Module 2 Exam Answers

1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model
Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network
Transport
Physical**
Data Link**
Session

2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer
encapsulation?
supports error detection**
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection

3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.**
The process port number is added.

4. What device is considered an intermediary device?

file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch**

5. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?

physical
data link**
network
transport

6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network?
(Choose three.)
determine pathways for data**
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals**
originate the flow of data
manage data flows**
final termination point for data flow
7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the path to use to reach the destination host**
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data

8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the
lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical**
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the
network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A -- WAN
Network B -- WAN**
Network C -- LAN**
Network B -- MAN
Network C -- WAN
Network A -- LAN**

10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)

allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication**
enables consistent network paths for communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device**
enables the reassembly of complete messages**
tracks delay between end devices

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process
represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing
**encapsulation

12. What is a PDU?

corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
**a layer specific encapsulation
13. Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with
"IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type
best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
the destination device
**an end device
an intermediate device
a media device

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
**E, F, H, I, J

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in
the green area?
source
end
transfer
**intermediary

16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
**A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
**The network is administered by a single organization.
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
**A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a
common organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service
Provider (TSP).

17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?

WAN
MAN
**LAN
WLAN

18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?

path determination and packet switching
**data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
the division of segments into packets

19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?

manage data flows
originate data flow
**retime and retransmit data signals determine pathways for data
 20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
**to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
**define the structure of layer specific PDU's
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
**outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit hardware compatibility
**require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendors

Module 3 Exam Answers

1. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
used by the server to resolve names

2. What are two forms of application layer software?

applications
syntax

3. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between
a client and a server?
FTP

4. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks?

decentralized resources
resource sharing without a dedicated server

5. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the
network?
application

6. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications?

acts as both a client and server within the same communication
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files
can be used in client-server networks

7. What is the role of the OSI application layer?

provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network

8. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model?
DNS, SMTP, POP
9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers?
MDA, MTA

10. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web
server to a client browser?
HTTPS
HTTP

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email?
receives email from the client's MUA
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers

12. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?

does not support encryption

13. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function?

DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

14. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP
address?
DNS

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is
represented on line 5?
80

16. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks?

initiate data exchanges
may upload data to servers

17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in
Microsoft networks?
SMB

18. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five
users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model?
centralized administration
security is easier to enforce

19. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for
gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type?
A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.
Security is difficult to enforce.

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for
services?
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the
service
Module 4 Exam Answers
1. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the
output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
**A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
**The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.

2. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard
port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the
server?
13
53
**80
1024
1728

3. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
**acknowledgments
source and destination

4. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?

acknowledgement of data delivery
**minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1.
During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from
Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
**reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header

6. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being
performed?
**session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect
7. Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in
the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be
included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
**1850
3431
3475

8. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?

to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical
order
**to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts

9. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of
order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
**The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.

10. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-
known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
**0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535

11. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for
applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
**UDP
HTTP
DNS

12. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
**flow control
**low overhead
connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements
13. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from
source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
**window size
acknowledgments

14. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
**source port

15. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
**to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

16. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)

identifies the destination network
**identifies source and destination hosts
identifies the communicating applications
**identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media

17. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of
data from source to destination?
**encapsulation
flow control
connectionless services
**session establishment
**numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery

18. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from
source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
**transport
network
 19. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following
statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
**This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of
43693.
**This is a TCP header.

20. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
**UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.

Module 5 Exam Answers

1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data

packets from one interface of a router to another?
**destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address

2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
**source and destination IP address

3. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?

The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
**The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was
received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet
to be sent.

4. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?

type-of-service
identification
flags
**time-to-live
header checksum
5. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
host portion
broadcast address
**network portion
gateway address

6. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default
gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
**192.133.219.1

7. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on
communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
**The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to
communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to
communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.

8. What is the purpose of a default gateway?

physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the
rest of the network
**identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with
devices on other networks

9. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
**static
standard

10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what
are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
**The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
**The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.
11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network?
(Choose three.)
**gateways
purpose
physical addressing
software version
**geographic location
**ownership

12. What is a component of a routing table entry?

the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
**the next-hop address

13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks?
(Choose two.)
**router
hub
switch
**firewall
access point
bridge

14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
too few broadcasts
**performance degradation
**security issues
**limited management responsibility
host identification
protocol compatibility

15. Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings.
How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
3
**4
5
7
8
11
16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous
router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the
destination host.
**If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route
is used to forward the packet.
**If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the
packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
**If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote
network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the
host will drop the packet.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity

problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets
out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which
address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside
network?
10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
**10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many
broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to
resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
**Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
**Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two
statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
**192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the
10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the
192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
**192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the
192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the
10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the
172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the
172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
 20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols?
(Choose two.)
require no device configuration
**provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
consume bandwidth to exchange route information
**prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table

21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?

