Paper14 Strategic Financial Management

Revisionary Test Paper_June2018
Final
Group III
Paper 14: Strategic Financial Management
(SYLLABUS – 2016)
PART-I – MCQ QUESTIONS
1. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

(1 marks for correct choice, 1 mark for justification.)
(i) Which of the following securities is most liquid?

(A) Money Market instruments
(B) Capital Market instruments
(C) Gilt –edged securities
(D) Index futures
(ii) A Ltd. has an EPS of ₹ 3 last year and it paid out 60% of its earnings as dividends that year.
This growth rate in earnings and dividends in the long term is expected to be 6%. If the
required rate of return on equity for Ashrin Ltd. is 14%. Calculate the P/E ratio of A Ltd.
(A) 7.50
(B) 7.65
(C) 7.85
(D) 7.95
(iii) The current spot rate for the US$ is ₹ 50. The expected inflation rate is 6 per cent in India and
2.5 per cent in the US. What will be the expected spot rate of the US$ a year hence?
(A) ₹51.71
(B) ₹50.71
(C) ₹57.01
(d) ₹52.71
(iv) DEF Ltd. placed ₹52 Crores in overnight call with a foreign bank for a day in overnight call.
The call ruled at 5.65% p.a. What is the amount it would receive from the foreign bank the
next day?
(A) ₹52,00,70,493
(B) ₹52,00,80,493
(C) ₹52,00,80,593
(D) ₹52,00,80,693
(v) The rates available in the Kolkata market are:
₹/$ Spot 46.75/78
£/$ 0.5285/86
If an Indian Importer requires pounds, calculate the rate quoted to him.
(A) ₹88.51/£
(B) ₹85.51/£
(C) ₹86.51/£
(D) ₹87.51/£
DoS, The Institute of Cost Accountants of India (Statutory Body under an Act of Parliament) Page 1
(vi) While plotting a graph with risk on X –axis and expected return on Y –axis , a line drawn
with co-ordinates (0, rf ) and (β, rm ) is called:
(A) Security market Line
(B) Characteristic Line
(C) Capital Market Line
(D) CAPM Line
(vii) If the RBI intends to reduce the supply of money as part of anti inflation policy , it might
(A) Lower bank rate
(B) Increase Cash Reserve Ratio
(C) Decrease SLR
(D) Buy Government securities in open market.
(viii) A Ltd., an export customer who relied on the interbank rate of `/$ 46.50/10 requested his
banker to purchase a bill for USD 80,000. Calculate the rate to be quoted to A Ltd., if the
banker wants a margin of 0.08%.
(A) ₹45.45
(B) ₹44.44
(C) ₹46.46
(D) ₹47.47
(ix) estimate the difference between the required rate of return and the growth
rate.
(A) Retention ratio
(B) Leverage ratio
(C) Payout Ratio
(D) Dividend yield ratio.
(x) Two Firms P Ltd and M Ltd. are similar in all respects expect that M Ltd. uses ₹ 10,00,000 debt
in its capital structure. If the corporate tax rate for these firms is 40%. Calculate the value of
M Ltd. exceeds that of P Ltd.
(A) ₹4,00,000
(B) ₹4,40,000
(C) ₹4,04,000
(D) ₹4,00,400
Answer:
(i) (C) Gilt –edged securities. Of all securities given, gilt edged securities are considered as
most liquid because they are Government bonds and have active secondary market.
(ii) (D) 7.95

P/E Ratio=Payout Ratio/(r-gn)
=0.6(1.06)/(0.14-0.06)=0.636/0.08=7.95
(iii)(A) ₹51.71
(Expected spot rate a year from now)/ Current spot rate= (1+ Expected inflation on
home country)/ (1+ Expected Inflation in foreign country
or Expected spot rate of US$ a year hence = (₹ 50 * 1.06)/1.025 = ₹ 51.71
(iv) (B) ₹52, 00, 80, 493
Amount placed in call = ₹52 crores
Interest = 5.65% p.a.
Amount receivable next day = Principal + Interest for a day
= ₹52 Crores + 52 crores *( 1 /365)*(5.65 /100) = ₹52,00,80,493
(v) (A) ₹88.51/£

The rate to be quoted to the importer is the Ask rate
= (₹/$) Ask * ($/N)Ask = (₹/$) Ask * (1/(£/$)Bid = 46.78 x 1/0.5285 = ₹88.51/£
(vi) (A) Security market Line

Security market Line simply represents the average or normal trade-off between risk and
return for a group of securities where risk is measured typically in terms of the securities
betas.
(vii) (B) Increase Cash Reserve Ratio
If the RBI intends to reduce the supply of money as part of anti inflation policy, it might
increase bank rate, increase Cash Reserve Ratio, increase SLR, sell Government securities
in open market.
(viii) (C) ₹46.46

Profit margin of 0.08% is to be deducted from the bid rate.
That is 46.50 x 0.0008 = ₹ 0.04
Spot bid rate = 46.50 – 0.04 = ₹ 46.46
(ix) (D) Dividend yield ratio.

As per constant dividend discount model, P=D1/(k-g), so k-g=D1/P is dividend yield.
(x) (A) ₹4,00,000

When Corporate taxes are considered, the value of the firm that is levered would be
equal to the value of the unlevered firm increased by the tax shield associated with debt
i.e. Value of Levered Firm = Value of unlevered firm + Debt (Tax rate)
Therefore, Value of M Ltd. would exceed the value of P Ltd. by only Debt (Tax rate)
i.e., 0.4 × 10,00,000 = ₹ 4,00,000.
PART II: SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
2) ANKIT Ltd. a manufacturing company produces 25,000 litres of special lubricants in its plant.
The existing plant is not fully depreciated for tax purposes and has a book value of ₹3 lakhs
(it was bought for ₹6 lakh six years ago). The cost of the product is as under:
Particulars Cost/Litre (₹)

Variable costs 60.00
Fixed Overheads 15.00
75.00
It is expected that the old machine can be used for further period of 10 Years by carrying out
suitable repairs at a cost of ₹2 lakh annually.
A manufacturer of machinery is offering a new machine with the latest technology at ₹10
lakhs after trading off the old plant (machine) for ₹1 lakh. The projected cost of the product
will then be:
Particulars Cost/Litre (₹)
Variable costs 45.00
Fixed Overheads 20.00
65.00
The fixed overheads are allocations from other department plus the depreciation of plant
and machinery. The old machine can be sold for ₹2 lakh in the open market. The new
machine is expected to last for 10 years at the end of which, its salvage value will be ₹1
lakhs. Rate of corporate taxation is 50%. For tax purposes, the cost of the new machine and
that of the old one may be depreciated in 10 years. The minimum rate of return expected is
10%
It is also anticipated that in future the demand for the demand for the product will remain at
25,000 litres.
Advice whether the new machine can be purchased ignores capital gain taxes.
[Given: PVIFA (10%, 10 years) = 6.145, PVIF (10%, 10 years) = 0.386]
Answer:
ANKIT LTD
Comparative Analysis:
Old New Differential Cash Flow on
Machine Machine new machine (₹)
Saving/(Extra Cost)₹
Production Ltrs 25,000 25,000
Variable Cost per Ltr (₹) 60 45
Total Variable Cost (₹) 15,00,000 11,25,000 3,75,000
Annual Cost of Repair (₹) 2,00,000 ----- 2,00,000
Depreciation (₹) 30,000 1,00,000 (70,000)
(10.00 + 1.00 – 1.00) / 10
Total Saving 5,05,000
Less: Tax Saving (50%) (2,52,500)
Add: depreciation (not 70,000
being cast outflow)
3,22,500
Present Value of Cash flow if new machine is taken:
Cash PV Factor Present

Year
Flow (₹) (At 10%) Value (₹)
Outflow on new Machine (₹10

0 10,00,000 1.000 (10,00,000)
Lakhs)
1-10 Annual Saving (as above) 3,22,500 6.145 (Cum) 19,81,762
10 Salvage value of new machine 1,00,000 0.386 38,600
10,20,362
Recommendation: Since NPV is positive, the new plant is to be acquired.

