after
having settled his domestic affairs, divided his money amongst his servants, and
set a good edge upon a sword he had made choice of for the purpose, and now
staying only to be satisfied whether all his friends had retired in safety, he fell
into so sound a sleep that the gentlemen of his chamber heard him snore. The
death of this emperor has in it circumstances paralleling that of the great Cato,
and particularly this just related for Cato being ready to dispatch himself, whilst
he only stayed his hand in expectation of the return of a messenger he had sent to
bring him news whether the senators he had sent away were put out from the
Port of Utica, he fell into so sound a sleep, that they heard him snore in the next
room; and the man, whom he had sent to the port, having awakened him to let
him know that the tempestuous weather had hindered the senators from putting
to sea, he dispatched away another messenger, and composing again himself in
the bed, settled to sleep, and slept till by the return of the last messenger he had
certain intelligence they were gone. We may here further compare him with
Alexander in the great and dangerous storm that threatened him by the sedition
of the tribune Metellus, who, attempting to publish a decree for the calling in of
Pompey with his army into the city at the time of Catiline’s conspiracy, was only
and that stoutly opposed by Cato, so that very sharp language and bitter
menaces passed betwixt them in the senate about that affair; but it was the next
day, in the forenoon, that the controversy was to be decided, where Metellus,
besides the favour of the people and of Caesar—at that time of Pompey’s
faction—was to appear accompanied with a rabble of slaves and gladiators; and
Cato only fortified with his own courage and constancy; so that his relations,
domestics, and many virtuous people of his friends were in great apprehensions
for him; and to that degree, that some there were who passed over the whole
night without sleep, eating, or drinking, for the danger they saw him running
into; his wife and sisters did nothing but weep and torment themselves in his
house; whereas, he, on the contrary, comforted every one, and after having
supped after his usual manner, went to bed, and slept profoundly till morning,
when one of his fellow-tribunes roused him to go to the encounter. The
knowledge we have of the greatness of this man’s courage by the rest of his life,
may warrant us certainly to judge that his indifference proceeded from a soul so
much elevated above such accidents, that he disdained to let it take any more
hold of his fancy than any ordinary incident.

Q.9
According to the passage what has its pulse beating faster when going on to
assault than in going to dinner?

a Virtue, personified.

b Virtue, borne in blood.

c A virtuous person.

d All of the above.

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o Answer key/Solution
Solution:
Option (a) is the right answer as is substantiated by the line “.. could virtue itself
put on flesh and blood, I believe the pulse would beat faster going on to assault
than in going to dinner..”. Option (b) is incorrect because the author does not
mention if blood bears virtue. Option (c) is incorrect because the author is
talking about trait and not person. So, Option (d) is not the possible answer.

Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of
six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Reason directs that we should always go the same way, but not always at the
same pace. And, consequently, though a wise man ought not so much to give the
reins to human passions as to let him deviate from the right path, he may,
notwithstanding, without prejudice to his duty, leave it to them to hasten or to
slacken his speed, and not fix himself like a motionless and insensible Colossus.
Could virtue itself put on flesh and blood, I believe the pulse would beat faster
going on to assault than in going to dinner: that is to say, there is a necessity she
should heat and be moved upon this account. I have taken notice, as of an
extraordinary thing, of some great men, who in the highest enterprises and most
important affairs have kept themselves in so settled and serene a calm, as not at
all to break their sleep. Alexander the Great, on the day assigned for that furious
battle betwixt him and Darius, slept so profoundly and so long in the morning,
that Parmenio was forced to enter his chamber, and coming to his bedside, to
call him several times by his name, the time to go to fight compelling him so to
do. The Emperor Otho, having put on a resolution to kill himself that night, after
having settled his domestic affairs, divided his money amongst his servants, and
set a good edge upon a sword he had made choice of for the purpose, and now
staying only to be satisfied whether all his friends had retired in safety, he fell
into so sound a sleep that the gentlemen of his chamber heard him snore. The
death of this emperor has in it circumstances paralleling that of the great Cato,
and particularly this just related for Cato being ready to dispatch himself, whilst
he only stayed his hand in expectation of the return of a messenger he had sent to
bring him news whether the senators he had sent away were put out from the
Port of Utica, he fell into so sound a sleep, that they heard him snore in the next
room; and the man, whom he had sent to the port, having awakened him to let
him know that the tempestuous weather had hindered the senators from putting
to sea, he dispatched away another messenger, and composing again himself in
the bed, settled to sleep, and slept till by the return of the last messenger he had
certain intelligence they were gone. We may here further compare him with
Alexander in the great and dangerous storm that threatened him by the sedition
of the tribune Metellus, who, attempting to publish a decree for the calling in of
Pompey with his army into the city at the time of Catiline’s conspiracy, was only
and that stoutly opposed by Cato, so that very sharp language and bitter
menaces passed betwixt them in the senate about that affair; but it was the next
day, in the forenoon, that the controversy was to be decided, where Metellus,
besides the favour of the people and of Caesar—at that time of Pompey’s
faction—was to appear accompanied with a rabble of slaves and gladiators; and
Cato only fortified with his own courage and constancy; so that his relations,
domestics, and many virtuous people of his friends were in great apprehensions
for him; and to that degree, that some there were who passed over the whole
night without sleep, eating, or drinking, for the danger they saw him running
into; his wife and sisters did nothing but weep and torment themselves in his
house; whereas, he, on the contrary, comforted every one, and after having
supped after his usual manner, went to bed, and slept profoundly till morning,
when one of his fellow-tribunes roused him to go to the encounter. The
knowledge we have of the greatness of this man’s courage by the rest of his life,
may warrant us certainly to judge that his indifference proceeded from a soul so
much elevated above such accidents, that he disdained to let it take any more
hold of his fancy than any ordinary incident.

Q.10
How does the author begin the given passage?

a By stating an aphorism.

b By quoting an ancient war story.

c By quoting a witticism.

d None of the above.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option (d) is the right answer because aphorism means a short phrase that
expresses a true or wise idea. Hence, Option (a) gets eliminated. Option (b) is
eliminated because it is far fetched. Option (c) is eliminated because it is
tangential to the meaning of the first sentence of the passage.

Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of
six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Reason directs that we should always go the same way, but not always at the
same pace. And, consequently, though a wise man ought not so much to give the
reins to human passions as to let him deviate from the right path, he may,
notwithstanding, without prejudice to his duty, leave it to them to hasten or to
slacken his speed, and not fix himself like a motionless and insensible Colossus.
Could virtue itself put on flesh and blood, I believe the pulse would beat faster
going on to assault than in going to dinner: that is to say, there is a necessity she
should heat and be moved upon this account. I have taken notice, as of an
extraordinary thing, of some great men, who in the highest enterprises and most
important affairs have kept themselves in so settled and serene a calm, as not at
all to break their sleep. Alexander the Great, on the day assigned for that furious
battle betwixt him and Darius, slept so profoundly and so long in the morning,
that Parmenio was forced to enter his chamber, and coming to his bedside, to
call him several times by his name, the time to go to fight compelling him so to
do. The Emperor Otho, having put on a resolution to kill himself that night, after
having settled his domestic affairs, divided his money amongst his servants, and
set a good edge upon a sword he had made choice of for the purpose, and now
staying only to be satisfied whether all his friends had retired in safety, he fell
into so sound a sleep that the gentlemen of his chamber heard him snore. The
death of this emperor has in it circumstances paralleling that of the great Cato,
and particularly this just related for Cato being ready to dispatch himself, whilst
he only stayed his hand in expectation of the return of a messenger he had sent to
bring him news whether the senators he had sent away were put out from the
Port of Utica, he fell into so sound a sleep, that they heard him snore in the next
room; and the man, whom he had sent to the port, having awakened him to let
him know that the tempestuous weather had hindered the senators from putting
to sea, he dispatched away another messenger, and composing again himself in
the bed, settled to sleep, and slept till by the return of the last messenger he had
certain intelligence they were gone. We may here further compare him with
Alexander in the great and dangerous storm that threatened him by the sedition
of the tribune Metellus, who, attempting to publish a decree for the calling in of
Pompey with his army into the city at the time of Catiline’s conspiracy, was only
and that stoutly opposed by Cato, so that very sharp language and bitter
menaces passed betwixt them in the senate about that affair; but it was the next
day, in the forenoon, that the controversy was to be decided, where Metellus,
besides the favour of the people and of Caesar—at that time of Pompey’s
faction—was to appear accompanied with a rabble of slaves and gladiators; and
Cato only fortified with his own courage and constancy; so that his relations,
domestics, and many virtuous people of his friends were in great apprehensions
for him; and to that degree, that some there were who passed over the whole
night without sleep, eating, or drinking, for the danger they saw him running
into; his wife and sisters did nothing but weep and torment themselves in his
house; whereas, he, on the contrary, comforted every one, and after having
supped after his usual manner, went to bed, and slept profoundly till morning,
when one of his fellow-tribunes roused him to go to the encounter. The
knowledge we have of the greatness of this man’s courage by the rest of his life,
may warrant us certainly to judge that his indifference proceeded from a soul so
much elevated above such accidents, that he disdained to let it take any more
hold of his fancy than any ordinary incident.

Q.11
Which of the following is an apt title for the passage?

a History of Great Men Sleeping at Unexpected Times.

b Histrionics of Great Men and Sleep.

c History of sleep.

d Sleep: an escape mechanism or blind courage

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option (a) is the right answer as it covers all the key aspects of the passage.
Option (b) is eliminated because it uses the word “histrionics”, wrongly. Option
(c) is eliminated because it is too general, hence vague. Option (d) is eliminated
because the author does not treat ‘sleep’ as an escape mechanism.

Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of
six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Reason directs that we should always go the same way, but not always at the
same pace. And, consequently, though a wise man ought not so much to give the
reins to human passions as to let him deviate from the right path, he may,
notwithstanding, without prejudice to his duty, leave it to them to hasten or to
slacken his speed, and not fix himself like a motionless and insensible Colossus.
Could virtue itself put on flesh and blood, I believe the pulse would beat faster
going on to assault than in going to dinner: that is to say, there is a necessity she
should heat and be moved upon this account. I have taken notice, as of an
extraordinary thing, of some great men, who in the highest enterprises and most
important affairs have kept themselves in so settled and serene a calm, as not at
all to break their sleep. Alexander the Great, on the day assigned for that furious
battle betwixt him and Darius, slept so profoundly and so long in the morning,
that Parmenio was forced to enter his chamber, and coming to his bedside, to
call him several times by his name, the time to go to fight compelling him so to
do. The Emperor Otho, having put on a resolution to kill himself that night, after
having settled his domestic affairs, divided his money amongst his servants, and
set a good edge upon a sword he had made choice of for the purpose, and now
staying only to be satisfied whether all his friends had retired in safety, he fell
into so sound a sleep that the gentlemen of his chamber heard him snore. The
death of this emperor has in it circumstances paralleling that of the great Cato,
and particularly this just related for Cato being ready to dispatch himself, whilst
he only stayed his hand in expectation of the return of a messenger he had sent to
bring him news whether the senators he had sent away were put out from the
Port of Utica, he fell into so sound a sleep, that they heard him snore in the next
room; and the man, whom he had sent to the port, having awakened him to let
him know that the tempestuous weather had hindered the senators from putting
to sea, he dispatched away another messenger, and composing again himself in
the bed, settled to sleep, and slept till by the return of the last messenger he had
certain intelligence they were gone. We may here further compare him with
Alexander in the great and dangerous storm that threatened him by the sedition
of the tribune Metellus, who, attempting to publish a decree for the calling in of
Pompey with his army into the city at the time of Catiline’s conspiracy, was only
and that stoutly opposed by Cato, so that very sharp language and bitter
menaces passed betwixt them in the senate about that affair; but it was the next
day, in the forenoon, that the controversy was to be decided, where Metellus,
besides the favour of the people and of Caesar—at that time of Pompey’s
faction—was to appear accompanied with a rabble of slaves and gladiators; and
Cato only fortified with his own courage and constancy; so that his relations,
domestics, and many virtuous people of his friends were in great apprehensions
for him; and to that degree, that some there were who passed over the whole
night without sleep, eating, or drinking, for the danger they saw him running
into; his wife and sisters did nothing but weep and torment themselves in his
house; whereas, he, on the contrary, comforted every one, and after having
supped after his usual manner, went to bed, and slept profoundly till morning,
when one of his fellow-tribunes roused him to go to the encounter. The
knowledge we have of the greatness of this man’s courage by the rest of his life,
may warrant us certainly to judge that his indifference proceeded from a soul so
much elevated above such accidents, that he disdained to let it take any more
hold of his fancy than any ordinary incident.

