Crime Detection Q and A0001

CRIME DETECTION, PREVENTION AND INVESTIGATION
Scope: Concepts and principles of criminal investigation; modern techniques in crime

detection and investigation, tricks and bluffing devices in interrogation terminology, the
cardinal “I” of investigation, crime scene sketching and photography; physical evidence-
what to look for; how to work, preserve, pack and transport; techniques in obtaining
information, methods of surveillance, stake-out, apprehension of wanted persons, rights
of the accused under 1987 Philippine Constitution in relation to U.S. vs. Beecham,
Miranda vs. Arizona, Enrile vs. Morales. People of the Philippines vs. Galit; practice
court, special investigation particularly on rape, robbery, homicide, kidnapping, forgery,
malversation and arson cases; traffic operation and accident investigation; and fire
technology and arson investigation. (15%)
I. CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION
1. The method of operation which will enable investigators to a pattern of criminal

behavior.
a. Reconstruction of the crime scene c. Instrumentation
b. Elicitation d. Modus operandi.
2. This is where the techniques and principles of both physical and natural science are
applied and practiced to analyze crime-scene evidence.
a. Forensics laboratory c. SOCO
b. Crime laboratory d. Chemistry laboratory
3. A fictional character developed by Sir Arthur Conan Doyle who influenced crime-
detection methods by using serology, firearm identification, fingerprinting and
questioned document examination.
a. Sherlock Holmes c. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Albert Osborne d. Calvin Goddard
4. Refers to the uniqueness of some item of evidence made possible by the fact that no
things in nature are exactly the same.
a. Criminalistics c. Instrumentation
b. Individualization d. Reconstruction of the crime scene
5. A U.S. Army colonel who refined the techniques of bullet comparison and established
the use of a comparison microscope, which is indispensable tool to modern firearms
examiner.
a. Sherlock Holmes c. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Albert Osborne d. Calvin H. Goddard
6. He undertook the first definitive study of fingerprints and developed a method of

classifying them.
a. Albert Osborn c. Francis Galton
b. Leone Lottes d. Calvin Goddard
7. He devised a relatively simple procedure for determining the blood group of dried
bloodstain.
a. Leone Lottes c. Albert Osborne
b. Karl Landsteiner d. Francis Galton
8. In the techniques employed in interrogation, which of the foregoing is not utilized by

police investigators.
a. Friendliness c. Sympathetic approach
b. Emotional approach d. Financial assistance
9. This is applicable in oval or circular crime scene wherein the searchers gather at the
middle and proceed outward along spokes or radius,
a. Wheel method c. Strip method
b. Spiral method d. Zone method
10. He was considered as the father of modern toxicology.

a. Mathieu Orfila c. Francis Galton
b. Alphonse Bertillon d. Leone Lottes
11. He was the person credited to have devised the first scientific system of personal
identification by means of anthropometry, which is a method of taking a series of body
measurements.
a. Mathieu Orfila c. Francis Galton
12. He developed the fundamental principle of document examination and was
responsible for the acceptance of documents as scientific evidence by the courts.
a. Mathieu Orfila c. Albert Osborne
13. A public prosecutor and later a judge in Graz, Austria who applied scientific
discipline to the field of criminal investigation.
a. Mathieu Orfila c. Hans Gross
b. Alphonse Bertillon d. Edmond Locard
14. He perpetuated his belief that when a criminal came into contact with a person or
object, a cross transfer of evidence occurred and was responsible for giving specific
technical contribution to criminal investigation.
a. Mathieu Orfila c. Hans Gross
b. Alphonse Bertillon d. Edmond Locard
15. The primary tools in criminal investigation necessary to establish the guilt of the
accused in a criminal action.
a. Information, interrogation and instrumentation
b. Intent, motive and circumstantial evidence
c. Confession, admission and criminalistics
d. Investigation, criminalistics and prosecution
16. A public officer when not being authorized by judicial order, shall enter a dwelling
against the will of the owner thereof is committing:
a. Legal entry c. Trespassing
b. Violation of domicile d. Illegal entry
17. A person undergoing custodial investigation enjoys his constitutional rights namely:
a. The right to oppose whatever accusation on him.
b. The right to plea guilty and not guilty
c. The right to remain silent, to counsel and the right to be informed of such rights.
d. The right to face his accuser in public trial
18. A type of informant reveals information usually of no consequences of stuff

concocted of thin air.
a. False informant c. Double crosser informant
b. Mercenary informant d. Self-aggrandizing informant
19. Is one in which the ingredients of the offense are committed in many places.
a. Local crime c. Transitory crime
b. Local action d. Transitory action
20. The primary job of an investigator is to determine whether a crime has been
committed, in order to determine such, he must have knowledge of the so-called cardinal
questions of investigation. How many cardinal questions are there?
a. Three c. Five
b. Four d. Six
21. In bank robberies, this person is in charge of transportation by stealing the vehicle
and providing plate on it.
a. Drivers c. Wheelman
b. Ripper d. Rover
22. Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to facilitate proper sketch
orientation.
a. Proper north c. Legend
b. True north d. Compass direction
23. A search method in which the searchers follow each other in the path of the coiled
beginning form the outside proceeding toward the center.
a. Zone method c. Spiral method
b. Wheel method d. Strip method
24. Taking into custody the property described in the search warrant as a result of a
proper search, which is to be utilized as evidence in a case.
a. Seizure c. Safekeeping
b. Detention d. Confiscation
25. A method of criminal identification whereby the perception of witnesses is key and
criminals are identified by depiction.
a. Verbal description c. Police line-up
b. General photographs d. Rouge gallery
26. When the subject is in prone position what type of search should be implemented.
a. Kneeling search c. Floor search
b. Standing search d. Wall search
27. This is ordinarily made at the time and scene of the arrest. To discover weapons or
evidences and determine the identity of the suspects.
a. Preliminary search of a person c. Standing search
b. Wall search d. Floor search
28. Most likely place to look for fingerprints of theft in an automobile, which has been
stolen and abandoned.
a. Dashboard c. Steering wheel
b. Door handles d. Rear view mirror
29. Uses his seeming desire to give information to talk to the law enforcers in order to get
more information from them than he gives.
a. Double-crosser informant c. False informant
b. Mercenary informant d. Self aggrandizing informant
30. That profession and scientific discipline directed to the recognition, identification,
individualization and evaluation of physical science by application of natural sciences in
matters of law and science.
a. Chemist c. Criminalistics
b. Scientist d. Toxicologist
31. Is one in which all the ingredients of the offense are committed in one place.
a. Local crimes c. Transitory crimes
b. Local action d. Transitory action
32. The number of persons who handle the evidence from the scene of the crime and
between the time of the commission up to final disposition of cases.
a. Time of custody c. Time of disposal
b. Time of disposition d. Chain of custody
33. A declaration made under the consciousness of an impending death.

a. Part of res gestate c. Dying declaration
b. Confession d. Admission
34. Principles of science applied to law enforcement.

a. Instrumentation c. Legal medicine
b. Forensics d. Criminology
35. Evidence which offers least resistance to decomposition.

a. Blood c. Saliva
b. Semen d. Hair
36. Refers to criminals whose identity are furnished by eye witnesses.

a. Known criminals c. Unknown criminals
b. Convicted criminals d. Identified criminals
37. This method of identification depends on the ability of the witness to describe the
person seen committing the crime.
a. Verbal description c. Police line-up
b. Photographic files d. General photograph
38. Criminals whose identity may be established background identification.

a. Known criminals c. Convicted criminals
b. Unknown criminals d. Unidentified criminals
39. Compilation of known criminals available from police files and records.
a. Rouge gallery c. Police blotter
b. General photograph d. Modus operandi files
40. Type of shadowing where constant surveillance is necessary.

a. Loose tail c. Close tail
b. Rough shadowing d. None of these
41. The best way to label clothing to be used as evidence is:

a. Place it in a pill box and label it
b. Mark it by an inscription in ink at the lining
c. Place it in a plastic bag and label it
d. Tag it with a label
42. To ensure privacy and avoid distraction an interrogation room must be:
a. With no windows or views c. It must be sound proof
b. There should only be one door d. All of the foregoing
43. In this type of interrogation the investigator must have great knowledge of the case
and is preferable when the subject is not the talkative type.
a. Narrative type c. Stern type
b. Question and answer type d. Simple interrogation
44. What should the investigator do to protect while in transport those collected
evidences from the crime scene?
a. Seal it c. Pack it properly
b. Mark it d. Label it
45. Shadowing has the following purposes, except:

a. To detect evidences of criminal activities c. To locate wanted persons
b. To establish association of a suspect d. None of the foregoing
46. “A” wanted to kill “B”. the former pointed his gun to the latter, as “A” pressed the
trigger, the gun jammed and “B” managed to escape. This is an example of:
a. Attempted felony c. Consummated felony
b. Frustrated felony d. Impossible crime
47. Kind of recognition whereby the description and characteristics maybe vague that
identification is difficult.
a. Known fugitives c. Ordinary criminals
b. Professional criminals d. Unknown fugitives
48. The method of determining and finding the best way to remedy the specific cause or
causes of the complaint or grievance refers to:
a. Cross examination c. Investigative procedures
b. Grievance procedures d. Criminal procedures
49. A type of informant who reveals information usually of no consequence of stuff

produced from thin air.
a. False informant c. Mercenary informant
b. Double-crosser informant d. Frightened informant
50. Clandestine operation in police parlance.
a. Covert intelligence c. Overt intelligence
b. Secret activity d. Surveillance
51. It is an art which deals with the identity and location of the offender and provides
evidence of his guilt through criminal proceeding.
a. Information c. Instrumentation
b. Interrogation d. Interrogation
52. Special crime investigation is more concerned on:

a. Physical evidence c. Testimonial evidence
b. Tracing evidence d. Associative evidence
53. Is a person who provides an investigator with confidential information concerning a

past or projected crime and does not wish to be known as a source of information.
a. Informants c. Informers
b. Witness d. Confidential informants
54. Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge information.

a. Interview c. Investigation
b. Interrogation d. All of these
55. A compilation of photographs of known criminals, utilized in investigation for

identifying suspects in a crime.
a. Photographic file c. Rogue gallery
b. 201 file d. Cartographic sketch
56. This sketch shows the crime scene with its nearest physical surroundings.
a. Finished sketch c. Sketch of locality
b. Sketch of details d. Sketch of grounds
57. The explanation of any symbols used to identify objects in a sketch.