Note: Fixed overhead are allocations from other department and therefore, not relevant for
the replacement decision.
3) A company is considering a proposal of installing drying equipment. The equipment would

involve a cash outlay of `6,00,000 and net working capital of `80,000. The expected life of the
project is 5 years without any salvage value. Assume that the company is allowed to charge
depreciation on straight line basis for income tax purpose. The estimated before-tax cash
inflows (`' 000) are given below:
Year-end 1 2 3 4 5
Before-tax cash inflows 240 275 210 180 160
The applicable income-tax rate of the company is 35%. If the company's cost of capital is
12%, calculate the equipment's discounted payback period, and net present value.
Answer:
Statement showing the calculation of present value of CFAT:
Particulars Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5
A Cash flows before tax 240 275 210 180 160

B Less: Tax@35% (84) (96.25) (73.5) (63) (56)
C After tax cash flows 156

D Add: tax saving on depreciation 42
E Net cash flow after tax 198

F release of working capital -
G CFAT for last year - - - -
H PVF at 12% 0.8929 0.7972 0.7118 0.6355
I PV 176.79 175.98 127.06 101.04
J NPV = `709.10 – `680 = `29.10 thousands
Cumulative discounted cash flows
Discounted payback period
4) A firm has an investment proposal requiring an outlay of `1,92,000. The Investment proposal is
expected to have two years economic life with no salvage value. In year-end 1, there is a 0.4
probability that cash inflow after tax will be `1,20,000 and 0.6 probability that cash inflow after
tax will be `1,44,000. The probability assigned to cash in flows after tax for the 2nd year-end
are as follows:
The cash inflow year –end 1 `1,20,000 `1,44,000

The cash inflow year –end 2 Probability Probability
`57,600 0.2 96,000 0.4
`76,800 0.3 1,20,000 0.5
`1,05,600 0.5 1,44,000 0.10
The firm uses 8% discount rate for this type of investment.
(i) Construct a decision tree for the proposed Investment project and calculate the
expected Net Present Value.
(ii) What is the most likely NPV of the project and what is the corresponding probability?
What is the probability of the project having a negative NPV?
Answer:
(i) The decision tree diagram is presented in chart identifying various paths and outcomes and
computation of various paths/outcomes and NPV are presented in the following table.
Path No. Joint Probability

1 0.08
2 012
3 0.20
4 0.24
5 0.30
6 0.06
1.00
The Net Present value (NPV) of each path at 8% discount rate is given below:
Path Year 1 Cash flow Year 2 Cash flows Total ("ash in Cash NPV
Flow (PV) ` Outflow `
1 120000 × 0.9259 = 57600 × .8573 = 49380 160488 192000 -31512
111108
2 111108 76800 × .8573 = 65841 176949 192000 -15051
3 111108 105600 × .8573 = 90531 201639 192000 9639
4 144000 × 0.9259 = 96000 × .8573 = 82301 215631 192000 23631
133330
5 133330 120000 × .8573 = 102876 236206 192000 44206
6 133330 144000 × .8573 = 123451 256781 192000 64781
Statement Showing Expected Net Present value

Path NPV (`) Joint probability Expected NPV
1 -31512 0.08 -2521
2 -15051 0.12 -1806
3 9639 0.20 1928
4 23631 0.24 5671
5 44206 0.30 13262
6 64781 0.06 3887
20421
(ii) The most likely NPV = 44206; Probability = 0.3 or 30%

(iii) The Probability of NPV = paths (c) and (2) = 0.08 + 0.12 = 0.20 = 20%
5) A publishing house has bought out a new monthly magazine which sells at ` 25 per copy. The
cost of purchasing it by newsstand is ` 20 per copy. A newsstand estimates the sales pattern
of the magazine as under:
Demand copies Probability
0 < 200 0.18
200 < 400 0.32
400 < 600 0.25
600 < 800 0.15
800 < 1000 0.06
1000 <1200 0.04
The newsstand has contracted for 500 copies of the magazine per month from the publisher.
The unsold copies are returnable to the publisher who will take them back at cost less ` 2 per
copy for handling charges.
The newsstand manager wants to simulate the pattern of demand and profitability.
The following random number may be used for simulation of sales pattern of each month.
26 14 55 17 97 70
51 33 60 82 96 68
You are required to:

(i) Allocate random numbers to the demand pattern forecast by the newsstand.
(ii) Simulate twelve months sales and calculate the monthly and annual profit/loss.
(iii) Calculate the loss on lost sales.
Answer:
Profit per copy of magazine = ` 25 – 20 = 5. If unsold copy is returned, loss per copy = ` 2.
(i) Allocation of random numbers:
Demand Probability Cumulative Probability Random Nos. allocated
0 < 200 0.18 0.18 00 -17
200 < 400 0.32 0.50 18 – 49
400 < 600 0.25 0.75 50 – 74
600 < 800 0.15 0.90 75 – 89
800 < 1000 0.06 0.96 90 – 95
1000 <1200 0.04 1.00 96 - 99
(ii) Simulation of monthly pattern of demand and profitability:

Month Random Demand Sales Returned Profit on Loss on Net Lost
Number Copies Copies sales ₹ return ₹ Profit sale
(loss) ₹ Copies
1 26 300 300 200 1,500 400 1,100 --
2 14 100 100 400 500 800 (300) --
3 55 500 500 -- 2,500 -- 2,500 --
4 17 100 100 400 500 800 (300) --
5 97 1,100 500 -- 2,500 -- 2,500 600
6 70 500 500 -- 2,500 -- 2,500 --
7 51 500 500 -- 2,500 -- 2,500 --
8 33 300 300 200 1,500 400 1,100 --
9 60 500 500 -- 2,500 -- 2,500 --
10 82 700 500 -- 2,500 -- 2,500 200
11 96 1,100 500 -- 2,500 -- 2,500 600
12 68 500 500 -- 2,500 -- 2,500 --
24,000 2,400 21,600 1,400
(iii) Loss due to lost sales 1,400 copies × ` 5 = ` 7,000
6) A mutual Fund having 300 units has shown its NAV of ` 8.75 and `9.45 at the beginning and at
the end of the year respectively. The Mutual Fund has given two options:
(i) Pay `0.75 per unit as dividend and `0.60per unit as a capital gain, or
(ii) These distributions are to be reinvested at an average NAV of `8.65 per unit.
What difference it would make in terms of returns available and which Option is preferable?
Answer:
(i) Returns for the year:
(All changes on a Per -Unit Basis)
Change in Price: ₹ 9.45 – ₹ 8.75 = ₹ 0.70
Dividends received: ₹ 0.75
Capital gains distribution ₹ 0.60
Total reward ₹ 2.05
` 2.05
Holding period reward: = 23.43%
` 8.75
(ii) When all dividends and capital gains distributions are re-invested into additional units of
the fund @ (₹ 8.65/unit)
Dividend + Capital Gains per unit
= ₹ 0.75 + ₹ 0.60 = ₹ 1.35
Total received from 300 units = ₹ 1.35 × 300 = ₹ 405/-.
Additional Units Acquired
= ₹ 405/ ₹ 8.65 = 46.82 Units.
Total No. of Units = 300 units + 46.82 units
= 346.82 units.
Value of 346.82 units held at the end of the year
= 346.82 units × ₹ 9.45 = ₹ 3277.45
Price Paid for 300 Units at the beginning of the year
= 300 units × ₹ 8.75 = ₹ 2,625.00
Holding Period Reward
₹ (3277.45 – 2625.00) = ₹ 652.45
% of Holding Period Reward
` 652.45
= 24.85%
` 2625.00
Conclusion: Since the holding period reward is more in terms of percentage in option-two i.e.,
reinvestment of distributions at an average NAV of ₹8.65 per unit, this option is preferable.
7) The following information is available regarding three Mutual Funds:

Mutual Fund Average Return Standard Correlation
Deviation with market
A 24% 8% 0.30
B 16% 4% 0.70
C 12% 3% 0.50
If the risk free return is 6%, return on market portfolio is 15% with a standard deviation of 4%
ascertain:
(i) Total gain and the Net Gain under Fama’s Net Selectivity.
(ii) Systematic risk and Unsystematic Risk.
Answer:
(a) Working Note:

Risk Free return (RF) = 6%
Market Return (RM) = 15%
Market standard deviation (σ M) = 4%
Market Risk Premium (RM – RF) = 15 % - 6% = 9%
Particulars A B C
Average Return (RP) 24% 16% 12%
Standard Deviation σP (Total Risk) 8% 4% 3%
Correlation with market (PPM) 0.30 0.70 0.50
Portfolio Beta 0.30 × 8 ÷4 = 0.60 0 .7 0 ×4 ÷ 4 = 0.70 0.50 × 3 = 4 = .375
(BP) = Ppm × σP ÷ σm
Actual Risk Premium 24-6 = 18% 16-6 = 10% 12-6 = 6%
(RP - RF) (A)
Computation of Net gain
Desired Risk Premium [9% × 8% ÷ 4%] [9% × 4% ÷ 4%] [9% × 3% ÷ 4%]
[(RM – RF) × σP ÷ σm] (B) 18% 9% 6.75%
Fama's Net Selectivity 0 1% (0.75%)
(Net gain) =A - B
Computation of total gain
Desired Risk Premium
(RM – RF) × PPm × σp ÷ σm (C)
OR 18% × 0.30 9% × 0.7 = 6.3% 6.75% × 0.5
Risk Premium in (B) × P pm = 5.4% = 3.375%
Total Gain A - C (18% -5.4%) (10%-6.3%) (6% -3.375%) =
= 12.6% = 3.7% 2.625%
(ii) Systematic Risk (σP × BP) 8% × 0.6 = 4.8% 4% ×.70 = 2.8% 3% ×.375 = 1.125%
Unsystematic Risk 3.2% 1.2% 1.875%
(Total Risk- Systematic Risk)
8) Mr. G, on 01.07.2014, during the initial offer of some mutual fund invested in 20,000 units
having face value of ` 20 per unit.
On 31.03.2015, the dividend operated by the Mutual Fund was 10% and Mr. G found that his
annualised yield was 153.33%.
On 31.03.2016, 20% dividend was given.
On 31.03.2017, Mr. G redeemed all his balance of 22,600 units when his annualised yield was
73.52%.
What is the Net Asset Value (NAV) as on 31.03.2017?
Answer:
Yield for 9 months = 153.33 × 9/12 =115%.
Market value of investments as on 31.03.2015 = ` 4,00,000 + (`4,00,000 × 115%) =`8,60,000.
Therefore, NAV as on 31.03.2015 =(` 8,60,000 – `40,000)/ 20,000 = `41.
NAV would stand reduced to the extent of dividend payout, being ` 20,000 × `20 × 10%
=`40,000.
Since dividend was reinvested, additional units acquired = ` 40,000 /`41 = 975.61 units.
Therefore, units as on 31.03.2015 = 20,000+ 975.61 = 20,975.61 units.
Alternatively, units as on 31.03.2015 = ` 8,60,000 /`41 = 20,975.61 units.
Dividend as on 31.03.2016 = 20,975.61 × `20 × 0.2 = ` 83,902.44.
Let × be the NAV as on 31.03.2016, then no. of new units reinvested will be `83,902/ x.
Accordingly, 22,600 units shall consist of reinvested units and 20,976 units (as on 31.03.2015).
Thus by way of equation: 22,600 units = [` 83,902 / x ] + 20,976 units.
Therefore, NAV as on 31.03.2016 = x = ` 83,902 / 1,624 units = ` 51.66.
NAV as on 31.03.2017 =[` 4,00,000 (1 + 0.7352 x {33 / 12})]/ 22,600 units = `53.48.
9) An investor purchased 300 units of a mutual fund at `12.25 per unit on 31st December, 2016. As
on 31st December, 2017 he has received `1.25 as dividend and `1.00 as capital gains
distribution per unit,
Required:
(i) The return on investment if the NAV as on 31st December, 2017 is `13.00.
(ii) The return on investment as on 31st December, 2017, if all dividends and capital gains
distributions are reinvested into additional units of the fund at `12.50 per unit.
Answer: (i) Return for the year (all charges on a per year basis)
Particulars `/Unit
Changes in price [13.00 -12.25] 0.75
Dividend received 1.25
Capital gain distribution 1.00
Total return 3.00
Return on investment = [3.00 / 12.25] × 100 = 24.49 %

(ii) If all dividends and capital gains are reinvested into additional units at ` 12.50 per unit,
the position would be:
Total amount reinvested = ` 2.25 × 300 = `675
Additional units added = ` 675 / 12.50 = 54 units
Value of 354 units as on 31.12. 2013 = `4,602
Price paid for 300 units on 31.12. 2012 = 300 × ` 12.25 = `3,675
Return = [4,602 - 3,675] / 3,675 =927/3,675 = 25.22%
10) Equi – stable is a portfolio model wherein 20% of Fund value is invested in Fixed Income
Bearing Instruments. The balance of 80% is divided among old industry stock (iron and steel),
Automotive Industry stock, Information Technology stocks, Infrastructure Company stocks and
Financial Services Sector in the ratio of 4:2:6:3:5.
Three mutual funds X, Y and Z offer a fund scheme based on the Equi-stable portfolio model.
The actual return on Equi-Stable portfolios of each of the three funds for the past 3 years is as
follows:
1 2 3
Portfolio X 17.35% 18.70% 21.60%
Portfolio Y 17.20% 18.25% 22.15%
Portfolio Z 17.10% 18.60% 22.00%
Beta factor of the Equi-Stable portfolio is measured at 1.35. Return on market portfolio
indicates that `1,000 invested will fetch `153 in a year (including capital appreciation and
dividend yield). RBI bonds, guaranteed by the Central Government yields 4.50%.
Rate the fund managers of X, Y and Z.
Answer: Computation of expected rate of return under CAPM:
E (Rx) = RF + Beta × [ RM - RF ]; Risk free return = Rf = 4.50 %
Return on market portfolio = RM = 15.30 % [153 /1000]
Beta of Equi-stable = 1.35
So, Expected return of Equi-stable = 4.50 % + [1.35 × (15.30 % - 4.50 %] = 19.08 %
Computation of Alpha factor of 3 Funds
Year Mutual Funds X Mutual Funds Y Mutual Funds Z
Actual Actual Abnormal Actual Abnormal
Abnormal return
return return return return return
17.20 – 19.08 = 17.10- 19.08 =

1 17.35% 17.35 – 19.08 = (1.73) 17.20% 17.10%
(1.88) (1.98)
18.25-19.08 = 18.60 – 19.80

2 18.70% 18.70 – 19.08 = (0.38) 18.25% 18.60%
(0.83) = (0.48)
22.15-19.08 = 22.00 – 19.08

3 21.60% 21.60-19.08 = 2.52 22.15% 22.00%
3.07 = 2.92
Alpha factor:
Fund X = 0.41 / 3years = 0.137 %; Fund Y = 0.36 /3 years = 0.120 %; Fund Z = 0.46 / 3years =
0.153 %
Evaluation: Equitable scheme of mutual fund Z has the highest alpha 0.153 % return more
than the market expectations when compared to 0.137 % and 0.120 % of fund X and Y.
Therefore, fund manager of Mutual fund Z has performed better.
Ranking: Fund manager Z = 1; Fund manager X = 2 and Fund manager Y= 3.
11) A portfolio Manager has the following four stocks in his portfolio:
Security No. of shares Market price (`) P = Beta

per Share
VL 12,000 40 0.9
CL 6,000 20 1.0
SL 10,000 25 1.5
AL 2,000 225 1.2
Compute the following:

(i) Portfolio Beta (β)
(ii) If the Portfolio Manager seeks to reduce the Beta to 0.8, how much risk-free
investment should he bring in? Verify the result.
Answer:
(i)
Security No. of shares Market Value % of total Beta Weighted
price Per Amount (w) Beta
share
VL 12000 40 4,80,000 0.3692 0.9 0.3323
CL 6000 20 1,20,000 0.0923 1.0 0.0923
SL 10000 25 2,50,000 0.1923 1.5 0.2885
AL 2000 225 4,50,000 0.3462 1.2 0.4154
13,00,000 1.000 1.129
Hence Portfolio Beta =1.129
(ii) Required Beta = 0.8

It should become 0.8/1.129 = 70.86% of the present portfolio
If `13,00,000 is 70.86%
13,00,000 × 100
Total Portfolio should be = `18,34,603
70.86%
Additional investment in zero risk should be = 18,34,603 – 13,00,000 = 5,34,600
Revised Portfolio will be
Security No. of Market Value % of total Beta Weighted
shares price Per Amount (w) Beta
share
VL 12000 40 4,80,000 0.2616 0.9 0.2354
CL 6000 20 1,20,000 0.0654 1.0 0.0654
SL 10000 25 2,50,000 0.1363 1.5 0.2045
AL 2000 225 4,50,000 0.2453 1.2 0.2944
Risk Free Asset 53460 10 5,34,600 0.2914 0 0
18,34,600 1,000 0.80
12) Mr. QURESHI owns a portfolio with the following characteristics:

Security A Security B Risk-free Security
Factor 1 Sensitivity 0.80 1.50 0
Factor 2 Sensitivity 0.60 1.20 0
Expected Return 20% 25% 15%
It is assumed that security returns are generated by a two-factor model:

(i) If Mr. QURESHI has ` 1,00,000 to invest and sells short `50,000 of Security B and
purchases `1,50,000 of Security A, what is the sensitivity of Mr. QURESHI portfolio of the
two factors?
(ii) If Mr. QURESHI borrows `1,00,000 at the risk-free rate and invests the amount he
borrows along with the original amount of ` 1,00,000 in Security A and B in the same
proportion as described in part (i), what is the sensitivity of the portfolio to the two
factors?
(iii) What is the expected return premium of Factor 2?
Answer: Sale of Security B and investment in Security A
Portfolio Value Sensitivity Product Sensitivity Product

Security
(Weights) (Factor 1) (Factor 1) (Factor 2) (Factor 2)
A (Invested) 1,50,000 0.80 1,20,000 0.60 90,000
B (Sold) (50,000) 1.50 (75,000) 1.20 (60,000)
Total 1,00,000 45,000 30,000
Portfolio Sensitivity (Product ÷ Weights) for:

(i) Factor 1 = 45,000 ÷ 1,00,000 = 0.45
(ii) Factor 2 = 30,000 ÷ 1,00,000 = 0.30
Borrowing at Risk free Return, Investment in Security A and B

Portfolio Value Sensitivity Product Sensitivity Product
Security
(Weights) (Factor 1) (Factor 1) (Factor 2) (Factor 2)
A (Invested) 3,00,000 0.80 2,40,000 0.60 1,80,000
B (Invested) ( 1,00,000) 1.50 ( 1,50,000) 1.20 ( 1,20,000)
Risk free (sold) (1,00,000) 0.00 Nil 0.00 Nil
Total 1,00,000 90,000 60,000
Portfolio Sensitivity (Product ÷ Weights) for:

(i) Factor 1 = 90,000 ÷ 1,00,000 = 0.90
(ii) Factor 2 = 60,000 ÷ 1,00,000 = 0.60
[It is assumed that portfolio Sensitivity = Weighted Average Sensitivity of individual Security
comprising the portfolio]
Return Premium of Factor 2

Since the security returns are generated by a two factor model, it is assumed that the
model is linear equation of two variables.
Where,
Rs = RF + BF1 (X) + BF2 (Y)
Where, Rs = Return of the Security S
RF = Risk free Return
BF1 = Factor 1 Sensitivity
BF2 = Factor 2 Sensitivity
X = Return Premium for Factor 1
Y = Return Premium for Factor 2
Therefore,
RA = 20% = 15% + 0.8X + 0.6Y 0.8 X + 0.6 Y = 5
RB = 25% = 15% + 1.5 X + 1.2 Y 1.5 X + 1.2 Y = 10
Expected premium for Factor 2 is to be determined, which corresponds to value of Y.
Substituting value for X in the second equation, we get------
Y= 0.625 ÷ 0.075 = 8.3333;
Therefore, Expected Return Premium for factor 2 is 8.33%
ALTERNATIVE SOLUTION
(i) Mr. Qureshi's position in the two securities are + 1.50 9n Security A and (- ) 0.50 in Security
B. Hence, the portfolio sensitivities to the two factors are ---
Factor 1 = [1.50 × 0.80] + [(-) 0.50 × 1.50] = 1.2 + (- )0.75 = 0.45

Factor 2 = [1.50 × 0.60] + [[(- )0.50 × 1.20] = 0.90 + (- )0.60 = 0.30
(ii) Mr. Qureshi's current position—

Security A : `3,00,000 / ` 1,00,000 = 3
Security B : (-) ` 1,00,000 / ` 1,00,000 = (-) 1
Risk-Free Asset : (-) 1,00,000 / ` 1,00,000 = (-) 1
Factor 1 =[3.00 × 0.80] + [(-) 1×1.50] + [ (- ) 1 x 0] = 2.40 -1.50 = 0.90
Factor 2 =[3.00 × 0.60] + [(-)1 × 1.20] + [(-)1 × 0] = 1.80 - 1.20 = 0.60
(iii) The portfolio created in part (ii) is a pure Factor 2 portfolio.
Expected Return on the Portfolio in part (ii) is :
RP = [3 × 0.20] + [( - )1 x 0.25] + [( - ) × 0.15] = 0.60 - 0.25 - 0.15 = 0.20 or 20 %
Therefore, Expected Return Premium = 20 % - 15 % = 5 %
13) As an investment manager, you are given the following information:
Investment Initial Dividend Market Beta

Price (`) (`) Price (`)
Equity Shares of
A Ltd. 70 5 140 0.8

B Ltd. 80 5 150 0.7
C Ltd. 90 5 270 0.5
Govt. of India 1,000 160 1,010 0.95
bonds
Risk-free return may be taken at 16%.
Required:
(i)Expected rate of return of Portfolio using CAPM.
(ii)Average return of Portfolio
Answer: Calculation of expected rate of returns of Portfolios:
Investment Amount Market price Capital gain Dividend Total

(`) (`) (`) (`) (`)
Equity shares of
A 70 140 70 5 75
B 80 150 70 5 75
C 90 270 180 5 185
Govt. of India bonds 1,000 1,010 10 160 170
Total 1240 1570 330 175 505
Expected rate of return on portfolio = [505/1240] × 100 = 40.73 %.
CAPM Model
E[RP] = R F + B × [ R M - RF]
A Ltd = 16 + 0.8 [40.73 -16] = 35.78 %
B Ltd = 16 + 0.7 [40.73 - 16] = 33.31 %
C Ltd = 16 + 0.5 [40.73 - 16] = 28.37 %
G of I Bonds = 16 + 0.95 [40.73 - 16] = 39.49 %
(ii) Simple average return of portfolio = [35.78 + 33.31 + 28.37 + 39.49] / 4 = 136.95 / 4 = 34.24 %
Average of Beta = [0.80 + 0.70 + 0.50 + 0.95] /4 = 0.7375.
ALTERNATIVE APPROACH for Average return:
Weighted average return:

Securities Cost Proportion Expected return Weighted return %
A 70 0.056 35.78 2.004
B 80 0.065 33.31 2.132
C 90 0.073 28.37 2.043
G. Bonds 1,000 0.806 39.49 31.829
1,240 1.000 37.008
14) Given the following information—
BSE Index 50,000

Value of Portfolio 1,01,00,000
Risk Free Interest Rate 9% p.a.
Dividend Yield on Index 6% p.a.
Beta of Portfolio 2.0
We assume that a futures contract on the BSE index with 4 months maturity is used to hedge
the value of portfolio over next 3 months. One future contract is for delivery of times the
index. Based on the information, Calculate — (i) Price of future contract, (ii) The gain on short
futures position if index turns out to be 45,000 in 3 months.
Answer:
(i) Computation of Price of Futures Contract
Securities of R Ltd.
Spot Price [Sx] `50,000
Dividend Yield Expected [y] 6% or 0.06
Tenor / Time Period [t] in Years 4 Months or 0.3333 Year
Risk Free Interest Rate [r] 9% or 0.09
Price of Futures Contract [TFPX] = ` 50,000 × e(0.09 - 0.06)× 0.3333

TFPX = SX × e(r-y)×t = ` 50,000 × e0.03 × 0.3333
= ` 50,000 × e0.01 = ` 50,000 × 1.0101
= ` 50,505
Therefore, price of the Futures Contract is ` 50,505 or ` 50,500 (Approx)
(ii) Gain on Short Futures Position

(a) Computation of No. of Contracts to be entered into:
Particulars Value
Portfolio Value ` 101,00,000

4-Month’s Futures Price per Unit of BSE Index ` 50,500
No. of Units per BSE Index Futures Contract 50
Value per BSE Index Futures Contract [50 Units X `50,500 per Unit] ` 25,25,000
No. of Contract to be entered [Portfolio Value X Beta of Portfolio w.r.t Index ÷ 8 Contracts
Value per BSE Index Futures Contract] = [`101,00,000 X 2.0 ÷ `25,25,000]
(b) Computation of Gain on Short Futures Position

Particulars Value
Position SELL
Contracted Sale Price per Unit of BSE Index ` 50,500

Less: Index Position in 3-Months ` 45,000
Gain per Unit of BSE Index Future ` 5,500
No. of Units per Contract 50
Gain per Contract [`5,500 X 50 Units] ` 2,75,000
No. of Contract entered into 8
Total Gain [8 Contracts X `2,75,000 per Contract] 22,00,000
Total Gain on Short Futures Position in 3 Months is ` 22,00,000.
15) A share is currently priced at `600. It is known that at the end of one month, it will be either
`570 or `630. The risk-free interest rate is 8% per annum with continuous compounding. Find
the value of a 1-month European call option with a strike price of ` 592, with the help of a
Binomial Model.
Answer:
Computation of Option Delta [Binomial Model]:
FP1 FP2
Future spot price 630 570
Position on expiry date [compared to Exercise price] In the money Out of
exercise money lapse
Action on Expiry date
Value of Option on expiry
[Future spot price-Exercise price] [630 – 592] = 38 0
Option Delta = Change in value of option /Change in Future spot price

= [` 38-0] / [` 630 – `570]= 0.633
Computation of amount to be invested in Risk Free Rate:
= Present value of Lower band of Future spot price i. e, FP2
= Present value of `570 discounted at 8 % continuous compounding for a 1- month
period
= ` 570 × e(-)rt = `570 × e-0.08 × 1/12 = `570/ e0.007 = `570/ 1.00702 = `566.
Value of call = Option Delta × [Current stock price - Amount to be invested at Risk free rate]
= 0.633 × [` 600 – ` 566 ] = ` 21.522.
16) An Indian exporter has sold handicraft items to an American business house. The exporter
will be receiving US dollar 1 lakh in 90 days. Premium for a dollar put option with a strike
price of `58.00 and a 90 days settlement is ` 1. The exporter anticipates the spot rate after
days to be `56.50.
(i) Should the exporter hedge its account receivable in the option market?
(ii) If the exporter is anticipating a spot rate to be `57.50 or `58.50 after 90 days, how
would it effect the exporter's decision?
Answer:
Option Put
Strike price ` 58 per US $
Premium ` 1 per US $
Settlement (expiration) rate ` 56.50
Benefit from Put option = Max[(Strike rate - Expiration rate), 0] - Premium

