MBBS Final Professional Examination 2007

OBSTETRICS
Model Papers (MCQs)

Total No. of MCQs 35 Each MCQ carry 01 mark

Max Marks 35 Time Allowed 45 minutes

MCQ.1 A 24 years old G2P1A0 had last menstrual period 9 weeks

ago. She presents with bleeding and passage of tissues
pervaginum. Bleeding is associated with lower abdominal
pain. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Threatened abortion.
b) Inevitable abortion.
c) Incomplete abortion.
d) Twin pregnancy.
e) Ectopic pregnancy.

Key: c

MCQ.2 Organogenesis is complete at:

a) 2 weeks after ovulation.
b) 6 weeks after ovulation.
c) 8 weeks after ovulation.
d) 18 weeks after ovulation.
e) 20 weeks after ovulation.

Key: c

MCQ.3 35 years old woman who is now in her 5 th pregnancy with

4 alive children presented in the antenatal clinic and in
diagnosed as a case of anaemia. Cause of anaemia in her
case is:
a) Folate deficiency.
b) Sickle cell anaemia.
c) Iron deficiency.
d) Pernicious anaemia.
e) Thalassaemia.

Key: c

MCQ.4 23 years old primigravida presents to you at fourteen

weeks of gestation. She is concerned about normality of
fetus. At what time you will advice her detailed fetal
anomaly scan:
a) 22-24 weeks.
b) 14-16 weeks.
c) 18-22 weeks.
d) 10-14 weeks.
e) 24-28 weeks.

Key: c

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MBBS Final Professional Examination 2007
OBSTETRICS
Model Papers (MCQs)

MCQ.5 19 years old primigravida comes in emergency at 32

weeks of gestation. She is complaining of blurring of
vision, gross edema. On examination her B.P is 170/115
mm Hg. What is the most likely diagnosis:
a) Hypertension.
b) Renal disease.
c) Eclampsia.
d) Preeclampsia.
e) Thyroid disease.

Key: d

MCQ.6 A 30 years old G3P2 at 28 weeks of gestation presents

with severe pain in the right flank radiating to her groin.
She also complaints of rigors and chills. Urine analysis
reveals numerous pus cells. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Appendicitis.
b) Pyelonephritis.
c) Round ligament torsion.
d) Meckel’s diverticulum.
e) Torsion of ovarian cyst.

Key: b

MCQ.7 Diabetic control is important before conception to reduce

the incidence of:
a) Maternal nephropathy.
b) Diabetic ketoacidosis.
c) Congenital anomalies.
d) Maternal retinopathy.
e) C-section.

Key: c

MCQ.8 The most common cause of heart disease in pregnant

woman in Pakistan is:
a) Congenital heart disease.
b) Cardiomyo pathy.
c) Myocardial infarction.
d) Cardiomegaly.
e) Rheumatic heart disease.

Key: e

MCQ.9 A 30 years old G5P4 is admitted in labor room with H/O 32

weeks gestation, mild vaginal bleeding and abdominal
pain. O/E her blood pressure 140/100 mm Hg,
abdomen is tense, tender and hard. Fetal heart sounds
are not audible. What is the most likely diagnosis:
a) Placenta praevia.
b) Abruptio placenta.
c) Preterm labour.
d) Urinary tract infection.
e) Vasa praevia.

Key: b

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 MBBS Final Professional Examination 2007
OBSTETRICS
Model Papers (MCQs)

MCQ.10 A 25 years old P2 comes to emergency, after home

delivery with heavy bleeding per vaginum. After
evaluation and emergency resuscitation she is diagnosed
as a case of uterine atony. What is the appropriate
medicine in the management of this case:
a) Oxytocin.
b) Salbutamol.
c) Beta blockers.
d) Magnesium sulphate.
e) Hydralazine.

Key: a

MCQ.11 18 years old P1 presents in outpatient department ten

days after delivery with tender hot painful swelling in
right breast. She also complains of fever with rigors.
What will be the most likely management:
a) Antibiotics.
b) Analgesics.
c) Incision & drainage.
d) Conservative management.
e) Lactation inhibition.

Key: c

MCQ.12 A G2P1 with previous cesarean section due to obstructed

labour comes for first antenatal visit at 34 weeks of
gestation. She is seeking advice for home delivery this
time. What will be the most dangerous complication in
her case if we allow her to deliver at home by untrained
birth attendent:
a) Prolonged latent phase.
b) Arrest in second stage of labour.
c) Delayed progress in active phase of labour.
d) Rupture uterus.
e) Placental retention.

Key: d

MCQ.13 The common possible cause of oligohydramnions is:

a) Oesophageal atresia.
b) Placental haemangioma.
c) Renal agenesis.
d) Diabetes mellitus.
e) Rh incompatibility.

Key: c

MCQ.14 The most common side effect of tocolytics agent is:

a) Vaginal bleeding.
b) Abdominal pain.
c) Nausea, vomiting.
d) Palpitations.
e) Oliguria.

Key: d

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 MBBS Final Professional Examination 2007
OBSTETRICS
Model Papers (MCQs)

MCQ.15 What is the diameter of fetal skull that presents at vulva

during normal labour:
a) Suboccipitofrontal.
b) Mentovertical.
c) Suboccipitobregmatic.
d) Occipitofrontal.
e) Metoposterior.

Key: c

MCQ.16 Breech extraction in only indicated in:

a) Retained second twin.
b) Footling breech.
c) Extended breech.
d) Flexed breech.
e) Breech in first twin.

