CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

1. Pardon cannot be extended to:

a. Murder c. impeachment
b. Rape d. Plunder
2. A person who is arrested and legally placed in jail but is not yet convicted by the court is a:
a. criminal c. kawawa
b. detention prisoner d. suspect
3. The justifications for punishment are the following EXCEPT:
a. happiness c. deterrence
b. retribution d. expiation
4. A law was passed in July 1998 imposing death penalty against a drug pusher. The pusher was caught and
convicted in 1997. The judge sentenced him (again) to death in 1999, which is the 2 nd promulgation of judgment.
What right was violated?
a. right against bill of attainder c. right against life
b. right against death penalty d. right against ex post facto law
5. Probation is a form of:
a. treatment c. reward
b. leniency d. punishment
6. This is given to the offender by showing to others what would happen if they commit a crime.
a. protection c. deterrence
b. lethal injection d. stoning
7. When does probation order take effect?
a. 3 days after issuance c. immediately upon issuance
b. 3 days prior to issuance d. 72 hours after issuance
8. What do you call the postponement or temporary stay of the execution of the sentence?
a. amnesty c. commutation
b. pardon d. reprieve
9. One who receives an absolute pardon is _____ from civil liability.
a. exempted c. forgiven
b. not exempted d. partly exempted
10. Who grants amnesty?
a. President of Fejodap c. Chief Executive
b. Justice Secretary d. Supreme Court
11. When the president changes the penalty to a less serious penalty or actually makes it shorter than what is
imposed by the court, he is exercising:
a. reprieve c. commutation
b. pardon d. all of the above
12. _____ is not a matter of grace. The convict is not entitled to it as a matter of right.
a. reprieve c. commutation
b. pardon d. all of the above
13. Who advocated the free will theory of crime causation?
a. Cesare Lombroso c. Julius Cesare
b. Cesar Montano d. Cesare Beccaria
14. Which among the following privilege may be availed of by 1 st time offenders for imprisonment not exceeding 6
years?
a. conjugal visit c. probation
b. pardon d. justifying circumstances
15. Which among the following undergoes preventive imprisonment?
a. probation officer b. parole officer c. probationer d. detention prisoner
16. It is a disposition under which a defendant after conviction is released, subject to conditions made by the court
and supervision of a probation officer.
a. parole c. probation
b. pardon d. amnesty
17. A man served his sentence for 8 years, although he was sentenced 20 years imprisonment. What did the man
enjoy?
a. parole c. probation
b. total freedom d. he escaped
18. Which of the following best describes the classical theory?
a. there are born criminals and these can be shown by certain stigmatas
b. criminal behavior is learned in the interaction with others
c. basis of criminal liability is free will and purpose of penalty is retribution
d. criminals may be classified into ectomorph, mesomorph and endomorph body types.
19. He said that criminality increases in proportion as one approaches the equator.
a. Edwin Sutherland c. William Sheldon
b. Jean Jacques Montesquieu d. Lady Gaga
20. X was convicted of crime with less than 6 years imprisonment. X will be denied probation if:
a. he is convicted of any crime against national security or public order
b. he has been once under probation
c. he was previously convicted of offense punished by not less than one month and one day imprisonment
d. all of the above
21. What is involved when a criminal is made incapacitated to commit a crime in the future?
1
 a. incapacitation b. mutilation c. retribution d. imprisonment
22. What theory says that criminal behavior is learned in the process of interaction and communication with other
people?
a. psychoanalytic theory c. strain theory
b. social disorganization theory d. differential association theory
23. Who made the differential association theory (DAT)?
a. Edwin Sutherland c. William Sheldon
b. Jean Jacques Montesquieu d. Paris Hilton
24. The theory in criminology that the stress is more on the effects on the felonious acts of the criminal rather than
upon the criminal himself.
a. positivist c. neo classical
b. classical d. hedonism
25. If you violate your probation conditions what will the court do?
a. the judge will cry c. the judge will revoke the probation
b. the prosecutor will sing d. the judge will extend the probation
26. Parole, pardon, commutation, reprieve are examples of:
a. question in the board c. legal terms I don’t understand
b. executive clemency d. imprisonment
27. X was sentenced by Judge Y to reclusion Perpetua. If Judge Y died while X was serving his sentence what
happens to the sentence of X?
a. remains the same (no effect) c. X will stay longer in jail
b. X will be released d. It will be abolished
28. What theory states that lower class culture puts people in conflict with the norms of the dominant culture?
a. strain theory c. anomie theory
b. culture conflict theory d. differential association theory
29. Crime is the result of the frustrations and anger a person experience and his inability to achieve a legitimate
goal. If a person cannot achieve his goals he experiences stress which will lead him to criminal behavior.
a. strain theory c. anomie theory
b. culture conflict theory d. differential association theory
30. It has endeavored to establish a mechanical and direct proportion between crime and penalty and there is scant
regard to the human element.
a. classical theory b. positivist theory c. strain theory d. none of the above
31. What do you call the sexual gratification by watching nude man or woman? It is also known as peeping Tom.
a. voyeurism b. exhibitionism c. fellatio d. cunnilingus
32. What do you call the act of sucking and licking the male sexual organ in order to derive pleasure and in most
cases orgasm?
a. voyeurism c. fellatio
b. exhibitionism d. cunnilingus
33. There are three limitations of the pardoning power of the president they are: 1. it can be given only after final
conviction; 2. It cannot be extended to impeachment; 3. It cannot be granted to violations of elections laws without
the favorable e recommendation of the Comelec.