= Max[(` 58 per US $ - ` 56.50 per US $), 0] – ` 1 per US $
= `( 1.50 – ` 1) per US $ = ` 0.50 per US $.
As there is benefit in owning the Put, so the Exporter should hedge using the Put Option.
Here, if the exporter remains un-hedged, it will receive
= [` 56.50 per US $ x US $ 1,00,000] = ` 56,50,000
But with hedging using Put Option, the exporter receives at the end of 90 days
= [(` 58 × US $ 1,00,000) - (` 1 × US $ 1,00,000)] = `57,00,000
For Settlement price of ` 57.50 per US $, BENEFIT FROM Put Option
= Max[(` 58 per US $ - ` 57.50 per US $), 0] – ` 1 per US $ = ( - ) `0.50 per US $.
For Settlement price of ` 58.50 per US S, BENEFIT FROM Put Option
= Max[(` 58 per US $ - ` 58.50 per US $), 0] – ` 1 per US $
= 0 – ` 1 per US $
= ( - ) `. 1 per US S
So, for anticipated price of ` 57.50 per US $ or ` 58.50 per US $), the exporter will not be
hedging through a Put Option as he does not have positive benefit.
17) The following information is available for Call option on the stock of MACON LTD:
Current market price `415
Strike price `400
Time to expiration (1 year = 360 days) 90 days
Standard deviation of return 22%
Risk-free rate of interest 5%
You are required to compute the value of call option, using Black- Scholes model.
[Given: N(d1) = N (0.5033) = 0.7019;
N(d2) = N (0.3933) = 0.6628;
Ln (1.0375) = 0.03681; and
E = 2.71828].
Answer: d1 = [Ln (S / x) + (r + 0.5 σ2]/σ√t

=[Ln (415 /400) + ( 0.05 + 0.5 × 0.222) × 0.25 ] / [ 0.22 ×√0.25]
= [Ln (1.0375) + 0.01855]/ 0.11 = [ Ln (0.03681) + 0.01855 ] / 0.11
= 0.05536 / 0.11= 0.5033
d2 =d1: - σ√t = 0.5033-[0.22 ×/o.25] =0.5033 - 0.1100 = 0.3933
So, N(d1) = N (0.5033) = 0.7019; AND N(d2) = N (0.3933) =0.6628
Hence, value of call option = S × N(d1)] - [ X x e-rt × N(d2)]
= [415 × 0.7019] - [400/(2.71828)0.05 x 0.25 × 0.6628]
= [291.2885] - [400/1.01258 × 0.6628 ] = [291.2885] - [261.8266] = 29.46
18) Company A has outstanding debt on which it currently pays fixed rate of interest at 9.5%. The
company intends to refinance the debt with a floating rate interest. The best floating rate it
can obtain is LIBOR + 2%. However, it does not want to pay more than LIBOR. Another
company B is looking for a loan at a fixed rate of interest to finance its exports. The best rate
it can obtain is 13.5%, but it cannot afford to pay more than 12%. However, one bank has
agreed to offer finance at a floating rate of LIBOR + 2%. Citibank is in the process of
arranging an interest rate swap between these two companies.
(i) With a schematic diagram, show how the swap deal can be structured,
(ii) What are the interest savings by each company?
How much would Citi bank receive?
Answer: First let us tabulate the details to find the quality spread differential:
Cost of Funds to Company A and B
Objective Fixed rate Floating rate
Company A Floating 9.50% p.a. Libor + 200bp
Company B Fixed 13.50% p.a. Libor + 200bp
Differential 400 bps 0bps
CITI BANK
9.5% 10%
Labo Labo
A B
9.5% To Libor + 200bps

Lenders To Lenders
The differential between the two markets = 400 bps - 0 = 400 bps. A total of 400 bps needs to
be shared between A, B and Citi bank. Since A cannot afford to pay more than Libor, it
needs 200 bps benefits out of the total 400 bps (Libor +2% - Libor). Similarly B cannot pay
more than 12% as against the existing available fixed rate funding of 13.5%, it requires 150
bps benefits out of 400 bps. The balance 50 bps would be shared / charged by the Citi bank.
The swap can therefore be structured as follows:
Firm Paid to Bank Received from Bank Paid to market Net Cost Savings
A Libor 9.5% 9.5% Libor (Libor+2%)-
(Libor)=200bps
B 10% Libor Libor +200bps 12% (13.5-12.0)= 150bps
Company A gets floating rate funds at Libor as against Libor + 2%, thereby getting an
advantage of 200 bps, Company B gets fixed rate funds at 12% as against 13.5%, thereby
getting an advantage of 150 bps and finally Citi bank gets 50 bps commission.
19) Company PQR and DEF have been offered the following rate per annum on a $ 200 million
five year loan:
Company Fixed Rate Floating Rate
PQR 12.0 LIBOR+0.1%
DEF 13.4 LIBOR + 0.6%
Company PQR requires a floating - rate loan; Company DEF requires a fixed rate loan.
Design a swap that will net a bank acting as intermediary at 0.5 percent per annum and be
equally attractive to both the companies.
Answer:
Particulars `
(a) Difference in Floating Rates [(LIBOR + 0.1%) - (LIBOR + 0.6%)] 0.5%
(b) Difference in Fixed Rates [13.4%- 12%] 1.4%
(c) Net Difference {[(a) - (b)] in Absolute Terms} 0.9%
(d) Amount paid for arrangement of Swap Option (0.5%)
(e) Net Gain [(c) - (d)] 0.4%
(f) Company PQR's share of Gain [0.4/% X 50%] 0.2%
(g) Company DEF's share of Gain [0.4% X 50%] 0.2%
PQR is the stronger Company (due to comparative interest advantage). PQR has an
advantage of 1.40% in Fixed Rate and 0.50% in Floating Rate. Therefore, PQR enjoys a higher
advantage in Fixed Rate loans. Therefore, PQR will opt for Fixed Rate Loans with its Bankers.
Correspondingly DEF Ltd will opt for Floating Rate Loans with its bankers.
Company PQR Company DEF

1. Company PQR will borrow at Fixed 1. Company DEF will borrow at Floating Rate.
Rate.
2. Pay interest to Bankers at Fixed 2. Pay interest to its Bankers at Floating Rate (i.e.
Rate (i.e. 12.0%) LIBOR + 0.6%)
3. Will collect from Company DEF 3. Will pay to Company PQR interest amount
interest amount differential i.e. differential i.e. Interest computed at Fixed Rate
Interest computed at Fixed Rate (12.0%) Less Interest Computed at Floating Rate of
(12.0%) Less Interest Computed at (LIBOR + 0.1%) = 11.9% - LIBOR
Floating Rate of (LIBOR + 0.1 %) =
11.9% -LIBOR
4. Receive share of Gain from 4. Pay to Company PQR its share of Gain = 0.2%
Company DEF (0.2%)
5. Effective Interest Rate: 2-3=12.0%- 5. Pay Commission Charges to the Financial
(11.90% - LIBOR) -0.2% = LIBOR - Institution for arranging Interest Rate Swaps i.e.
0.1% 0.5%
6. Effective Interest Rate: 2 + 3 + 4+5
= Floating Rate to Company DEF (LIBOR + 0.6%) +
Interest Differential paid to Company PQR (11.9% -
LIBOR) + Commission charges paid for arranging
Swaps + Share of gain paid to Company PQR
= LIBOR + 0.60 % + 11.9% - LIBOR + 0.5% +0.2%
= 13.2%
20) Hindus Ltd. has to make US $ 5 million payment in three months' time. The required amount
in dollars is available with Hindus Ltd. The management of the company decides to invest if
for three months and the following information is available in this context:
The US $ deposit rate is 7% per annum.
The Sterling-Pound deposit rate is 9% per annum.
The spot exchange rate is $ 1.42 / £.
The three month forward rate is $ 1.40 / £.
Answer the following questions:

(i) Where should the company invest for better returns?
(ii) Assuming that the interest rates and spot exchange rate remain as above, what
forward rate would yield an equilibrium situation?
(iii) Assuming that the US interest rate and the spot and forward rates remain as above,
where should the company invest if the Sterling-Pound deposit rate were 12% per
annum?
With the originally stated spot and forward rates and same dollar deposit rate, what is the
equilibrium Sterling-Pound deposit rate?
Ans: Here, spot = $1.42/ £ ; 3-m Forward = $1.40/£ ; rh = 7% ; rf = 9%.