Key: a

MCQ.17 Cardiac output is highest in:

a) 1st trimester.
b) 2nd trimester.
c) 3rd trimester.
d) During labour.
e) During delivery.

Key: e

MCQ.18 The pathological retraction ring of Bandle is associated

with:
a) Preterm labour.
b) Obstructed labour.
c) Precipitate labour.
d) Abruptio placenta.
e) Chorioamnionitis.

Key: b

MCQ.19 What percentage of Polyhydramnios is associated with

congenital malformations:
a) Less than 1%.
b) 5-10%.
c) 20-30%.
d) 50-60%.
e) 90-100%.

Key: c

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 MBBS Final Professional Examination 2007
OBSTETRICS
Model Papers (MCQs)

MCQ.20 A 24 years old G3P2 presents to you at 32 weeks of

gestation with preterm prelabour rupture of membranes
for ten days. She is complaining of pain in lower
abdomen, fever with rigors and chills and purulent
vaginal discharge. What is her diagnosis:
a) Pyrexia of unknown origin.
b) Puerperal pyrexia.
c) Preterm labour.
d) Chorioamnionitis.
e) Antepartum haemorrhage.

Key: d

MCQ.21 A 23 years old primigravida comes in labour room for

induction of labour. Cervix is closed and 3 cm long. Which
of the following medicine will be given to her for cervical
ripening?
a) Methergin.
b) Salbutamol.
c) Prostaglandin E 2.
d) Paracetamol.
e) Methyldopa.

Key: c

MCQ.22 Preterm labour is defined as spontaneous onset of painful

regular uterine contractions at any time prior to:
a) A stage of fetal viability.
b) The seco nd stage of labour.
c) The 32nd week of gestation.
d) The 37th week of gestation.
e) The40th week of gestation.

Key: d

MCQ.23 Duration of latent phase in a multigravida is:

a) 1-2 hours.
b) 2-4 hours.
c) 4-6 hours.
d) 6-8 hours.
e) 8-10 hours.

Key: c

MCQ.24 After the delivery of fetus, placenta should be removed

by:
a) Fundal pressure.
b) D & C.
c) Brandt-Andrews method.
d) Manual removal.
e) C-section.

Key: c

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 MBBS Final Professional Examination 2007
OBSTETRICS
Model Papers (MCQs)

MCQ.25 Vaginal examination is contraindicated in pregnancy in

which situation:
a) Carcinoma of cervix.
b) Gonorrhoea.
c) Prolapsed cord.
d) Placenta previa.
e) Active labour.

Key: d

MCQ.26 A primipara presents one week after delivery. She is

tearful, has spells of cry and lack of appetite and sleep.
What is the most likely diagnosis:
a) Anaemia.
b) Post-natal depression.
c) Schizophrenia.
d) Maniac disorders.
e) High grade fever.

Key: b

MCQ.27 Of the following methods, the safest, most precise and

simplest for placental localization is:
a) Auscultation.
b) Ultrasonography.
c) Radioisotope study.
d) Abdominal palpation.
e) Soft tissue radiography.

Key: b

MCQ.28 Which of the following test is used in screening for

Down’s syndrome:
a) Ca 125.
b) Carcino embryonic antigen “CAE”.
c) Triple screening including HCG, AFP, serum estriol.
d) FSH, LH.
e) Thyroid hormone.

Key: c

MCQ.29 Perinatal mortality rate is defined as:

a) Number of perinatal deaths per thousand live births and still
births.
b) Deaths in the first week after birth.
c) All still births plus deaths in the first week after birth.
d) Deaths from age 7 days the 27 completed days of life.
e) Deaths in first week after birth.

Key: a

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 MBBS Final Professional Examination 2007
OBSTETRICS
Model Papers (MCQs)

MCQ.30 A primigravida is in second stage of labour for the past

two hours. Fetal head is at +1 station. Inspite of effective
uterine contractions, mother is unable to push as she is
exhausted. What will be the next step in her
management:
a) Wait for another one hour.
b) Give sedation to the mother.
c) Shift her for emergency section.
d) Instrumental delivery.
e) Call the anaesthetist for regional anaesthesia.

Key: d

MCQ.31 Maximum normal time for second stage of labour in

primigravida without anaesthesia is about:
a) 20 minutes.
b) 60 minutes.
c) 120 minutes.
d) 240 minutes.
e) There is no normal maximum.

Key: c

MCQ.32 Crowning is best defined as:

a) When the greatest diameter of fetal head comes through
vulva.
b) When presenting part reaches the pelvic floor.
c) When the perineum bulges in front of fetal head.
d) When fetal head is visible at vulva.
e) When head is delivered.

Key: c

MCQ.33 Total bishops score is:

a) 10.
b) 8.
c) 6.
d) 4.
e) 13.

Key: e

MCQ.34 Pregnancy induced hypertension is diagnosed when:

a) Hypertension is encountered after 20 weeks of gestation.
b) Hypertension gets worse in first week of pregnancy.
c) Hypertension is not co ntrolled with aldomet.
d) Hypertension gives rise to left ventricular failure.
e) Blood urea & creatine levels in blood are abnormal.

Key: a

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 MBBS Final Professional Examination 2007
OBSTETRICS
Model Papers (MCQs)

MCQ.35 Thyrotoxicosis is pregnancy is treated with:

a) Partial thyroidectomy in first trimester.
b) Radioiodine ablation of thyroid gland.
c) With neomercazole.
d) Surgery on thyroid gland in 3 rd trimester.
e) With iodine drops and -blockers.

Key: c

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