A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network
segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all
destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the
local network.
**A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when
no other route to the destination exists.

Module 6 Exam Answers

1. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
128
64
48
32 **

2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme

that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link
has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the
same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address
the remaining networks?
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192 **
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.252
3. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of
LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted
using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided
to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet).
By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host
address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which
configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow
connectivity to the network?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway:
192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway:
192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway:
192.168.10.33 **
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway:
192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway:
192.168.10.1

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme
shown in the graphic.
/24
/16
/20
/27 **
/25
/28

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble
with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host
A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
NAT is required for the host A network. **

6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of

172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0 **
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

7. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of

the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
This is a network address. **
This is not a valid address.
8. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose
three.)
identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
is altered as packet is forwarded **
varies in length **
is used to forward packets **
uses flat addressing

9. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?

10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000 **
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000

10. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of
255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
172.16.192.160 **
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176

11. Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the
command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
The IP settings are not properly configured on the host. **
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.

12. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL
value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
The router will discard the packet.
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on
the path to the destination host.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host. **
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on
the path to the destination host.
The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host. **
13. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0
/24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the
machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be
the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.248
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.252
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.128
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254 **
192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192 **
192.168.22.101 255.255.255.224

14. Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)

larger address space **
faster routing protocols
data types and classes of service **
authentication and encryption **
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4

15. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a
given IP address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing **

16. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?

security
header format simplification
expanded addressing capabilities **
addressing simplification

17. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)

172.168.33.1
10.35.66.70 **
192.168.99.5 **
172.18.88.90 **
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5

18. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)

NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router. **
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself. **
 19. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.127 /26
172.16.4.155 /26 **
172.16.4.193 /26 **
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
172.16.4.207 /27 **

20. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of
their addresses?
an internet
a network **
an octet
a radi **

21. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any
resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What
could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host. **

22. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP
addresses? (Choose three.)
LAN workstations
servers **
network printers **
routers **
remote workstations
laptops

Module 7 Exam Answers

1. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media?
(Choose three.)
**non-deterministic
**less overhead
one station transmits at a time
**collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing
2. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
**facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated

3. Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic
routes from the PC to the laptop?
1
**2
4
8

4. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
**Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning
the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place
in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
**00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af

6. What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
**They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
**They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
**They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the
network.

7. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source
MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose
two.)
source MAC - PC
source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
**source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
**source IP - PC
source IP - S0/0 on RouterA source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB
8. What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
network layer addressing
**media sharing
application processes
**logical topology
intermediary device function

9. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
**is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

10. What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model?
(Choose two.)
**Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
**Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

11. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
**Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
**Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

12. Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical
layer?
LLC
**MAC
HDLC
NIC

13. What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)

**Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
**defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
**Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions
14. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
**The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

15. What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to
another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
**The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
**The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new
network.

16. What is a function of the data link layer?

provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
**provides for the exchange data over a common local media

17. Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a
network? (Choose three.)
the Layer 3 protocol selected
**the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
**the physical layer implementation
**the number of hosts to be interconnected

18. What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
define the logical topology
provide media access control
**support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame

19. A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly
where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is
this type of drawing?
logical topology
**physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology
 20. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that
are used by the networks in the exhibit?
All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
**Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

Module 8 Exam Answers

1. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
**backbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable

2. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
BNC
RJ-11
**RJ-45
Type F

3. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
**when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router

4. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes
crosstalk within the cable pairs?
**the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

5. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and
physical aspects of network communication?
Presentation
Transport
Data Link
**Physical
6. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the
media by using what device?
light injector
**OTDR
TDR
multimeter

7. XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of
cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
**coax
Cat4 UTP
Cat5 UTP
**Cat6 UTP
STP

8. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
**Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the
improper connection.

9. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

goodput
**frequency
amplitude
**throughput
crosstalk
**bandwidth

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet
connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
**crossover cable
straight-through cable

11. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference

may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
coax
**fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP
12. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
kolmas

13. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
electrical
optical
**wireless
acoustic

14. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

**It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
**It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

15. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

**generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
generally uses lasers as the light source

16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?

