Equity Level II 2019 Practice
Equity Level II 2019 Practice
Equity Level II 2019 Practice
Miranda Mendosa, equity analyst at San Antonio Investment Research Group (SIRG),
begins valuing Premier Riverboats, Inc. (PRBI), a thinly and infrequently traded stock on
a regional stock exchange.
For estimating PRBI’s required return on equity, Mendosa uses the capital asset pricing
model (CAPM) approach; however, she thinks its own equity beta of 1.20 is not very
reliable because of the stock’s extremely thin trading volume. Therefore, she obtains the
beta and other pertinent data for Supreme River Navigators Co. (SRNC) (see Exhibit 1),
a midsized company in the same industry with high market liquidity trading on the
NASDAQ, and re-levers it to reflect PRBI’s financial leverage.
EXHIBIT 1
COMPARATIVE DATA FOR VALUATION
Dividends and earnings growth rate over next 10 years (i.e., Years 1 to 10) 15.00%
WACC 10.60%
Q. Using the data in Exhibit 1, Mendosa's estimate of PBRI's beta is closest to:
A. 1.20.
B. 0.96.
C. 0.80.
Solution
C is correct. First, use SRNC’s data to find its unlevered equity beta. Next, use SRNC’s
unlevered beta and PRBI's debt ratio to find PRBI's equity beta. The formulas are as
follows:
Unleveredbeta:βu= 11+(0.600.40)
1.60=0.64Unleveredbeta:βu=[11+(0.600.40)]1.60=0.64
PRBI’s debt ratio of 0.20 means (D'/E') = (0.20/0.80)
Re leveredbeta:β′
E=[1+(0.200.80)]0.64=0.80Re leveredbeta:β'E=[1+(0.200.80)]0.64=0.80
B is incorrect because it does not go beyond the computation of unlevered beta
Q. Using the data in Exhibit 2, the estimate of PRBI’s present value of growth
opportunities (PVGO) is closest to:
1. $20.57.
2. $27.02.
3. $40.34.
Solution
A is correct. Using the PVGO and assuming that the company has no positive NPV
projects:
PVGO Model:
E1/r+PVGO=$70=[($5.33×
V0V0 =
1.15)/0.124]+PVGOE1/r+PVGO=$70=[($5.33×1.15)/0.124]+PVGO
$70$70 = $49.43+PVGO$49.43+PVGO
PVGOPVGO = $70 $49.43=$20.57$70 $49.43=$20.57
B is incorrect because it uses E0 instead of E1: $70 = ($5.33/0.124) + PVGO = $42.98;
PVGO = $27.02
C is incorrect because it uses dividends instead of earnings.
$70$70 = [(5.33×0.60×1.15)/0.124]+PVGO[(5.33×0.60×1.15)/0.124]+PVGO
$70$70 = $29.65+PVGO$29.65+PVGO
PVGOPVGO = $70 $29.65$70 $29.65
= $40.35$40.35
($3.20×1.04)+[$3.20×5×(0.15 0.04)]0.124
V0V0 =
0.04($3.20×1.04)+[$3.20×5×(0.15 0.04)]0.124 0.04
= $3.33+$1.760.084$3.33+$1.760.084
= $60.60$60.60
A is incorrect because it starts with D1 instead of D0.
($3.20×1.15)+[$3.20×5×(0.15 0.04)]0.124
V0V0 =
0.04($3.20×1.15)+[$3.20×5×(0.15 0.04)]0.124 0.04
= $3.68+$1.760.084$3.68+$1.760.084
= $64.76$64.76
B is incorrect because it uses WACC instead of the required return on equity.
($3.20×1.04)+[$3.20×5×(0.15 0.04)]0.106
V0V0 =
0.04($3.20×1.04)+[$3.20×5×(0.15 0.04)]0.106 0.04
= $3.33+$1.760.066$3.33+$1.760.066
= $77.12$77.12
Q. Using the data in Exhibit 3, Raman’s estimate of the contribution that the terminal
value of the residual income stream in 5 years will contribute to the current value of
equity (in $ millions) is closest to:
A. $48.82.
B. $61.91.
C. $42.25.
Solution
A is correct. Using a multi-stage residual income model and the data in Exhibit 3:
1 $5.40 $4.80
2 $6.21 $4.92
3 $7.14 $5.03
4 $8.21 $5.15
5 $9.44 $5.26
$25.16
TV
$9.44 $42.45
$67.61
B is incorrect because it uses the Year 0 residual income as Year 1---one year timing
difference.
Year PVs
Incorrect with WACC
1 $5.61
2 $5.84
3 $6.07
4 $6.31
5 $6.56
$30.40
TV
$61.91
V0 $92.31
Q. Silver’s note about the relevance of Wolff’s prior experience when valuing Amalthea
for acquisition most likely arises because his prior appraisals:
A. also required applying both types of comparative valuations.
B. only required an appraisal of a company’s value in liquidation.
C. led to greater familiarity with appraising firms in their development stage.
Solution
A is correct. Wolff has prior experience as a bankruptcy analyst. For companies
operating under bankruptcy protection, valuations of the business and its underlying
assets may help assess whether a company is more valuable as a going concern or in
liquidation. Similarly, when the valuation is applied for the purposes of acquisition,
companies in the development phase may best be valued using an asset-based
approach or the going-concern premise of value. Therefore, Wolff’s prior experience
should give him the knowledge to carry out both types of valuations that are required.
B is incorrect because for companies operating under bankruptcy protection, valuations
of the business and its underlying assets may help assess whether a company is more
valuable as a going concern or in liquidation. Both valuation standards may be required
for this application.
C is incorrect because companies in bankruptcy include both those in their development
phase and mature businesses.
Q. Silver’s note concerning the adjustments required for the new valuation of Callisto
is best described as:
1. correct.
2. incorrect with respect to the discount for the lack of marketability.
3. incorrect with respect to the discount for the lack of control.
Solution
B is correct. Silver is incorrect with respect to the discount for the lack of marketability.
The change in the investment objective is from a control perspective (given the
expected synergies) to a minority interest. It is thus appropriate to adjust the original
valuation for a discount for lack of control. Under both circumstances, however, there
would be a discount for lack of marketability because the company is private.
A is incorrect because silver is incorrect with respect to the discount for the lack of
marketability. The change in the investment objective is from a control perspective
(given the expected synergies) to a minority interest. It is thus appropriate to adjust the
original valuation for a discount for lack of control. However, under both circumstances
there would be a discount for lack of marketability because the company is private.
C is incorrect because silver is correct with respect to the discount for the lack of
control. The change in the investment objective is from a control perspective (given the
expected synergies) to a minority interest. It is thus appropriate to adjust the original
valuation for a discount for lack of control.
Q. Given the information provided in Exhibit 2, the standard of value most likely used in
Callisto’s prior valuation was:
1. investment value.
2. intrinsic value.
3. market value.
Solution
A is correct. The prior valuation with the objective of a synergistic acquisition would
most likely have been done with an investment valuation standard. Investment value
differs from other value definitions in its greater focus on a specific buyer rather than
value in a “market” context and includes potential synergies of the acquisition with other
assets owned by a prospective buyer. Both market value and intrinsic value ignore the
control premium and the value of specific synergies for an acquisition.