Q.12
Which of the following would the author most likely agree with?

a That sleeping helps people resolve conflict.

b That sleep is indicative of restfulness and calm.

c That history is full of eccentric rulers.

d That Emperors exhibit unusual strength, when facing stressful situations.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option (b) is the right answer as suggested by the line that says ‘so settled and
serene a calm’. Option (a) is eliminated because it is too vague. Option (c) is
eliminated because it uses the word “eccentric”, which is wrong in this context.
Option (d) is eliminated because it says ‘Emperors’, as in, ALL Emperors, which
is untrue.

Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 13 to 18: The passage given below is followed by a set of
six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Discussions about building a green future tend to focus on the need to improve
the generation of energy from renewable sources. But that is just the first step.
Better mechanisms for storing and releasing that energy – when the sun isn’t
shining, the wind isn’t blowing, or when electric cars are on the move – are also
critical. And, contrary to popular belief, it is the public sector that is leading the
way toward effective solutions.

Since the commercial development of lithium-ion batteries in the early 1990s, the
challenge of storing and releasing power effectively enough to make sustainable
energy sources viable alternatives to fossil fuels has been a vexing one. And
efforts by entrepreneurial billionaires like Bill Gates and Elon Musk to
overcome this challenge have been the focus of much excited media speculation.
So how many billionaires does it take to change a battery?

The answer, it turns out, is zero. This week, Ellen Williams, Director of the
Advanced Research Projects Agency-Energy, part of the US Department of
Energy, announced that her agency had beaten the billionaires to it. ARPA-E,
she declared, had attained “some holy grails in batteries,” which will enable us to
“create a totally new approach to battery technology, make it work, make it
commercially viable.”

While praising Musk’s achievements, Williams drew a sharp distinction between

their approaches. Musk has been engaged in the large-scale production of “an
existing, pretty powerful battery technology.” ARPA-E, by contrast, has been
pursuing technological innovation in the purest sense: “creating new ways of
doing” things. And they “are pretty well convinced” that some of their
technologies “have the potential to be significantly better.”

To many people, this development may seem surprising. After all, the private
sector has long been regarded as an economy’s most important source of
innovation. But this perception is not entirely accurate.

In fact, history’s great entrepreneurial figures have frequently stood on the

shoulders of the entrepreneurial state. The late Apple founder and CEO Steve
Jobs was a smart businessman, but every technology that makes the iPhone
“smart” was developed with state funding. That is why Gates has declared that
only the state, in the form of public institutions like ARPA-E, can lead the way to
an energy breakthrough.

It is critical to note here that it is not the state as administrator fulfilling this
role; rather, it is the entrepreneurial state in action, creating markets, instead of
just fixing them. With a mission-oriented approach and the freedom to
experiment – with failure understood to be an unavoidable, and even welcome,
feature of the learning process – the state is better able to attract top talent and
pursue radical innovation.

But, of course, leading a green revolution will be no easy feat. To succeed, public
agencies will have to overcome significant challenges. Consider the earlier
mentioned ARPA-E, which was founded in 2009 as part of US President Barack
Obama’s economic-stimulus package. Though still in its infancy, the agency –
based on the model of the long-established Defense Advanced Research Projects
Agency (DARPA) – has already shown major promise. And, following the
commitment, made by Obama and 19 other world leaders at last December’s
climate change conference in Paris, to double public investment in green-energy
research, ARPA-E seems set to receive a welcome boost in funding.

Q.13
Why has the author cited sun, wind and electric cars in the first para?

a To give examples of varied yet high energy consumption.

b To describe a bright day.

c To introduce the need of advancing battery technology.

d All of the above.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option (c) is the right answer as it gives us the idea behind the examples
mentioned. Option (a) says “high, which is wrong. Option (b) is irrelevant.

Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 13 to 18: The passage given below is followed by a set of
six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Discussions about building a green future tend to focus on the need to improve
the generation of energy from renewable sources. But that is just the first step.
Better mechanisms for storing and releasing that energy – when the sun isn’t
shining, the wind isn’t blowing, or when electric cars are on the move – are also
critical. And, contrary to popular belief, it is the public sector that is leading the
way toward effective solutions.

Since the commercial development of lithium-ion batteries in the early 1990s, the
challenge of storing and releasing power effectively enough to make sustainable
energy sources viable alternatives to fossil fuels has been a vexing one. And
efforts by entrepreneurial billionaires like Bill Gates and Elon Musk to
overcome this challenge have been the focus of much excited media speculation.
So how many billionaires does it take to change a battery?

The answer, it turns out, is zero. This week, Ellen Williams, Director of the
Advanced Research Projects Agency-Energy, part of the US Department of
Energy, announced that her agency had beaten the billionaires to it. ARPA-E,
she declared, had attained “some holy grails in batteries,” which will enable us to
“create a totally new approach to battery technology, make it work, make it
commercially viable.”

While praising Musk’s achievements, Williams drew a sharp distinction between

their approaches. Musk has been engaged in the large-scale production of “an
existing, pretty powerful battery technology.” ARPA-E, by contrast, has been
pursuing technological innovation in the purest sense: “creating new ways of
doing” things. And they “are pretty well convinced” that some of their
technologies “have the potential to be significantly better.”

To many people, this development may seem surprising. After all, the private
sector has long been regarded as an economy’s most important source of
innovation. But this perception is not entirely accurate.

In fact, history’s great entrepreneurial figures have frequently stood on the

shoulders of the entrepreneurial state. The late Apple founder and CEO Steve
Jobs was a smart businessman, but every technology that makes the iPhone
“smart” was developed with state funding. That is why Gates has declared that
only the state, in the form of public institutions like ARPA-E, can lead the way to
an energy breakthrough.

It is critical to note here that it is not the state as administrator fulfilling this
role; rather, it is the entrepreneurial state in action, creating markets, instead of
just fixing them. With a mission-oriented approach and the freedom to
experiment – with failure understood to be an unavoidable, and even welcome,
feature of the learning process – the state is better able to attract top talent and
pursue radical innovation.

But, of course, leading a green revolution will be no easy feat. To succeed, public
agencies will have to overcome significant challenges. Consider the earlier
mentioned ARPA-E, which was founded in 2009 as part of US President Barack
Obama’s economic-stimulus package. Though still in its infancy, the agency –
based on the model of the long-established Defense Advanced Research Projects
Agency (DARPA) – has already shown major promise. And, following the
commitment, made by Obama and 19 other world leaders at last December’s
climate change conference in Paris, to double public investment in green-energy
research, ARPA-E seems set to receive a welcome boost in funding.

Q.14
According to the passage, what is the popular belief regarding development of
effective solutions ?

a That the public sector is leading the way towards effective solutions.

b That the public sector is not leading the way towards effective solutions.

c That the private sector is leading the way towards effective solutions.
d That the private sector is not leading the way towards effective solutions.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option (b) is the right answer as it is the only statement that can be
syllogistically deduced from the last line of the first paragraph. The rest of the
statements cannot be deduced that way.

Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 13 to 18: The passage given below is followed by a set of
six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Discussions about building a green future tend to focus on the need to improve
the generation of energy from renewable sources. But that is just the first step.
Better mechanisms for storing and releasing that energy – when the sun isn’t
shining, the wind isn’t blowing, or when electric cars are on the move – are also
critical. And, contrary to popular belief, it is the public sector that is leading the
way toward effective solutions.

Since the commercial development of lithium-ion batteries in the early 1990s, the
challenge of storing and releasing power effectively enough to make sustainable
energy sources viable alternatives to fossil fuels has been a vexing one. And
efforts by entrepreneurial billionaires like Bill Gates and Elon Musk to
overcome this challenge have been the focus of much excited media speculation.
So how many billionaires does it take to change a battery?

The answer, it turns out, is zero. This week, Ellen Williams, Director of the
Advanced Research Projects Agency-Energy, part of the US Department of
Energy, announced that her agency had beaten the billionaires to it. ARPA-E,
she declared, had attained “some holy grails in batteries,” which will enable us to
“create a totally new approach to battery technology, make it work, make it
commercially viable.”

While praising Musk’s achievements, Williams drew a sharp distinction between

their approaches. Musk has been engaged in the large-scale production of “an
existing, pretty powerful battery technology.” ARPA-E, by contrast, has been
pursuing technological innovation in the purest sense: “creating new ways of
doing” things. And they “are pretty well convinced” that some of their
technologies “have the potential to be significantly better.”

To many people, this development may seem surprising. After all, the private
sector has long been regarded as an economy’s most important source of
innovation. But this perception is not entirely accurate.

In fact, history’s great entrepreneurial figures have frequently stood on the

shoulders of the entrepreneurial state. The late Apple founder and CEO Steve
Jobs was a smart businessman, but every technology that makes the iPhone
“smart” was developed with state funding. That is why Gates has declared that
only the state, in the form of public institutions like ARPA-E, can lead the way to
an energy breakthrough.

It is critical to note here that it is not the state as administrator fulfilling this
role; rather, it is the entrepreneurial state in action, creating markets, instead of
just fixing them. With a mission-oriented approach and the freedom to
experiment – with failure understood to be an unavoidable, and even welcome,
feature of the learning process – the state is better able to attract top talent and
pursue radical innovation.

But, of course, leading a green revolution will be no easy feat. To succeed, public
agencies will have to overcome significant challenges. Consider the earlier
mentioned ARPA-E, which was founded in 2009 as part of US President Barack
Obama’s economic-stimulus package. Though still in its infancy, the agency –
based on the model of the long-established Defense Advanced Research Projects
Agency (DARPA) – has already shown major promise. And, following the
commitment, made by Obama and 19 other world leaders at last December’s
climate change conference in Paris, to double public investment in green-energy
research, ARPA-E seems set to receive a welcome boost in funding.

Q.15
Which of the following statements is not true about ARPA-E?

a It is part of the US Department of Energy.

b Ellen Williams is its director.

c Their technologies will be significantly better.

d They have been pursuing technological innovation in the purest sense.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option (c) is the right answer as it is mentioned that it has ‘the potential’ but not
yet a fact. Rest of the options has been mentioned in the passage.

Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 13 to 18: The passage given below is followed by a set of
six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Discussions about building a green future tend to focus on the need to improve
the generation of energy from renewable sources. But that is just the first step.
Better mechanisms for storing and releasing that energy – when the sun isn’t
shining, the wind isn’t blowing, or when electric cars are on the move – are also
critical. And, contrary to popular belief, it is the public sector that is leading the
way toward effective solutions.

Since the commercial development of lithium-ion batteries in the early 1990s, the
challenge of storing and releasing power effectively enough to make sustainable
energy sources viable alternatives to fossil fuels has been a vexing one. And
efforts by entrepreneurial billionaires like Bill Gates and Elon Musk to
overcome this challenge have been the focus of much excited media speculation.
So how many billionaires does it take to change a battery?

The answer, it turns out, is zero. This week, Ellen Williams, Director of the
Advanced Research Projects Agency-Energy, part of the US Department of
Energy, announced that her agency had beaten the billionaires to it. ARPA-E,
she declared, had attained “some holy grails in batteries,” which will enable us to
“create a totally new approach to battery technology, make it work, make it
commercially viable.”

While praising Musk’s achievements, Williams drew a sharp distinction between

their approaches. Musk has been engaged in the large-scale production of “an
existing, pretty powerful battery technology.” ARPA-E, by contrast, has been
pursuing technological innovation in the purest sense: “creating new ways of
doing” things. And they “are pretty well convinced” that some of their
technologies “have the potential to be significantly better.”

To many people, this development may seem surprising. After all, the private
sector has long been regarded as an economy’s most important source of
innovation. But this perception is not entirely accurate.

In fact, history’s great entrepreneurial figures have frequently stood on the

shoulders of the entrepreneurial state. The late Apple founder and CEO Steve
Jobs was a smart businessman, but every technology that makes the iPhone
“smart” was developed with state funding. That is why Gates has declared that
only the state, in the form of public institutions like ARPA-E, can lead the way to
an energy breakthrough.

It is critical to note here that it is not the state as administrator fulfilling this
role; rather, it is the entrepreneurial state in action, creating markets, instead of
just fixing them. With a mission-oriented approach and the freedom to
experiment – with failure understood to be an unavoidable, and even welcome,
feature of the learning process – the state is better able to attract top talent and
pursue radical innovation.

But, of course, leading a green revolution will be no easy feat. To succeed, public
agencies will have to overcome significant challenges. Consider the earlier
mentioned ARPA-E, which was founded in 2009 as part of US President Barack
Obama’s economic-stimulus package. Though still in its infancy, the agency –
based on the model of the long-established Defense Advanced Research Projects
Agency (DARPA) – has already shown major promise. And, following the
commitment, made by Obama and 19 other world leaders at last December’s
climate change conference in Paris, to double public investment in green-energy
research, ARPA-E seems set to receive a welcome boost in funding.