Therefore pardon cannot be granted to who among the following?

a. Panfilo who committed murder c. Trillanes who is convicted of rebellion
b. Emma who raped Mac d. Jejomar who is impeached
34. Amnesty can be granted only if there is:
a. concurrence of Congres c. Supreme Court sanction
b. people’s approval d. approval of world opinion
35. The authority of Noynoy Aquino to grant commutation, amnesty, pardon, among others is collectively known as
his:
a. vetoing power c. budgetary power
b. executive clemency d. military powers
36. Pardon can be given only after the person is ___.
a. dead c. convicted
b. acquitted d. elected to public office
37. The purpose of probation:
a. provide an opportunity for reformation of offender
b. prevent commission of offenses
d. all of the above
38. It literally means “produce the body” of a detained person)
a. corpus delicti c. habeas data
b habeas corpus d. writ of amparo
39. Inflicting punishment to another to serve as an example to others and show what will happen to them if they
commit the same thing is known as:
a. exemplarity c. protection
b. self defense d. reformation
40. Nobody should be punished for the crime of another is ____
a. fairness theory c. personal theory
b. legal theory d. certain theory
41. The pardonee in absolute pardon granted by the President is relieved from criminal liability although his ____
liability remains.
a. conscience c. moral

2
 b. civil d. financial
42. It is an act of grace proceeding from the power entrusted with the enforcement of laws which exempts the
individual from punishment although the recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right.
a. pardon c. amnesty
b. parole d. probation
43. Probation is a matter of ____
a. absolute right c. grace
b. privilege only d. mercy
44. The prosecutors and public defenders (PAO) belong to:
a. executive department c. judicial department
b. legislative department d. none of them
45. The release of a person of prison after serving at least the minimum term.
a. parole c. commutation
b. pardon d. amnesty
46. Adult probation law is PD 608, while the juvenile probation law is ____.
a. PD 603 c. BP 22
b. RA 6975 d. RA 8454
47. The continuing relationship between the probation officer and probationer is ___.
a. supervision c. man to man relationship
b. sweetheart defense d. post sentence investigation
48. Assume that once a person is granted (enjoyed) probation, and assume he committed another probationable
crime then he is ..
a. disqualified to avail of probation for the 2nd time c. a recidivist
b. still qualified to avail of probation d. a quasi recidivist
49. X, a minor is now alone. Both his parents died in an accident. He is still a minor. His only nearest relative still
living is his uncle. X may be placed under ________ of his uncle, which is defined as the placing under the custody
of another person, someone who is incapable of taking care of himself.
a. guardianship c. Guardian de Uncle
b. counsel de officio d. Appointed Guardian
50. In guardianship, in the above example, the uncle in law is called the GUARDIAN, while X, the minor is called
the ________
a. juvenile delinquent c. adopted
b. pardonee d. WARD
51. During the 16th up to the 18th century, a criminal may be sent away from a place carried out by prohibition to
coming against a specified territory. This is an ancient form of punishment called:
a. exile c. transportation
b. banishment d. public trial
52. The theory in penal science which maintains that punishment gives lesson to the offender and the would be
criminals is called
a. deterrence c. reformations
b. incapacitation d. public safety
53. One of the following represents the earliest codification of the roman law, which was incorporated into the
Justinian code.
a. twelve tables c. burgundian code
b. code of draco d. hammurabic code
54. Municipal prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment from______.
a. 1 day to 3 years c. 1 day to 30 days
b. 1 day to 6 months d. none of these
55. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in the Philippines under the BUCOR is located
in_____.
a. Palawan c. Zamboanga
b. Davao d. Occ. Mindoro
56. In the history of Correction, thinkers during the reformatory movement were the major influence of today’s
correctional system, Alexander Moonachie was the one who introduced the:
a. Solitary system c. Irish system
b. Marked system d. Congregate system
57. What law renamed the Bureau of Prison to Bureau of Correction during the Aquino Administration in the
Philippines.
a. E.O. 727 c. E.O. 645
b. E.O. 292 d. E.O. 104
58. The generic term that includes all Government agencies, facilities, programs, procedures, personnel, and
techniques concern with the investigation, intakes, custody, confinement, supervision or treatment of alleged
offenders, refers to:
a. Correction c. Penology
b. Criminal Justice d. base pillar
59. Retaliation is the earliest remedy for a wrong act to any one( in the primitive society). The concepts follows that
the victims family or tribe against the family or tribe of the offender, hence, “ blood feud” was accepted in early
primitive societies; retaliation means?
a. Personal vengeance c. Tooth for a Tooth
b. Eye for an Eye d. all of these
60. In Babylon, about 1990 B.C. credited as the oldest code prescribing savage punishment but in fact.
a. Hammurabi code c. Sumerian code