B is incorrect because the intrinsic value is a possible standard of value used for a block
of shares. It is not the most appropriate standard of value for the acquisition of a
company because it ignores both the control premium and the value of specific
synergies for an acquisition.
C is incorrect because the market value is a possible standard of value used for a block
of shares. It is not the most appropriate standard of value for the acquisition of a
company because it ignores both the control premium and the value of specific
synergies for an acquisition. In addition, the market value may be less persistent
because it is subject to short-term pricing aberrations.
Q. In the list dealing with valuation standards and regulations prepared for the upcoming
meeting with Randome, Wolff most likely made an error in the detail pertaining to:
1. the litigation-related valuation of public versus private companies.
2. valuation as a component of financial reporting.
3. the binding nature of USPAP regulations.
Solution
C is correct. Randome made an error in the point related to the USPAP. Valuations
used for financial reporting do not involve mandatory compliance with USPAP or other
professional standards. More generally, business appraisers are typically not required
by law to adhere to these standards.
A is incorrect because the statement is correct: of the three key uses of valuation listed,
acquisition-related valuation issues and financial reporting valuation issues are of the
greatest importance. Litigation-related valuation has the least importance of the three
and is of lesser importance for a public firm than for a private firm valuation.
B is incorrect because the statement is correct: it is a valid description of the growing
role of compliance valuation.
After 2014, dividend growth rate declines linearly over a 6 year period
Q. Based on the information in Exhibit 1, the H-model per share valuation of VFG’s
common shares is closest to:
1. $17.89.
2. $15.86.
3. $14.85.
Solution
C is correct. The value using the H Model is:
V0V0 =
D0(1+gL)+D0H(gS gL)r gLD0(1+gL)+D0H(gS gL)r gL
1.125×(1+0.05)+1.125×3×(0.14 0.05)0.15
=
=
$14.85 per share$14.85 per share
where
V0 = value per share at t = 0
D0 = current dividend = $1.125 [$422 × 0.40/150 = Net income × (Payout/Number of
shares)]
r = required return on equity = 0.15 [= Cost of equity capital]
H = Half-life in years of high growth = 3 [0.5 × 6 years of high growth]
gS = initial short-term dividend growth rate = 14%
gL = long-term growth rate after Year 2H = 5%
A is incorrect because it uses 2H rather than H.
1.125×(1+0.05)+1.125×6×(0.14 0.05)0.15
0.05=17.891.125×(1+0.05)+1.125×6×(0.14 0.05)0.15 0.05=17.89
H is the half-life, whereas 2H is the entire growth period.
B is incorrect because it uses gS in the first term.
1.125×(1+0.14)+1.125×3×(0.14 0.05)0.15
0.05=15.861.125×(1+0.14)+1.125×3×(0.14 0.05)0.15 0.05=15.86
Q. The most appropriate answer to Stack’s question about the PVGO is:
1. $14.11.
2. $12.43.
3. $19.32.
Solution
A is correct.
Value of no-growth level V0 = (5.04 × 1.05)/0.15 = $35.28 all EPS paid
perpetuity in 2019 out as
dividends
= $21.17$21.17
Stack’s assumption
Q. The least appropriate justification that Stack makes in support of the use of the
residual income model is Statement:
A. 3.
B. 1.
C. 2.
Solution
B is correct. The residual income model uses accounting income estimates and
assumes that the cost of debt capital is properly reflected by interest expense, but
because of changing market conditions interest expense may not be a good proxy for
the company’s cost of debt capital.
A and C are incorrect because this is a strength of the residual income model.
Sales 3,110.56
Dividends 103.87
Cash 490
19% 10% 5%
g=
Retentionratio × Profitmargin × Assetturnover × Financialleverage
g
(Net income Dividends)Net income×Net incomeSales×SalesTotal assets×
=Total assetsCommon shareholders' equity(Net
income Dividends)Net income×Net incomeSales×SalesTotal assets×Total assetsC
ommon shareholders' equity
(415.74 103.87)415.74×415.743,110.56×3,110.564,235.58×
=
4,235.582,119.41(415.74 103.87)415.74×415.743,110.56×3,110.564,235.58×4,235.5
82,119.41
=
0.750×0.134×0.734×2.000.750×0.134×0.734×2.00
=
14.7%14.7%
An alternative approach is to determine g by multiplying the retention ratio by ROE:
g
= Retentionratio×ROERetentionratio×ROE
g
(Net income Dividends)Net income×
= Net incomeCommon shareholders' equity(Net income Dividends)Net income×Net inco
meCommon shareholders' equity
= 0.750×0.1960.750×0.196
= 14.7%14.7%
B is incorrect because it uses 0.25 (dividend rate) in the first part of the equation instead
of 0.75 (retention rate). Equation incorrectly becomes:
g = [1 (415.74 103.87415.74)]×415.743,110.56×3,110.564,235.58×
g 4,235.582,119.41[1 (415.74 103.87415.74)]×415.743,110.56×3,110.564,235.58×4,2
35.582,119.41
=
4.9%4.9%
A is incorrect because it uses ROA × b. Equation becomes:
= 0.75×0.0980.75×0.098
= 7.4%7.4%
VTVT =
DT+1r g=DT×(1+g)r gDT+1r g=DT×(1+g)r g
V2021V2021 =
2.862×(1+0.05)0.11 0.052.862×(1+0.05)0.11 0.05
= HK$50.08HK$50.08
4. The present value as of 2014 of this terminal value is:
V2014V2014 =
50.08(1+0.11)750.08(1+0.11)7
= HK$24.12HK$24.12
A is incorrect because it discounts the correct terminal value by 8 years.
V2014V2014 =
50.08(1+0.11)850.08(1+0.11)8
= HK$21.70HK$21.70
The full valuation of the stock is not required, but is included here anyway.
Calculation
Time Value Dt 1 × (1 + g) Dt or Vt PV Calculation Present Value
Total $33.79
B is incorrect because this alternative simply takes the current dividend and treats it as
a growing perpetuity:
V2014V2014 =
1.16×(1+0.05)0.11 0.051.16×(1+0.05)0.11 0.05
= HK$20.30HK$20.30
Q. Using the residual income model and Exhibits 1, 2, and 3, Yee’s estimate of
eLeisure’s intrinsic value per share is closest to:
A. HK$32.27.
B. HK$23.67.
C. HK$39.45.
Solution
C is correct. The residual income model is:
Vn=B0+ROE rr gB0Vn=B0+ROE rr gB0
where
B0 = Book value per common share at end of 2014 (beginning of 2015)
ROE = Long-term return on equity
r = Cost of equity
g = Long-term dividend growth rate
The book value per common share is calculated by dividing the common shareholders’
equity in Exhibit 2 by the common shares outstanding in Exhibit 1:
Vn=HK$23.67+0.15 0.110.11
0.0523.67=39.45Vn=HK$23.67+0.15 0.110.11 0.0523.67=39.45
B is incorrect because it uses the 11% for both ROE and r. The equation incorrectly
becomes:
Vn=HK$23.67+0.11 0.110.11
0.0523.67=23.67,Vn=HK$23.67+0.11 0.110.11 0.0523.67=23.67,which is simply the
book value per share.