Q.16
What according to the author should be the attitude of the state towards
“failure”?

a Tolerant to the point of appreciative.

b Intolerant but lenient.

c Highly appreciative.

d Regretful yet compassionate.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option (a) is the right answer as is mentioned in the penultimate paragraph.
Option (b) says “intolerant”, which is untrue. Option (c) is hyperbolic. Option
(d) says “regretful”, which is incorrect.

Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 13 to 18: The passage given below is followed by a set of
six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Discussions about building a green future tend to focus on the need to improve
the generation of energy from renewable sources. But that is just the first step.
Better mechanisms for storing and releasing that energy – when the sun isn’t
shining, the wind isn’t blowing, or when electric cars are on the move – are also
critical. And, contrary to popular belief, it is the public sector that is leading the
way toward effective solutions.

Since the commercial development of lithium-ion batteries in the early 1990s, the
challenge of storing and releasing power effectively enough to make sustainable
energy sources viable alternatives to fossil fuels has been a vexing one. And
efforts by entrepreneurial billionaires like Bill Gates and Elon Musk to
overcome this challenge have been the focus of much excited media speculation.
So how many billionaires does it take to change a battery?

The answer, it turns out, is zero. This week, Ellen Williams, Director of the
Advanced Research Projects Agency-Energy, part of the US Department of
Energy, announced that her agency had beaten the billionaires to it. ARPA-E,
she declared, had attained “some holy grails in batteries,” which will enable us to
“create a totally new approach to battery technology, make it work, make it
commercially viable.”

While praising Musk’s achievements, Williams drew a sharp distinction between

their approaches. Musk has been engaged in the large-scale production of “an
existing, pretty powerful battery technology.” ARPA-E, by contrast, has been
pursuing technological innovation in the purest sense: “creating new ways of
doing” things. And they “are pretty well convinced” that some of their
technologies “have the potential to be significantly better.”

To many people, this development may seem surprising. After all, the private
sector has long been regarded as an economy’s most important source of
innovation. But this perception is not entirely accurate.

In fact, history’s great entrepreneurial figures have frequently stood on the

shoulders of the entrepreneurial state. The late Apple founder and CEO Steve
Jobs was a smart businessman, but every technology that makes the iPhone
“smart” was developed with state funding. That is why Gates has declared that
only the state, in the form of public institutions like ARPA-E, can lead the way to
an energy breakthrough.

It is critical to note here that it is not the state as administrator fulfilling this
role; rather, it is the entrepreneurial state in action, creating markets, instead of
just fixing them. With a mission-oriented approach and the freedom to
experiment – with failure understood to be an unavoidable, and even welcome,
feature of the learning process – the state is better able to attract top talent and
pursue radical innovation.

But, of course, leading a green revolution will be no easy feat. To succeed, public
agencies will have to overcome significant challenges. Consider the earlier
mentioned ARPA-E, which was founded in 2009 as part of US President Barack
Obama’s economic-stimulus package. Though still in its infancy, the agency –
based on the model of the long-established Defense Advanced Research Projects
Agency (DARPA) – has already shown major promise. And, following the
commitment, made by Obama and 19 other world leaders at last December’s
climate change conference in Paris, to double public investment in green-energy
research, ARPA-E seems set to receive a welcome boost in funding.

Q.17
What is the central argument made by the author in the passage above?

a That public sector funding is an important aspect of energy research and

development.

b The public sector is not as useless as it is popularly deemed to be.

c That Steve Jobs’ success wasn’t a by virtue of private sector funding.

d That a well-funded public sector could help us develop very effective

solutions.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option (d) is the correct answer because it rightly mentions both the funding and
innovative aspects of public sector funding. Option (a) is incorrect as even
though it is mentioned in both the first and last paragraphs it is not the central
theme. Option (b) uses the word ‘useless’ which is too strong. Option (c)
mentions a specific detail but not the central theme.

Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 13 to 18: The passage given below is followed by a set of
six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Discussions about building a green future tend to focus on the need to improve
the generation of energy from renewable sources. But that is just the first step.
Better mechanisms for storing and releasing that energy – when the sun isn’t
shining, the wind isn’t blowing, or when electric cars are on the move – are also
critical. And, contrary to popular belief, it is the public sector that is leading the
way toward effective solutions.

Since the commercial development of lithium-ion batteries in the early 1990s, the
challenge of storing and releasing power effectively enough to make sustainable
energy sources viable alternatives to fossil fuels has been a vexing one. And
efforts by entrepreneurial billionaires like Bill Gates and Elon Musk to
overcome this challenge have been the focus of much excited media speculation.
So how many billionaires does it take to change a battery?

The answer, it turns out, is zero. This week, Ellen Williams, Director of the
Advanced Research Projects Agency-Energy, part of the US Department of
Energy, announced that her agency had beaten the billionaires to it. ARPA-E,
she declared, had attained “some holy grails in batteries,” which will enable us to
“create a totally new approach to battery technology, make it work, make it
commercially viable.”

While praising Musk’s achievements, Williams drew a sharp distinction between

their approaches. Musk has been engaged in the large-scale production of “an
existing, pretty powerful battery technology.” ARPA-E, by contrast, has been
pursuing technological innovation in the purest sense: “creating new ways of
doing” things. And they “are pretty well convinced” that some of their
technologies “have the potential to be significantly better.”
To many people, this development may seem surprising. After all, the private
sector has long been regarded as an economy’s most important source of
innovation. But this perception is not entirely accurate.

In fact, history’s great entrepreneurial figures have frequently stood on the

shoulders of the entrepreneurial state. The late Apple founder and CEO Steve
Jobs was a smart businessman, but every technology that makes the iPhone
“smart” was developed with state funding. That is why Gates has declared that
only the state, in the form of public institutions like ARPA-E, can lead the way to
an energy breakthrough.

It is critical to note here that it is not the state as administrator fulfilling this
role; rather, it is the entrepreneurial state in action, creating markets, instead of
just fixing them. With a mission-oriented approach and the freedom to
experiment – with failure understood to be an unavoidable, and even welcome,
feature of the learning process – the state is better able to attract top talent and
pursue radical innovation.

But, of course, leading a green revolution will be no easy feat. To succeed, public
agencies will have to overcome significant challenges. Consider the earlier
mentioned ARPA-E, which was founded in 2009 as part of US President Barack
Obama’s economic-stimulus package. Though still in its infancy, the agency –
based on the model of the long-established Defense Advanced Research Projects
Agency (DARPA) – has already shown major promise. And, following the
commitment, made by Obama and 19 other world leaders at last December’s
climate change conference in Paris, to double public investment in green-energy
research, ARPA-E seems set to receive a welcome boost in funding.

Q.18
What could be taken as a substitute for the phrase “holy grail”, as used in the
passage above?

a A much sought after weapon.

b A much feared establishment.

c A much coveted possession.

d A much desired target.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option (d) is the right answer as the “holy grail”, is looked at as a target/goal to
be achieved. Option (a) says ‘weapon’, which is incorrect. Option (b) says
‘establishment’, which is incorrect. Option (c) says ‘possession’, which is
incorrect.

Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 19 to 21: The passage given below is followed by a set of
three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

“These are extremely important matters, perhaps the most important in the
whole of phenomenology.” Thus ended one of the many lectures that Edmund
Husserl dedicated to time in the course of his teaching career. Compiled in On
the Phenomenology of the Consciousness of Internal Time (1893-1917), these texts
reveal the centrality of time, or, in Husserl’s vocabulary, time-consciousness for
the larger project of the philosopher. If human consciousness is necessarily
intentional, that is, oriented – the major thesis of Husserl – this consciousness is
also one occurring within a larger consciousness of internal time, on the part of
the conscious and cognising subject. Husserl’s exploration of time through the
lens of the lived, phenomenological analysis, is also his own attempt at an old
challenge running through the history of science.

As we will see, Husserl’s hypotheses on time are still very much formulated, on
the form and on the content, in a manner familiar to natural sciences. One can
recall that the roots of phenomenology, with Brentano and Husserl, are to be
located in relation to the important evolutions of the scientific discipline of
psychology, and, more generally, cognitive sciences, around the late 19th
century. In fact, Husserl could have posited his intellectual project vis-à-vis a
number of prevailing views on time, but one seemed particularly prevalent
throughout the scientific fields: Newton’s time. For Newton, time was to be
understood as an empty box, made of discrete ‘now’ moments, within which all
the phenomena of nature could take place. Naturally, this did not suffice to
describe or explain the experience of time, that is, for Husserl, time-
consciousness. With Husserl, through the focus on consciousness, the intellectual
project steps away from the general, external and supposedly objective inquiry
on the phenomena of the world, to focus more precisely on the way these
phenomena are experienced by the living conscious being. Moreover, Newton’s
account of time was sufficient to explain the fact that we experience a separation
of the ‘now’ moments from each other, but it could not offer a model to account
for our impression of a certain coherence or linkage between these moments.
Husserl’s contribution on time magnifies the revolutionary spirit of his larger
project: the lived, cognitive experience of time-consciousness becomes a
prerequisite for any inquiry of the type of Newton’s, trying to look at time as it is
in itself. The lens of the cognising subject becomes the starting point par
excellence.

Q.19
What is the central idea of the passage above?

a Husserl’s idea of time-consciousness was more comprehensive than that of

his contemporaries.
b Husserl’s views on time as a phenomenological construct.

c Husserl’s disagreement with the Newtonian view of time as it is in itself.

d Both (b) and (c)

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option (a) is the right answer as it is mentioned in the second paragraph of the
passage. Option (b) mentions ‘phenomenology’, which means “.. an approach
that concentrates on the study of consciousness and the objects of direct
experience”. Option (c) says Husserl ‘did not agree’, which cannot be said as
Husserl agreed but superceded Newton by being more inclusive in his approach.

Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 19 to 21: The passage given below is followed by a set of
three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

“These are extremely important matters, perhaps the most important in the
whole of phenomenology.” Thus ended one of the many lectures that Edmund
Husserl dedicated to time in the course of his teaching career. Compiled in On
the Phenomenology of the Consciousness of Internal Time (1893-1917), these texts
reveal the centrality of time, or, in Husserl’s vocabulary, time-consciousness for
the larger project of the philosopher. If human consciousness is necessarily
intentional, that is, oriented – the major thesis of Husserl – this consciousness is
also one occurring within a larger consciousness of internal time, on the part of
the conscious and cognising subject. Husserl’s exploration of time through the
lens of the lived, phenomenological analysis, is also his own attempt at an old
challenge running through the history of science.

As we will see, Husserl’s hypotheses on time are still very much formulated, on
the form and on the content, in a manner familiar to natural sciences. One can
recall that the roots of phenomenology, with Brentano and Husserl, are to be
located in relation to the important evolutions of the scientific discipline of
psychology, and, more generally, cognitive sciences, around the late 19th
century. In fact, Husserl could have posited his intellectual project vis-à-vis a
number of prevailing views on time, but one seemed particularly prevalent
throughout the scientific fields: Newton’s time. For Newton, time was to be
understood as an empty box, made of discrete ‘now’ moments, within which all
the phenomena of nature could take place. Naturally, this did not suffice to
describe or explain the experience of time, that is, for Husserl, time-
consciousness. With Husserl, through the focus on consciousness, the intellectual
project steps away from the general, external and supposedly objective inquiry
on the phenomena of the world, to focus more precisely on the way these
phenomena are experienced by the living conscious being. Moreover, Newton’s
account of time was sufficient to explain the fact that we experience a separation
of the ‘now’ moments from each other, but it could not offer a model to account
for our impression of a certain coherence or linkage between these moments.
Husserl’s contribution on time magnifies the revolutionary spirit of his larger
project: the lived, cognitive experience of time-consciousness becomes a
prerequisite for any inquiry of the type of Newton’s, trying to look at time as it is
in itself. The lens of the cognising subject becomes the starting point par
excellence.

Q.20
In what way was Newton different from Husserl?

a Newton defined time as consisting of a set of empty boxes, Husserl deemed

such boxes to be full.

b Newton couldn’t explain the experience of linkage between moments,

Husserl could.

c Newton viewed time as it is in itself, Husserl’s views were diametrically

opposite to this.

d Newton could explain the experience of time, Husserl couldn’t.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option (b) is the right answer as it outlines the main difference between Newton
and Husserl’s definition of the concept of perception of time. Option (a) is a
specific detail of their difference. Option (c) is contradictory to what the passage
says. Option (d) is false and Newton and Husserl were not propounding
antonymous ideas.

Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 19 to 21: The passage given below is followed by a set of
three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

“These are extremely important matters, perhaps the most important in the
whole of phenomenology.” Thus ended one of the many lectures that Edmund
Husserl dedicated to time in the course of his teaching career. Compiled in On
the Phenomenology of the Consciousness of Internal Time (1893-1917), these texts
reveal the centrality of time, or, in Husserl’s vocabulary, time-consciousness for
the larger project of the philosopher. If human consciousness is necessarily
intentional, that is, oriented – the major thesis of Husserl – this consciousness is
also one occurring within a larger consciousness of internal time, on the part of
the conscious and cognising subject. Husserl’s exploration of time through the
lens of the lived, phenomenological analysis, is also his own attempt at an old
challenge running through the history of science.

As we will see, Husserl’s hypotheses on time are still very much formulated, on
the form and on the content, in a manner familiar to natural sciences. One can
recall that the roots of phenomenology, with Brentano and Husserl, are to be
located in relation to the important evolutions of the scientific discipline of
psychology, and, more generally, cognitive sciences, around the late 19th
century. In fact, Husserl could have posited his intellectual project vis-à-vis a
number of prevailing views on time, but one seemed particularly prevalent
throughout the scientific fields: Newton’s time. For Newton, time was to be
understood as an empty box, made of discrete ‘now’ moments, within which all
the phenomena of nature could take place. Naturally, this did not suffice to
describe or explain the experience of time, that is, for Husserl, time-
consciousness. With Husserl, through the focus on consciousness, the intellectual
project steps away from the general, external and supposedly objective inquiry
on the phenomena of the world, to focus more precisely on the way these
phenomena are experienced by the living conscious being. Moreover, Newton’s
account of time was sufficient to explain the fact that we experience a separation
of the ‘now’ moments from each other, but it could not offer a model to account
for our impression of a certain coherence or linkage between these moments.
Husserl’s contribution on time magnifies the revolutionary spirit of his larger
project: the lived, cognitive experience of time-consciousness becomes a
prerequisite for any inquiry of the type of Newton’s, trying to look at time as it is
in itself. The lens of the cognising subject becomes the starting point par
excellence.

Q.21
What best describes the tone of the passage above?

a Acutely critical.

b Discursively analytical.

c Vaguely humorous.

d Intensely witty.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option (b) is the right answer as ‘discursively analytical’ means ‘explanatorily
insightful or dissecting’. Option (a) is needlessly negative as ‘acutely critical’
means ‘intensely disapproving’ and option (c) says ‘vaguely humourous’ which
means ‘unclearly funny’ and option (d) says ‘intensely witty’ or ‘highly clever or
amusing’.
 Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 22 to 24: The passage given below is followed by a set of
three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Five years ago, I stood before several thousand mostly native Japanese speakers
and addressed them in English. From now on, I told them, Rakuten – Japan’s
largest online marketplace, of which I am CEO – would conduct all of its
business, from official meetings to internal emails, in English. I still remember
the shocked expressions on listeners’ faces.

Their reaction was certainly understandable. No major Japanese company had

ever changed its official language. But the simple fact is that adopting the
English language is vital to the long-term competitiveness of Japanese business.

Of course, my decision faced plenty of criticism. One of my fellow Japanese

CEOs went so far as to call the plan “stupid” – notable, in a country where
executives do not generally criticize one another in the press. Clearly, I would
have to fight an uphill battle for cultural acceptance.

But I was not deterred. A seismic shift demands that we adapt to a new
landscape, and a seismic economic shift is exactly what Japan has undergone in
recent decades, driven by the forces of globalization and digitization. The only
way to compete in this interconnected Internet age is to speak the language of the
market – and that language is English. Though the number of native English
speakers is dwarfed by the number of, say, native Chinese speakers, English is
the language of global business.

Yet Japan continues to work inside a linguistic bubble – not least because many
firms in Japan are oriented toward the domestic market and pay little heed to
global trends. But this approach is becoming increasingly difficult to justify.
Switching to English makes Japanese firms more competitive, while opening
employees’ eyes to the outside world.

There is another benefit to using English in business: The language has few
power markers. Its use can therefore help to break down the hierarchical,
bureaucratic barriers that are entrenched in Japanese society and reflected in
Japanese conversation, which could boost efficiency.

Of course, the Anglicization of companies is not easy. The internal shakeup is

profound. Staff who speak English well suddenly acquire a higher status; those
who do not fear for their careers. And this is true not just for Japan: A recent
study in Management International Review, assessing Air France’s 2004
takeover of the Dutch airline KLM, found that the decision to make English the
merged company’s language thrilled some employees and scared others.

For Japan, low levels of English fluency compound the challenge. In Asia, the
country ranks 13th in English fluency, behind both China and South Korea.
In Rakuten’s case, adjustment certainly took time. At first, meetings often felt
awkward. The first board meeting after the Anglicization decision took four
hours to complete – double the normal duration. But whenever executives asked
if they could say certain things in Japanese, I told them no. I knew that the
challenge would pay off – and it has.

Q.22
What can best substitute the phrase “seismic shift”, as used in the passage
above?

a Subtle transformation.

b Germane introspection.

c Radical change.

d Gargantuan movement.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option (c) is the correct answer as “seismic” has been used to convey a sense of
being “radical” in this context. Option (a) says ‘subtle’ which means ‘slight’,
which is the opposite of ‘seismic’. Option (b) says ‘heavy introspection’, which
does not convey any sense of ‘change’, as such. Option (d) says ‘gargantuan
movement’, where ‘movement’, does not necessarily convey a sense of change, as
‘movement’ can indicate just a sense of ‘motion’, as well.

Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 22 to 24: The passage given below is followed by a set of
three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Five years ago, I stood before several thousand mostly native Japanese speakers
and addressed them in English. From now on, I told them, Rakuten – Japan’s
largest online marketplace, of which I am CEO – would conduct all of its
business, from official meetings to internal emails, in English. I still remember
the shocked expressions on listeners’ faces.

Their reaction was certainly understandable. No major Japanese company had

ever changed its official language. But the simple fact is that adopting the
English language is vital to the long-term competitiveness of Japanese business.

Of course, my decision faced plenty of criticism. One of my fellow Japanese

CEOs went so far as to call the plan “stupid” – notable, in a country where
executives do not generally criticize one another in the press. Clearly, I would
have to fight an uphill battle for cultural acceptance.

But I was not deterred. A seismic shift demands that we adapt to a new
landscape, and a seismic economic shift is exactly what Japan has undergone in
recent decades, driven by the forces of globalization and digitization. The only
way to compete in this interconnected Internet age is to speak the language of the
market – and that language is English. Though the number of native English
speakers is dwarfed by the number of, say, native Chinese speakers, English is
the language of global business.

Yet Japan continues to work inside a linguistic bubble – not least because many
firms in Japan are oriented toward the domestic market and pay little heed to
global trends. But this approach is becoming increasingly difficult to justify.
Switching to English makes Japanese firms more competitive, while opening
employees’ eyes to the outside world.

There is another benefit to using English in business: The language has few
power markers. Its use can therefore help to break down the hierarchical,
bureaucratic barriers that are entrenched in Japanese society and reflected in
Japanese conversation, which could boost efficiency.

Of course, the Anglicization of companies is not easy. The internal shakeup is

profound. Staff who speak English well suddenly acquire a higher status; those
who do not fear for their careers. And this is true not just for Japan: A recent
study in Management International Review, assessing Air France’s 2004
takeover of the Dutch airline KLM, found that the decision to make English the
merged company’s language thrilled some employees and scared others.

For Japan, low levels of English fluency compound the challenge. In Asia, the
country ranks 13th in English fluency, behind both China and South Korea.

In Rakuten’s case, adjustment certainly took time. At first, meetings often felt
awkward. The first board meeting after the Anglicization decision took four
hours to complete – double the normal duration. But whenever executives asked
if they could say certain things in Japanese, I told them no. I knew that the
challenge would pay off – and it has.

Q.23
What can you conclude about the personality of the author?

a He is person who can speak flawless English.

b He is person who promotes linguistic growth and development.

c He is a person with great admiration for the English language.

d He is a doggedly persevering person, unafraid of opposition.

 o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option (d) is the correct answer as it describes the nature of the author as
mentioned in the passage. Option (a) is merely an assumption which may/ may
not be true. Option (b) has no supporting evidence. Option (c) is irrelevant.

Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 22 to 24: The passage given below is followed by a set of
three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Five years ago, I stood before several thousand mostly native Japanese speakers
and addressed them in English. From now on, I told them, Rakuten – Japan’s
largest online marketplace, of which I am CEO – would conduct all of its
business, from official meetings to internal emails, in English. I still remember
the shocked expressions on listeners’ faces.

Their reaction was certainly understandable. No major Japanese company had

ever changed its official language. But the simple fact is that adopting the
English language is vital to the long-term competitiveness of Japanese business.

Of course, my decision faced plenty of criticism. One of my fellow Japanese

CEOs went so far as to call the plan “stupid” – notable, in a country where
executives do not generally criticize one another in the press. Clearly, I would
have to fight an uphill battle for cultural acceptance.

But I was not deterred. A seismic shift demands that we adapt to a new
landscape, and a seismic economic shift is exactly what Japan has undergone in
recent decades, driven by the forces of globalization and digitization. The only
way to compete in this interconnected Internet age is to speak the language of the
market – and that language is English. Though the number of native English
speakers is dwarfed by the number of, say, native Chinese speakers, English is
the language of global business.

Yet Japan continues to work inside a linguistic bubble – not least because many
firms in Japan are oriented toward the domestic market and pay little heed to
global trends. But this approach is becoming increasingly difficult to justify.
Switching to English makes Japanese firms more competitive, while opening
employees’ eyes to the outside world.

There is another benefit to using English in business: The language has few
power markers. Its use can therefore help to break down the hierarchical,
bureaucratic barriers that are entrenched in Japanese society and reflected in
Japanese conversation, which could boost efficiency.

Of course, the Anglicization of companies is not easy. The internal shakeup is

profound. Staff who speak English well suddenly acquire a higher status; those
who do not fear for their careers. And this is true not just for Japan: A recent
study in Management International Review, assessing Air France’s 2004
takeover of the Dutch airline KLM, found that the decision to make English the
merged company’s language thrilled some employees and scared others.

For Japan, low levels of English fluency compound the challenge. In Asia, the
country ranks 13th in English fluency, behind both China and South Korea.

In Rakuten’s case, adjustment certainly took time. At first, meetings often felt
awkward. The first board meeting after the Anglicization decision took four
hours to complete – double the normal duration. But whenever executives asked
if they could say certain things in Japanese, I told them no. I knew that the
challenge would pay off – and it has.

Q.24
Which of the following is not a benefit of switching over to the English language?

a Greater eligibility to begin international travel.

b Increased efficiency in dealing with digitization.

c Better position in the global markets.

d Breakdown of traditional heirarchial structures.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option (a) is the correct answer as ‘travel’ hasn’t been mentioned anywhere in
the passage. Option (b) is mentioned in the fourth paragraph. Option (c) is
mentioned in the fifth paragraph and option (d) is mentioned in the sixth
paragraph.

Correct Answer : a

Q.25
The following question consists of a set of five sentences. Out of these, four
sentences can be arranged to make a coherent paragraph. One sentence does not
belong to the paragraph. Type in that option as the odd one out in the space
provided below the question.

1. The theory behind this remedy is that CanCell balances the vibrational energy
of cancer cells, causing them to self-digest and be expelled from the body.
2. A related explanation is that catechol “inhibits cancer cell respiration, thus
causing the cells to drop below their ability to survive, and allowing the body to
dispose of them in the normal way dead cells are disposed of.”
3. This chemical formulation, originally known as Entelev, was developed in
1936 by chemist James Sheridan, who was inspired by a dream that it would
cure cancer.
4. The terminology applied to therapies that are outside the realm of mainstream
medicine varies widely and has evolved over time.
5. Sold under many names, including CanCell, Cantron, and Protocel, this dark
brown liquid usually contains nitric acid, sodium sulfite, potassium hydroxide,
sulfuric acid, and catechol.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
If we link the pairs then 3 and 5 become a pair. Sentence 3 is the first sentence
because it gives the broadest idea about what is going to be discussed. Sentence 5
follows it. It is talking about the variations of the same liquid mentioned in
sentence 3. Sentences 1 and 2 are the mandatory pair because the ‘related
explanation in sentence 2 is related to the ‘remedy’ discussed in sentence 1.
Therefore, Option 4 is the odd sentence and the sequence is, 3512.

Correct Answer : 4

Q.26
The following question consists of a set of five sentences. Out of these, four
sentences can be arranged to make a coherent paragraph. One sentence does not
belong to the paragraph. Type in that option as the odd one out in the space
provided below the question.

1. The marriage broke down in acrimony and with revelations of infidelity on

both sides
2. But the seemingly-perfect fairy-tale was destined not to have a storybook
ending.
3. For Diana it was a painful process which led to depression - for which she
claimed she got no support from the royal family.
4. However, there were doubts even then about whether they were really
compatible.
5. The wedding of Lady Diana and the Prince of Wales was the love story of the
decade.