a. Compass direction c. Legend
b. Title d. Scale
58. Such articles and evidences which assists the investigator in locating the suspect.
a. Physical evidences c. Associative evidences
b. Material evidences d. Tracing evidences
59. Objects or substances which are essential part of the body of the crime.
a. Corpus delicti c. Material evidences
b. Physical evidences d. Associative evidences
60. The primary consideration in transporting evidences.

a. Markings should be placed
b. Proper turnover must be observed
c. Avoid altering contents
d. Proper packing to protect the evidence while in transit
61. General rule in handling evidences.

a. MAC rule c. Last clear chance rule
b. Right of way rule d. None of the foregoing
62. In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained areas are usually encircled. What is
the primary objective?
a. To show points of interest c. To avoid contamination
b. To have proper markings d. To prevent alterations
63. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to preserve the specimen?

a. Formaldehyde c. Alcohol
b. Saline solution d. Distilled water
64. It is the surprise invasion of a building or an area.

a. Assault c. Raid
b. Attack d. Surveillance
65. Primary requisite for conducting raids.

a. Search warrant c. Firearms
b. Raiding team d. Back-up personnel
66. This is an element of crime commission wherein one is induced to commit the crime.
a. Motive c. Opportunity
b. Intent d. Deceit
67. In a police line-up, in which the purpose is to eliminate the power of suggestion as a
factor in identification as a procedure how many persons is needed in such a line-up?
a. 3 top 5 c. 7 to 10
b. 5 to 7 d. 10 to 15
68. It is the physical possibility that the suspect could have committed the crime.
a. Motive c. Opportunity
b. Intent d. Deceit
69. Motive in giving information wherein the informant delights in giving information to
gain favorable attention from the police.
a. Competition c. Vanity
b. Repentance d. Jealousy
70. Employed where a general impression of the subject’s habit and associate are
required.
a. Surveillance c. Rough shadowing
b. Loose tail shadowing d. Close tail shadowing
71. More advantageous because it permits immediate changes of men and less likely to
be recognized.
a. One man shadow c. Three man shadow
b. Two man shadow d. ABC method
72. In this method of search, the searchers proceed slowly at the same pace along the path
parallel to one side of the rectangle. At the end of the rectangle, the searcher turns and
proceeds back along new lanes but parallel to the first movement.
b. Strip method d. Wheel method
73. In this method, the area to be searched is divided into quadrant and each searcher is
assigned in each quadrant.
b. Strip method d. Wheel method
74. The surroundings of the crime scene must be photograph to show the relative location
and distances.
a. Environmental photograph c. Overview
b. Physical reconstruction d. Over-all photograph
75. Made by the investigator at the crime scene. No scale, proportion ignored and
everything is approximate.
a. Sketch c. Rough sketch
b. Draft d. Finished sketch
76. Most common reason in discharging informants.

a. Burn out c. Lack of loyalty
b. Too expensive to maintain d. Reprehensible behavior
77. Object usually utilized in marking hard objects.

a. Stylus c. Ink
b. Pen d. Chalk
78. A form of investigation in which an investigator assumes a different and unofficial

identity.
a. Tailing c. Surveillance
b. Shadowing d. Roping
79. Interrogation fitted for subjects who are willing to talk.

a. Narrative type c. Question and answer type
b. Interrogation type d. Stern type
80. Method employed by the police to deprive the liberty of a person taken into custody.
a. Protective custody c. Police restraint
b. Detaining for questioning d. All of these
81. Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime scene as well as the objects, what
naturally occurred and what were the circumstances of the crime.
a. Crime scene c. Mental reconstruction
b. Physical reconstruction d. Reconstruction of the crime
82. Paid informants.

a. Anonymous informants c. False informants
b. Rival elimination informants d. Mercenary informants
83. Most common type of shadowing.

a. One man shadow c. Three man shadow
b. Two man shadow d. Rough shadow
84. Articles which are found in connection with the investigation and aid in establishing
the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was committed.
a. Tracing evidence c. Associative evidence
b. Corpus delicti d. Physical or material evidence
85. Instrumental detection of deception.

a. Ballistic test c. Question document test
b. Fingerprint test d. Polygraph testing
86. First action of the police unit upon arrival at the scene of homicide.
a. Cordon the area c. Verification of death
b. Prevent contamination of evidence d. Conduct initial investigation
87. The circumstances which must occur to be classified as a crime.

a. Elements of the crime c. Motive and intent
b. Victim and perpetrator d. Desire and opportunity
88. Most common motive in committing a crime.

a. Fame c. Passion
b. Revenge d. Profit
89. They assume jurisdiction in terms of conducting crime scene investigations.

a. SOCO operatives
b. Investigator on case
c. First police unit who arrived at the crime scene
d. CIDG operatives
90. An official inquiry undertaken by the police on the circumstances surrounding the
death of a person which is always presumed to be unlawful.
a. Criminal investigation c. Homicide investigation
b. Special crime investigation d. Murder investigation
91. Stage where the law enforcer focus on a particular suspect who had been invited or
taken into custody or otherwise deprived of his/her freedom of action where a process of
interrogation is undertaken to illicit incriminating statements.
a. Investigation c. Custodial investigation
b. Interrogation d. Inquest
92. In informal and summary investigation conducted by a public prosecutor in criminal
cases involving persons arrested and detained without the benefit of a warrant for the
purpose of determining whether or not said persons should remain under custody an
correspondingly be charged in court.
a. Investigation c. Custodial investigation
b. Interrogation d. Inquest
93. This investigation technique when used will establish cooperation since the
complainant and witnesses will pin point the subject as the one who committed the crime.
a. Pleading to a lesser offense c. Split pair method
b. Line-up method d. Revered line-up method
94. Also known as bluff method it is undertaken when there are two or more culprits and
stating to the subject that the others have already confessed and directly linked him/her
with the commission of a crime.
95. This is undertaken by requesting the subject to join a police line-up in which several
persons will point him as having committed fictitious offenses. S a result of which the
subject may tend to confess to the real offense of which he has taken part of.
96. Generally indicates the dimensions and shape of crime scenes and which are used as
interview aids.
a. Sketch c. Outline sketch
b. Rough sketch d. Detailed sketch
97. Refers to the use of physical evidences, scientific method, deductive reasoning and
their interrelationship to acquire definite and clear knowledge of the series of events and
circumstances that surround the commission of a crime.
a. Crime scene investigation c. Crime scene reconstruction
b. Crime scene inquiry d. All of these
98. Specific incident reconstruction is used in which of the following circumstances?
a. Homicide c. Traffic accident investigation
b. Bombing d. All of these
99. When firearms, Blood, glass and other similar physical evidences is in police custody,
what type of crime scene reconstruction is used by the investigator on case?
a. Specific incident reconstruction c. Specific event reconstruction
b. Specific physical evidence reconstruction d. All of these
100. In determining sequence, direction, condition, relation and identity which type of
crime scene reconstruction is used?
a. Specific incident reconstruction c. Specific event reconstruction
b. Specific physical evidence reconstruction d. All of these
II. ARSON INVESTIGATION

1. This type of fire has for its fuel normal combustible materials.
a. Class A fire c. Class C fire
b. Class B fire d. Class D fire
2. In fires wherein the fuel is flammable liquid such as gasoline, kerosene, alcohol and
grease which among the foregoing may be used to put out this fire.
a. Foam extinguisher c. Dry chemicals
b. Water d. Sand
3. The collection of debris at the origin of the fire should include all __________
materials.
a. Solid c. Porous
b. Liquid d. Non-porous
4. Blue flames usually indicate the presence of _______, in a fire.

a. Gasoline c. Alcohol
b. Kerosene d. Petroleum
5. This usually indicates the intensity of the fire.

a. Size of fire c. Size of flame
b. Color of smoke d. Color of flame
6. This would indicate the presence of petroleum in a fire.
a. Blue flame c. White smoke
b. Red flame d. Black smoke
7. Most common motive in arson cases.

a. Economic gain c. Intimidation
b. Concealment of crime d. Punitive measure
8. A rare fire usually occurring in manufacturing facilities wherein the combustible

materials are metals such as magnesium and potassium.
9. In handling class D fires, which among the following may not be used?
a. Dry powder, ABC chemical c. Water
b. Baking soda d. Sand
10. Commonly referred to as an electrical fire.

11. Which among the following is commonly used to put out Class C fires?
a. CO2 c. Water
b. Sand d. Baking soda
12. Class A fires may be extinguished by:

a. CO2 c. Water
c. Sand d. Baking soda
13. A fire which uses flammable liquid as fuel is classified as:
14. Excess heat energy liberated by an oxidation reaction is called____.

a. Latent heat c. Specific heat
b. Heat of combustion d. Thermal heat
15. The minimum temperature at which a fuel will burn is:

a. Ignition temperature c. Heat of combustion
b. Thermal heat d. Specific heat
16. Instrument used to open/close fire hydrants.

a. Sprinkler c. Fire hose
b. Fire pump d. Hydrant key
17. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a result of its reaction with other
elements promotes a rapid drop in temperature of the immediate surrounding.
a. Dust c. Pyrolisys
b. Oxidizing material d. Cryogenic
18. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which vapors are evolved fast
enough to support continuous combustion.
a. Ignition temperature c. Fire point
b. Kindling temperature d. Flash point
19. The temperature at which a flammable liquid form a vapor air mixture that ignites.
a. Ignition temperature c Fire point
b. Kindling temperature d. Flash point
20. Minimum temperature in which the substance in the air must be heated in order to
initiate or cause a self-contained combustion without the addition of heat from outside
sources.
a. Boiling point c. Fire point
b. Ignition temperature d. Flash point
21. An exothermic chemical change in which a combustible material react with an

oxidizing agent.
a. Thermal balance c. Combustion
b. Thermal imbalance d. Oxidation
22. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light.

a. Pyrolysis c. Detonation
b. Combustion d. All of these
23. A chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat.

a. Pyrolysis c. Detonation
b. Combustion d. Oxidation
24. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area of the material with unit
temperature gradient.
a. Conduction c. Radiation
b. Thermal conductivity d. Oxidation
25. A means of heat transfer when energy travels trough space or materials as waves.
b. Convection d. Fission
26. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a motive.
a. Providential fire c. Intentional fire
b. Accidental fire d. None of the foregoing
27. Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P
788.
a. Arson c. Accidental fire
b. Providential fire d. None of the foregoing
28. First element known to man by experience, a colorless, tasteless and odorless gas
which supports life and fire.
a. Nitrogen c. Oxygen
b. Hydrogen d. Neon
29. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to start a fire.