A is incorrect because the denominator uses r instead of r g. The equation incorrectly
becomes:
Vn=HK$23.67+0.15 0.110.1123.67=32.27Vn=HK$23.67+0.15 0.110.1123.67=32.27
Q. Which of the differences cited by Yee about private and public companies
is most accurate?
A. The differences in enhanced growth prospects
B. The differences in compliance costs
C. The differences in agency issues
Solution
B is correct. For small companies, the cost of operating as a public company and its
related compliance costs may outweigh enhanced access to capital that comes with
being a public company.
A is incorrect because a private firm’s small size may reduce growth prospects because
they have reduced access to capital to fund the growth in their operations.
C is incorrect because agency issues arise in a corporation when managers act in their
own interests instead of the interests of shareholders (for whom they are acting as
agents). The agency issues are mitigated at a private company because top
management has a controlling/significant ownership interest, so there is less of a
discrepancy of interests between management and shareholders
Dividends 0
Q. Using the data in Exhibit 1 and the single-stage residual income model, the intrinsic
value per share for THA is closest to:
1. $49.00.
2. $60.00.
3. $63.70.
Solution
C is correct. Calculate the value of THA using the single-stage residual income
valuation formula:
V0=B0+ROE rr gB0V0=B0+ROE rr gB0
where
V0 = intrinsic value
B0 = book value
ROE = return on equity
r = cost of equity (i.e., required return on equity)
g = long-term growth rate of residual income
V0=49+0.12 0.1050.105 0.055 × 49=$63.70V0=49+0.12 0.1050.105 0.055 × 49=$6
3.70
A is incorrect because this is the book value. Also, this may be the result if one errs by
using g in the numerator instead of r and ROE in the denominator instead of r.
B is incorrect because it is the value using the single-stage Gordon growth model, which
is not appropriate given the instructions.
V0 = D1/(r g) = 3.00/(0.105 0.055) = 60.00
Q. Based on Exhibit 1 and the Gordon growth model, THA’s sustainable dividend
growth rate is closest to:
1. 0.072.
2. 0.087.
3. 0.084.
Solution
A is correct. Use the single-stage Gordon growth model, P0 = D1/(r g), and apply the
current market price provided by Filo and the information in Exhibit 1 to solve for g as
shown:
P0 = current price
D1 = expected dividend in one year
r = cost of equity (i.e., required rate of return on equity)
g = sustainable dividend growth rate
P0 = D1/(r g), solving for g: g = r (D1/P0) = 0.105 (3/91) = 0.084
B is incorrect because the error is in using the ROE of 0.12 in the denominator instead
of r of 0.105.
P0 = D1/(r g), solving for g: g = r (D1/P0) = 0.12 (3/91) = 0.087
C is incorrect because it uses the model with D1 as the current dividend D0:
P0 = [D0(1 + g)]/(k g), solving for g: g = (P0k D0)/(D0 + P0) = (91 × 0.12 3)/(3 + 91)
= 0.084, where k = ROE
Q. Based on Exhibit 2 and the Fama–French model, the required return for RSTU
is closest to:
1. 4.42%.
2. 6.56%.
3. 6.52%.
Solution
C is correct. RSTU’s required return using the Fama–French model is 6.52%, as
shown in the following table:
Required Return = Sum of
Factor Sensitivity Risk Premium (Sensitivity × Premium) + Rf
Mkt Size Value Mkt Size Value FS ×RP FS ×RP FS ×RP Sub Rf Total
Mkt Size Value Total
RSTU 0.90 (0.44) 0.70 4.10 2.00 2.30 3.69 (0.88) 1.61 4.42 2.10 6.52
Note: Rf is the risk-free rate.
A is incorrect because it omits adding the risk-free rate.
B is incorrect because it includes the liquidity factor, which is not used in Fama–French:
(0.02 × 0.02) + 6.52 = 6.56.
Q. Based on Exhibit 3 and Filo’s expectations for DAUV, the annualized percentage
return for DAUV is closest to:
A. 20.0.
B. 15.6.
C. 22.0.
Solution
A is correct. The forecasted annualized percentage return is 20.0, calculated as
follows:
Determine current price: Current P/E = 15.1, and EPS = 2.69
P/E × EPS = 15.1 × 2.69 = 40.62: current price
Forecast forward EPS (EPS3) in two years: EPS0 = 2.69, and g = 0.077
EPS3 = EPS0 × (1 + g)3 = 3.36: EPS3
Converge to industry P/E: Forward P/E = 17.4, and EPS3 = 3.36
P/E × EPS3 = 17.4 × 3.36 = 58.46: price in 2 years
Return calculation:
(Ph/P0)0.5 1 = (58.46/40.62)0.5 1 = (1.4392)0.5 1 = 0.1997 or 19.97%
B is incorrect because it uses the forecasted trailing EPS (or EPS2), thus calculating the
wrong future price of $66.99.
Determine current price: Current P/E = 15.1, and EPS = 2.69
P/E × EPS = 15.1 × 2.69 = 40.62: current price
Forecast trailing EPS (EPS2) in two years: EPS0 = 2.69, and g = 0.077
EPS2 = EPS0 × (1 + g)2 = 3.12: EPS2
Converge to Industry P/E: Forward P/E = 17.4, and EPS2 = 3.12
P/E × EPS2 = 17.4 × 3.12 = 54.29: price in 2 years
Return Calculation:
(Ph/P0)0.5 1 = (54.29/40.62)0.5 1 = (1.3365)0.5 1 = 0.1561 or 15.61%
C is incorrect because it finds the correct holding period return for two years of 0.4392
then divides by two to get 21.96 instead of discounting properly: [(58.46/40.62) 1]/2
Forecast EPS for fiscal year ended June 2015 $2.84 n/a*
* n/a indicates not applicable
EXHIBIT 3
MARKET DATA FOR SMGI AND INDUSTRY AVERAGE, 30 JUNE 2014
Q. Using the information in Exhibits 2 and 3, which of the three strengths that Chau
identified in support of the “Buy” rating on SMGI’s stock is most accurate?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
Solution
C is correct. Using the data, financial leverage, total asset turnover, and CAPM, the
required return can be computed as follows:
Q. Based on the information in Exhibit 2 and Simms’s alternate assumptions, the per
share value of SMGI’s common shares is closest to:
1. $12.35.
2. $8.65.
3. $9.70.
Solution
C is correct. Using Simms’s assumptions and the two-stage dividend discount model:
XRL ZTL
Additional information
Q. Using the data in Exhibit 1, Barton’s note about the use of the Gordon growth model
to value XRL is most likely:
A. correct because the required return on equity is less than the expected growth
rate.
B. incorrect because the sustainable growth rate is greater than the US economy’s
growth rate.
C. incorrect because the required return on equity is greater than the US economy’s
growth rate.