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 o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
The phrase ‘seemingly-perfect fairy-tale’ gels with the phrase ‘the love story of
the decade’. Hence, the usage of transition “But” fixes statement 2 after
statement 5. The phrase ‘painful process’ pairs with ‘marriage broke down’
making sentence 1 and 3 the mandatory pair. Sentence 4 is odd because ‘doubts
even then does not make sense with the already broken marriage. So, the
sequence is 5213.

Correct Answer : 4

Q.27
The following question consists of a set of five sentences. Out of these, four
sentences can be arranged to make a coherent paragraph. One sentence does not
belong to the paragraph. Type in that option as the odd one out in the space
provided below the question.
1. “Brexit means Brexit,” was her slogan during the leadership campaign - but
what does that actually mean?
2. Within hours of walking into her new home in Downing Street, Theresa May
had appointed leading Brexit campaigners to some of the most senior posts in
government.
3. The Prime Minister’s selection of Boris Johnson as Foreign Secretary, Liam
Fox as International Trade Secretary and David Davis as Brexit Secretary offers
the first glimpse of her plans to lead the UK out of the European Union.
4. Dubbed a reluctant Remainer, May has been deliberately vague when it comes
to the details of what she hopes to achieve in the negotiations with other EU
member states.
5. One of the biggest questions is when she will trigger Article 50 of the Lisbon
Treaty and begin the formal process of withdrawal from the union.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Sentence 2 and 3 are mandatory pairs because 2 talks about appointing officials
and 3 talks about the appointed officials. Sentences 1 and 4 become the
mandatory pair because “what does it actually mean” in sentence 1 is answered
in sentence 4 “May has been deliberately vague when it comes to the details”.
Sentence 5 is odd because the paragraph does not address Article 50 and focuses
on only the new Prime Minister’s agenda after assuming the office. Hence, the
sequence is 2314.

Correct Answer : 5
 Q.28
The following question consists of a paragraph which is followed by four options.
Among the given options, choose the one which captures the essence of the
paragraph accurately and clearly. Type in that option as the answer in the space
provided below the question.

Net savvy companies are using social media to advertise their products and build
customer loyalty. Interactions and feedback from customers help businesses to
understand the market, and fine-tune their products and strategies. Many firms
organize contests and give away prizes to enthuse consumers to visit their social
website page more often. Compared to television advertisements and other
expensive forms of marketing, social media presence is a cheap and effective
means to enhance brand image and popularity.

1. Social media is the best and cheapest means to communicate to the customer
who you are and what you sell.
2. Social media is the most popular way in the recent time to reach your existing
customers at the single platform.
3. The multiple benefits technologically advanced companies have by reaching
out to the customers for various sales and services needs are facilitated well by
social media.
4. The most effective way to outreach clients’ needs and help the companies serve
them better can be done only by social media in technologically savvy world.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option 3 is the best because it addresses the information in the broadest way
where net savvy companies seek social media exposure for multiple purposes
towards gaining more benefit in limited time and expenditure. Option 1 is
eliminated because best and cheapest is not mentioned in the paragraph. Option
2 is eliminated because it does not cater to only existing customers. Option 4 is
eliminated because the purpose cannot be only served by social media, there are
other ways as well. Also, the passage does not have the extreme tone in any
aspect. They say better, cheaper and not best, cheapest, etc.

Correct Answer : 3

Q.29
The following question consists of a paragraph which is followed by four options.
Among the given options, choose the one which captures the essence of the
paragraph accurately and clearly. Type in that option as the answer in the space
provided below the question.

The Mental Capacity Act (2005) provides a statutory framework to empower

and protect vulnerable people who are not able to make their own decisions. It
makes it clear who can take decisions, in which situations, and how they should
go about this. It enables people to plan ahead for a time when they may lose
capacity. The Act replaces previous statutory schemes for Enduring Powers of
Attorney and Court of Protection Receivers with reformed and updated
schemes. The Mental Capacity Act applies to people aged 16 and over.

1. The Mental Capacity Act (2005) is designed to help mentally unstable people
who are not able to make emotional decisions according to their physical age.
2. The Mental Capacity Act (2005) is a unique scheme that enables decision
making senses in a human brain when one’s mental age does not match one’s
physical age.
3. The Mental Capacity Act (2005) is one of the futuristic schemes where no
other scheme has been able to match the services it provides to adults who lack
decision making.
4. The Mental Capacity Act (2005) is the latest and futuristic scheme that
empowers individuals for decision making in all walks of life after a certain age.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option 4 is the correct answer because it covers the specific information given in
the paragraph most elaborately. Option 1 is eliminated because emotional
decision at certain physical age is not mentioned. Option 2 is eliminated because
the information about mental age matching physical age is beyond the passage.
Option 3 can be eliminated because there is no mention if any other scheme
matches the benefits of this one.

Correct Answer : 4

Q.30
The following question consists of a paragraph which is followed by four options.
Among the given options, choose the one which captures the essence of the
paragraph accurately and clearly. Type in that option as the answer in the space
provided below the question.

Speech therapy is a clinical program aimed at improving speech, language skills

and oral motor abilities. Children who are able to talk may work on making
their speech clearer, or on building their language skills by learning new words,
learning to speak in sentences, or improving their listening skills. Children who
cannot talk may learn sign language, or how to use special equipment such as a
computer that speaks for them. Children who talk but have challenges with
more discreet communication issues such as facial expression or gestural
language use, may work on these areas of communication.

1. Oral disorders in individuals can be treated by a clinical method popularly

known as speech therapy that encompasses various types of disability.
2. A clinical method to treat major oral disabilities by helping children overcome
the barriers of speaking and listening skills is known as speech therapy.
3. A clinical method to treat oral and aural disabilities by helping children
overcome linguistic barriers is known as speech therapy.
4. A clinical method to treat oral and aural disabilities by helping children
overcome language barriers is known as speech therapy.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Option 2 is the best answer because it covers all the necessary information.
Option 1 can be eliminated because it does not clearly convey the skills that can
be improved by speech therapy. Options 3 and 4 can be eliminated because the
paragraph does not talk only about language or linguistic barrier.

Correct Answer : 2

Q.31
The following question consists of a set of five sentences. These sentences need to
be arranged in a coherent manner to create a meaningful paragraph. Type in the
correct order of the sentences in the space provided below the question.

1. Also twenty-eight per cent of women and 37% of men who suffer a hip
fracture will die within the following year.
2. The reduced quality of life for those with osteoporosis is enormous.
3. Osteoporosis can result in disfigurement, lowered self-esteem, reduction or
loss of mobility, and decreased independence.
4. The statistics related to hip fractures are particularly disturbing.
5. There were approximately 25,000 hip fractures in Canada in 1993.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
The correct sequence is 23451. Sentences 2 and 3 become mandatory pair
because the ‘reduced quality of life’ is elaborated as ‘disfigurement, lowered self-
esteem, reduction or loss of mobility, and decreased independence’. Sentences 4
and 5 become a mandatory pair because the ‘statistics’ in sentence 4 are
elaborated in senrtences 5 and 1. Sentence 1 will be the last sentence in the
paragraph because it is a sub-detail of the information given in Sentence 5, and
“Also” is the keyword here.

Correct Answer : 23451

Q.32
The following question consists of a set of five sentences. These sentences need to
be arranged in a coherent manner to create a meaningful paragraph. Type in the
correct order of the sentences in the space provided below the question.

1. Dragonflies and damselflies will perch on the taller grasses and other plants
will attract bees and butterflies.
2. A bog garden may be a better option than a pond for families with young
children.
3. Adapting an existing soggy area, a bog garden can be created from scratch,
either at the edge of a pond or as a standalone feature.
4. Permanently damp, it creates an area where moisture-loving plants thrive, but
these will be different from those suited to the standing water of a pond.
5. Like a pond it should also attract frogs and toads, possibly even grass snakes.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
The correct sequence is 34251. Sentences 3 and 4 become mandatory pair
because ‘soggy area’ is described as ‘Permanently damp’. Sentences 2 and 5
become a mandatory pair because Sentence 5 explains the reason for the fact in
sentence 2 ‘why bog garden is better?’. Sentence 1 is an extension of the
information given in the sentence 5.

Correct Answer : 34251

Q.33
The following question consists of a set of five sentences. These sentences need to
be arranged in a coherent manner to create a meaningful paragraph. Type in the
correct order of the sentences in the space provided below the question.

1. Men and women with thinning locks and busy schedules simply had to spend
15 minutes a day under the bonnet-like gadget’s heat and blue light, which
supposedly stimulated dormant hair bulbs.
2. In the 20th century, manufacturers scrambled to develop high-tech solutions
for one of the most prevalent cosmetic issues, baldness.
3. One notable example is the Thermocap device, unveiled by the Allied Merke
Institute in the 1920s. 4. The answer, sadly, was probably not.
5. “Has a Remedy for Baldness Been Discovered at Last?” screamed the headline
of a 1923 Popular Mechanics advertorial.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
The correct sequence is 23154. Sentence 2 begins the paragraph by introducing a
cosmetic problem – baldness. It tells us that manufacturers tried to develop a
cure for the problem. Sentence 3 follows sentence 2 by giving an example of a
device developed as a solution to the problem. Sentence 1 follows sentence 3 by
telling us how the gadget worked. Sentence 5 follows. It talks about the headline
of an advertorial which questioned if the gadget really worked. Sentence 4 ends
the paragraph by answering the question.

Correct Answer : 23154

Q.34
The following question consists of a set of five sentences. These sentences need to
be arranged in a coherent manner to create a meaningful paragraph. Type in the
correct order of the sentences in the space provided below the question.

1. When side effects of a drug or medication are severe, the dosage may be
adjusted or a second medication may be prescribed.
2. Side effects can occur when commencing, decreasing/increasing dosages, or
ending a drug or medication regimen.
3. Side effects may vary for each individual depending on the person’s disease
state, age, weight, gender, ethnicity and general health.
4. A side effect is usually regarded as an undesirable secondary effect which
occurs in addition to the desired therapeutic effect of a drug or medication.
5. Side effects may also lead to non-compliance with prescribed treatment.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
The correct sequence is 43251. Sentence 4 is clearly an introduction to the idea
what a side effect is. Sentence 3 elaborates how the defined side effect can vary
from person to person under given conditions. Sentence 2 is related to sentence 3
because it explains the conditions in which different types of side effects can
occur. The word ‘also’ proves that sentence 5 is an extension of the results of side
effects mentioned in sentence 2. Sentence 1 is the closing idea about how its
effects can be controlled.

Correct Answer : 43251

Sec 2

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

A travel company hires three types of vehicles – Classic-306, Supreme-909 and

Royal-102 – to provide services to its customers. The table given below shows the
information about vehicle hiring expenditure (in Rs.), fuel cost per km (in Rs.),
service cost per passenger (in Rs.) incurred by the company and the passenger
capacity of the three types of vehicles. The company charges the customers
different rates for different vehicles.

Q.35
What will be the expenditure (in Rs.) incurred by the company if a group of 110
people travel 100 km by Classic-306?

a 50,000

b 50,200

c 49,600

d 49,250

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
 Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

A travel company hires three types of vehicles – Classic-306, Supreme-909 and

Royal-102 – to provide services to its customers. The table given below shows the
information about vehicle hiring expenditure (in Rs.), fuel cost per km (in Rs.),
service cost per passenger (in Rs.) incurred by the company and the passenger
capacity of the three types of vehicles. The company charges the customers
different rates for different vehicles.

Q.36
If 155 people wish to avail the services of the travel company for a 150 km
journey, which of the following options would give the company the maximum
profit?

a Send all the people by Classic-306

b Send 125 people by Supreme-909 and 30 by Classic-306

c Send 75 people by Classic-306, 65 by Supreme-909 and 15 by Royal-102

d Cannot be determined

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
We know that the travel company charges the customers different rates for
different vehicles. However, since we do not know the exact rates that the
company charges for each type of vehicle, we cannot calculate the profit that the
company would make in any of the options.

Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

A travel company hires three types of vehicles – Classic-306, Supreme-909 and

Royal-102 – to provide services to its customers. The table given below shows the
information about vehicle hiring expenditure (in Rs.), fuel cost per km (in Rs.),
service cost per passenger (in Rs.) incurred by the company and the passenger
capacity of the three types of vehicles. The company charges the customers
different rates for different vehicles.