a) For Interest Rate Parity to hold, (1 + rh) = (F/S) × (1 + rf)
Now LHS = 1.0175 ; RHS = (1+ rf) (F/S) = (1.0225) (1.40/1.42) = 1.0080
Since, LHS ≠ RHS, IRP is not holding exactly.
Since LHS > RHS, the Company needs to invest in $ for better return.
b) For equilibrium, the interest rate parity equation should match i.e. F/S
= (1+rh)÷(1 + rf)
i.e. F = S × [(1+ rh) ÷ (1 + rf) = 1.42 × (1.0175 / 1.0225) = 1.4130
Only if the forward rate F = 1.4130, we have an equity barium situation.
c) Now, if spot = $1.42/£; 3m Forward = $1.40/£ ; rh = 7%; rf = 12%; we again check
whether Interest Rate Party holds.
Now, LHS = 1.0175; RHS = (1+ rf) (F/S) = (1.0300) (1.40/1.42) = 1.0155
Since, LHS # RHS, IRP is not holding exactly.
Now since LHS > RHS, the Company needs to invest here also in dollars for better
returns.
d) For equilibrium, the interest rate party equation should match
i.e. F/S = (1+ rh) ÷ (1+ rf).
i.e. (1+ rf) = S/F × (1+ rh) = (1.42 /1.40) × 1.0175 = 1.0320
or rf = 3.20% (for 3 months)
Only if the annual pound rate is 12.80% (i.e. 3.20 × 4), we have a equilibrium situation.
21) A sugar mill in Maharashtra is expected to produce 100 MT of sugar in the month of February.
The current market price today (the month of December) is `22 per kg. February futures
contract in sugar due on 20th February is trading at `25 per kg. The sugar mill apprehends
that the price lesser than `25 per kg will prevail in February due to excessive supply then.
How can the sugar mill hedge its position against the anticipated decline in sugar price in
February?
Answer:
Sugar mill is long on the asset in February. Therefore, it needs to sell the futures contract
today. The no. of contracts that needs to be sold is dependent upon the exposure in the
physical assets and the value one needs to cover. Assuming each contract for sugar is for
10 M.T. the no. of contracts to be sold is 10.
No. of contracts to be sold = Quantity to be hedged / Quantity in each future contract =
100 M.T./10 M.T. = 10 Contracts.
Sugar mill would go short on futures in December. Prior to February, before the future
contract expires, sugar mill buys futures contract to nullify its position in the futures contract.
The asset, i.e. sugar is sold in the spot market. Prices realized by sugar mill in two different
scenarios of decline or rise in sugar prices, using the principle of convergence of price on
the due date of the contract, is worked out as follows:
When the price falls to ` 20 per k.g. in the futures contract
Sold futures in December +25

Bought futures contract in February -22
Gain in the futures contract +3
Price realized in the spot mar +22
Effective price realize `25 per k. g
Here, the loss of `3 (`25 - 22) in the spot market is made up by an equal gain in the futures
market.
When the price rises to `26 per k.g. in the futures market
Sold futures contract in December +25

Bought futures contract in February -26
Loss in futures contract -1
Price realized in the spot market +26
Effective price realized `25 per k. g)
Here, gain of `1 [`26 – 25] in the spot market is offset by the equal in the futures market.
22) JB ltd. an American Company will need £ 3,00,000 in 180 days. In this connection, the
following information is available:
Spot rate £1= $2.00
180 days forward rate of £ as of today = $ 1.96
Interest rates are as follows:
U.K US
180 days deposit rate % 4.50 5.00
180 days borrowing rate % 5.00 5.50
The Company has forecast the spot rates 180 days hence as follows:
Rate Probability
$ 1.91 25%
$ 1.95 60%
$ 2.05 15%
Compare the benefits of money market hedge Vs. No hedge and advise JB Ltd. on the
choice of the better strategy.
Answer: Money market hedge: Borrow $, convert to £, invest £, repay $ loan in 180 days
Amount in £ to be invested = 3,00,000/(1+i) = 3,00,000/1.045 = £ 2,87,081
Amount of $ needed to convert into £ = 2,87,081 × 2 = $ 5,74,162
Interest and principal on $ loan after 180 days
= $ 5,74,162 × (1 + 5.5 %) = $ 5,74,162 × 1.055 = $ 6,05,741
No hedge option:
Expected future spot rate Dollar needed Probability
(1) £ 3,00,000 × (1) =(2) (3) (2) × (3) =(4)
1.91 5,73,000 0.25 1,43,250
1.95 5,85,000 0.60 3,51,000
2.05 6,15,000 0.15 92,250
5,86,500
Probability distribution of outcomes for no hedge strategy appears to be more preferable

because less no. of dollars are needed under this option to arrange £3,00,000.
23) The following data relate to JB Ltd's share price:

Current Price: ` 3,000 per share
6 months' future price = ` 3,500 per share
It is possible to borrow money in the market for transactions in securities at 12% p.a.
Consider continuous compounding of interest.
Assume that no dividend was paid in the intervening period.
You are required to calculate the theoretical minimum price of a 6 months' forward
purchase and explain the possible arbitrage opportunity.
Answer: Theoretical Forward Price
Spot Price = `3000
Required Rate of return = 12%
Time period = 6m = 0.5 yr
Theoretical forward price = spot price × eЛrate × period = 3000 e 0.12 × 0.5 = 3000 e0.06
= `(3000 × 1.0618) = `3185.40
6 months future contract rate is `3,500.
Actual future price is higher and hence it is overvalued.
Action: Buy spot, sell future for arbitrage advantage.
Borrow ` 3,000 for a period of 6 months at 12% and buy the stock now at `3,000
Amount payable interest plus principal after 6m = `3185.4 (on continuous
compounding)
Sell in the Futures market at forward price at `3,500.
Gain in futures market = `500
Net gain = `(500 -185.4) =` 314.6
24) An Indian exporting firm, Rohit and Bros., would be covering itself against a likely
depreciation of pound sterling. The following data is given:
Receivables of Rohit and Bros £ 5, 00,000
Spot rate `56.00/£
Payment date 3 months
3 months interest rate India: 12% per annum
UK : 5% per annum
Compute arbitrage gain.
Ans: The only thing left is Rohit and Bros. to cover the risk in the money market. The following
steps are required to be taken:
Step1 Borrow pound sterling for 3 months. The borrowing has to be such that at the end of
three months, the amount becomes £ 5, 00,000. Say, the amount borrowed is £ x.
Therefore,
 3
x 1 + 0.05 × = 5, 00,000 or x = £ 4, 93,827
 12 
Step 2 Convert the borrowed sum into rupees at the spot rate.
This gives: £ 4, 93,827 × ` 56 = ` 27,654,312
Step3 The sum thus obtained is placed in the money market at 12 per cent to obtain at the
end of 3 months:
 3
S = ` 27,654,312 × 1 + 0.12 ×  = ` 28,483,941
 12 
Step4 The sum of £ 5, 00,000 received from the client at the end of 3 moths is used to refund
the loan taken earlier.
From the calculations it is clear that the money market operation has resulted into a net gain
of ` 483,941 (i.e. 28,483,941 – 5, 00,000 × 56).
If pound sterling has depreciated in the meantime, the gain would be even bigger.
25) Nihar, a foreign exchange dealer, is actively engaged in simultaneously buying and selling
same foreign currencies to make guaranteed profit.
The rates prevailing in the market are as follows:
Spot rate : `65.80/$
3 months forward rate : `66.40/$
3 months interest rates : ` : 7% p. a.
$ : 11% p. a.
Discuss the possibility of a net gain in arbitrage if Nihar’s borrowing potential is limited to `100
million.
Answer: 3 month forward rate of dollar is higher (at ` 66.40) than the spot rate (` 65.80). It implies
that the dollar is at premium.
Premium (%) = ` 66.40 −` 65.80 × 12 × 100 = 3.647 or 3.65% P.a

65.80 3
Interest rate differential = 11% – 7% = 4% p.a.
Since the interest rate differential (4%) and premium (3.65%) do not match, there are
arbitrage gain possibilities. An arbitrageur (Nihar) can take the following steps in this
regard:
(i) Nihar (arbitrageur) borrows, say ` 100 million at 7% for 3 months (as ` carries lower
interest rate)
(ii) He then converts ` 100 mollion in US $ at the spot rate of ` 65.80 in the spot market.
He gets an amount of US $ 1519757 (i.e. 100,000,000/65.80 = 1519756.839 or 1519757)
(iii) He invests US $ 1519757 in the US money market at 11% interest p.a. for 3 months and
3 × 11
he obtains interest of US $ 41793 ($ 1519757 × )
12 100
(iv) Total sum available with arbitrageur, 3 months from now is (US $1519757 + $41793) =
US $1561550.
(v) Since he would get US $1561550 after 3 months, he sells forward US $ 1561550 at the
rate of ` 66.40.
(vi) As a result of forward deal, at the end of 3 months from now, he would get
` 103686920, i.e. ($ 1561550 x 66.40)
(vii) He refunds ` 100 million borrowed, along with interest due on it. The refunded sum is
` 100,000000 + ` 1750,000 i.e. (` 100,000,000 × 3 × 7 ) ` 101750000.