Solution
A is correct. The Gordon growth model cannot be used when r < g. In this case, r =
8.84%, and g = 13.84%. The calculations are as follows:
Gordon growth model: P0 = D1/(r g)
where
P0 = current price
D1 = next period’s dividend
r = required return on equity
g = growth rate of dividends.
The calculated expected growth rate of dividends is based on the sustainable growth
rate model:
g = b ×ROE, where b = 1 (DPS/EPS)
= [1 (1.77/3.15)] × 0.316
= 0.1384
where
g = sustainable growth rate
b = retention ratio
DPS = dividends per share
EPS = earnings per share
The required return on equity is RF + bi[E(RM) RF] = 0.0294 + (0.94 × 0.0628) = 0.0884
= 8.84%.
B is incorrect because the sustainable growth must be less than the economy’s growth
rate (3.7%) for the Gordon growth model to be appropriate.
C is incorrect because although r must be greater than g, the appropriate growth rate is
the company’s growth rate in dividends rather than the economy’s growth rate (3.7%).
Q. Barton’s conclusion that XRL is in the transition phase is best described as:
A. correct.
B. incorrect because the company is in the supernormal growth phase.
C. incorrect because the company is in the mature phase.
Solution
C is correct. Barton’s statement is incorrect because the company is in the mature
phase. The economy’s nominal growth rate, from Exhibit 1, is Real growth rate +
Inflation rate = 3.7% + 2% = 5.7%.
XRL’s compound growth rate over the four-year period is 5.7%, which is approximately
equal to the economy’s growth rate and calculated as follows:
g=(EPS2015EPS2011)1/4=(3.152.52)1/4=5.7%g=(EPS2015EPS2011)1/4=(3.152.52)1/4=5.7
%
where g is the compound growth rate in earnings, and EPS is earnings per share.
A company in the mature phase typically has earnings growth at a rate comparable with
the economy’s growth rate.
A is incorrect because a company in the transition phase is characterized by earnings
growth rates above the average nominal growth for the economy but with the growth
rate declining. The growth rate is not above the economy’s nominal growth rate, so the
fact that it is declining (2.7% for 2015 vs. 2014) is not relevant.
B is incorrect because a company in the supernormal growth phase has growth higher
than the economy’s nominal growth rate.
Q. Using the data in Exhibit 1 and following Eckhart’s suggestions regarding the
valuation of ZTL, the most appropriate conclusion that Barton should make about the
ZTL shares is that the fund should:
A. take a long position in ZTL.
B. not add ZTL to the portfolio.
C. take a short position in ZTL.
Solution
B is correct. The growth rate of dividends over the past five years is calculated as
follows:
D0×(1+g)r g=2.53×1.0756(0.1048
0.0756)=$93.19D0×(1+g)r g=2.53×1.0756(0.1048 0.0756)=$93.19
where
D0 = dividend just paid (in 2015)
g = compound growth rate in dividends
r = required return on the stock, given in Exhibit 1
With a current market price of $93.05, the stock is fairly valued according to the fund’s
definition of mispricing (i.e., mispriced by less than $1). It should not be added to the
portfolio as either a short or long position.
Note that the answer is calculated without rounding intermediate steps. If rounding is
used, the calculated answer may differ slightly.
A and C are incorrect because the stock’s intrinsic value differs by less than $1 from the
market price, so it should not be added to the portfolio.
Q. Eckhart’s best response to Barton’s question about the valuation of ZTL considering
the potential sale of its manufacturing facility would be to use:
A. the H-model to reflect the change in dividends.
B. the Gordon growth model to incorporate the decrease in firm value after the sale.
C. a spreadsheet model that incorporates the special dividends.
Solution
C is correct. Dividend discount models assume stylized patterns of dividend growth,
but a spreadsheet allows any assumed dividend pattern. Therefore, a spreadsheet
model would be best suited for these anticipated special dividends.
A and B are incorrect because dividend discount models assume stylized patterns of
dividend growth, but a spreadsheet allows any assumed dividend pattern.
Q. Barton’s estimate of the fair value for HTR’s preferred stock is closest to:
A. $125.
B. $84.
C. $81.
Solution
B is correct. Fair value for a noncallable fixed-rate perpetual preferred stock can be
calculated using the Gordon growth model with g = 0.
V0 = D/r = 7.50/(0.0294 + 0.06) = $83.89 = $84
where
D = dividend
r = required rate of return, defined as r = Rf + Equity risk premium = 0.0294 + 0.06 =
0.0894
The risk-free rate is given in Exhibit 1. The equity risk premium is determined by Barton.
A is incorrect because it uses the risk premium instead of the capitalization
rate: V0 = D/r = 7.50/0.06 = $125.
C is incorrect because it uses the market equity required return instead of the preferred
stock capitalization rate: V0 = D/r = 7.50/(0.0294 + 0.0628) = $81.34 = $81.
Discounted Dividend Valuation Learning Outcome
g. Calculate the value of noncallable fixed-rate perpetual preferred stock
Beta 1.40
Q. In discussing Wadgett’s growth projections and the influence they may have on the
FCFE and FCFF valuation process, which of the analysts’ statements is most accurate?
A. Statement 1
B. Statement 3
C. Statement 2
Solution
C is correct. FCFF is preferred over FCFE when a company is leveraged and
expecting a change in capital structure. FCFF growth will reflect fundamentals more
clearly because FCFE growth will reflect fluctuating amounts of net borrowing. Second,
in a forward-looking context, the required return on equity might be expected to be more
sensitive to changes in financial leverage than changes in the WACC.
A is incorrect because statement 1 suggests that FCFE should be used, but this choice
is inappropriate given the already levered balance sheet and coming increase in debt
capital.
B is incorrect because statement 3 suggests that the required return to equity should
apply to both FCFE and FCFF, yet WACC is the proper discount rate to use in the
FCFF method.
Free Cash Flow Valuation Learning Outcome
a. Compare the free cash flow to the firm (FCFF) and free cash flow to equity
(FCFE) approaches to valuation
Q. Using only the data for the base case in Exhibit 1, the intrinsic value that Paschel
calculates is closestto:
1. $37.30.
2. $73.78.
3. $40.28.
Solution
C is correct. First, use the CAPM to determine the required rate of return, r, then use
the single-stage FCFE discount model to calculate the intrinsic value per share as
follows:
V0=FCFE0(1+g)r g=$1.38(1.08)0.117
V0=FCFE0(1+g)r g=$1.38(1.08)0.1002
Q. Using the data in Exhibit 2, the parameter that causes the greatest sensitivity in
valuing Wadgett’s common shares is the:
1. beta.
2. growth rate.
3. equity risk premium.
Solution
C is correct. When the low/high measure of each variable is tested singly for sensitivity
in predicting a range of intrinsic value while holding the other variables at the base case,
the equity risk premium variable produces the largest stock price range, as shown in the
following table.
Industry 1.60%
Size 1.45%
Leverage –0.85%
Bourne purchases an outside research report that concludes that a real required rate of
return on equity of 11.5% is appropriate for SA Telecom. He uses this rate of return and
the data in Exhibit 3 to calculate the value of the firm’s equity.