Q.37
A group of ‘G’ people wants to travel 100 km by using just one type of vehicle.
The sole objective of the company is to minimise its expenditure. For which of
the following values of G should the company prefer Supreme-909 among the
three types of vehicles?

a 26

b 23

c 24

d 25

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:

Correct Answer : d
Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

A travel company hires three types of vehicles – Classic-306, Supreme-909 and

Royal-102 – to provide services to its customers. The table given below shows the
information about vehicle hiring expenditure (in Rs.), fuel cost per km (in Rs.),
service cost per passenger (in Rs.) incurred by the company and the passenger
capacity of the three types of vehicles. The company charges the customers
different rates for different vehicles.

Q.38
If the company charges Rs. 500, Rs 800 and Rs. 1000 per passenger for a journey
of 100 km by Classic-306, Supreme-909 and Royal-102 respectively, and each
vehicle is operated at its full capacity, then which type of vehicle should the
company use in order to maximize profit?

a Classic-306

b Supreme-909

c Royal-102

d Either (a) or (c)

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
 Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

The political parties mentioned in the graph given below participated in a

constituency election. The graph shows the number of votes received by the
candidates of six major parties and other smaller parties in Round 1 of the
election. The election is held as follows: In Round 1, if a candidate gets more
than 50% of the total number of votes cast in that round, (s)he is declared the
winner of the election, or else the top 5 candidates based on the number of votes
move to Round 2. In Round 2, if a candidate gets more than 50% of the total
number of votes cast in that round, (s)he is declared the winner of the election, or
else the top 3 candidates based on the number of votes move to Round 3. In
Round 3, the candidate who gets the maximum number of votes in that round is
declared the winner of the election. Assume that there are no ties in deciding the
top 5 or the top 3 candidates (if Round 2 happens) or the winner (if Round 3
happens).
 Q.39
Among the five candidates who moved to Round 2, the candidate with the
maximum number of votes in Round 1 got what percentage of the total number
of votes cast in that round?

a 17.4 %

b 19.8%

c 16.5%

d 18.2%

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:

Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

The political parties mentioned in the graph given below participated in a

constituency election. The graph shows the number of votes received by the
candidates of six major parties and other smaller parties in Round 1 of the
election. The election is held as follows: In Round 1, if a candidate gets more
than 50% of the total number of votes cast in that round, (s)he is declared the
winner of the election, or else the top 5 candidates based on the number of votes
move to Round 2. In Round 2, if a candidate gets more than 50% of the total
number of votes cast in that round, (s)he is declared the winner of the election, or
else the top 3 candidates based on the number of votes move to Round 3. In
Round 3, the candidate who gets the maximum number of votes in that round is
declared the winner of the election. Assume that there are no ties in deciding the
top 5 or the top 3 candidates (if Round 2 happens) or the winner (if Round 3
happens).

Q.40
If the votes received by the candidates of Samajik Party and Hindu Muslim
Party in Round 1 are not taken into account, then by what percentage points
does the share of “Others” increase?

a 0.64

b 0.74

c 0.84

d 0.94

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
 Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

The political parties mentioned in the graph given below participated in a

constituency election. The graph shows the number of votes received by the
candidates of six major parties and other smaller parties in Round 1 of the
election. The election is held as follows: In Round 1, if a candidate gets more
than 50% of the total number of votes cast in that round, (s)he is declared the
winner of the election, or else the top 5 candidates based on the number of votes
move to Round 2. In Round 2, if a candidate gets more than 50% of the total
number of votes cast in that round, (s)he is declared the winner of the election, or
else the top 3 candidates based on the number of votes move to Round 3. In
Round 3, the candidate who gets the maximum number of votes in that round is
declared the winner of the election. Assume that there are no ties in deciding the
top 5 or the top 3 candidates (if Round 2 happens) or the winner (if Round 3
happens).

Q.41
If 1 million votes are cast in Round 2 and 3 million votes are cast in Round 3,
then what is the minimum total number of votes needed by a candidate to be
declared the winner of the election?

a 26,38,194

b 21,38,195

c 21,38,193

d 26,38,195

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 o Answer key/Solution

Solution:

Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

The political parties mentioned in the graph given below participated in a

constituency election. The graph shows the number of votes received by the
candidates of six major parties and other smaller parties in Round 1 of the
election. The election is held as follows: In Round 1, if a candidate gets more
than 50% of the total number of votes cast in that round, (s)he is declared the
winner of the election, or else the top 5 candidates based on the number of votes
move to Round 2. In Round 2, if a candidate gets more than 50% of the total
number of votes cast in that round, (s)he is declared the winner of the election, or
else the top 3 candidates based on the number of votes move to Round 3. In
Round 3, the candidate who gets the maximum number of votes in that round is
declared the winner of the election. Assume that there are no ties in deciding the
top 5 or the top 3 candidates (if Round 2 happens) or the winner (if Round 3
happens).
 Q.42
Find the absolute difference between the number of votes received by AJP,
Bajrangi Dal and Hindu Muslim put together and that by Kongress, Junta Dal
and Samajik Party Put together.

a 25775

b 30550

c 36725

d 22875

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:

Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

In a country called Khelabad, each sportsman plays either Cricket or Hockey,

but not both. Each of them plays for one of the two teams – Under-19 or Above-
19. All the sportsmen of Khelabad who had passed in a physical fitness
examination conducted by the Sports Ministry recently are certified as “fit” and
the rest are called “unfit”. It is also known that:
(i) The ratio of the number of fit sportsmen to the number of unfit sportsmen is 3
: 2.
(ii) Fifty percent of the sportsmen who play Hockey are fit.
(iii) The number of unfit sportsmen who play Hockey for the Under-19 team is
2000.
(iv) Eighty percent of the Hockey players play for the Under-19 team.
(v) All the sportsmen who play Cricket are fit.
(vi) The number of unfit sportsmen who play Hockey for the Above-19 team is
equal to the total number of sportsmen who play Cricket for the Above-19 team.
(vii) The total number of sportsmen who play Cricket is 1250.

Q.43
What is the total number of sportsmen in Khelabad?

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:

The total number of sportsmen in Khelabad is 6250.

 Correct Answer : 6250

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

In a country called Khelabad, each sportsman plays either Cricket or Hockey,

but not both. Each of them plays for one of the two teams – Under-19 or Above-
19. All the sportsmen of Khelabad who had passed in a physical fitness
examination conducted by the Sports Ministry recently are certified as “fit” and
the rest are called “unfit”. It is also known that:

(i) The ratio of the number of fit sportsmen to the number of unfit sportsmen is 3
: 2.
(ii) Fifty percent of the sportsmen who play Hockey are fit.
(iii) The number of unfit sportsmen who play Hockey for the Under-19 team is
2000.
(iv) Eighty percent of the Hockey players play for the Under-19 team.
(v) All the sportsmen who play Cricket are fit.
(vi) The number of unfit sportsmen who play Hockey for the Above-19 team is
equal to the total number of sportsmen who play Cricket for the Above-19 team.
(vii) The total number of sportsmen who play Cricket is 1250.

Q.44
What is the ratio of the number of unfit sportsmen who play Hockey for Above-
19 team to the number of unfit sportsmen who play Hockey for Under-19 team?
Fill ‘1’ if your answer is 1 : 3.
Fill ‘2’ if your answer is 3 : 1.
Fill ‘3’ if your answer is 1 : 4.
Fill ‘4’ if your answer is 4 : 1.

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Solution:
The required ratio is 1 : 4.

Correct Answer : 3

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

In a country called Khelabad, each sportsman plays either Cricket or Hockey,

but not both. Each of them plays for one of the two teams – Under-19 or Above-
19. All the sportsmen of Khelabad who had passed in a physical fitness
examination conducted by the Sports Ministry recently are certified as “fit” and
the rest are called “unfit”. It is also known that:

(i) The ratio of the number of fit sportsmen to the number of unfit sportsmen is 3
: 2.
(ii) Fifty percent of the sportsmen who play Hockey are fit.
(iii) The number of unfit sportsmen who play Hockey for the Under-19 team is
2000.
(iv) Eighty percent of the Hockey players play for the Under-19 team.
(v) All the sportsmen who play Cricket are fit.
(vi) The number of unfit sportsmen who play Hockey for the Above-19 team is
equal to the total number of sportsmen who play Cricket for the Above-19 team.
(vii) The total number of sportsmen who play Cricket is 1250.

Q.45
What is the total number of fit sportsmen who play for Above-19 teams
including both Cricket and Hockey?

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:

The total number of fit sportsmen who play for Above-19 team is 1000.

Correct Answer : 1000

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
In a country called Khelabad, each sportsman plays either Cricket or Hockey,
but not both. Each of them plays for one of the two teams – Under-19 or Above-
19. All the sportsmen of Khelabad who had passed in a physical fitness
examination conducted by the Sports Ministry recently are certified as “fit” and
the rest are called “unfit”. It is also known that:

(i) The ratio of the number of fit sportsmen to the number of unfit sportsmen is 3
: 2.
(ii) Fifty percent of the sportsmen who play Hockey are fit.
(iii) The number of unfit sportsmen who play Hockey for the Under-19 team is
2000.
(iv) Eighty percent of the Hockey players play for the Under-19 team.
(v) All the sportsmen who play Cricket are fit.
(vi) The number of unfit sportsmen who play Hockey for the Above-19 team is
equal to the total number of sportsmen who play Cricket for the Above-19 team.
(vii) The total number of sportsmen who play Cricket is 1250.

Q.46
The difference between the total number of Hockey players in Under-19 and the
total number of Cricket player in Above-19 is

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Solution:
The required difference = 4000 – 500 = 3500.

Correct Answer : 3500

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

Bhartiya Janshakti Party has created four offices in four different zones of Uttar
Pradesh – Allahabad, Kanpur, Lucknow and Bareilly – for the campaigning of
upcoming assembly election in 2017. The Party has a total of 106 volunteers who
are to be deployed in at least one zone out of the four zones. Each volunteer is to
be assigned one or more zones. It is also known that:
(i) The number of volunteers to be deployed in at least two zones is 72.
(ii) The number of volunteers to be deployed in at least three zones is 36.
(iii) The number of volunteers to be deployed in all the four zones is 9.
(iv) The number of volunteers to be deployed in each possible combination of
exactly three zones is a distinct prime number.
(v) The ratio of the number of volunteers to be deployed in only Allahabad, only
Kanpur, only Lucknow and only Bareilly is 2 : 3 : 5 : 7 respectively.
(vi) The number of volunteers to be deployed in all the possible combinations of
exactly two zones is the same.

Q.47
If 50% of the total number of volunteers is to be deployed in Allahabad zone,
then find the minimum number of volunteers who will be deployed in Kanpur
zone.

a 27

b 34

c 39

d 43

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
 Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

Bhartiya Janshakti Party has created four offices in four different zones of Uttar
Pradesh – Allahabad, Kanpur, Lucknow and Bareilly – for the campaigning of
upcoming assembly election in 2017. The Party has a total of 106 volunteers who
are to be deployed in at least one zone out of the four zones. Each volunteer is to
be assigned one or more zones. It is also known that:
(i) The number of volunteers to be deployed in at least two zones is 72.
(ii) The number of volunteers to be deployed in at least three zones is 36.
(iii) The number of volunteers to be deployed in all the four zones is 9.
(iv) The number of volunteers to be deployed in each possible combination of
exactly three zones is a distinct prime number.
(v) The ratio of the number of volunteers to be deployed in only Allahabad, only
Kanpur, only Lucknow and only Bareilly is 2 : 3 : 5 : 7 respectively.
(vi) The number of volunteers to be deployed in all the possible combinations of
exactly two zones is the same.

Q.48
The daily wages paid to the volunteers who are to be deployed in exactly one
zone, exactly two zones, exactly three zones and all the four zones are Rs. 300,
Rs. 400, Rs. 500 and Rs. 600 respectively. Find the total amount paid by the
party to these volunteers in a day.

a Rs. 42500

b Rs. 42700

c Rs. 43500

d Rs. 43700

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
 Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

Bhartiya Janshakti Party has created four offices in four different zones of Uttar
Pradesh – Allahabad, Kanpur, Lucknow and Bareilly – for the campaigning of
upcoming assembly election in 2017. The Party has a total of 106 volunteers who
are to be deployed in at least one zone out of the four zones. Each volunteer is to
be assigned one or more zones. It is also known that:
(i) The number of volunteers to be deployed in at least two zones is 72.
(ii) The number of volunteers to be deployed in at least three zones is 36.
(iii) The number of volunteers to be deployed in all the four zones is 9.
(iv) The number of volunteers to be deployed in each possible combination of
exactly three zones is a distinct prime number.
(v) The ratio of the number of volunteers to be deployed in only Allahabad, only
Kanpur, only Lucknow and only Bareilly is 2 : 3 : 5 : 7 respectively.
(vi) The number of volunteers to be deployed in all the possible combinations of
exactly two zones is the same.