a. Fuel c. Heat
b. Oxygen d. None of the foregoing
30. Refers to gases liberated by heat.

a. Free radicals c. Thermal balance
b. Flash point d. Thermal imbalance
31. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire gases within a
building or structure under natural conditions.
a. Free radicals c. Thermal balance
b. Pyrolysis d. Thermal imbalance
32. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its destructive capabilities are
developed.
a. Initial phase c. Free burning phase
b. Incipient phase d. Smoldering phase
33. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.

a. The fire triangle c. Flashover
b. The fingerprint of the fire d. Incipient phase of the fire
34. An occurrence when the heat has brought the combustible portion of the ceiling to
their ignition temperature, it is characterized by a sudden burst or shooting forth light and
flames.
a. Flashover c. Thermal balance
b. Backdraft d. Thermal imbalance
35. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it is a result of a sudden

introduction of oxygen.
a. Flashover c. Thermal balance
b. Backdraft d. Thermal imbalance
36. Which among the following is the primary objective in investigating fires?
a. To determine its cause c. To determine liable persons
b. To prevent recurrences d. All of these
37. Reason why fire investigation is unique.

a. It does not conform with regular investigative procedure
b. Unavailability of witnesses
c. Fires destroys evidence
d. All of the foregoing
38. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.

a. Providential c. Intentional
b. Accidental d. Incendiarism
39. A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat and oxygen.

a. Fire c. Fire triangle
b. Origin of fire d. All of the foregoing
40. Most important part of the fire triangle for it is what burns.
a. Fuel c. Oxygen
b. Heat d. Gas
41. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating medium either gas or a liquid.
42. It is the amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid.

a. Specific heat c. Heat of combustion
b. Latent heat d. Heat of fusion
43. Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or natural cracking of hydrogen in

the absence of air.
a. Carbon black c. Soot
b. Lamp black d. Black bone
44. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed vapor as a result of combustion.
a. Fire c. Heat
b. Flame d. Smoke
45. Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation.

a. Fire c. Heat
b. Flame d. Smoke
46. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been contained.
a. Backdraft c. Carbon monoxide poisoning
b. Flashover d. Falling debris
47. Color of smoke produced accompanied by red flames indicates the burning of what
material?
a. Rubber c. Asphalt singles
b. Nitrogen products d. Chlorine
48. Which among the following is commonly used in fire resistant materials?
a. Asbestos c. Asphalt
b. Diamond d. Cotton
49. A form of static electricity or an electrical current of great magnitude producing

tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the most common cause of providential fires.
a. Rays of the sun c. Arcing
b. Spontaneous heating d. Lightning
50. Most common cause of accidental fires is related to:

a. Smoking c. Sparking
b. Arcing d. Overloading
51. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the room or throughout the
structure.
a. Accelerant c. Trailer
b. Plants d. Wick
52. Usually comes in the form of combustible liquid which is a contrivance to hasten the
start of fire.
a. Accelerant c. Trailer
b. Plants d. Wick
53. Most common reason of arson cases.

a. Revenge c. Competition
b. Profit d. Anger
54. It is the result of slow oxidation of a combustible material

a. Spontaneous heating c. Combustible dust
b. Combustible gases d. None of these
55. Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials to start a fire.

a. Plants c. Trailers
b. Accelerants d. Wick
56. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.

a. Abatement c. Allotment
b. Combustion d. Distillation
57. The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry materials with sufficient air
forms lamp black commonly known as:
a. Black bone c. Soot
b. Used petroleum d. Black iron
58. The use of more electrical devices which draw or consume electrical current beyond
the designed capacity of the existing electrical system.
a. Overloading c. Wire tapping
b. Jumper d. Arcing
59. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01 % of the assessed value of the
building:
a. Schools c. Hospitals
b. Department stores d. Single family dwellings
60. An enclosed vertical passage that extends from floor to floor, as well as from the base
to the top of the building.
a. Standpipe system c. Vertical shaft
b. Sprinkler system d. Flash point
61. Designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance rating of not less than
four hours with structural stability to remain standing even if the adjacent construction
collapses under fire conditions:
a. Post wall c. Fire wall
b. Fire trap d. Firewood
62. A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local government for any particular

establishment.
a. Fire service c. Fire drill
b. Fire safety inspection d. Fire protection assembly
63. Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to another.

a. Radiation c. Conduction
64. The active principle of burning characterized by the heat and light of combustion.
a. Oxidation c. Smoldering
b. Flash point d. Fire
65. A finely powdered substance which, when mixed with all in the proper proportion
and ignited will cause an explosion.
a. Dust c. Fire trap
b. Fire lane d. Fire hazard
66. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction takes place.
a. Endothermic reactions c. Oxidation
b. Exothermic reactions d. Combustion
67. Product of an incomplete combustion.

a. Soot c. Ashes
b. Charring d. All of these
68. Color of a luminous flame.

a. Orange-red c. Yellow
b. Blue d. Red
69. Refers to the amount of heat released during complete oxidation whereby the organic
fuel is converted to water and carbon dioxide.
a. Heat of combustion c. Fuel value
b. Calorific value d. All of these
70. Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when it changes state from
solid to liquid or liquid to gas.
a. Calorie c. Thermal heat
b. Latent heat d. Specific heat
71. Refers to gases that remain when the products of combustion are cooled to normal
temperature.
a. Fire gases c. Oxidation gases
b. Combustion gases d. Flame
72. Fires caused by human error and negligence.

a. Providential fires c. Accidental fires
b. Intentional fires d. Incendiarism
73. Primary component of wood.

a. Fiber c. Carbon
b. Cellulose d. Pulp
74. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern or fingerprint of fire is
developed.
a. Incipient phase c. Free burning phase
b. Initial phase d. Smoldering phase
75. Phase whereby the fire can no longer support the flame and carbon monoxide builds
up in volume.
a. Incipient phase c. Free burning phase
b. Initial phase d. Smoldering phase
76. Color of smoke produced when nitrogen products is the combustible material being
burned while bright red flame are visible.
a. Black smoke c. White smoke
b. Heavy brown smoke d. Greenish smoke
77. When greenish yellow flames are seen in the fire, what material is being burned?
a. Petroleum products c. Asphalt shingles
b. Chorine of manganese d. Potassium
78. When this constitutes most of the combustible material in the fire it produces bright
reddish yellow flames.
b. Calcium d. Potassium
79. When black smoke with red and blue-green flames is visible in the fire, it indicates
that this material is burning.
b. Chorine of manganese d. Potassium
80. When potassium is used as a combustible material what would be the visible color of
the flame?
a. Purple c. Lavender
b. Violet d. Any of the three
III. VICE CONTROL
1. Prosecuting vice operators poses a severe problem in the enforcement of vice laws
primarily because of:
a. People enjoy engaging in vices
b. Public apathy and indifference
c. It is very hard to get witnesses due to people’s fear of becoming involved in the
litigation and trial.
d. Unwilling government officials to work against vice operations
2. A treatment for alcoholics which calls for hospitalization and is costly due to the
administration of nauseating drugs.
a. Program for alcoholic’s anonymous c. Psychotherapy method
b. Therapeutic method d. Aversion treatment
3. A degree of intoxication wherein the subject is in a state of unconsciousness or in

stupor condition.
a. Coma c. Drunk
b. Very drunk d. Moderate inebriation
4. A method of treatment for alcoholics which aims at eliminating emotional

tensions of the patient which led to their alcoholism.
a. Aversion method c. Psychotherapy method
b. Therapeutic method d. Program for alcoholic anonymous
5. A person who acts as agents of prostitution.

a. Prostitute c. Pimp
b. Whore d. Madam
6. The increase of prostitution is directly proportional with this problem.

a. Rising number of broken homes
b. Increased white slave trade
c. Rising number of organized crimes
d. Spread of sexually transmitted/venereal diseases
7. Persons who engage in discriminate sexual intercourse with others for hire or
compensation.
a. Call girls c. Factory girls
b. Prostitutes d. Pimps
8. This method calls for public licensing of houses of prostitution, the registration of
its workers and segregation of brothels in restricted districts.
a. Aversion method c. School of total repression
b. School of regulatory control d. Sanitation method
9. This method believes that prostitution is a crime and is to be prohibited, thus it

calls for making it unlawful for both the prostitute and customer to engage in such acts.
b. School of regulatory control d. All of these
10. A French inspired method wherein it is aimed at preventing prostitution to be

engaged in clandestine manner and accepting its existence and the improbability of
eradicating prostitution.
b. School of regulatory control d. Napoleon method
11. Agency which controls and regulates gambling games.

a. PCSO c. DTI
b. PAGCOR d. Gambling lords
12. Refers to a scheme wherein persons have paid valuable consideration for a chance
to obtain a prize.
a. Jueteng c. Topada
b. Lottery d. Bingo
13. A consideration placed on gambling games.
a. Bet c. Reward
b. Price d. All of these
14. Another name for cocaine.

a. Coke c. Crack
b. Horse d. Dolly
15. A medical service rendered to a patient which deals with the physical and
physiological complications arising from drug abuse.
a. Rehabilitation c. Therapy
b. Treatment d. All of these
16. A dynamic process aimed at changing a patient’s health and giving his fullest
potential without the use of drugs or medicine.
b. Treatment d. All of the foregoing
17. The process of gradually depriving drugs from the point of habituation until such
time he is no longer hooked on the substance.
b. Treatment d. Withdrawal method
18. An adaptive condition which results from repeated drug use.