12 100
(viii) Net gain is ` 103686920 – 101750000 = ` 1936920
26) The following two way quotes appear in the Foreign Exchange Market
Spot Three Months' Forward
`/US $ ` 66/66.25 ` 67/67.50
(i) By what % has the Dollar currency changed? Indicate the nature of change. (Answer
with reference to the ask rate).
(ii) By what % has the Rupee changed? Indicate the nature of change. (Answer with
reference to the bid rate).
(iii) How many US Dollars should a firm sell to get ` 45 lakhs after three months?
(iv) How many rupees is the firm required to pay so as to obtain US $ 2,20,000 in the spot
market?
(v) Assume that the firm has US $ 90,000 in current account earning interest. Return on
rupee investment is 10% per annum. Should the firm encash the US $ now or 3
months later?
Answer:
(i) Ask rate:
Computation of annualized appreciation/depreciation
= (Forward rate-spot rate)/spot rate x100 x 12/3
= (67.50-66.25)/66.25 x 100 x 12/3
= 7.55%
Result is positive, so appreciation.
(ii) Bid rate:
Computation of annualized appreciation/depreciation
Spot =66 `/$ =0.01515 $/`
3 months forward= 67 `/$ =0.01493 $/`
Difference =0.00022
=.00022/.01493 x 100 x 12/3
= 5.89%
(iii) Action= Sell US $ in forward market relevant rate= Forward bid rate=`67.
US $ required= `4500000/`67=US $ 67164.
(iv)Action = Buy US $ in spot market relevant rate= Spot Ask rate= `66.25
Rupees required to obtain US $220000 =US $220000 x `66.25/US $= `14575000
(v) Evaluation of Investment in Rupee

Particulars Encash Now Encash after 3 months
Relevant rate Spot bid rate= `66 Forward bid rate= `67
` available for US $90000 `5940000 `6030000
Add: Interest for 3 months (if 5940000 x 10% x 3/12
Not applicable
converted now) =148500
Amount available after 3 months `6088500 `6030000
Conclusion: Encashing now yields higher return. So it is better to encash now.
27) P Ltd. exports electronic instruments to importers of USA, and Japan on 180 days credit terms.
You are given the following information of the company:
Cost and sales information

Particulars Japan USA
Variable cost per unit ` 600 ` 1560
Export sale price per unit Yen 1200 USD 30.50
Receipts from sale due in 180 days Yen 120,00,000 USD 3,05,000
Foreign Exchange Rate information

Particulars Yen/` USD/`
Spot Market 1.693 - 1.714 0.01610 - 0.01670
6-Months Forward 1.701 - 1.712 0.01652 - 0.01662
6-Months Spot 1.719 - 1.733 0.01658 - 0.01661
You are asked to advise P Ltd. whether it should hedge its foreign currency risk or not. Present
relevant figures in support of your advice.
Answer:
Japan USA
Particulars Bid Rate Ask rate Bid rate Ask Rate
Spot Market 1.714 1.693 0.0167 0.0161
0.583430572 0.590667454 59.88023952 62.11180124
6 months forward 1.712 1.701 0.01662 0.01652
0.58411215 0.587889477 60.16847172 60.53268765
6 months spot 1.733 1.719 0.01661 0.01658
0.577034045 0.581733566 60.20469597 60.31363088
Japan USA
Spot Forward Spot Forward
Variable Cost per unit(a) 600 600 1560 1560
Export Sale(b) 1200 1200 30.5 30.5
Relevant bid rate(c ) 0.577 0.584 60.205 60.168
Export sale per unit(d) 692.4 700.8 1836.2525 1835.124
Contribution per unit(e)=(d-a) 92.4 100.8 276.2525 275.124
Contribution ratio(f)=e/d 13.34488735 14.38356164 15.04436345 14.99212042
Hedging using forward
Advice Do not hedge
contract.
Advice: The Company should hedge its foreign currency risks/exposure in Japanese Yen
as it stands to gain a higher contribution to sales ratio and therefore higher profit margin.
However for sale to USA, company need not hedge its risk.
28) Lotus Finance Ltd. is engaged in leasing business. The company wants your advice to
structure the lease of a machine costing `30 lacs. The machine will have no salvage value.
The life of the machine and the lease period will be 5 years and it has to be fully
depreciated in 5 years on straight line basis. The average post-tax cost of funds to Lotus
Finance is 10%, but to cover the effects of inflation, they prefer to hike this rate by 2%.
Assume tax rate is 50% and that taxes are paid on the last day of the year.
Calculate the minimum annual lease rent to be charged if
(i) the lease rents are payable on the first day of each year.
(ii) the lease rents are payable on the last day of each year;
What is the type of the above lease? Give reasons for your classification
Answer: (i)
Annuity
End of Yr. 0 1 2 3 4 5
Factor
Inflows:
Lease rent x x x x x 4.0382
Defn Tax Shield
50%  30 − 0  3 3 3 3 3 3.6052
 5 
Outflows: (Taxes) 3.6052
(x/2) (x/2) (x/2) (x/2) (x/2)
Initial (30) 1
P/V factor 12% 1 0.893 0.797 0.712 0.636 0.567
Minimum lease rental if pd on the 1st day of the year.

– 30 x 1 – 3.605 × x + 3×3.6052 + X × 4.0382 = 0.
2
X (4.0382 – 1.8026) = 30 – 10.8156
= 19.1844
X = 19.1844 = 8.58132
2.2356
Lease rent = ` 8,58,132.
(ii) If lease rents are paid on the last day of the years
– 30 ×1 + 3.6052 × x + 3 × 3.6052 = 0.
2
3.6052 × x =19.1844
2
x = 19.1844 × 2 = 10.6426273
3.6052
∴ Lease rent = 10,64,263
(iii) The type of lease is a financial lease

Reason: (i) Lessor is only the financial, not interested in the asset.
(ii) Time of the lease is the same as the life of the assets.
(iii) Cost of the asset fully amortised during the base period.
29) A contract has been made between M & T Construction Company Ltd. and a foreign
embassy to build a block of ten flats to be used by the foreign embassy as guest houses. As
per the terms of the contract the foreign embassy would provide the plans and the land
costing ` 50 lakh to M & T Construction Company Ltd. The Company would build their flats at
their own cost and lease them to the foreign embassy for 15 years. As per the contract the
flats will be transferred to the foreign embassy after 15 years at a nominal value of ` 16 lakh.
The company estimates the cost of construction as follows:
Area per flat 1500 sq. feet
Construction cost ` 1200 per sq. feet
Registration and other costs 5% of cost of construction
The company will also incur ` 8 lakh each in years 14 and 15 towards repairs of flats. M & T
Construction Company Ltd. proposes to charge the lease rentals as follows:
Years Rentals
1-5 Normal
6-10 130% of the normal
11-15 150% of normal
The company's present tax rate averages at 35% which is likely to be the same in future. The
full construction and registration costs will be written off over 15 years at a uniform rate and
will be allowed for tax purposes.
Additional information: (a) Minimum desired rate of return 10% (b) Rentals and Repairs will
arise on the last day of the year and (c) construction, registration and other costs will be
incurred at the beginning of the project (t=0).
Calculate the normal lease rent per annum per flat.
Answer: Calculation of Present Value of cash outflow

₹ ₹
Cost of construction 1500 × 1200 × 10 1,80,00,000
Registration and other costs @ 5% 9,00,000
Cost of repairs 8,00,000
Less: Tax Savings (35%) 2,80,000
5,20,000
Present Value of Cost of Repairs for year 1,36,932
14=520000X0.26333
Present Value of Cost of Repairs for year 1,24,483 2,61,414
15=520000X0.23939
1,91,61,414
Rounded off 1,91,61,400
Present Value Factor PV (14 Years) =0.26333

Present Value Factor PV ( 15 Years)=0.23939
Let X be the normal lease rent per 10 flats per annum and present value of recurring cash
inflow for 15 years.
Particulars 1-5 years 6-10 Year 11-15 Years
Lease Rent (per X 1.3X 1.5X
annum
Depreciation 1260000 1260000 1260000
(18900000/15)
PBT X - 1260000 1.3X - 1260000 1.5X - 1260000
PAT 65% 0.65X – 819000 .78X – 819000 0.975X – 819000
CIAT = 0.65X + 441000 0.78X + 441000 0.975X + 441000
PAT+Depreciation
PVCF (as given in 3.7907 2.3538 1.4615
QP)
PV(g) = 2.464X + 1671699 1.836X + 1038026 1.425X+644522
Total 5.725X+3354247
P/V of terminal cash Inflows: Rs.

Nominal Value of flats after 15 years 1600000
Less: Tax on profit (35%*1600000) 560000
1040000
P/V=1040000*0.239 248560
At 10 %rate of return: P/V of cash inflows= P/V of
Cash outflows
5.725 X+3354247+248560=19161400
5.725 X=15558593
X=2717658.16
Lease rent per flat=Rs.2717658.16/10 =Rs.271765.82
30) Write Short Note on:

a)Reverse Book Building
b) Limitation of credit rating
c) Name the participants in commodity futures.
d) What are the benefits of future trading?
e) State the type of risk in following situations:
i) The risk of loss arising from sovereign state freezing foreign currency payments
ii) The risk that stock prices or stock indices values and/or their implied volatility may
change
iii) The risks arising from the people, systems and processes through which a company
operates
iv) Changes in currency exchange rates
f) Illustrate types of Liquidity Risk.
g) Write down the main activities of RBI.
h) How does commercial banks grant loans?
i) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs)
j) Leading and lagging.
Answer:
a) Reverse Book Building is method of buy-back of securities. It is an efficient price discovery