EXHIBIT 3
SA TELECOM DATA, CURRENT YEAR DATA
Normalized free cash flow to the firm (FCFF) $84 million
Q. From his review of the industry trade journal, the most appropriate conclusion that
Bourne can make is that:
A. fiber optic customers have high bargaining power.
B. an opportunity for the industry is to forward integrate into module manufacturing.
C. there is limited threat of substitutes.
Solution
C is correct. The fact that the products are designed to meet specific customer
requirements and require extensive set-up and trainings costs would make customer
switching costs high, which reduces the threat of substitutes. Due to the advanced
technology and high degree of product reliability required, customers would have low
bargaining power. Module manufacturing involves small production runs and low profit
margins and should not be attractive to this high profit margin specialized industry.
A is incorrect because due to the advanced technology and high degree of product
reliability required, customers would have low bargaining power.
B is incorrect because module manufacturing involves small production runs and low
profit margins and should not be attractive to this high profit margin specialized industry.
Q. Based on the data in Exhibit 1, Bourne’s estimate of the justified price-to-sales ratio
for SA Telecom is closest to:
1. 0.50.
2. 0.52.
3. 0.72.
Solution
B is correct.
P0S0=(E0/S0)(1 b)(1+g)r gP0S0=(E0/S0)(1 b)(1+g)r g
E0/S0 = the business’s long-term profit margin = 8.0%
b = retention ratio = 0.30
(1 b) = the projected payout ratio = 0.70
g = the long-run earnings growth rate = 4.8%
r = required rate of return = 16%
= 0.05870.1120.05870.112
= 0.520.52
A is incorrect because it leaves out (1 + g) in the numerator. The equation becomes:
= 0.500.50
C is incorrect because it uses WACC as discount rate (not required rate of return on
equity).
= 0.720.72
Q. Using the data in Exhibit 2, SA Telecom’s real required rate of return is closest to:
A. 10.80%.
B. 15.25%.
C. 11.65%
Solution
A is correct.
Real required rate of return = Country return ± Industry adjustment ± Size adjustment ±
Leverage adjustment
± Industry 1.60%
± Size 1.45%
± Leverage 0.85%
Using the real required rate of return Bourne obtains from the outside analyst’s report
and the data in Exhibit 3, SA Telecom’s firm's equity value ($ millions) is closest to:
A. 1,386.
B. 1,212.
C. 1,025.
Solution
A is correct.
V0=FCFE0(1+greal)rreal grealV0=FCFE0(1+greal)rreal greal
Real required rate of return as given = 11.50%
FCFE0FCFE0 =
FCFF Int(1 Taxrate)+NetborrowingFCFF Int(1 Taxrate)+Netborrowing
=
84 36(1 0.40)+5284 36(1 0.40)+52
= 114.4114.4
B is incorrect because it forgets 1 t in the FCFE calculation.
FCFEFCFE =
FCFF Int(1 Taxrate)+NetborrowingFCFF Int(1 Taxrate)+Netborrowing
= 84 36+5284 36+52
= 100100
C is incorrect because it forgets to subtract the long-term real growth rate in the
denominator.
Q. Using the data in Exhibit 4, Bourne’s calculation of TCC’s firm value ($ millions)
is closest to:
A. 9,639.
B. 10,127.
C. 9,892.
Solution
B is correct. Because of the three different growth periods, it is necessary to use the
three-stage FCFF model and calculate the FCFF for each of Years 1 to 4 and a terminal
value at the end of Year 4.
1 2 3 4 5
Laboutin
Market data
Depreciation $100
Q. Using Valentine’s data in Exhibit 1, Laboutin’s justified trailing P/E is closest to:
1. 7.7.
2. 7.4.
3. 19.8.
Solution
A is correct. The justified (fundamental) trailing P/E is:
P0/E0 = [(1 b)× (1 + g)]/(r g)
where
(1 b) = dividend payout ratio = 28%
r = the required rate of return on Laboutin’s equity = 7.26%
g = the long run expected dividend growth rate = 3.5%
P0/E0 = (0.28 × 1.035)/(0.0726 0.035) = 0.2898/0.0376 = 7.71
B is incorrect because it determines the forward P/E, i.e., P0/E1.
P0/E1 = (0.28)/(0.0726 0.035) = 0.28/0.0376 = 7.44
C is incorrect because it took the dividend payout ratio as 0.72 (not 0.28).
P0/E0 = (0.72 ×1.035)/(0.0726 0.035) = 0.7452/0.0376 = 19.82
Q. Compared to the justified forward P/E for Laboutin, Valentine’s predicted P/E
regression analysis will produce a P/E multiplier that is:
1. higher.
2. lower.
3. the same.
Solution
A is correct. The justified forward P/E ratio can be determined from Exhibit 1, as
follows:
P0/E1 = (1 b)/(r g) = 0.28/(0.0726 0.035) = 7.45
The predicted P/E according to the estimated regression is:
5.65+(6.25×DPR) (0.37×Beta)+(15.48×
PredictedP/EPredictedP/E =
DGR)5.65+(6.25×DPR) (0.37×Beta)+(15.48×DGR)
5.65+(6.25×0.28) (0.37×0.90)+(15.48×
=
0.035)5.65+(6.25×0.28) (0.37×0.90)+(15.48×0.035)
= 7.617.61
The forward P/E under the regression method is higher than the justified forward P/E
ratio.
B is incorrect because if Rm is used instead of R for Laboutin in the justified P/E, it would
be lower (0.28)/(0.078 0.035) = 6.5.
C is incorrect.
Q. Using Norman’s suggested valuation methodology, estimates, and the data in Exhibit
2, Laboutin’s intrinsic value per share (in CDN$) is closest to:
A. $181.
B. $155.
C. $171.
Solution
A is correct. Norman suggests using FCFE and a required return on equity of 10% to
value Laboutin. Using Exhibit 2 to calculate FCFE:
South Africa
United States
Krantz Group
Inventories 1,657
Interest 161
Taxes 964
Q. Based on the data provided in Exhibit 1, Kim’s forward-looking estimate for the South
Africa equity risk premium is closest to:
A. 3.9%.
B. 5.4%.
C. 0.4%.
Solution
C is correct. Using the constant growth dividend discount model (Gordon growth
model), the equity risk premium can be presented as:
Step 1: Select proxy for Krantz Kim decided to use the SABMI
Group
Q. Using the data in Exhibits 3 and 4, the justified P/S ratio that Kim calculates for
Jacob Brands is closest to:
1. 1.62.
2. 1.10.
3. 0.54.
Solution
C is correct.
Justified P/S ratio = (E0/S0)(1 b)(1 + g)r g(E0/S0)(1 b)(1 + g)r g
Q. Using the data in Exhibits 3 and 4, the EV/EBITDA ratio Kim calculates for Jacobs
Brands is closestto:
1. 4.3.
2. 4.6.
3. 3.6.
Solution
A is correct.
Step 1: Calculate Enterprise Value Step 2: Calculate EBITDA
Q. Which of Kim’s suggested adjustments when comparing the required rates of return
for South African and Canadian stocks is least relevant? The adjustment related to:
1. the country premium.
2. exchange rate forecasts.