a. Drug dependence c. Withdrawal period
b. Physical dependence d. Poly drug abuse
19. An alkaloid of opium after morphine which has limited use as a pain killer and
more popularly used as a cough syrup and is quite addictive.
a. Heroine c. Codeine
b. Cocaine d. Shabu
20. The psychoactive ingredient in Marijuana which causes the high or trip of its
users.
a. Papaver somniferum c. Opium poppy
b. Hashish d. Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)
21. Obtained from Indian hemp known as “Cannabis Sativa”, which is a shrub which
grows on tropic and temperate regions.
a. Marijuana c. Cocaine
b. Opium d. Shabu
22. Obtained from a female poppy plant known as “Papaver Somniferum” derived
from a Greek word which means juice.
b. Opium d. Shabu
23. Named after the Greek God of dreams, it is obtained from opium.
a. Heroin c. Hasish
b. Morphine d. Cocaine
24. The most powerful derivative from the Papaver Somniferum, it has no medicinal
value.
a. Opium c. Morphine
b. Heroin d. Cocaine
25. Also known as pot, grass, weed, dope, Thai stick or Acapulco gold it resembles
dried parsley mixed with stems and seeds, and is either eaten or smoked.
a. Marijuana c. Shabu
b. Hasish d. THC
26. It causes nausea, sneezing, nosebleed, loss of appetite, fatigue and lack of
coordination.
a. Inhalants c. Stimulants
b. Depressants d. Barbiturates
27. It resembles a coagulated soap, light brown in color which is smoked and often
packaged in small vials.
a. Hasish c. Shabu
b. Marijuana d. Crack or Freebase
28. A drug which takes the form of capsules, pills and tablets, taken orally and
sometimes injected, its common names are speed, Pep pills, Footballs, Shabu and Uppers.
a. Amphetamine c. Methamphetamine
b. Hallucinogens d. Stimulants
29. Known commonly as smack, horse, junk, brown sugar, black tar, it is a powdered
substance which may either be injected, smoked or taken orally.
a. Heroin c. Mescaline
b. Cocaine d. Opium
30. It produces altered perception, slurred-speech, staggering gait and can produce
calmness and relaxed muscles.
a. Hallucinogens c. Depressants
b. Stimulants d. Sedatives
31. Most effective way of regulating vices.

a. Continued police action by relentless drives in vice control
b. Sincere and honest law enforcement
c. Both a and b
d. None of the foregoing
32. Refers to persons who after prolonged and excessive intake of alcoholic
beverages develop physical and psychological changes and dependence to alcohol.
a. Alcoholics c. Drunkard
b. Liquor addicts d. Chronic alcoholics
33. A fermented juice or product of fruit or plants which contains alcohol.

a. Liquor c. Booze
b. Wine d. Vodka
34. Refers to a person who manages or owns houses of ill refute whereby the
business of prostitution is conducted.
a. Operator c. Mama
b. Banker d. Pimp
35. Refers to a person who engages in sexual intercourse with another for hire.
a. Prostitute c. Knockers
b. Whores d. All of the foregoing
36. The procurement and transportation of women from far flung places for immoral
purposes.
a. White slavery c. Organized crimes
b. Prostitution d. All of the foregoing
37. This place usually lodges several number of factory girls or professional
prostitutes under the control of an organized crime ring.
a. Disorderly houses c. Call houses
b. Furnished room houses d. Massage clinics
38. Refers to prostitutes who works in regular homes of prostitution or brothels, she
accepts all customers and has nothing to do with selecting or soliciting them.
a. Door knocker c. Hustler
b. Call girl d. Factory girls
39. Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the means with which to carry on
the gambling game.
a. Maintainer c. Banker
b. Conductor d. Gullible person
40. Anti gambling law

a. PD 1869 c. PD 1602
b. PD 1612 d. PD 1866
41. Social causes of prostitution are the following, except:

a. Broken families c. Anonimity of city life
b. Poverty d. All of the foregoing
42. Refers to persons having no apparent means of subsistence.
a. Gambler c. Vagrants
b. Prostitute d. None of these
43. Penalty provided for by law which punishes white slave trade.
a. Prision correccional c. Reclusion temporal
b. Prison mayor d. Reclusion perpetua
44. A person who manages or carries a gambling game.

a. Maintainer c. Banker
b. Conductor d. Operator
45. Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to maintain the same effect.
a. Tolerance c. Poly drug abuse
b. Physical dependence d. Drug experimenter
46. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of potent Cannabis Sativa.
a. Marijuana c. Opium
b. Hashish d. Morphine
47. Derived from the Greek word “Narkotikos”, meaning sleep, what is the other term
given to narcotics?
a. Opium c. Morphine
b. Opiates d. Heroin
48. It is the psychoactive agent of Marijuana.

a. Tetrahyrocannabinol c. Papaver somniferum
b. Cannabis sativa d. Methamphetamine
49. Codeine which is an alkaloid of opium is primarily used as :

a. Pain killer c. Stimulant
b. Cough reliever d. Depressant
50. Who among the following acts as the chairman of the DDB?
a. Secretary of Justice c. Secretary of Education
b. Secretary of National Defense d. Secretary of Health
51. Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning walking drug, it was brought to the
Philippines by a Japanese tourist.
a. Marijuana c. Shabu
b. Cocaine d. Opium
52. The most potent derivative from opium.

a. Codeine c. Morphine
b. Cocaine d. Heroin
53. Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant cultivated in Bolivia and first used by
the Incas of Peru.
a. Tetrahydrocannabinol c. Amphetamine
b. Papaver somniferum d. Erythroxylon coca
54. The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical name is “Methy Dioxy
Methamphetamine”.
a. Chomper c. Shabu
b. Ecstacy d. Heroin
55. Illegal drugs modified molecularly by chemists to circumvent legal restrictions.

a. Designer drugs c. Amphetamines
b. Hallucinogens d. Methamphetamines
56. A law which prohibits government officials to enter and gamble in Philippine
casinos.
a. PD 1602 c. PD 510
b. PD 1869 d. PD 483
57. Office that controls and regulates gambling.

a. PAGCOR c. PACC
b. PCGG d. Office of the first gentleman
58. A scheme or distribution of prizes by chance among persons who have paid or
agreed to pay a valuable consideration for the chance to obtain a prize.
a. Gambling c. Lottery
b. Sport d. All of these
59. A bet or consideration placed on gambling games.

a. Wage c. Prize
b. Wager d. Banker
60. Principal alkaloid of opium which constitute as much as 25% of the substance:
a. Hashish c. Morphine
b. Codeine d. Heroin
61. Amphetamine is a representative of good class of stimulants known as:

a. Crank c. Knock-out drops
b. Pep pills d. Stick
62. Agency which supervises the enforcement of law on prohibited and regulated
drugs.
a. PDEA c. PACC
b. NBI d. PNP
63. Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind
with delusions.
a. Narcotics c. Depressants
b. Stimulants d. Hallucinogens
64. Chemical substance which affects a person in such a way as to bring out
physiological, behavioral or emotional change.
a. Alcohol c. Drug
b. Coca leaf d. Marijuana
65. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional change, thought
disruption and ego distortion.
a. Depressants c. Hallucinogens
b. Tranquilizers d. Stimulants
66. An immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity,

wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
a. Abuse c. Addiction
b. Vice d. Gambling
67. A person who calls and takes bets from gamecock owners and other bettors.
a. Promoter c. Banker
b. “Cristo” d. Gambler
68. Most common problem encountered by the police in vice control measures:
a. Unwillingness of government officials to work against vices
b. Lack of cooperation from the victims of vices
c. Public apathy
d. Clandestine nature of the commission of the acts
69. The process of undergoing or producing gradual chemical change which later
becomes sour or alcoholic.
a. Distillation c. Ionization
b. Fermentation d. Purification
70. A degree of intoxication wherein the person becomes argumentative and over
confident.
a. Slight inebriation c. Drunk
b. Moderate inebriation d. Coma
71. This degree of intoxication causes reddening of the face, but no sign of
incoordination and difficulty of speech.
a. Slight inebriation c. Drunk
b. Moderate inebriation d. Coma
72. This method of therapy for alcoholics is based on conversion and fellowship.
a. Aversion treatment c. Withdrawal method
b. Psychotherapy method d. Program for alcoholic anonymous
73. Oldest profession known to man which involves habitual indulgement in sexual
intercourse for money or profit.
a. Gambling c. Addiction
b. Prostitution d. Stealing
74. Classy type of prostitute who engages in prostitution to supplement their income.
a. Call girls c. Hustler
b. Factory girls d. Door knocker
75. Usually operated by experienced madam, who rent legitimate roomers to maintain
an appearance of responsibility.
a. Disorderly houses c. Call houses
b. Furnished room houses d. Massage clinics
76. The Golden triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the world originated is located
specifically in:
a. Thailand-Burma-China border
b. Laos-Thailand-China border
c. Thailand-Burma-Laos border
d. Burma-Vietnam-Thailand border
77. Grass or marijuana, is a crude drug made from Cannabis Sativa a plant that
contains meal altering ingredient. Which among the following is not an immediate effect
of weed?
a. Moderate heart beat and pulse rate
b. Impaired reflexes coordination and concentration
c. Acute panic, anxiety reaction –external fear of losing control
d. Altered sense of time/disorientation
78. A drug obtained from the leaves of coca, a South American shrub. It is a central
nervous system stimulant.
b. Shabu d. Opiates
79. A game or scheme the result of which depends wholly upon chance or hazard.
a. Gambling c. Tupada
b. Sports d. Bingo
80. Study reveal that the reason why “Marijuana” is difficult to control is that:
a. The big demand
b. The plant can be easily cultivated
c. Can easily be smuggled from outside the country
d. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously
81. Another term for Heroin:
a. PCP c. Blue heaven
b. Red Dragon d. Horse
82. Drugs that produce persistent memory loss, speech difficulties and self-inflicted
injuries.
b. Stimulants d. Narcotics
83. Most abused form of tranquilizers, taken orally and comes in tablets.
a. Valium c. Miltown
b. Serax d. Equanil
84. Its effects are similar to that of alcohol, can produce calmness and relaxed
muscles.
b. Stimulants d. Narcotics
85. Most common form of stimulant.

a. Cocaine c. Morphine
b. Heroin d. Codeine
86. One who originally use any narcotic substance for reason of curiosity, peer
pressure or other similar reasons.
a. Drug dependant c. Polydrug abuse
b. Drug addict d. Drug experimenter
87. A state of physical dependence on dangerous drug arising in a person following a

periodic or continuous use of that drug.
a. Drug addiction c. Drug abuse
b. Drug experimentation d. Drug dependence
88. A state of chronic or periodic intoxication detrimental to the individual and

society at large produced by repeated drug consumption.
a. Drug addiction c. Drug abuse
b. Drug experimentation d. Drug dependence
89. Opium which is derived from the Greek word meaning juice, is derived from what
plant?
a. Papaver somniferum c. Erythroxylon coca
b. Cannabis sativa d. Indian hemp
90. Low grade methamphetamine.

a. Shabu c. Lahar
b. Bato d. Katorse
91. Cocaine, Amphetamine, Caffeine and nicotine are drugs that affect the central
nervous system causing alertness, cub hunger and make the user awake. They are
classified as:
b. Stimulants d. Barbiturates
92. They are drugs which cause distortion of perception of time and space its common
forms are marijuana, Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), Ecstacy, PCP, Peyote and
Psilocybin.
93. Are drugs that cause the body system of the user to relax, to which narcotics,
barbiturates, tranquilizers, inhalants, solvents and alcohol belong.
94. Which among the following is a factor that contributes to the effects of drugs in the
body system of the user?
a. Amount of drug taken c. Mood of the user
b. Environment where the drug is taken d. All of these
95. Which among the following is classified as psychoactive drugs?