Q.49
The number of volunteer that can be deployed in Bareilly cannot be more than

a 57

b 66

c 75

d Cannot be determined

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
 Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
Bhartiya Janshakti Party has created four offices in four different zones of Uttar
Pradesh – Allahabad, Kanpur, Lucknow and Bareilly – for the campaigning of
upcoming assembly election in 2017. The Party has a total of 106 volunteers who
are to be deployed in at least one zone out of the four zones. Each volunteer is to
be assigned one or more zones. It is also known that:
(i) The number of volunteers to be deployed in at least two zones is 72.
(ii) The number of volunteers to be deployed in at least three zones is 36.
(iii) The number of volunteers to be deployed in all the four zones is 9.
(iv) The number of volunteers to be deployed in each possible combination of
exactly three zones is a distinct prime number.
(v) The ratio of the number of volunteers to be deployed in only Allahabad, only
Kanpur, only Lucknow and only Bareilly is 2 : 3 : 5 : 7 respectively.
(vi) The number of volunteers to be deployed in all the possible combinations of
exactly two zones is the same.

Q.50
The absolute difference between the number of volunteers deployed in exactly
two zones and that in exactly three zones, is

a 9

b 6

c 7

d 5

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
The required difference = 36 – 27 = 9.

Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

Four students - Kali, Ranu, Dia and Dev - were asked the names of the heads of
four labs - Alpha, Beta, Theta and Gama - in a college. The heads of these four
labs are Mr. Hari, Mr. Karan, Mr. Ram and Mr. Arjun, not necessarily in the
same order. Each of the students guessed a head name for each of the labs. Ranu
named Mr. Ram as Alpha's head and Mr. Arjun as Theta's head. Both Kali and
Dia named Mr. Hari as Gama's head. Kali didn't name Mr. Karan as Theta's
head. No two students named the same person as the head in case of lab Beta.
Dia and Dev named the same person as the head in case of exactly two of the four
labs. No other pair of students, apart from Dia and Dev, named the same person
as the head in case of these two particular labs. The person who was named as
the head of a different lab by each student was identified correctly by Dev and it
was Dev's only correct answer. Ranu gave exactly two correct answers. No
students give the same name for two or more labs.

Q.51
Who is the head of lab Alpha?

a Mr. Ram

b Mr. Arjun

c Mr. Hari

d Mr. Karan

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Mr. Hari is the head of lab Alpha.

Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
Four students - Kali, Ranu, Dia and Dev - were asked the names of the heads of
four labs - Alpha, Beta, Theta and Gama - in a college. The heads of these four
labs are Mr. Hari, Mr. Karan, Mr. Ram and Mr. Arjun, not necessarily in the
same order. Each of the students guessed a head name for each of the labs. Ranu
named Mr. Ram as Alpha's head and Mr. Arjun as Theta's head. Both Kali and
Dia named Mr. Hari as Gama's head. Kali didn't name Mr. Karan as Theta's
head. No two students named the same person as the head in case of lab Beta.
Dia and Dev named the same person as the head in case of exactly two of the four
labs. No other pair of students, apart from Dia and Dev, named the same person
as the head in case of these two particular labs. The person who was named as
the head of a different lab by each student was identified correctly by Dev and it
was Dev's only correct answer. Ranu gave exactly two correct answers. No
students give the same name for two or more labs.

Q.52
For which lab, none of the students identified the correct head?

a Alpha

b Beta

c Theta

d Gama

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Lab Alpha

Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
Four students - Kali, Ranu, Dia and Dev - were asked the names of the heads of
four labs - Alpha, Beta, Theta and Gama - in a college. The heads of these four
labs are Mr. Hari, Mr. Karan, Mr. Ram and Mr. Arjun, not necessarily in the
same order. Each of the students guessed a head name for each of the labs. Ranu
named Mr. Ram as Alpha's head and Mr. Arjun as Theta's head. Both Kali and
Dia named Mr. Hari as Gama's head. Kali didn't name Mr. Karan as Theta's
head. No two students named the same person as the head in case of lab Beta.
Dia and Dev named the same person as the head in case of exactly two of the four
labs. No other pair of students, apart from Dia and Dev, named the same person
as the head in case of these two particular labs. The person who was named as
the head of a different lab by each student was identified correctly by Dev and it
was Dev's only correct answer. Ranu gave exactly two correct answers. No
students give the same name for two or more labs.

Q.53
Which student did not give any correct answer?

a Dia

b Kali

c Dev

d Both (a) and (b)

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Both Kali and Dia got all the answers incorrect.

Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
Four students - Kali, Ranu, Dia and Dev - were asked the names of the heads of
four labs - Alpha, Beta, Theta and Gama - in a college. The heads of these four
labs are Mr. Hari, Mr. Karan, Mr. Ram and Mr. Arjun, not necessarily in the
same order. Each of the students guessed a head name for each of the labs. Ranu
named Mr. Ram as Alpha's head and Mr. Arjun as Theta's head. Both Kali and
Dia named Mr. Hari as Gama's head. Kali didn't name Mr. Karan as Theta's
head. No two students named the same person as the head in case of lab Beta.
Dia and Dev named the same person as the head in case of exactly two of the four
labs. No other pair of students, apart from Dia and Dev, named the same person
as the head in case of these two particular labs. The person who was named as
the head of a different lab by each student was identified correctly by Dev and it
was Dev's only correct answer. Ranu gave exactly two correct answers. No
students give the same name for two or more labs.

Q.54
How many correct lab heads were identified by Kali?

a 0

b 1

c 2

d 3

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
None

Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
IILK organized a two-day Indian Classical Music Event with three slots on each
day. Four artists namely Subbu, Kumar, Shankar and Kehsanloy, and three
bands namely Delhi Sea, GTH and Mitti performed at the event. In each slot, an
artist or a band or a combination of an artist and a band performed. No artist
performed alone in the last slot of a day and no band performed alone in the first
slot.
Whenever Delhi Sea and Mitti performed, they did it in two successive slots with
Delhi Sea performing before Mitti. The number of performances given by
Shankar was less than that given by GTH and the last performance of Shankar
took place before the first performance of GTH. Subbu performed alone only
once during the event and that was in the first slot on the second day. The sum of
the number of performances given by Mitti, Kehsanloy and Kumar respectively
wasn’t a prime number. The total number of performances given by the artists
was equal to the total number of performances given by the bands. Each artist
performed at least once during the event.

Q.55
It is known that Kehsanloy performed in the last slot on both the days. If a
combination of an artist and a band performed in two of the slots on the second
day, then who must have performed in the second slot on the first day?

a Shankar and GTH

b Shankar and Mitti

c Mitti

d Kumar and Mitti

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

IILK organized a two-day Indian Classical Music Event with three slots on each
day. Four artists namely Subbu, Kumar, Shankar and Kehsanloy, and three
bands namely Delhi Sea, GTH and Mitti performed at the event. In each slot, an
artist or a band or a combination of an artist and a band performed. No artist
performed alone in the last slot of a day and no band performed alone in the first
slot.
Whenever Delhi Sea and Mitti performed, they did it in two successive slots with
Delhi Sea performing before Mitti. The number of performances given by
Shankar was less than that given by GTH and the last performance of Shankar
took place before the first performance of GTH. Subbu performed alone only
once during the event and that was in the first slot on the second day. The sum of
the number of performances given by Mitti, Kehsanloy and Kumar respectively
wasn’t a prime number. The total number of performances given by the artists
was equal to the total number of performances given by the bands. Each artist
performed at least once during the event.

Q.56
If Kumar performed on both the days, then he must have performed with which
of the bands?

a Delhi Sea

b GTH

c Mitti

d Cannot be determined

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Kumar must definitely have performed with GTH as GTH performed in both
Slot-2 and the third slot on the second day.

Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

IILK organized a two-day Indian Classical Music Event with three slots on each
day. Four artists namely Subbu, Kumar, Shankar and Kehsanloy, and three
bands namely Delhi Sea, GTH and Mitti performed at the event. In each slot, an
artist or a band or a combination of an artist and a band performed. No artist
performed alone in the last slot of a day and no band performed alone in the first
slot.
Whenever Delhi Sea and Mitti performed, they did it in two successive slots with
Delhi Sea performing before Mitti. The number of performances given by
Shankar was less than that given by GTH and the last performance of Shankar
took place before the first performance of GTH. Subbu performed alone only
once during the event and that was in the first slot on the second day. The sum of
the number of performances given by Mitti, Kehsanloy and Kumar respectively
wasn’t a prime number. The total number of performances given by the artists
was equal to the total number of performances given by the bands. Each artist
performed at least once during the event.

Q.57
Which of the following statements cannot be true?

a Kehsanloy and GTH performed in the third slot on the first day.

b Shankar and Mitti performed in the second slot on the first day.

c Kumar and GTH performed in the third slot on the second day.

d None of these

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
All the given statements could be true.

Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

IILK organized a two-day Indian Classical Music Event with three slots on each
day. Four artists namely Subbu, Kumar, Shankar and Kehsanloy, and three
bands namely Delhi Sea, GTH and Mitti performed at the event. In each slot, an
artist or a band or a combination of an artist and a band performed. No artist
performed alone in the last slot of a day and no band performed alone in the first
slot.
Whenever Delhi Sea and Mitti performed, they did it in two successive slots with
Delhi Sea performing before Mitti. The number of performances given by
Shankar was less than that given by GTH and the last performance of Shankar
took place before the first performance of GTH. Subbu performed alone only
once during the event and that was in the first slot on the second day. The sum of
the number of performances given by Mitti, Kehsanloy and Kumar respectively
wasn’t a prime number. The total number of performances given by the artists
was equal to the total number of performances given by the bands. Each artist
performed at least once during the event.

Q.58
If Mitti performed alone, then who performed with Delhi Sea?

a Kumar

b Shankar

c Subbu

d Kehsanloy

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Shankar. As Shankar has to perform either with Delhi Sea or Mitti.

Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

Twelve people Aashu, Abhishek, Feroz, Himanshu, Jatin, Manoj, Mohit, Sajid,
Saral, Shivku, Tarun and Vijay are sitting at a rectangular table. The table has
12 chairs numbered from 1 to 12, as shown below, and each chair is occupied by
one of the 12 people, not necessarily in the same order. Some additional
information is given below:
(1) Manoj, sitting at chair 1, is diagonally opposite Feroz, who is sitting opposite
Himanshu.
(2) Jatin is sitting opposite Saral, who is the only person sitting between
Abhishek and Vijay.
(3) Aashu is sitting opposite Tarun who is the only person sitting between Feroz
and Shivku.

Q.59
If Shivku is not sitting opposite Vijay, then who is sitting next to Manoj along the
same side of the table?
Fill ‘1’ if your answer is Abhishek.
Fill ‘2’ if your answer is Jatin.
Fill ‘3’ if your answer is Vijay.
Fill ‘4’ if your answer is Either Jatin or Vijay.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
If Shivku is not sitting opposite Vijay then either Vijay (from figure 1) or Jatin
(from figure 2) is sitting next to Manoj.

Correct Answer : 4

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

Twelve people Aashu, Abhishek, Feroz, Himanshu, Jatin, Manoj, Mohit, Sajid,
Saral, Shivku, Tarun and Vijay are sitting at a rectangular table. The table has
12 chairs numbered from 1 to 12, as shown below, and each chair is occupied by
one of the 12 people, not necessarily in the same order. Some additional
information is given below:
(1) Manoj, sitting at chair 1, is diagonally opposite Feroz, who is sitting opposite
Himanshu.
(2) Jatin is sitting opposite Saral, who is the only person sitting between
Abhishek and Vijay.
(3) Aashu is sitting opposite Tarun who is the only person sitting between Feroz
and Shivku.

Q.60
How many different seating arrangements are possible if Manoj is not sitting
next to Vijay along the same side of the table?
Fill ‘1’ if your answer is Two.
Fill ‘2’ if your answer is Three.
Fill ‘3’ if your answer is Four.
Fill ‘4’ if your answer is Six.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
If Manoj is not sitting next to Vijay then there are six possible arrangements (2
from figure 1 and 4 from figure 2).

Correct Answer : 4

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

Twelve people Aashu, Abhishek, Feroz, Himanshu, Jatin, Manoj, Mohit, Sajid,
Saral, Shivku, Tarun and Vijay are sitting at a rectangular table. The table has
12 chairs numbered from 1 to 12, as shown below, and each chair is occupied by
one of the 12 people, not necessarily in the same order. Some additional
information is given below:
(1) Manoj, sitting at chair 1, is diagonally opposite Feroz, who is sitting opposite
Himanshu.
(2) Jatin is sitting opposite Saral, who is the only person sitting between
Abhishek and Vijay.
(3) Aashu is sitting opposite Tarun who is the only person sitting between Feroz
and Shivku.