3
 b. Justinian code d. Code of draco
61. In 1936, the city of Manila exchange its Muntinlupa property with the Bureau of prisons originally intended as a
site for “boys training school” the old bilibid prison is now?
a. May Haligue state c. Tandang sora state
b. New bilibid Jail d. Muntinlupa Jail
62. He is the first leader to prescribed imprisonment as correctional treatment for major offenders,
a. Charles Montesiquieu c. Jeremy Betham
b. William Penn d. Cesare Beccaria
63. The sheriff of Bedfordshire in 1973 who devoted his life and fortune to prison reform, After his finding in English
prison, he recommended the ff, single cells for sleeping, segregation of woman and youth, provision of sanitation
facilities, abolition of fee system by which jailers obtain money from prisoners,
a. John Howard c. Robert Peel
b. William Peen d. Manuel Montesimos
64. The Penalty imposed for offenders must be certain, This means that?
a. the guilty one must be the one to be punish, no proxy.
b. no one must escape its effect
c. it must be equal to all person
d. the consequences must be in accordance with the law
65. The duration of arresto menor as a penalty is from?
a. 1 day to 1 month c. 1 day to 31 days
b. 1 day to 30 days d. either A or C
66. Mr. Cruz was convicted of the crime of Murder, after 10 days of the promulgation of the sentence, he escape
from his place of confinement. He is?
a. liable for evasion of service of sentence c. considered as a scaped prisoner
b. not liable for evasion of service of sentence d. none of this
67. A warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities to
receive the convicted offender for service of sentence or detention is known as:
a. Mittimus c. Detention Mittimus
b. sentence Mittimus d. Detention Warrant
68. The probation order is read before the petitioners and the probation officer
A. In probation office
B. Inside the judges room
C. In confidence
D. In open court
69. What is the statutory reduction of the maximum sentence which the prisoner serves in view of good behaviour
while in prison?
A. Commutation C. Good conduct time allowance
B. Probation D. Parole
70. The bureau of correction has an admission program for newly committed offenders to remain in the reception
and diagnostic center for a period of
a. 30 days c. 20 days
b. 60 days d. 10 days
71. Under the prison service manual, the prescribed color of prison uniform for maximum security prison is:
a. Orange c. Yellow
b. Blue d. Pink
72. How many days that a national offender be confined at the separation center before the
Actual release?
a. 30 c. 10
b. 60 d. 15
73. The camp Sampaguita in Muntinlupa houses?
a. Super Maximum Security Prisoner c. Maximum Security Prisoner
b. Medium Security Prisoner d. Minimum Security Prisoner
74.The only early roman place of confinement which is built under the main sewer of Rome in 64 B.C.
a. Bridewell Workhouse c. Wallnut street Jail
b. Burgundian House d. Mamertine Prison
75. The punishment should be approved by the state whose sanction is violated, to afford the society or individual
the opportunity of imposing upon the offender suitable punishment as might be enforced. Offenders should be
punished because they deserved it. This is one of the justification of punishment called:
a. Atonement c. Incapacitation
b. Deterrence d. Retribution