a. Hallucinogens (all arounders) c. Depressants (downers)
b. Stimulants (uppers) d. All of these
96. Refers to the sale, distribution, supply or transport of legitimately imported, in-transit,
manufactured or procured controlled precursors and essential chemicals, in diluted,
mixtures or in concentrated form, to any person or entity engaged in the manufacture of
any dangerous drug, and shall include packaging, repackaging, labeling, relabeling or
concealment of such transaction through fraud, destruction of documents, fraudulent use
of permits, misdeclaration, use of front companies or mail fraud.
a. Clandestine laboratory c. Controlled delivery
b. Chemical diversion d. Cultivate
97. Refers to any act of knowingly planting, growing, raising, or permitting the planting,
growing or raising of any plant which is the source of a dangerous drug.
a. Clandestine laboratory c. Controlled delivery
b. Chemical diversion d. Cultivate or culture
98. A place where any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical
is administered, delivered, stored for illegal purposes, distributed, sold or used in any
form.
a. Dive c. Resort
b. Den d. All of these
99. A coddler or protector who knowingly and willfully consents to any violations of the
Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 (RA 9165) is punished with an
imprisonment of 12 years and 1 day to twenty years plus a fine ranging from 100,000 to
________.
a. 300,000 c. 1,000,000
b. 500,000 d. 2,000,000
100. For possession of dangerous drugs in the following quantity, regardless of the
degree of purity thereof: (1) 10 grams or more of opium; (2) 10 grams or more of
morphine; (3) 10 grams or more of heroin; (4) 10 grams or more of cocaine or cocaine
hydrochloride; (5) 50 grams or more of methamphetamine hydrochloride or "shabu"; (6)
10 grams or more of marijuana resin or marijuana resin oil; (7) 500 grams or more of
marijuana; and (8) 10 grams or more of other dangerous drugs such as, but not limited to,
methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDA) or "ecstasy", paramethoxyamphetamine
(PMA), trimethoxyamphetamine (TMA), lysergic acid diethylamine (LSD), gamma
hydroxyamphetamine (GHB) the law imposes a penalty of life imprisonment to death and
a fine ranging from 500,000 to _____________.
a. 1,000,000 c. 5,000,000
b. 2,000,000 d. 10,000,000
101. Under RA 9165, any person charged for any violation of the comprehensive
dangerous drugs act regardless of the imposable penalty shall not be allowed to avail of
the provision on plea-bargaining. This statement is;
a. Partly False c. False
b. Partly True d. True
102. The policy-making and strategy-formulating body in the planning and formulation
of policies and programs on drug prevention and control. It shall develop and adopt a
comprehensive, integrated, unified and balanced national drug abuse prevention and
control strategy. It shall be under the Office of the President.
a. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency c. Department of Health
b. Dangerous Drugs Board d. NAPOLCOM
103. Under the law, he serves as permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drugs Board
while serving their tenure.
a. PNP Chief c. DILG Secretary
b. Director of the NBI d. Both A and BA
104. For the purpose of establishing adequate drug rehabilitation center in the country,
the PAGCOR is mandated by law to provide ______ million a month to the PDEA and
the DDB.
a. One c. Four
b. Two d. Five
105. Preliminary investigations for cases involving violations to the comprehensive
dangerous drugs board shall be terminated within a period of ____ days from the date of
their filing.
a. 5 c. 15
b. 10 d. 30
106. Any substance that directly alters the normal functioning of the central nervous
system.
a. Dangerous drugs c. Regulated drugs
b. Prohibited Drugs d. Psychoactive drugs
107. Refer to the combined effects of the abused drugs taken by the user.
a. Tolerance c. Withdrawal sickness
b. Synergistic effects d. All of these
108. Also known as paregoric, dakers powder and parapectolin.

a. Codeine c. Heroin
b. Opium d. Methadone
109. Also known as horse, brown sugar, junk, mud, black tar, smoke.
b. Opium d. Methadone
110. Pectoral syrup or sweet amorphous refers to;

b. Opium d. Morphine
IV. TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION
1. Yardstick of an effective traffic law enforcement program.

a. Smooth traffic flow
b. Increased traffic enforcement action
c. Less traffic law enforcement officers deployed with the same output
d. Reduction of traffic accidents and delays
2. A suspected drunk driver should undergo this last test.

a. Pupils of the eyes c. Breath test
b. Walking and turning d. Balance test
3. When a traffic officer halts a driver for traffic violation, the remark “do you know
why I called your attention” should be avoided, mainly because:
a. It implies corruption
b. It is a leading question
c. It is a presumption that it is a false arrest action
d. It invites a denial on the part of the traffic law violator.
4. A traffic patrol not engaged in taking action against a particular violator; should
without any instruction:
a. Keep off congested routes but in a location to spot traffic violations
b. Park in position visible to motorists to act as deterrent
c. Use its own discretion in achieving maximum efficiency
d. Maintain visible patrol continuously
5. Most common defect attributed to the human element in cases of traffic vehicular
accidents.
a. Intellectual c. Perceptual
b. Decision d. Attitudinal
6. This represents the ratio of traffic arrests, citations and warnings to the frequency of
traffic accidents.
a. Enforcement tax c. Non-index crime
b. Crime Index d. Crime rate
7. It is the sum of indulgence or restraint by the public in judging the reasonableness of

the traffic enforcement program.
a. Traffic tolerance c. Fair play enforcement
b. In the hole enforcement d. All of these
8. It refers to the practice of traffic law enforcers to hide in places where they await
traffic violations.
a. In the hole enforcement c. Fair play enforcement
b. Traffic tolerance d. None of these
9. The installation of traffic lights will logically result to a decrease in:

a. Accidents involving right of way c. Cross traffic accidents
b. Accidents of confusion d. Accidents due to drunk driving
10. Statistically it is considered as the most common reason for public utility vehicular
accidents.
a. Not observing the proper distance and following too close.
b. Unnecessary speed
c. Recklessness
d. Discussion regarding fare
11. A passenger AUV skidded on a wet pavement, injuring several bystanders in the
process. In making the report, apparent good condition should not be employed in
reference to.
a. The injured by-standers c. The driver
b. The brakes d. The tires
12. The predominant factor which causes traffic accidents.
a. Traffic educational background of the traffic law violators
b. Human behavior
c. Unsafe road conditions
d. Speeding
13. To best determine the proper distribution of personnel the best criterion would be the
number of:
a. Fatal accidents c. Accidents involving negligence
b. Reported accidents d. Amount of traffic using the public road
14. The standard behind selective enforcement in traffic control.

a. A warning for minor offenses
b. Direction of enforcement activities to areas prone to traffic danger
c. Selection of strategic areas for strict enforcement
d. Concentration of enforcement activities during peak traffic hours
15. The fundamental rule in traffic accident investigation.

a. Consider road conditions
b. Look for the key event
c. Consider the degree of damage or injury
d. Consider the violation of traffic law
16. In implementing new parking regulations it is most advisable to utilize.

a. Verbal warning c. Issue citation
b. Written warning d. Traffic arrest
17. It is considered as the most effective deterrent to traffic accidents.

a. Regular maintenance and check-up of the traffic units.
b. Increase insurance premium
c. Arrest and prosecution of traffic law violators
d. Decrease car insurance liability to a minimum
18. In Metro Manila the responsibility for developing traffic program primarily rest with:
a. Department of Transportation and Communication
b. Land Transportation Office
c. Metro Manila Development Authority
d. Land Transportation Franchising Regulatory Board
19. In the Independence Day parade, a traffic officer is instructed not to allow vehicles to
cross the route where the parade is to pass, however an ambulance vehicle with an injured
passenger is about to cross the route, the traffic law enforcement officer should:
a. Direct the driver to the nearest short cut without passing the route
b. Follow the order not to allow any vehicle to cross the route
c. Stop the parade to allow the ambulance to cross the street
d. Call his superior office for the prompt decision.
20. It has been observed that the intersection of Lacson and Dimasalang has more traffic
accidents than any other area in your jurisdiction, the traffic law enforcement officer
assigned in that area should be advised to:
a. Park near the intersection within view of passing vehicles to act as deterrent.
b. Park near the intersection hidden from view to surprise traffic law violators
c. Give an extra attention to the particular intersection but cruise all areas within his
jurisdiction.
d. Park his vehicle in the center of the intersection to help control and direct traffic flow.
21. Foremost among the preliminary action when the officer receives a call regarding the
occurrence of an accident.
a. Number of injured c. Name of the victim
b. Seriousness of the injury d. When and where the accident occurred
22. In interviewing persons involved in a traffic accident what is the primary

consideration to be taken by the police investigator.
a. Conduct each interview separately
b. Listen only to witnesses because they are not biased
c. Listen to both sides
d. Conduct the interview jointly
23. Skid marks as evidence in accident cases would show:

a. If the vehicle was traveling in the wrong direction or on the wrong side of the road.
b. If the driver failed to observe the right of way
c. If the driver did not obey the traffic signal
d. All of the foregoing
24. Refers to the distance traveled before applying the brakes.

a. Coefficient of friction c. Maximum accident speed
b. Drag factor d. Reaction time
25. The measurement of the maximum frictional resistance of pavements.

a. Skid marks c. Drag factor
b. Scuff marks d. Reaction time
26. When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection at the same time who shall yield
the right of way as a general rule.
a. The driver on the left c. The faster vehicle
b. The driver on the right d. The slower vehicle
27. An executive function, which includes planning, directing, organizing, supervising,

coordinating, operating, recording and budgeting the affairs of traffic.
a. Traffic management c. Traffic law enforcement
b. Traffic supervision d. All of these
28. Agency which regulates and prescribes transport routes for public utility vehicles.
a. LTFRB c. DOTC
b. LTO d. MMDA
29. A traffic control signal by which traffic is alternately commanded to stop and
permitted to proceed in accordance with a pre-determined time schedule.
a. Fixed time signal c. Alternative system
b. Simulated system d. Simple progressive system
30. Number of days which constitutes the physical cycle or man’s cycle of strength.
a. 21 c. 28
b. 23 d. 33
31. It refers to the right to proceed ahead of another vehicle or pedestrian?