Q.61
If Sajid is sitting at one of the corner seats, then who is sitting opposite him?
Fill ‘1’ if your answer is Manoj.
Fill ‘2’ if your answer is Jatin.
Fill ‘3’ if your answer is Himanshu.
Fill ‘4’ if your answer is Aashu.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Manoj, Feroz and Himanshu occupy three of the four corner seats and it is
known that Feroz is sitting opposite Himanshu. Hence, Sajid can only sit
opposite Manoj. This can also be seen from figure 1.

Correct Answer : 1

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

Twelve people Aashu, Abhishek, Feroz, Himanshu, Jatin, Manoj, Mohit, Sajid,
Saral, Shivku, Tarun and Vijay are sitting at a rectangular table. The table has
12 chairs numbered from 1 to 12, as shown below, and each chair is occupied by
one of the 12 people, not necessarily in the same order. Some additional
information is given below:
(1) Manoj, sitting at chair 1, is diagonally opposite Feroz, who is sitting opposite
Himanshu.
(2) Jatin is sitting opposite Saral, who is the only person sitting between
Abhishek and Vijay.
(3) Aashu is sitting opposite Tarun who is the only person sitting between Feroz
and Shivku.

Q.62
If Manoj is sitting next to Abhishek, then who is sitting opposite Abhishek?
Fill ‘1’ if your answer is Mohit.
Fill ‘2’ if your answer is Sajid.
Fill ‘3’ if your answer is Jatin.
Fill ‘4’ if your answer is Either Mohit or Sajid.

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
According to the condition either Mohit or Sajid can sit opposite Abhishek.

Correct Answer : 4

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

The following tables show the batting performance of the Australian cricket
team in an innings of a T20 match. Table 1 indicates the score of the team at the
fall of each wicket (from 1 to 10). Table 2 gives the runs scored by the 11
batsmen and the order in which they appeared in the batting line-up.
Additional Information:
• At any point, there are two batsmen on the field till the fall of the 10th wicket.
Whenever the team loses a wicket, the new batsman comes as per the batting
order. For example, if one of the openers gets out, the number 3 batsman takes
the field.
• A partnership between any two batsmen is the number of runs scored while
both of them batted together.

Q.63
How many batsmen lost their wicket between Hayden’s and Hussey’s dismissal?

a 0

b 1

c 2

d More than 2

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
Hodge lost his wicket between Hayden and Hussey.

Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

The following tables show the batting performance of the Australian cricket
team in an innings of a T20 match. Table 1 indicates the score of the team at the
fall of each wicket (from 1 to 10). Table 2 gives the runs scored by the 11
batsmen and the order in which they appeared in the batting line-up.
Additional Information:
• At any point, there are two batsmen on the field till the fall of the 10th wicket.
Whenever the team loses a wicket, the new batsman comes as per the batting
order. For example, if one of the openers gets out, the number 3 batsman takes
the field.
• A partnership between any two batsmen is the number of runs scored while
both of them batted together.

Q.64
How many runs were scored by the batsman who was the 9th to be dismissed?

a 11

b 18

c 0

d Cannot be determined

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
From the table it can be seen that the required batsman can either be Clark or
Lee.

Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

The following tables show the batting performance of the Australian cricket
team in an innings of a T20 match. Table 1 indicates the score of the team at the
fall of each wicket (from 1 to 10). Table 2 gives the runs scored by the 11
batsmen and the order in which they appeared in the batting line-up.
Additional Information:
• At any point, there are two batsmen on the field till the fall of the 10th wicket.
Whenever the team loses a wicket, the new batsman comes as per the batting
order. For example, if one of the openers gets out, the number 3 batsman takes
the field.
• A partnership between any two batsmen is the number of runs scored while
both of them batted together.

Q.65
What was the percentage contribution of the batsman who got out first in the
second highest partnership in term of number of runs in that partnership?

a 33.33%

b 61.53%

c 71.43%

d None of these

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
 Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

The following tables show the batting performance of the Australian cricket
team in an innings of a T20 match. Table 1 indicates the score of the team at the
fall of each wicket (from 1 to 10). Table 2 gives the runs scored by the 11
batsmen and the order in which they appeared in the batting line-up.
Additional Information:
• At any point, there are two batsmen on the field till the fall of the 10th wicket.
Whenever the team loses a wicket, the new batsman comes as per the batting
order. For example, if one of the openers gets out, the number 3 batsman takes
the field.
• A partnership between any two batsmen is the number of runs scored while
both of them batted together.

Q.66
If all the batsmen scored their runs in the form of only ‘Singles’ and ‘Fours’, the
number of Fours scored could not be more than

a 27

b 24

c 21

d 20

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
 Correct Answer : c

Sec 3
 Q.67
If the angle of elevation of the Sun changes from 60° to 30°, the length of the
shadow of a tower increases by 60 m. The height of the tower is

a 30 m

b 30√3 m

c 10√3 m

d 20√3 m

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
 Correct Answer : b

Q.68
ABCD is a cyclic isosceles trapezium such that AD and BC are the two parallel
sides and the lengths of the sides AB, AD and BC are in the ratio 4 : 4 : 5. What
is the ratio of the length of AD to that of AC?

a 2:5

b 2:3

c 4:5

d 4:7

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:

Correct Answer : b

Q.69
The average age of 21 students and their teacher is 15 years. If the teacher’s age
is excluded, the average age reduces by 2. What is the teacher’s age (in years)?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:

Correct Answer : 57

Q.70
A and B are the two opposite ends of a swimming pool and the distance between
them is 420 metres. Ankur and Manu start swimming towards each other at the
same time from A and B, with speeds in the ratio 5 : 9 respectively. As soon as
any of them reaches an end, he turns back and starts swimming towards the
other end. At what distance (in metres) from A will they meet when Manu is in
his 13th round? Note: A to B is considered one round and B to A another round.

a 405

b 330

c 240

d 280

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
 Correct Answer : b

Q.71
If a2 + b2 = 1, c2 + d2 = 1 and ac + bd = 0, where a, b, c and d are real numbers,
then what is the value of a2 + c2?

a 2

b 1

c 0

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:

Correct Answer : b
 Q.72

a 72°

b 54°

c 36°

d 48°

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:

Correct Answer : c

Q.73
a 81

b 117

c 93

d 109

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:

Correct Answer : c

Q.74
Given below is the sequence of all natural numbers, starting with 1, that do not
contain the digit ‘0’.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 13…
What is the 200th term of the above sequence?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:
 Correct Answer : 242

Q.75
In how many ways can six letters – A, B, C, D, E and F – be written in a circular
arrangement such that D is adjacent to B and is diametrically opposite E?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution

Solution:

Correct Answer : 12

Q.76
There are four lines in a plane and exactly two of them are parallel. If P is the
number of points of intersection of these lines, then how many different values of
P are possible?

a 2

b 3

c 5
d 6

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:

Correct Answer : a

Q.77
Which of the following number(s) is/are not prime?
(i) 25001 + 1
(ii) 25002 + 1
(iii) 25003 + 1

a (i) and (ii)

b (i) and (iii)

c (ii) and (iii)

d (i), (ii) and (iii)

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o Answer key/Solution

Solution:

Correct Answer : d

Q.78
A function f(x) is defined for all real values of x as f(x) = ax2 + bx + c. If f(1) = f(–
1), f(0) = 10 and f(2) = 14, then what is the value of f(10)?

a 100

b 110

c 64

d None of these

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Solution:
 Correct Answer : b

Q.79
(x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3) = 6y
How many integer solutions exist for the given equation?

a 0

b 1

c 2

d More than 2

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Solution:

Correct Answer : b
 Q.80
The route taken by a bus from Delhi to Jaipur has ‘n’ stops, including the source
and the destination. When ‘m’ new stops are added on the route of the bus
(where m > 1) the number of different tickets that can be issued between two
stops on the route increases by 11. What is the value of ‘n’?

a 6

b 4

c 7

d 5

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Solution:

Correct Answer : d

Q.81
N = 25 × 52 × 73
How many composite factors does N have?

a 70

b 68

c 72

d 76

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Solution:

Correct Answer : b

Q.82
What is the area (in sq. units) enclosed by the straight line 2x + 4y = 12 and
coordinate axes?

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Solution:

Correct Answer : 9

Q.83
Two litres of a solution having water and milk in the ratio 3 : 5 is mixed with
three litres of another solution having water and milk in the ratio 5 : 3. What is
the ratio of water and milk in the resultant mixture?

a 18 : 23
b 1:1

c 19 : 21

d 21 : 19

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Solution:

Correct Answer : d

Q.84
Each of the four parties – A, B, C and D – contested for all the seats in an
election. Each seat was won by exactly one of the four parties. Party A lost on 19
seats, Party B lost on 12 seats, Party C lost on 10 seats and Party D lost on 16
seats. What was the total number of seats being contested in the election?

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Solution:
 Correct Answer : 19

Q.85
A tank has four inlet pipes such that each inlet pipe, while working
independently, can fill the tank in 4 hours. The tank also has two outlet pipes
such that each outlet pipe, while working independently, can empty the tank in 3
hours. If all the six pipes are opened simultaneously, then in how much time will
the tank get filled completely?

a 2.0 hours

b 3.0 hours

c 2.5 hours

d 7.0 hours

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Solution:

Correct Answer : b

Q.86
There are three water-alcohol solutions A, B and C whose alcohol concentrations
are 50%, 60% and 70% respectively. x ml of A, (x + 2) ml of B and (x + 3) ml of
C are mixed. If the alcohol concentration of the resultant mixture is 65%, then x
lies in the range

a 0.1 to 0.5
b 0.5 to 0.9

c 0.9 to 1.4

d 1.4 to 1.9

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Solution:

Correct Answer : a

Q.87
P is a point outside a circle with center O and radius 6 units, such that OP = 10
units. Tangents are drawn from P to the circle touching it at M and N, as shown
below. The line segment OP cuts the circle at point C and the tangent drawn to
the circle at C meets PM and PN at points A and B respectively. What is the
length (in units) of the inradius of triangle ABP?

a 1.50

b 1.67
c 1.73

d 2.00

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Solution:

Correct Answer : a

Q.88
Sameer and Sumer started running from the same point in opposite directions
on a circular track of length 120 m. Their speeds are 20 m/s and 40 m/s
respectively. After every second, Sameer increases his speed by 2 m/s whereas
Sumer decreases his speed by 2 m/s. How many times would they have met on
the track by the time Sumer comes to rest?

x
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Solution:

Correct Answer : 10

Q.89
If 10! = 36a88b0, what will be the value of the product of a and b?

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Solution:

Correct Answer : 0

Q.90
Ten workers started a job which can be completed by them in 20 days, and
worked on it for 10 days. Eleventh day onwards, a new worker joined them
every day till the completion of the job. On which day the job got completed?

a 16

b 19

c 17

d 18

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Solution:
 Correct Answer : d

Q.91

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Solution:
 Correct Answer : d

Q.92
P = b2c2 – ac – bd, where a, b, c and d, in that order, are four consecutive natural
numbers (a < b).
Which of the following statements is correct?

a √P is always a prime number.

b √P is always a rational number, though not necessarily prime.

c √P can be rational or irrational depending on the numbers.

d √P is always an irrational number.

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Solution:
 Correct Answer : b

Q.93
The HCF of three natural numbers x, y and z is 13. If the sum of x, y and z is
117, then how many ordered triplets (x, y, z) exist?

a 28

b 27

c 54

d 55

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Solution:

Correct Answer : b
 Q.94
The digits of a 3-digit number in Base 4 get reversed when it is converted into
Base 3. How many such numbers exist?

a 0

b 1

c 2

d 3

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Solution:

Correct Answer : b

Q.95
If the length of the sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 and the
circumradius of the triangle is 30 cm, then the length (in cm) of the largest side is

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Solution:
 Correct Answer : 60

Q.96

b
c

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Solution:

Correct Answer : d

Q.97
The cost price of four articles A, B, C and D are ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ respectively.
A, B, C and D are sold at profits of 10%, 20%, 30% and 40% respectively. If the
resultant profit when an equal number of units of all the four products is sold is
25%, then ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ cannot be in the ratio

a 4:1:4:3

b 1:2:2:1

c 2:3:6:1

d 5:2:7:3

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Solution:

Correct Answer : d

Q.98
From a solution that has milk and water in the ratio 5 : 3, ‘x’ percent is removed
and replaced with water. The concentration of milk in the resulting solution lies
between 30% and 50%. Which of the following best describes the value of ‘x’?

a 25 < x < 50

b 20 < x < 52

c 20 < x < 48

d 25 < x < 60

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Solution:
 Correct Answer : b

Q.99

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Solution:

Correct Answer : 1
 Q.100

a BC = PR

c AB = PQ

d All of them

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Solution:

Correct Answer : d