3. GDP growth rates.
Solution
C is correct. Differences in GDP growth rates between countries may exist, but this is
not an important consideration specific to estimating required rate of return between the
two countries. Both exchange rates and model issues in emerging markets are
important considerations that concern analysts estimating required returns in a global
context.
A is incorrect because investing in emerging markets such as South Africa is typically
associated with greater expected risk, and analysts may want to consider incorporating
a country spread model or a country risk rating model.
B is incorrect because equity risk premium estimates in home currency terms can be
higher or lower than estimates in local currency terms.
Q. GNSK can best be described as being in which of the following growth stages?
A. Growth
B. Transition
C. Mature
Solution
A is correct. GNSK is in the growth stage because it is expanding rapidly and enjoying
the benefits of the health food market, which is also growing rapidly. GNSK is also
experiencing high and growing profit margins as well as abnormally high earnings per
share growth, which are all indicative of a company in its growth phase.
B is incorrect because GNSK’s earnings are growing rapidly, and profits are increasing.
A company in the transition phase will experience slowing earnings growth or price and
profit margin pressure.
C is incorrect because mature companies have average investment opportunities.
GNSK is gaining market share and therefore able to grow at a faster rate than
competitors in what is otherwise a mature industry.
Q. The factor that is most consistent with GreenSnack’s current competitive position is:
A. barriers to entry.
B. weak buyer power.
C. availability of substitutes.
Solution
A is correct. Barriers to entry are high—it took a long time for GreenSnacks to break
into the supermarkets and the patents should prevent new entrants from duplicating
their results for quite some time.
B is incorrect because supermarkets have strong buyer power.
C is incorrect because patent protection should prevent robust substitutes.
Q. According to the valuation approach that Tanner decides to use and data from
Exhibit 1, the expected rate of return for GNSK is closest to:
A. 9.6%.
B. 12.2%.
C. 8.5%.
Solution
C is correct. The H-model that Tanner decides to use is a variant of the two-stage
dividend discount model. It assumes that growth begins at a high rate and declines
linearly throughout the super-normal growth period until it reaches a normal rate at the
end. In the case of GNSK, the H-model is appropriate for estimating the required return
because Tanner expects extraordinary earnings growth of 20% next year with the rate
of growth diminishing over time to match industry conditions in Year 6.
(0.617521.875)[(1+0.0448)+2.5(0.20
0.0448)]+0.0448(0.617521.875)[(1+0.0448)+2.5(0.20 0.0448)]+0.0448
= (0.028)(1.0448 + 0.388) +0.0448
=0.08492 or 8.5%
A is incorrect because it uses 5 for H instead of 2.5.
r = 0.028 × [(1 + 0.0448) + 5(0.20 0.0448)] + 0.0448 = 0.09578 or 9.6%
B is incorrect because the answer used the payout ratio (rather than the retention ratio)
to determine GL.
GL = 0.128 × 0.65 = 0.0832
r = 0.028 × [(1 + 0.0832) + 2.5(0.20 0.0832)] + 0.0832 = 0.1217 or 12.2%
Q. Using Bradley’s assumptions regarding GNSK and the data from Exhibit 1, GNSK’s
implied long-term dividend growth rate is closest to:
A. 8.0%.
B. 7.0%.
C. 7.3%.
Solution
B is correct.
V0=D0(1 + g)r gV0=D0(1 + g)r g
Rearranging:
D0/V0 = (r g)/(1 + g)
Let D0/V0 = d, and rewrite the equation:
g = (r g)/(1 + d)
Using the industry data in Exhibit 1:
g = (0.11 0.037)/(1 + 0.037) = 0.0704 or 7.0%
Alternatively:
0.037 = (0.11 g)/(1 + g)
0.037(1 + g) + g = 0.11
0.037 + 0.037g + g = 0.11
1.037g = 0.11 0.037
g = 0.073/1.037 = 0.0704 = ~7.0%
A is incorrect because it uses the company dividend yield of 0.028 instead of the
industry yield of 0.037.
g = [(0.11 0.028)/(1 + 0.028)] = 0.08 or 8.0%
C is incorrect because it omits the last division: 0.11 0.037 = 0.073 or 7.3%.
Q. Given Bradley’s suggestions and assumptions, STCK’s intrinsic value is closest to:
1. $26.38.
2. $32.84
3. $25.85.
Solution
C is correct.
= 2.43/0.0942.43/0.094
= $25.85$25.85
A is incorrect because it uses trailing dividend of 2.48 in the numerator: V = 2.48/0.094
= $26.38.
B is incorrect because it adjusted the dividend for negative growth but not the discount
rate: 2.48(1 0.02)/0.074 = $32.84.
Q. Which of Hughes’ notes regarding the various methods of estimating the required
return on equity is least accurate?
A. The note related to the Fama–French model
B. The note related to the CAPM
C. The note related to the bond yield plus risk premium method
Solution
B is correct. Hughes’ note about the CAPM is not accurate. CAPM only incorporates a
single risk premium for market risk (beta); it does not incorporate company-specific
(idiosyncratic) risk.
A is incorrect because the statement is correct. FFM expands on the CAPM model with
two additional risk factors: (1) SMB (small minus big), a size (market capitalization)
factor, and (2) HML (high minus low), a value return premium factor.
C is incorrect because the statement is correct. The bond yield plus risk premium
method is a build-up method used to estimate the equity risk premium. Bond yield plus
risk premium cost of equity = Yield to maturity on the company’s long-term debt + Risk
premium.
Q. Using the data in Exhibit 1 and Hughes’ preferred method, the required return on
equity for Western Plains Rail is closest to:
1. 6.6%.
2. 6.3%.
3. 9.2%.
Solution
B is correct. The Fama–French model estimate for return on equity is calculated using
the formula
ri=RF+βmktiRMRF+βsizeiSMB+βvalueiHMLri=RF+βimktRMRF+βisizeSMB+βivalueHML
where
ri = Required return on share i
RF = Current expected risk-free return on the short-term government bill
βmktiβimkt, βsizeiβisize, and βvalueiβivalue = Factor sensitivities for the market, size, and
value factors, respectively
RMRF, SMB, and HML = Risk premiums for the market, size, and value factors,
respectively
FFM: ri = 1.2% + 1.3 × (5.2%) 0.2 × (2.0%) 0.3 × (4.3%)
= 1.2% + 6.76% 0.40% 1.29%
= 6.27% = 6.30%
A is incorrect because the calculation incorrectly includes the liquidity factor.
FFM: ri = 1.2% + 1.3 × (5.2%) 0.2 × (2.0%) 0.3 × (4.3%) + 0.1 × (3.7%)
= 1.2% + 6.76% 0.40% 1.29% + 0.37%
= 6.64% = 6.6%
C is incorrect because the calculation incorrectly used the long-term bond instead of the
short-term bill.
FFM: ri = 4.1% + 1.3 × (5.2%) 0.2 × (2.0%) 0.3 × (4.3%)
= 4.1% + 6.76% 0.40% 1.29%
= 9.17% = 9.2%
Q. Following Gast’s recommended approach, the forward P/E multiple that Hughes
calculates for Western Plains Rail is closest to:
1. 14.2×.
2. 15.5×.