a. Right-of-way c. Go
b. Last clear chance d. All of these
32. It is an accident wherein one or more person was seriously injured or has died as a
result of the mishap. In traffic accident investigation how is it classified?
a. 1 c. 4
b. 2 d. 5
33. It is an accident, which is always accompanied by an unidentified road user who

usually flees immediately after the said collision.
a. Hit and run accident c. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
b. Motor vehicle traffic accident d. Non motor vehicle non traffic accident
34. It refers to the separation of traffic units involved in a vehicular accident.

a. Final position c. Disengagement
b. Hazards d. Stopping
35. It is the place and time at which the normal person could perceive the unusual or
unexpected condition or movement.
a. Point of no escape c. Perception of hazards
b. Point of possible perception d. All of these
36. It is a regulation which prescribes proper conduct and decorum during confrontation
with or of traffic law
a. Memorandum circular 19-05 c. Memorandum circular 19-0005
b. Memorandum circular 19-005 d. Section 55 of R.A. 4136
37. In cases wherein a vehicle on the traffic way suddenly stopped due to engine failure.
What would be then duration period of the validity of the citation given by the enforcer?
a. 2 days c. 72 hours
b. 1 days d. 7 days
38. What refers to an occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces
unintended death, injury or property damage?
a. Motor vehicle traffic accident c. Non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
b. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident d. Accident
39. It is defined as telling the drivers and pedestrians when, how and where they may or
may not move or stand at a particular place.
a. Traffic supervision c. Traffic control
b. Traffic direction d. All of these
40. It is a means to control the movements of vehicles, pedestrians at certain point of a

certain area by mechanical objects or manpower.
a. Traffic supervision c. Traffic control
b. Traffic direction d. None of these
41. Prohibitive signs and restrictive signs shall have:

a. Green background with white and black symbols.
b. White background with black symbols and red border
c. Red background with white symbols and red border
d. Blue background and white symbols.
42. It refers to any motor vehicle accident occurring on a place other than traffic way.
a. Motor vehicle traffic accident
b. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
c. Non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
d. Non motor vehicle traffic accident
43. What are physical channels within the roadway, which are constructed to establish
physical channels thru which vehicular traffic is guided without the use of signals?
a. Traffic Signs c. Pavement markings
b. Traffic Islands d. Traffic signals
44. A term used to denote any vehicle used for commercial purposes without any
franchise.
a. Tricycle c. Mega taxi
b. FX d. Colorum
45. What is the real objective of traffic enforcement?

a. To apprehend traffic law violators
b. To improve safety traffic conditions
c. To change the wrong driving habits and attitude of violators
d. To prevent traffic accidents
46. Common cycle length is used at each intersection and the GO indications are given
independently in accordance to the time schedule designated o permit a continuous
movement of vehicles along the street at a designed speed.
a. Flexible progressive system c. Simulated system
b. Simple progressive system d. Alternative system
47. All signals along a given street always show the same indication at the same time.
a. Flexible progressive system c. Simulated system
b. Simple progressive system d. Alternative system
48. A power operated traffic control device by which traffic is warned or directed to take
some specific action.
a. Traffic signs c. Traffic islands
b. Warning lights d. Traffic light signals
49. Period of validity of a professional driver’s license which may be renewable every 3
birth months of succeeding years and automatically expires if not renewed on due date.
a. One year c. Three years
b. Two years d. Four years
50. Refers to seeing, feeling or hearing and understanding an unusual or unexpected

condition indicative of a sign that an accident might takes place.
a. Perception of hazard c. Initial contact
b. Start of evasive action d. Maximum engagement
51. In hit and run accident investigation, what should be the initial step or phase in the
investigative process?
a. Gather the evidences
b. Establish the identity of the persons involved
c. Cordon the area
d. Check the victims for injuries
52. Common type of thing carried away in cases of burglary and hit and run vehicular
accident.
a. Glass c. Hair
b. Blood d. Metal
53. All lines, patters, words, colors or other gadgets EXCEPT signs set into the surface or
applied upon or attached to the pavement or curbing officially place for the purpose of
regulating traffic is called.
a. Pavement markings c. Traffic signs
b. Traffic islands d. Traffic engineering
54. Any motor vehicle accident that result in injuries other than fatal to one or more
persons.
a. Non-fatal injury accident c. Fatal accident
b. Traffic accident d. Property damage accident
55. Refers to traffic signs intended to warn road users of special obligations.
a. Danger warning signs c. Informative signs
b. Regulatory signs d. Mandatory signs
56. It includes pedestrians, pedal cyclist, drivers and passengers utilizing the public roads.
a. Road users c. Traffic system
b. Road user system d. Enforcement system
57. Traffic warning, is an enforcement action which does not contemplate possible
assessments of penalty by the court or otherwise as a result of a warning alone. What
kind of activities it represents?
a. Preventive activities c. Persuasive activities
b. Punitive activities d. All of these
58. It refers to a dangerous conduct and attitude, which indicates lack of concern for
injurious consequences likely to result from such a behavior.
a. Drunk driving c. Reckless imprudence
b. Reckless driving d. Reckless negligence
59. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking for defects in the behavior of
the motorist, pedestrian, vehicles and roadway condition.
a. Apprehension c. Adjudication
b. Defection d. Prosecution
60. Hazardous traffic law violations are:

a. Unsafe condition and unsafe behavior c. Disregarding safety of others
b. Physically handicapped drivers d. Obstructions
61. The theory which asserts that man exhibits a constant variation of life energy and
mood state.
a. Biorhythm c. Right of way
b. Last clear chance d. None of the foregoing
62. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces in contact is known
as:
a. Attribute c. Contact damage
b. Traffic jam d. Coefficient of friction
63. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or otherwise
to avoid hazard.
a. Final position c. Start of evasive action
b. Point of possible perception d. Point of no escape
64. Key to determining which traffic unit first tried to prevent the motor vehicle accident,
this marking is made while the wheel is still turning.
a. Pavement markings c. Scuff marks
b. Skid marks d. All of these
65. As a rule, traffic control devices and aids have elementary requirements before they
are installed on the roadway, which among the following is not considered as a
requirement for such devices?
a. They should compel attention
b. They should convey meaning which are simple and easy to understand
c. They should command respect
d. They should not allow time for proper response
66. If a traffic law enforcer would decide to arrest a traffic law violator, what would not
be his basis for such action?
a. The offense is serious
b. Detention is necessary to avoid continued violation
c. There is a reasonable doubt that the person will appear in the court.
d. The offender would attend the hearing
67. What is the goal of Traffic safety education for drivers?

a. To give them the basics regarding traffic safety
b. To give them actual application of traffic safety knowledge
c. It is a pre-requisite for licenses
d. To impart traffic morality to drivers for safe movement on public roads
68. They are objects commonly left at the scene of the collision involved in accidents.
a. Debris c. Skid marks
b. Scuff marks d. Hazards
69. It is an enforcement action, wherein the violator is commanded to appear in court, but
without detaining him
a. Traffic arrest c. Traffic warning
b. Traffic citation d. All of these
70. It is the last part of the enforcement process wherein penalties are imposed by the
court to parties found guilty of an offense pertaining to traffic law violations.
a. Adjudication c. Penalization
b. Apprehension d. Prosecution
71. The greatest advance in land transportation after the sled was the _____ and
originated in the Tigris Euphrates valley about 3,500 B.C.
a. Feeder roads c. Wheel
b. Roads d. The harness
72. The credit of having invented the internal combustion engine was given to a
Frenchman named;
a. Napoleon Bonaparte c. Nicolas Otto
b. Etiene Leonir d. Gottlieb Daimler
73. The Romans brought road building to its peak of perfection in ancient times, hence
the saying “all roads, lead to _______.”
a. Forum c. Paris
b. Coliseum d. Rome
74. Refers to the main road as conduit system with a right of way ranging from 20 meters
to 120 meters.
a. Provincial roads c. City roads
b. National roads d. Municipal roads
75. Linkages between two municipalities with a right of way from 15 meters to 60
meters.
a. Provincial roads c. City roads
b. National roads d. Municipal roads
76. A road intended for farm to market traffic.

a. Local collector road c. Feeder road
b. Expressway d. Subway
77. A modern urban system of roadway above street level for free flow of traffic.
a. Expressway c. Skyway
b. Subway d. Major collector road
78. A road intended for free flow vehicular movement.

a. Expressway c. Skyway
b. Subway d. Subway
79. For private vehicles a green sticker is issued, for hire vehicles yellow, red for
government vehicles and _____ for diplomatic vehicles.
a. Pink c. Black
b. Blue d. Orange
80. For open country roads with no blind corners the maximum allowable speed is 80
km/h for passenger vehicles and motorcycles, 50 km/h for trucks and buses; for through
streets clear of traffic 40 km/h and 20 km/h respectively; for city and municipal streets 30
km/h and for through crowded streets approaching intersections at blind corners passing
school zones the maximum allowable speed is ___ km/h for both passenger cars,
motorcycles as well as trucks and buses.
a. 10 c. 20
b. 15 d. 25
V. COURT TESTIMONY
1. The relevance of the study of practice court is to criminology is:
a. Acquaintance with court room conduct and trial procedures
b. Familiarization with court personnel and legal forms
c. Train criminologist how to testify effectively and properly
d. All of the above
2. The usual role of police officers during judicial proceedings.

a. To protect the judge c. To protect the accused
b. To serve as a witness d. To act as an expert witness
3. This occurs when the judge enters the court room and the clerk or bailiff announces his
presence.
a. Roll call of cases c. Arraignment
b. Call to order d. Order of trial
4. When the call to order has been undertaken, it is an indication that:

a. All must rise c. The court is in session
b. All must be silent d. All of the above
5. Which among the following is not a court personnel?

a. Clerk of court c. Interpreter
b. Stenographer d. Policeman
6. His primary duty is to keep peace during trials.

a. Clerk of court c. Policeman
b. Bailiff d. Judge
7. The prosecutor in a criminal case would usually utter in roll call:

a. “For the accused your honor, ready”
b. “For the plaintiff your honor, ready”
c. “ For the people your honor, ready.”
d. “ For the state your honor, ready”
8. It is a list of cases usually placed or posted on the door of a trial court.

a. Roll call of cases c. Call to order
b. Calendar d. All of these
9. Trials and court sessions are usually:

a. Open to the public
b. Exclusive for the litigants
c. Exclusive to the litigants and their relatives
d. Open to the members of the bar
10. Before giving his testimony the witness must:

a. Undertake the witness oath c. Must pray for truthful answers
b. Must sign his affidavit d. Must pledge to tell the truth
11. When evidences are presented to the court, this constitutes.