76. The penalty imposed for offender must be certain. This means that
a. The guilty one must the one to be punished, no proxy.
b. No one must escape its effect
c. It must be equal to all person
d. The consequences must be in accordance with the law
77. The program which is contusive to change behavior and moral by changing prisoner’s attitude for a useful
education refers to?
a. Vocational Education c. Work Programs
b. Prison Education d. Recreational Program
78. An inmate shall be transferred to a separation center for adjustment process from life in prison to life in free
community within:
4
 a. 60 days prior to release c. 90 days before release
b. 30 days prior to release d. 15 days prior to release
79. Who prescribes minimum standard of security, hygiene, recreational, work program to provincial and/or city
jails?
a. Secretary of Justice c. Custodial Officer
b. Director of prison d. Director for good behavior
80. The process of determining the needs and requirements of prisoners for assigning them to programs according
to their existing resources is called:
a. classification c. quarantine
b. diversification d. quality control
81. Public humiliation or public exhibition also means:
a. public execution c. banishment
b. social degradation d. public trial
82. When a jailbreak, escape and riot is in progress or has just been perpetrated in the jail, the officer at the control
centers shall immediately.
a. sound the alarm c. locked prisoners in their respective cells
b. notify the nearest police precinct d. call the warden or Director
83. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of custodial force shall be immediately issued firearm and assigned to
critical post, to;
a. plug off the escape routes c. to shoot the escape
b. protect the other inmates d. to give warning shots
84. If the Warden is taken as a hostage, for all intents and purposes, he ceases to exercise authority and the next
in command or the officer present shall assume the command.
a. Veteran c. most senior
b. assistant d. custodial
85. Which of this is known as the adult Probation Law?
a. PD 603 c. PD 698
b. PD 869 d. PD 968
86. Which of these is known as the release on reconnaissance law providers for the release of offenders charged of
an offense whose penalty is not more than six months and or a fine ofP2,000 or both, to the custody of a
responsible person in the community, instead of baibond-
a. RA 6036 c. PD 603
b. RA 6127 d. RA 3660
87. Waiting for the decision of the court on the application for probation, the offender applying for probation
a. Must stay in prison as a detainee c. May be released on bail or recognizance
b. May be set free without bail d. All of these
88. The continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer is known as.
a. Affiliation guidance c. Pre-sentenced investigation
b. Supervision d. Probation guidance
89. The court may grant probation only
a. After arraignment c. Before conviction
b. After conviction d. All of these
90. The investigation report of an officer shall be submitted to the court not later than
a. 15 days from receipt of the order c. 60 days from receipt of the order
b. 30 days from receipt of the order d. 45 days from receipt of the order
91. Upon receipt of the probation officer investigation report,, the court shall resolve the application for probation not
later than
a. 60 days b. 30 days c. 15 days d. 45 days
92. A private person who, in 1669, established a workhouse in Hamburg at his own expense because he had
observed that thieves and prostitutes were made worse instead by better by the pillory and he hoped that they
might be improved by work and religious instruction in the workhouse. He is:
a. August Vollmer c. Bishop Ridley
b. Peter Rentzel d. Garofalo
93. The foremost advocate of reparation and restitution method that if the offender is solvent, his property should be
attached at the time of procceding when started, so that he can be compelled by order of the court to make
restitution,
a. Bonneville de Marsangay c. John Howard
b. Garafalo, Ferri and Fioretti d. Orlando Wilson
94. The Director of the English Prison who open the Borstal Institution for young offender,
a. Alexander Maconochie c. John Augustus
b. John Howard d. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
95. Those who have been once on probation under the Probation Law:
a. Are qualified to apply for probation c. May be granted for another probation
b. Are disqualified to apply for probation d. Should be confined in prison
96. The quasi-judicial body which was created under Act no. 4103 otherwise known as the Intermediate Sentence
Law of the Parole Law, the agency that grants parole to any prisoner who is qualified to enjoy its benefit refers to :
a. The Probation and Parole Administration c. The Bureau of Correction
b. The Board of Pardon and Parole d. The BJMP
97. What is the country, whose early schemes for humanizing the criminal justice under its common law, originated
probation?
a. England c. Greece
b. United States d. France