3. 14.5×.
Solution
A is correct. Gast’s recommended approach is to calculate the forward P/E based on
core earnings.
First calculate next year’s EPS based on the Next year’s EPS growth: 8% × 1.15x 9.20%
relationship to S&P expected growth rate
Next calculate the company’s expected EPS Next year’s EPS: $3.60 × (1 + 0.092) $3.93
= $3.931
Add the expected restructuring charge to determine Add: expected restructuring charge = $0.08
the expected core EPS $3.93 × 2% = $0.079
Finally calculate the P/E multiple by dividing the P/E multiple = $57.00/$4.01 = 14.2×
expected core EPS by the share price 14.214×
B is incorrect because the calculation used current year EPS instead of next year’s
EPS.
Current year EPS: $3.60 $3.60
Q. Which of Gast’s comments about the PEG ratio comparison is the most accurate?
1. The comment about risk differences.
2. The comment about growth durations.
3. The comment about non-linearity.
Solution
A is correct. Gast is correct about the risk differences. PEG does not factor in
differences in risk, an important determinant of P/E.
C is incorrect because PEG assumes a linear relationship between P/E and growth. The
model for P/E in terms of the DDM shows that, in theory, the relationship is not linear.
B is incorrect because PEG does not account for differences in the duration of growth.
Q. Gast’s best response to Hughes’ question about the EV/EBITDA method would be
that:
1. EBITDA is ineffective in capital intensive industries.
2. it can be used even when EBITDA is negative.
3. compared with the free cash flow to the firm method, EBITDA overestimates cash
flow from operations if the company’s working capital is growing.
Solution
C is correct. A possible drawback to EV/EBITDA is that EBITDA will overestimate cash
flow from operations if working capital is growing.
A is incorrect because it is not a drawback. EBITDA is effective in capital intensive
industries because it controls for differences in depreciation and amortization.
B is incorrect because if EBITDA is negative, a positive enterprise value cannot be
calculated.
Market-Based Valuation: Price and Enterprise Value Multiples
Learning Outcome
m. Explain alternative definitions of cash flow used in price and enterprise value (EV)
multiples and describe limitations of each definition
Panel B: Data for the macroeconomic model using the Ibbotson–Chen format
Interest 5
Taxes 10
Depreciation 80
Amortization 15
Cash 50
Q. Using Exhibit 1 and Rivera’s adjustment, the risk premium for BTP stock according to
the Gordon growth model is closest to:
A. 5.77%.
B. 5.61%.
C. 7.02%.
Solution
A is correct. First compute the GGM equity risk premium and then add Rivera’s
adjustment for small firm risk premium. Computations are as follows:
GGM equity risk premium estimate = Dividend yield on the index based on year-
ahead aggregate forecasted dividends and aggregate market value + Consensus
long-term earnings growth rate – Current long-term government bond yield
Q. Using the appropriate data in Exhibit 1 for the macroeconomic model and the
adjustments considered by Rivera and Royappa, the risk premium for BTP stock
is closest to:
1. 5.62%.
2. 7.54%.
3. 7.19%.
Solution
C is correct. First, compute the equity risk premium according to the macroeconomic
model with four components. Next, add the small firm and thin trading risk premiums.
Equity risk premium according to the macroeconomic model:
[(1 + EINFL)(1 + EGREPS)(1 + EGPE) 1] + EINC Expected risk-free rate
where
EINFL= expected inflation
EGREPS= expected growth in real earnings per share
EGPE= expected growth in P/E
EINC= expected income component
Plus: Risk premiums for small firm and thin trading: 1.50% + 0.75% 2.25%
Equals: Risk premium for BTP including premiums for small firm and thin trading 7.19%
A is incorrect because it ignores the expected growth rate in P/E ratio.
Plus: Risk premia for small firm and thin trading: 1.50% + 0.75% 2.25%
= Risk premium for BTP including premia for small firm and thin trading 5.62%
B is incorrect because it mistakenly uses TIPs yield for expected inflation
Plus: Risk premia for small firm and thin trading: 1.50% + 0.75% 2.25%
= Risk premium for BTP including premia for small firm and thin trading 7.54%
Q. Which of the three statements regarding relative valuation approaches that Smirnoff
has stated is most accurate? Her statement concerning the:
A. justified P/B.
B. P/E.
C. PEG measure.
Solution
B is correct. BTP is a cyclical company. Empirically, P/Es for cyclical companies are
often highly volatile over a cycle even without any change in business prospects. High
P/Es on depressed earnings per share (EPS) at the bottom of the cycle and low P/Es on
unusually high EPS at the top of the cycle reflect the countercyclical property of P/Es
known as the Molodovsky effect.
A is incorrect because the justified P/B computed suggests that if we are evaluating two
stocks with the same P/B, the one with the higher ROE is relatively undervalued, all else
equal. These relationships have been confirmed through cross-sectional regression
analyses.
C is incorrect because PEG does not factor in differences in risk, an important
determinant of P/E. PEG does not account for differences in the duration of growth.
Q. Using the data in Exhibit 2 and the adjustment suggested by Smirnoff, BTP’s justified
P/B is closest to:
1. 1.98.
2. 3.11.
3. 3.30.
Solution
A is correct. ROE = Net income/Book value of equity = 20/100 = 20.0%
Justified P/B = P0/B0 = (ROE – g)/(r – g) = (0.20 – 0.055)/(0.11 – 0.055) = 2.64
Adjustment per Smirnoff’s suggestion: 2.64 × (1 – 0.25) = 1.98
B is incorrect because it uses WACC for r rather than the required return on stock.
P/B = (ROE – g)/(r – g) = (0.20 – 0.055)/(0.09 – 0.055) = 4.14
Adjustment per Smirnoff's suggestion: 4.14 ×(1 – 0.25) = 3.11
C is incorrect because it makes an incorrect adjustment for Smirnoff’s suggested
discount.
Adjustment per Smirnoff's suggestion: 2.64 ×(1 + 0.25) = 3.30
Q. Using the data in Exhibit 2 and the adjustment suggested by Smirnoff, BTP’s
EV/EBITDA multiple is closest to:
1. 3.36.
2. 2.31.
3. 2.02.
Solution
C is correct.
EV = Market value of equity + Debt – Cash = 250 + 150 – 50 = 350
EBITDA= Net Income + Interest + Taxes + Depreciation + Amortization = 20 + 5 + 10 +
80 + 15 = 130
EV/EBITDA = 2.69
Adjustment per Smirnoff’s suggestion: 2.69 × (1 – 0.25) = 2.02
A is incorrect because it incorrectly applies the 25% discount per Smirnoff’s suggestion.
Adjustment per Smirnoff’s suggestion: 2.69 × (1 + 0.25) = 3.36
B is incorrect because it ignores cash.
EV = Market value of equity + Debt (ignores cash): 250 + 150 = 400
EBITDA= Net income + Interest + Taxes + Depreciation + Amortization = 130
EV/EBITDA = 3.08
Adjustment per Smirnoff's suggestion: 3.08 × (1 – 0.25) = 2.31
Dividends 42,000
KRW at 31 December,
2013 2012
Q. Using the information in Exhibits 1 and 2, DongSun’s residual income (in millions) in
2013 is closest to:
A. KRW63,000.
B. KRW15,000.
C. KRW22,560.
Solution
C is correct.