a. Witness oath c. Roll call of cases
b. Call to order d. Marking of exhibits
12. A procedure wherein the case number is called and the litigants represented by
counsel should signify their readiness for trial.
a. Witness oath c. Roll call of cases
b. Call to order d. Marking of exhibits
13. Primary duty of the prosecutor.

a. To see to it that due process is observed
b. To acquit the accused
c. To prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt
d. To secure justice
14. He is the lawyer for the plaintiff.

a. Counsel de officio c. Public prosecutor
b. Private prosecutor d. All of the above
15. Another lawyer hired by the victim is designated as:
a. Counsel de officio c. Public prosecutor
b. Private prosecutor d. Counsel for the defense
16. When an objection has been made to the testimony of the witness and the judge
orders that it be sustained, the witness:
a. Is allowed to continue and answer
b. Is not allowed to answer the question directed by counsel
c. Is instructed to sit down
d. Is instructed to get out of the witness stand
17. The question, “when did you first meet the accused” is an example of a:
a. Direct examination c. Re-direct question
b. Cross examination d. Re-cross examination
18. After the evidence of the defense is presented, the next step for the order of trial is:
a. Evidence for the prosecution c. Sur-rebuttal evidence
b. Rebuttal evidence d. Cross examination
19. It is usually used to test the credibility of the witness and leading questions may be
allowed.
a. Direct examination c. Re-direct examination
20. It is used to establish facts wherein leading questions are not allowed.
a. Direct examination c. Re-direct examination
21. A person named and appointed by the court to defend an absentee defendant in suit
which the appointment is made.
a. Attorney at law c. Counsel de officio
b. Attorney ad Hoc d. Attorney of record
22. An attorney whose name must appear in the permanent record or file of the case.
a. Attorney at law c. Counsel de officio
b. Attorney ad Hoc d. Attorney of record
23. The counsel on either side of the litigated action who is charges with the principal
management and direction of party’s case.
a. Attorney in fact c. Lead Counsel
b. Attorney ad Hoc d. House counsel
24. Literally it means a friend of the court, a person with strong interest in or views on the
subject matter of an action but not a party to it.
a. Attorney in fact c. Counsel de officio
b. Amicus Curiae d. House counsel
25. A preliminary fee given to an attorney or counsel to insure and secure services and
induce him to act for the client.
a. General retainer c. Special retainer
b. Retaining fee d. Acceptance fee
VI. POLICE REPORT WRITING
1. This information is written on a need basis specifically when the commanding officer
has to know the actual circumstances of a particular incident which can be of public
interest.
a. Investigation report c. Spot report
b. Special report d. Situation report
2. Also known as an after patrol report, this is a common practice in station level.
a. Formal report c. Beat inspection report
b. Special report d. Situation report
3. Refers to an issuance intended to inform the majority in a particular directorate, not for
those in the field is:
a. Memorandum circular c. Office circulars
b. General circular d. Office orders
4. They usually contain administrative instructions which are advisory, directory or
informative in nature, general in application, requiring compliance by the personnel and
the general public and long term in duration.
a. Memorandum circular c. Office circulars
5. An administrative instruction which deals with subjects such as explanations or

classification of regulations and rules to be complied with by subordinates.
a. Memorandum circular c. Office circular
6. This written account is done after an important incident took place in a certain area
within 24 hours from occurrence.
a. Formal report c. Beat inspection report
b. Special/spot report d. Situation report
7. An accomplishment report is generally classified as:

a. Investigation report c. Progress report
b. Formal report d. Special report
8. They refer to sets of instructions regarding the course of action to be taken in a

particular situation followed on a routinary basis.
a. Letter orders c. Office orders
b. Letter directives d. Standing operating procedures
9. They refer to directives which usually affect the status of individuals such as
promotions, appointments, relief from duty, leave of absence, demotions and separation.
a. Letter orders c. Office orders
b. Special orders d. Standing operating procedures
10. They are primarily internal instructions, mandatory in character and regulatory in
nature.
a. Office circulars c. Letter orders
b. Office orders d. Letter directives
11. It is s considered as a name word?

a. Pronoun c. Nouns
b. Proper noun d. Consonant
12. Which of these words are commonly used as a predicate

a. Noun c. Adverb
b. Verb d. Adjective
13. In police investigative report writing, it is a must that you write it in the:
a. First person c. Third person
b. Second person d. Fourth person
14. If an adjective modifies a noun or a pronoun, the adverb is used to modify what part
of speech?
a. An adjective c. A verb
b. An adverb d. All of these
15. If A is used before the beginning of a consonant, what is used before a vowel?
a. A c. And
b. An d. At
16. Refers to a high social position or standing.

a. Seniority c. Rank
b. Privilege d. Status
17. Willful and deliberate betrayal of trust or confidence.

a. Treachery c. Cunning
b. Craft d. Dishonesty
18. Interruption or disturbance committed by three or more persons armed and provided
with a means of violence.
a. Band c. Tumultuous
b. Brigandage d. Rumble
19. Circumstance pertaining to the moral in order which adds disgrace and suffering to
the material injury caused by the crime.
a. Ignominy c. Unkindness
b. Cruelty d. Brutality
20. An act of any person who with intent to gain for himself or for another shall buy,
receive, possess, conceal, sell or dispose of any article, object or property which he
knows or ought to know to have been derived from the proceeds of a crime.
a. Robbery c. Estafa
b. Theft d. Fencing
21. An exact narrative of facts, discovered during the course of an investigation for
present or future use.
a. Initial report c. Final report
b. Progress report d. Police report
22. Report undertaken and submitted for solved cases or those classified as closed.
a. Initial report c. Final report
b. Progress report d. Police report
23. Magnitude
a. Size c. Strength
b. Degree d. Duration
24. Refers to the act of persuading the would be defendant into committing the offense.
a. Entrapment c. Unlawful arrest
b. Detention d. Instigation
25. History or family descent.

a. Family tree c. Heredity
b. Social history d. Pedigree
26. An agreement made by two or more parties.

a. Compromise c. Covenant
b. Proposal d. Contract
27. A set of belief held by a group.

a. Creed c. Principles
b. Doctrine d. Ideology
28. Mental capacity to distinguish what is right and wrong and to realize the
consequences of one’s unlawful acts.
a. Discernment c. Liability
b. Understanding d. Culpability
29. Scurrilous
a. Vulgar c. Rude
b. Discreet d. Cruelty
30. One’s inability to copulate

a. Impotence c. Lesbianism
b. Homo sexuality d. Abnormality
31. The correct choice of word selecting the exact precise objective words to convey a
meaning.
a. Exclamation point c. Vocabulary
b. Diction d. Exclamation point
32. The first basic step in writing police report.

a. Gather the facts c. Organize the facts
b. Record the facts d. Write the report
33. Administrative instructions which are directory, advisory or informative in nature,

more or less permanent in duration.
a. Circulars c. Memorandum
b. Office orders d. Issuance
34. Inter-office communications dealing with official matters. Interpreted in the simplest
way and the message are boiled down to the fewest word possible.
a. Circulars c. Memorandum
b. Office orders d. Issuance
35. In police investigative report writing, one must make use of what part of speech to
avoid redundancy?
a. Adverb c. Pronoun
b. Adjective d. Predicate
36. Hypothetical
a. Provable c. Exaggerated
b. Assumed d. Temporary
37. Temerity
a. Fear c. Arrogance
b. Rashness d. Force
38. Macho
a. Angry c. Stubborn
b. Assertive d. Heroic
39. A word or group of word that expresses a complete thought.

a. Sentence c. Subject
b. Phrase d. Verb
40. Subside
a. Undermine c. To yield
b. Decrease d. Descend upon
41. Also known as face sheets they are completed when the preliminary investigation
results in the conclusion that a crime occurred.
a. Clearance report c. Crime report
b. Arrest report d. Evidence report
42. A report which details the events which took place in the apprehension of a person.
43. A report which is used to document the disposition of a criminal case.

44. When the police respond to calls which is not crime related, they are to accomplish
this report.
b. Incident report d. Evidence report
45. A daily activity report is used to detail the location of the activity, its nature; time
spent and number of persons contacted is also known as;
a. Clearance report c. Daily activity report
46. The first sentence immediately at the beginning which is known as the main subject.
a. Police sentence c. Introductory sentence
b. Topic sentence d. None of these
47. A grammatically structured sentence with a subject and predicate using distinctive
police words, phrases and clauses without being too technical, vulgar or legal.
a. Police sentence c. Introductory sentence
b. Topic sentence d. None of these
48. A type of correspondence that offices and members of the police force subscribe to.
a. Routing slip c. Format
b. Action form d. All of these
49. Aimed primarily for transmitting papers from office to office

a. Routing slip c. Format
b. Action form d. All of these
50. The file reference itself.

a. Action form c. File number
b. Routing slip d. Subject
IV. CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION AND PRVENTION
Criminal and Special Crime Investigation:
1. D 21. C 41. A 61. A 81. D

2. B 22. D 42. B 62. A 82. D
3. A 23. C 43. B 63. B 83. A
4. B 24. A 44. C 64. C 84. C
5. D 25. A 45. D 65. A 85. D
6. C 26. C 46. B 66. A 86. C
7. A 27. A 47. D 67. C 87. A
8. D 28. C 48. B 68. C 88. D
9. A 29. A 49. A 69. C 89. A
10. A 30. C 50. D 70. B 90. C
11. B 31. A 51. D 71. B 91. C
12. C 32. D 52. D 72. B 92. D
13. C 33. C 53. D 73. A 93. B
14. D 34. B 54. B 74. A 94. C
15. A 35. D 55. C 75. A 95. D
16. B 36. C 56. C 76. A 96. C
17. C 37. A 57. C 77. A 97. C
18. A 38. A 58. D 78. D 98. D
19. C 39. A 59. A 79. A 99. B
20. D 40. C 60. D 80. C 100.C
Arson Investigation:
1. A 14. B 27. A 40. A 53. B 66. A 79. C