mechanism adopted when the company aims to buy the shares from the public and
other shareholders. This is generally done when the company wishes to delist itself from the
trading exchanges. The reverse book building route is a difficult and costly process. Price
discovery is a problem in case of small companies as their shares are thinly traded, making
it difficult to delist through the reverse book building route. Unless the shares are delisted,
the small companies have to pay all listing charges.
b) Credit rating is a very important indicator for prudence but it suffers from certain limitations.
Some of the limitations are:
(i) Conflict of Interest – The rating agency collects fees from the entity it rates leading to a
conflict of interest. Since the rating market is very competitive, there is a distant possibility
of such conflict entering into the rating system.
(ii) Industry Specific rather than Company Specific –Downgrades are linked to industry rather
than company performance. Agencies give importance to macro aspects and not to
micro ones; overreact to existing conditions which come from optimistic / pessimistic
views arising out of up / down turns. At times, value judgments are not ruled out.
(iii)Rating Changes – Ratings given to instruments can change over a period of time. They
have to be kept under constant watch. Downgrading of an instrument may not be timely
enough to keep investors educated over such matters.
(iv) Corporate Governance Issues – Special attention is paid to:
• Rating agencies getting more of their revenues from a single service or group.
• Rating agencies enjoying a dominant market position. They may engage in
aggressive competitive practices by refusing to rate a collateralized / securitized
instrument or compel an issuer to pay for services rendered.
• Greater transparency in the rating process viz. in the disclosure of assumptions
leading to a specific public rating.
(v) Basis of Rating – Ratings are based on ‘point of time’ concept rather than on ‘period of
time’ concept and thus do not provide a dynamic assessment.
(vi) Cost Benefit Analysis – Since rating is mandatory, it becomes essential for entities to get
themselves rated without carrying out cost benefit analysis.
(c) Participants in Commodity Future

• Farmers/Producers
• Merchandisers / Traders
• Importers
• Exporters
• Consumers/ Industry
• Commodity Financers
• Agriculture credit providing agencies
• Corporate having price risk exposure in commodities.
(d) Benefits of Futures Trading
• Price discovery for commodity players
- A farmer can plan his crop by looking at prices prevailing in the futures market
• Hedging against price risk
- A farmers can sell in futures to ensure remunerative prices
- A processor/ manufacturing firm can buy in futures to hedge against volatile raw material
costs
- An exporter can commit to a price to his foreign clients
- A stockiest can hedge his carrying risk to ensure smooth prices of the seasonal
commodities round the year
• Easy availability of finance
- Based on hedged positions commodity market players (farmers, processors,
manufacturers, exporters) may get easy financing from the banks.
(e) i) The risk of loss arising from sovereign state freezing foreign currency payments-Country risk
under Credit risk
ii) The risk that stock prices or stock indices values and/or their implied volatility may change-
Equity risk under Market risk
iii) The risks arising from the people, systems and processes through which a company
operates-Operational risk
iv) Changes in currency exchange rates-Foreign Investment Risk
(f) Types of Liquidity Risk

Market liquidity - An asset cannot be sold due to lack of liquidity in the market – essentially a
sub-set of market risk. This can be accounted for by:
 Widening bid/offer spread
 Making explicit liquidity reserves
 Lengthening holding period for VaR calculations
Funding liquidity - Risk that liabilities:
 Cannot be met when they fall due
 Can only be met at an uneconomic price
 Can be name-specific or systemic
(g) The Reserve Bank is the umbrella network for numerous activities, all related to the nation’s
financial sector, encompassing and extending beyond the functions of a typical central
bank:
• Monetary Authority
• Issuer of Currency
• Banker and Debt Manager to Government
• Banker to Banks
• Regulator of the Banking System
• Manager of Foreign Exchange
• Maintaining Financial Stability
• Regulator and Supervisor of the Payment and Settlement Systems
• Developmental Role
(h) Banks grant loan in following ways:–
(i) Overdraft: - Banks grant overdraft facilities to current account holder to draw amount in
excess of balance held.
(ii) Cash credit: - Banks grant credit in cash to current account holder against hypothecation
of goods.
(iii) Discounting trade bills:- The banks facilitate trade and commerce by discounting bills of
exchange.
(iv) Term loan: - Banks grant term loan to traders and to agriculturists against some collateral
securities.
(v) Consumer credit:- Banks grant credit to households in a limited amount to buy durable
goods.
(vi) Money at call or short term advances:- Banks grant loan for a very short period not
exceeding 7 days to dealers / brokers in stock exchange against collateral securities.
(i) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs):

They mean bonds issued in accordance with relevant scheme and subscribed by a non-
resident in foreign currency and convertible into depository receipts or ordinary shares of the
issuing company in any manner, either in whole or in part, on the basis of any equity-related
warrants attached to debt instruments. A company seeking to issue FCCBs should have
consistent track record of good performance for 3 years.
FCCBs are unsecured; carry a fixed rate of interest and an option for conversion into as fixed
number of equity shares of the issuer company. Interest on redemption price (if conversion
option is not exercised) is payable in Dollars. Interest rates are very low by Indian domestic
standards.
FCCB has been popular with issuers. Local debt markets can be restrictive with
comparatively short maturities and high interest rates. On the other hand, a straight equity
may cause a dilution in earnings, and certainly dilutions in control, which many shareholders,
especially major family shareholders, would find unacceptable. Foreign investors also prefer
FCCBs because of dollar-denominated servicing, the conversion option and the arbitrage
opportunities presented by conversion of FCCBs into equity at discount on prevailing market-
price in India. The major drawbacks are that the issuing company cannot plan capital
structure as it is not assured of conversion of FCCBs. In addition, FCCBs would result in creation
of external debt for the country, as there would be foreign exchange outflow from the
country, if conversion option is not exercised by the investors.
Some other regulations are: (i) Interest payment on bond, until the conversion option is
exercised, shall be subjected to TDS; (ii) Conversion of FCCBs into shares shall not give rise to
capital gain in India; and (iii) Transfer of FCCBs shall not give rise to capital gain in India.
(j) Leading and Lagging

It refers to the adjustment of the times of payments that are made in foreign currencies.
Leading is the payment of an obligation before due date while lagging is delaying the
payment of an obligation past due date. The purpose of these techniques is for the company
to take advantage of expected devaluation or revaluation of the appropriate currencies.
Lead and lag payments are particularly useful when forward contracts are not possible.
It is more attractive to use for the payments between associate companies within a group.
Leading and lagging are aggressive foreign exchange management tactics designed to
take the advantage of expected exchange rate changes. Buckley (1988) supports the
argument.

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Revisionary Test Paper_June2018

PART-I – MCQ QUESTIONS

1. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

(i) Which of the following securities is most liquid?

(ii) (D) 7.95

(v) (A) ₹88.51/£

(vi) (A) Security market Line

(viii) (C) ₹46.46

(ix) (D) Dividend yield ratio.

(x) (A) ₹4,00,000

Particulars Cost/Litre (₹)

Cash PV Factor Present

Outflow on new Machine (₹10

Recommendation: Since NPV is positive, the new plant is to be acquired.

3) A company is considering a proposal of installing drying equipment. The equipment would

Particulars Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5

A Cash flows before tax 240 275 210 180 160

C After tax cash flows 156

E Net cash flow after tax 198

Discounted payback period

The cash inflow year –end 1 `1,20,000 `1,44,000

The firm uses 8% discount rate for this type of investment.

Path No. Joint Probability

Statement Showing Expected Net Present value

(ii) The most likely NPV = 44206; Probability = 0.3 or 30%

You are required to:

(ii) Simulation of monthly pattern of demand and profitability:

(iii) Loss due to lost sales 1,400 copies × ` 5 = ` 7,000

7) The following information is available regarding three Mutual Funds:

(a) Working Note:

Return on investment = [3.00 / 12.25] × 100 = 24.49 %

17.20 – 19.08 = 17.10- 19.08 =

18.25-19.08 = 18.60 – 19.80

22.15-19.08 = 22.00 – 19.08

Ranking: Fund manager Z = 1; Fund manager X = 2 and Fund manager Y= 3.

Security No. of shares Market price (`) P = Beta

Compute the following:

Hence Portfolio Beta =1.129

(ii) Required Beta = 0.8

12) Mr. QURESHI owns a portfolio with the following characteristics:

It is assumed that security returns are generated by a two-factor model:

Portfolio Value Sensitivity Product Sensitivity Product

Portfolio Sensitivity (Product ÷ Weights) for:

Borrowing at Risk free Return, Investment in Security A and B

Portfolio Sensitivity (Product ÷ Weights) for:

Return Premium of Factor 2

Factor 1 = [1.50 × 0.80] + [(-) 0.50 × 1.50] = 1.2 + (- )0.75 = 0.45

(ii) Mr. Qureshi's current position—

13) As an investment manager, you are given the following information:

Investment Initial Dividend Market Beta

A Ltd. 70 5 140 0.8

Investment Amount Market price Capital gain Dividend Total

Expected rate of return on portfolio = [505/1240] × 100 = 40.73 %.

Average of Beta = [0.80 + 0.70 + 0.50 + 0.95] /4 = 0.7375.

ALTERNATIVE APPROACH for Average return:

Weighted average return:

14) Given the following information—

BSE Index 50,000

Price of Futures Contract [TFPX] = ` 50,000 × e(0.09 - 0.06)× 0.3333