KRW millions
Q. Using the information in Exhibits 1 and 2, Kim’s forecasts, and the single-stage
(constant growth) residual income approach, the justified price-to-book ratio (P/B) at 31
December 2013 for DongSun common stock is closest to:
A. 1.66.
B. 2.00.
C. 2.48.
Solution
B is correct. The justified P/B using a single-stage (constant growth) residual income
approach is given by
P0/B0P0/B0 = (ROE–g)/(r–g)(ROE–g)/(r–g)
= (0.15–0.09)/(0.12–0.09)(0.15–0.09)/(0.12–0.09)
= 2.002.00
A is incorrect because it uses the historical 2013 ROE (Net income/Total stockholders’
equity) of 105,000/750,000 = 14%. Using this in the formula:
(0.14 – 0.09)/(0.12 – 0.09) = 1.66
C is incorrect because it is the 2013 year-end market price per share divided by BV per
share, where BV per share = Year-end shareholders’ equity/Number of shares =
KRW750,000/30 = KRW25,000, giving P/B = KRW62,000/KRW25,000 = 2.48.
Q. With respect to the three items that Kim examined, which item is least likely to result
in a clean surplus accounting violation?
A. Item 2
B. Item 1
C. Item 3
Solution
A is correct. There is no clean surplus violation if the ending book value of equity is
equal to the beginning book value plus earnings minus dividends, apart from ownership
transactions. In the ordinary course of business, non-domestic currency transactions
with customers and suppliers (resulting from import purchase or export sale) are
accounted for on both the income statement and balance sheet at fair value, and hence
they do not violate clean surplus accounting. The other two items examined would affect
other comprehensive income and hence violate the equity clean surplus relationship.
B is incorrect because although available for sale marketable securities are measured
at fair market value on the balance sheet, any unrealized gains and losses that arise
bypass the income statement and are reported in equity as a component of other
comprehensive income thereby violating the clean surplus relationship.
C is incorrect because financial statements of self-sustaining subsidiaries will be
translated using the current rate method and any foreign exchange gains and losses will
bypass the income statement and go into other comprehensive income, thus violating
the clean surplus relationship.
Q. Which of management’s three strategic goals will least likely result in a higher EVA
for DongSun?
A. Goal 1
B. Goal 2
C. Goal 3
Solution
C is correct. By definition, EVA = NOPAT – (C% × TC), where NOPAT is the net
operating profit after taxes, C% is the cost of capital, and TC is the total capital
employed. Efficiencies in the administrative functions will decrease operating expenses,
increase NOPAT, and thus increase EVA. Adjusting financial leverage to the optimal
level will decrease the cost of capital and thus increase EVA. R&D costs are added
back to NOPAT when calculating EVA. Therefore, decreasing R&D will serve to lower
NOPAT and thus lower EVA.
A is incorrect because adjusting financial leverage to the optimal level will decrease the
cost of capital and therefore increase EVA.
B is incorrect because efficiencies in the administrative functions will decrease
operating expenses, increase NOPAT, and thus increase EVA.
2014
2015
(€ millions)
(€ millions)
Income statement
Interest expense 96 92
2015 2016
(€ millions) 2016 vs. 2015 Calculation (€ millions)
2015 2016
(€ millions) 2016 vs. 2015 Calculation (€ millions)
2015 2016
(€ millions) 2016 vs. 2015 Calculation (€ millions)
Q. The best answer to Marchand’s question about forecasting balance sheet accounts
is:
1. operating loans.
2. property, plant, and equipment.
3. inventory.
Solution
C is correct. The income statement can be the starting point for balance sheet
modeling. A common way to forecast working capital accounts (i.e., inventory) would be
by using efficiency ratios, such as inventory turnover. Projections for long-term assets,
such as property, plant, and equipment, are less directly tied to the income statement.
The operating loan balance would depend on the working capital needs and cash flow
forecasts, so it is two steps removed from the income statement.
B is incorrect because projections for long-term assets such as PP&E are less directly
tied to the income statement and more to capital expenditure plans.
A is incorrect because the operating loan balance would depend on the working capital
needs and cash flow forecasts so it is two steps removed from the income statement.
Industry and Company Analysis Learning Outcome
e. Describe approaches to balance sheet modeling
Q. Which of the three analysts’ comments about the methods used to compare Darwin’s
profitability with other firms in the industry is the least accurate?
1. Kristensen’s
2. Marchand’s
3. Palmeiro’s
Solution
B is correct. Marchand’s comment is the least accurate. ROCE is essentially ROIC
before tax and is defined as operating profit divided by capital employed. As a pre-tax
measure, ROCE is useful when comparing peer companies in different countries
because the comparison of underlying profitability would not favor companies benefiting
from low tax rate systems.
A is incorrect because Kristensen’s statement is accurate. ROIC is a better measure of
profitability than ROE because it is not affected by a company’s financial leverage.
C is incorrect because Palmeiro’s statement is accurate. A disadvantage of using ROE
is that it is affected by financial leverage. A company could reduce equity by
repurchasing shares and have a higher ROE even if earnings were unchanged from
year to year.
Revenues $6,456
as of 31 December
2012 2011
Assets
Q. Using Yee’s base case valuation assumptions and the FCFF valuation approach, the
year-end 2012 value per share of McLaughlin common stock is closest to:
A. $29.20.
B. $12.78.
C. $23.73.
Solution
C is correct. In the base case, the growth rate is stable, thus using the constant-
growth FCFF model the value of the firm is
=
9,751 million411 million9,751 million411 million
Q. Using Yee’s alternative valuation assumptions and the FCFE valuation approach, the
year-end 2012 value per share of McLaughlin’s common stock is closest to:
A. $24.17.
B. $18.00.
C. $22.80.
Solution
C is correct. First, it is necessary to estimate FCFE2013.
FCFE = Net income – (1 – DR) × (FCInv – Depreciation) – (1 – DR) ×(WCInv)
where
DR = debt ratio, which is 40%
FCInv = investment in fixed capital, which is 30% of EPS
WCInv = investment in working capital, which is 10% of EPS
On a per-share basis:
Q. The most likely combined effect of the three possible financial actions identified by
Yee will reduce McLaughlin’s 2013 FCFE ($ millions) by:
A. $100.
B. $270.
C. $160.
Solution
A is correct. The three possible actions are:
1. Increasing common dividends = $110 million, which is a use of FCFE—no effect on
FCFE.
2. Share repurchase = $60 million, which is a use of FCFE—no effect on FCFE.
3. Debt repayment = $100 million, which will reduce FCFE by the full amount.
Therefore, FCFE will decrease by $100 million. Reducing debt by $100 million reduces
FCFE (the amount of cash available to equity holders) by that amount. The cash
dividend and the share repurchase are uses of FCFE and do not change the amount of
cash available to equity holders.
B is incorrect because it adds all three amounts.
C is incorrect because it adds long-term debt of $100 million and $60 million share
repurchases.