5
98. What is the country who first legally established Probation?
a. Germany c. Rome
b. England d. USA
99. Which of the following does not belong to the common law practices to which the emergence of probation is
attributed?
a. Recognizance c. Reprieve
b. Benefit of the Clergy d. Penance
100. Among the different common law practices, it is considered as the earliest device for softening brutal severity
of punishment?
a. Benefit of the Clergy c. Penance
b. Recognizance d. Reprieve
101. What happens if a prisoner is granted absolute pardon?
A. His criminal liability is totally extinguished
B. His criminal liability is totally extinguished
C. His criminal liability is partially extinguished
D. His criminal lability continues to exist
102. How long is the term of office of members of the board of pardon and parole?
A. Five 5 years without reappointment
B. Six 6 years without prejudice to reappointment
C. Six 6 years without reappointment
D. Five 5 years without prejudice to reappointment
103. The following are examples of executive clemency. Which among them can alter death to life imprisonment?
A. Reprieve C. Commutation of Sentence
B. Amnesty D. Pardon
104. Pedro was sentenced in 2011 to a prison term of four (4) years and one (1) day and qualified for probation in
2008. He was again charged for a crime for which he has convicted and muted out a penalty of three (3) years and
one (1) day. Is he qualified for probation?
A. No, he is a second time offered
B. Yes, he can apply for probation
C. No, he is a recidivist
D. Yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years
105. What concept is referred to when a prison is completely encapsula
A. Therapeutic community C. Half-way house
B. Total institution D. Voluntarily institution
106. Who was the Boston shoemaker who prayed to the court that youthful offenders and alcoholic shall be placed
under his charge?
A. John Augustus C. Jeremy Bentham
B. Emil Durkheim D. Eduard Savage
107. What is referred to as the withdrawal of the privilege of probation or parole resulting in the incarceration of the
offender
A. Revocation C. Suspension
B. Retaliation D. Commutation
108. A calamity occurred in a municipality prompting the jail warden to let go the inmates. After 45 hours and there
was a declaration that the place is safe, inmate A returned to his cell. What is his reward?
A. Visitation privilege
B. Good food and drinks
C. Special time and allowance
D. Good conduct allowance
109. What is submitted to the court by the probation officer that is used as basis for grant or denial of petition for
probation?
A. Pre-trial report
B. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
C. Pre-sentence Investigation Report
D. Post-trial Report
110. What happens to a probationer when the court withdraws his privilege of probation?
A. He is released to the community
B. His placed under parole
C. He is placed under police custody
D. He is returned to prison and he serves his sentence
112. How many times may probation be granted?
A. Twice C. Thrice
B. As many times D. Once
113. The court shall resolve the application for probation not later than?
A. Twenty (20) days after receipt of post-sentence investigation report
B. Five (5) days after receipt of post-sentence investigation report
C. Ten (10) days after receipt of post-sentence investigation report
D. Fifteen (15) days after receipt of post-sentence investigation report
114. Alfonzo was convicted to a prison term of prison correctional. Is he qualified for probation?

6
 A. No his sentence is less than (6) six years and one (1) day
B. Yes his sentence is less than (6) six years and one (1) day
C. No his sentence is more than (6) six years and one (1) day
D. Yes his sentence is (3) three years and one (1) day
115. It is a report on the background of the convict prepared to help the judge decide for the approval or denial of
application for probation
A. Probation Report
B. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
C. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
D. Pre-Trial Report
116. National prisoners are convicted offenders who are sentenced to serve a prison term of _____.
A. Six months to three years
B. Less than six months
C. Six years and below
D. Three years and above
117. Peter was sentenced to serve a prison term of six (6) years. He did not qualify for probation. He was brought to
the Bureau of Correction in Muntinlupa. To which place should Peter be brought for processing and classification?
A. Processing Center
B. Testing Center
C. Reception and diagnostic center
D. Evaluation center
118. What system was referred to where prisoner were employed in the production of goods and services used only
in government institute and agencies?
A. Leave system C. contract labor system
B. State use system D. public account system
119. Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a little more care than other inmates. Which of the
following should not be done by a jail officer
A. Ensure that the inmate comply with his prescribe diet
B. Avoid assigning sentence jobs to the inmate
C. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff regularly
D. Prescribe the medicine to the heart patient-inmate
120. The theory of deterrence hold that:
A. The punishment eliminate criminal tendencies with the provision of education and treatment
B. The punishment inflicted upon offender shall dissuade the offender and others from repeating
the crime
C. The punishment denies the criminal’s ability or opportunity to commit further crime
D. Through the punishment society can vent its anger to word