**more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
**the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket

18. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
**create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media
Module 9 Exam Answers
1. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame
to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B
do?
Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
**Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

Network layer
Transport layer
**Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
**Data-link layer

3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

**the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before
sending another frame
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before
sending another frame
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper
synchronization
**the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being
considered unreachable

4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose
three.)
**addressing
**error detection
**frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution

5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to
transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
**The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <---
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose
three.)
recognizes streams of bits
**identifies the network layer protocol
**makes the connection with the upper layers
identifies the source and destination applications
**insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

MAC sublayer
Physical layer
**Logical Link Control sublayer
Network layer

8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay
before attempting to transmit a frame?
A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
**A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision
during the transmission.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the
contents that frame field includes?
**header field - preamble and stop frame
data field - network layer packet
data field - physical addressing
trailer field - FCS and SoF

10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A

needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs
the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur?
(Choose two.)
Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the
packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
**Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
**A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11. Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

**Collisions can decrease network performance.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN
technologies.
12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
application
physical
transport
internet
data link
**network access

13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?

translate URLs to IP addresses
**resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

14. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for
full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
**No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements
correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.

A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
**A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
**A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

16. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

dynamically assigned
**copied into RAM during system startup
layer 3 address
**contains a 3 byte OUI
**6 bytes long
32 bits long

17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks?
(Choose two.)
reduction in cross-talk
**minimizing of collisions
support for UTP cabling
**division into broadcast domains
increase in the throughput of communications
 18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today?
(Choose two.)
**coaxial thicknet
copper UTP
coaxial thinnet
optical fiber
**shielded twisted pair

19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the
correct answer from the list below.
85
90
**BA
A1
B3
1C

20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has
priority to transmit data?
the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
**any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time

Module 10 Exam Answers

1. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as
shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose
two.)
connecting a PC to a router's console port
**connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
**connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose
three.)
They propagate broadcasts.
They enlarge collision domains.
They segment broadcast domains.
**They interconnect different network technologies.
**Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
**They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.
3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture
software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To
ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect
the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
**router
hub
switch
wireless access point

4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100
meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive
and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited
cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
STP
**UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology?
(Choose three.)
Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
**Five broadcast domains are present.
**Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
xFive networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

6. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial
cables? (Choose three.)
RJ 11
**DB 60
**Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
**smart serial
RJ 45

7. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the
130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
**2046
2048
4094
4096
8. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of
Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
both host A and B would be successful
**host A would be successful, host B would fail
host B would be successful, host A would fail
both Host A and B would fail

9. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a
packet destined for PC2?
192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
**192.168.3.54

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be
used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
**Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
**Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
**Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

11. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which
subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in
each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
**255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

12. Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for
extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best
suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?
wireless access point
router
hub
**switch

13. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is
shown?
2
**3
4
5
14. What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
**loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

15. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable
wiring option would be used?
**crossover cable
straight through cable
rollover cable
V.35 cable

16. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose
three.)
**greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
xlimited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
xgreater bandwidth potential
easily terminated

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24
private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which
subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this
internetwork?
**255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

18. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to
provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
**255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

19. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
**rollover
patch cable
 20. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial
configuration of a Cisco router?
AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
**console interface

21. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX
operation? (Choose three.)
direct configuration of the device
**cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
**the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
**the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

22. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?

hub
switch
bridge
**router
repeater

23. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many
subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
**5
7

Module 11 Exam Answers

1. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to
configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
UBAMA# configure terminal
UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
UBAMA(config)# line console 0
UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
**UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

2. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?

after a system restart
as the commands are entered
when logging off the system
**when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration
3. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean
router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config
command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect
to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret cisco
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret cisco
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A
**enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A

4. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for
management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
**Console
Telnet
SSH

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the
FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1
interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to
telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
RouterB(config-if)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
**RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config-line)# login RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# enable secret class RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config)# line aux 0 RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco RouterB(config-vty)# login
6. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to
a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has
experienced any input or output errors?
show running-config
show startup-config
**show interfaces
show ip route
show version
show memory

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the
prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
line configuration mode
user executive mode
**global configuration mode
privileged executive mode
interface configuration mode
**enable mode

8. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?

Router# name Fontana
Router# hostname Fontana
Router(config)# name Fontana
**Router(config)# hostname Fontana

9. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which

configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity
with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
**Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
**Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
**Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

10. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on
Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
**IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

11. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to
this switch?
NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
**NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
NA-SW1(config-if)# description description
12. Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator
wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the
following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
show flash
show NVRAM
**show startup-config
**show running-config
show version

13. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS?
(Choose three.)
**hot keys
context-check
**context-sensitive
structured check
**command override
command syntax check

14. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and
connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C
results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful.
What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router
output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
The host A is turned off.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
**The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
**The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

15. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or
traceroute process?
Ctrl-C
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-R
**Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z

16. The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after
rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks
10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace
route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to
troubleshoot the problem?
Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
**Issue a show interfaces command on router C.
17. In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?
RAM
ROM
**Flash
NVRAM

18. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
toinen

19. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents
private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which
access method should be chosen?
Telnet
Console
AUX
**SSH