2. A 15. A 28. C 41. B 54. A 67. A 80. D
3. C 16. D 29. C 42. D 55. A 68. A
4. C 17. D 30. A 43. A 56. A 69. D
5. D 18. C 31. C 44. D 57. C 70. B
6. B 19. D 32. C 45. B 58. A 71. A
7. A 20. B 33. B 46. C 59. D 72. C
8. D 21. D 34. A 47. A 60. C 73. B
9. C 22. B 35. B 48. A 61. C 74. C
10. C 23. A 36. A 49. D 62. B 75. D
11. A 24. B 37. C 50. A 63. C 76. B
12. C 25. C 38. A 51. C 64. D 77. B
13. B 26. C 39. C 52. A 65. C 78. B
Vice Control:
1. C 21. A 41. D 61. B 81. D 101. D

2. D 22. B 42. C 62. A 82. A 102. B
3. A 23. A 43. A 63. A 83. A 103. D
4. C 24. B 44. B 64. C 84. C 104. D
5. C 25. A 45. A 65. A 85. A 105. D
6. D 26. A 46. B 66. B 86. D 106. D
7. B 27. D 47. B 67. A 87. D 107. B
8. B 28. A 48. A 68. D 88. A 108. B
9. C 29. A 49. B 69. B 89. A 109. C
10. B 30. C 50. D 70. B 90. C 110. D
11. B 31. C 51. C 71. A 91. B
12. B 32. D 52. D 72. D 92. A
13. A 33. B 53. D 73. B 93. C
14. A 34. A 54. B 74. A 94. D
15. B 35. D 55. A 75. A 95. D
16. A 36. A 56. B 76. C 96. B
17. D 37. A 57. A 77. A 97. D
18. B 38. D 58. C 78. C 98. D
19. C 39. A 59. B 79. A 99. B
20. D 40. C 60. C 80. A 100. D
Traffic Management and Accident Investigation:
1. D 14. B 27. A 40. C 53. C 66. D 79. B

2. D 15. B 28. A 41. B 54. A 67. D 80. C
3. D 16. C 29. A 42. B 55. B 68. A
4. D 17. C 30. B 43. B 56. B 69. B
5. D 18. C 31. A 44. D 57. C 70. C
6. A 19. C 32. D 45. C 58. B 71. C
7. A 20. C 33. A 46. B 59. B 72. B
8. A 21. D 34. C 47. C 60. A 73. D
9. A 22. A 35. B 48. D 61. A 74. B
10. A 23. D 36. C 49. C 62. D 75. A
11. B 24. D 37. D 50. A 63. C 76. C
12. B 25. C 38. D 51. D 64. B 77. C
13. B 26. A 39. B 52. A 65. D 78. A
Practice Court:
1. D 6. B 11. D 16. B 21. B

2. B 7. B 12. C 17. A 22. D
3. B 8. B 13. C 18. B 23. C
4. C 9. A 14. C 19. B 24. B
5. D 10. A 15. B 20. A 25. B
Police Report Writing:

1. D 9. B 17. A 25. D 33. C 41. C 49. A
2. C 10. B 18. C 26. A 34. A 42. B 50. C
3. C 11. C 19. A 27. B 35. C 43. A
4. B 12. B 20. D 28. A 36. B 44. B
5. A 13. C 21. D 29. A 37. B 45. C
6. B 14. D 22. C 30. A 38. B 46. B
7. C 15. B 23. A 31. C 39. A 47. A
8. D 16. C 24. A 32. A 40. B 48. B
V. CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS AND HUMAN RELATIONS
Criminal Sociology
1. A 21. D 41. B 61. A 81. C 101. C 121. A
2. B 22. A 42. C 62. A 82. A 102. A 122. B
3. C 23. B 43. B 63. B 83. B 103. D 123. A
4. B 24. B 44. A 64. C 84. B 104. A 124. B
5. A 25. A 45. D 65. C 85. D 105. C 125. D
6. A 26. A 46. B 66. A 86. B 106. C 126. C
7. B 27. A 47. A 67. D 87. B 107. B 127. B
8. C 28. B 48. B 68. B 88. C 108. A 128. C
9. D 29. B 49. C 69. A 89. A 109. D 129. A
10. A 30. C 50. B 70. D 90. A 110. B 130. B
11. C 31. A 51. B 71. D 91. A 111. B
12. A 32. D 52. B 72. C 92. B 112. A
13. A 33. B 53. C 73. B 93. B 113. D
14. A 34. C 54. D 74. D 94. C 114. B
15. D 35. D 55. A 75. C 95. C 115. B
16. A 36. D 56. A 76. A 96. C 116. D
17. D 37. A 57. B 77. B 97. D 117. D
18. C 38. D 58. D 78. A 98. A 118. D
19. B 39. B 59. C 79. A 99. B 119. D
20. C 40. C 60. B 80. C 100. A 120. C
Ethics
1. A 16. A 31. D 46. C 61. C 76. A
2. D 17. D 32. B 47. C 62. C 77. C
3. C 18. C 33. C 48. B 63. A 78. C
4. C 19. D 34. C 49. B 64. C 79. A
5. D 20. D 35. A 50. D 65. A 80. B
6. B 21. A 36. C 51. A 66. C 81. C
7. B 22. C 37. C 52. D 67. D 82. D
8. D 23. C 38. D 53. C 68. D 83. A
9. B 24. A 39. B 54. D 69. D 84. A
10. C 25. C 40. A 55. A 70. A 85. C
11. B 26. B 41. B 56. D 71. D 86. C
12. A 27. B 42. A 57. B 72. A 87. C
13. C 28. C 43. D 58. B 73. C 88. D
14. D 29. C 44. B 59. C 74. B 89. B
15. B 30. A 45. A 60. D 75. C 90. B
Juvenile Delinquency
1. D 11. B 21. B 31. B 41. C 51. B 61. D
2. D 12. B 22. A 32. A 42. B 52. B 62. B
3. D 13. D 23. B 33. B 43. C 53. A 63. B
4. D 14. C 24. A 34. A 44. D 54. D 64. B
5. D 15. C 25. B 35. C 45. A 55. D 65. B
6. A 16. A 26. B 36. B 46. A 56. B 66. B
7. A 17. B 27. C 37. B 47. A 57. A 67. B
8. A 18. C 28. C 38. D 48. D 58. D 68. D
9. A 19. C 29. A 39. C 49. C 59. B 69. B
10.A 20. C 30. A 40. B 50. B 60.A 70. A
Human Behavior and Crisis Management

1. A 13. A 25. B 37. A 49. B 61. B
2. B 14. C 26. A 38. B 50. A 62. B
3. B 15. B 27. D 39. A 51. C 63. B
4. D 16. B 28. C 40. D 52. A 64. B
5. D 17. D 29. B 41. B 53. C 65. A
6. B 18. D 30. D 42. C 54. C 66. B
7. D 19. A 31. D 43. A 55. B 67. D
8. C 20. D 32. B 44. A 56. B 68. B
9. B 21. B 33. A 45. B 57. B 69. B
10. D 22. A 34. A 46. A 58. B 70. D
11. A 23. C 35. A 47. D 59. A
12. C 24. D 36. B 48. A 60. B
Criminal Justice System
1. A 11. B 21. B 31. D 41. A 51. A

2. A 12. A 22. C 32. B 42. B 52. B
3. A 13. A 23. A 33. A 43. B 53. C
4. D 14. B 24. C 34. A 44. B 54. D
5. D 15. A 25. C 35. A 45. B 55. B
6. C 16. A 26. D 36. D 46. B 56. A
7. A 17. B 27. D 37. A 47. B 57. C
8. B 18. A 28. D 38. A 48. D 58. A
9. A 19. B 29. C 39. D 49. B 59. A
10. A 20. A 30. A 40. B 50. C 60. B
Seminar on Contemporary Police Problems

1. D 6. D 11. B 16. B 21. B 26. D 31. D
2. B 7. C 12. C 17. C 22. A 27. A 32. A
3. A 8. B 13. A 18. B 23. A 28. B 33. B
4. A 9. A 14. C 19. A 24. D 29. C 34. C
5. A 10. A 15. B 20. C 25. B 30. B 35. B

Crime Detection Q and A0001

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CRIME DETECTION, PREVENTION AND INVESTIGATION

Scope: Concepts and principles of criminal investigation; modern techniques in crime

1. The method of operation which will enable investigators to a pattern of criminal

6. He undertook the first definitive study of fingerprints and developed a method of

8. In the techniques employed in interrogation, which of the foregoing is not utilized by

10. He was considered as the father of modern toxicology.

18. A type of informant reveals information usually of no consequences of stuff

33. A declaration made under the consciousness of an impending death.

34. Principles of science applied to law enforcement.

35. Evidence which offers least resistance to decomposition.

36. Refers to criminals whose identity are furnished by eye witnesses.

38. Criminals whose identity may be established background identification.

40. Type of shadowing where constant surveillance is necessary.

41. The best way to label clothing to be used as evidence is:

45. Shadowing has the following purposes, except:

49. A type of informant who reveals information usually of no consequence of stuff

52. Special crime investigation is more concerned on:

53. Is a person who provides an investigator with confidential information concerning a

54. Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge information.

55. A compilation of photographs of known criminals, utilized in investigation for

57. The explanation of any symbols used to identify objects in a sketch.

60. The primary consideration in transporting evidences.

61. General rule in handling evidences.

63. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to preserve the specimen?

64. It is the surprise invasion of a building or an area.

65. Primary requisite for conducting raids.

76. Most common reason in discharging informants.

77. Object usually utilized in marking hard objects.

78. A form of investigation in which an investigator assumes a different and unofficial

79. Interrogation fitted for subjects who are willing to talk.

82. Paid informants.

83. Most common type of shadowing.

85. Instrumental detection of deception.

87. The circumstances which must occur to be classified as a crime.

88. Most common motive in committing a crime.

89. They assume jurisdiction in terms of conducting crime scene investigations.

II. ARSON INVESTIGATION

4. Blue flames usually indicate the presence of _______, in a fire.

5. This usually indicates the intensity of the fire.

7. Most common motive in arson cases.

8. A rare fire usually occurring in manufacturing facilities wherein the combustible

10. Commonly referred to as an electrical fire.

12. Class A fires may be extinguished by:

14. Excess heat energy liberated by an oxidation reaction is called____.

15. The minimum temperature at which a fuel will burn is:

16. Instrument used to open/close fire hydrants.

21. An exothermic chemical change in which a combustible material react with an

22. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light.

23. A chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat.

29. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to start a fire.

30. Refers to gases liberated by heat.

33. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.

35. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it is a result of a sudden

37. Reason why fire investigation is unique.

38. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.

39. A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat and oxygen.

42. It is the amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid.

43. Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or natural cracking of hydrogen in