Name of the Trade : Telephone & Mobile Set Repairing

Choose the correct answer :

1. Who invented the Telephone :-

(a) Alexander Graham Bell, (b) Thomas A. Watson, (c) Thomas Alva Edison,
(d) None of above

2. What is the unit of measurement for the inductance of a coil :-

(a) Watt, (b) Henry, (c) Farad, (d) Ohm

3. How do you identify an Electrolytic Capacitor :-

(a) Identifying the positive & negative terminals, (b) Observing the size,
(c) Observing the value, (d) None of above

4. Sound energy is converted to electrical energy through :-

(a)Microphone, (b) Speaker, (c) Radio, (d) None of above

5. Farad is the unit of :-

(a)Diode, (b) Resistor, (c)Transistor, (d) Capacitor

6. What is the full form of SMT:-

(a)Surface Mount Technique, (b) Strong Mount Technique, (c) Surface Mount
Technology, (d) None of above

7. Bridge Rectifier is built up with :-

(a)4XBB501, (b) 4XIN4007, (c) 2XIN34, (d) None of above

8. BTS stands for :-

(a)Base Transmitting System, (b)Base Transreceiver System, (c)Base Terminal
System, (d) None of above

9. DIL stands for :-

(a)Dual in Line, (B)Direct in Line, (c) Divided in Line, (d) None of above

10. The incoming ring alert of telephone is heard by:-

(a)Speaker , (b)Microphone, (c)Buzzer, (d) None of above

11. AGC stands for :-

(a)Automatic Gain Control, (b)Automatic Ground Control, (c) Active Gain
Control, (d) None of above

12. What is the purpose of a Coupling Capacitor :-

(a)Bypasses all signal, (b)Pass AC & Block DC, (c) Pass DC & Block AC, (d)
None of above
13. LDR depends on :-
(a)Photo, (b)Voltage, (c)Light, (d) None of above

14. The basic material of an Integrated Circuit is :-

(a)Copper, (b)Zinc, (c)Silicon, (d) None of above

15. RF Crystal Frequency, which is mostly used in Mobile Phone is of the value :-
(a)13MHz, (b)26MHz, (c)19.2MHz, (d) None of above

16. The unit of the capacitance is :-

(a)Henry, (b)Ohm, (c)Farad, (d)Watt
17. TDMA stands for :-
(a) Trade Development Man Access, (b)Time Division Multiple Access, (c)Time
Dependent Manual Access, (d) None of above

18. What is the Audio frequency range :-

(a)Less than 20Hz, (b)20Hz to 220 KHz, (c)Above 20KHz, (d) None of above

19. Solder is an alloy for :-

(a)Tin & Zinc, (b)Tin & Nickel, (c)Tin & Lead, (d)None of above

20. What is the key which you have to press in a telephone hand set, when you make a
change over from pulse dialing to tone dialing :-
(a)#, (b)*, (c)0, (d) None of above

21. R-20/22 of Nokia 3310/3315 is in which portion :-

(a)Memory, (b)Power, (c)Audio, (d) None of above

22. What is 1KB in terms of bytes :-

(a)1000 Bytes, (b)1012 Bytes, (c)1024 Bytes, (d) None of above

23. GSM stands for :-

(a)Group Special Mobile, (b)Global System for Mobile, (c)Global Special
Mobile, (d) None of above

24. What is the full form of WAP:-

(a)Wireless Application Protocol, (b)Wireband Application Protocol, (c)Wireless
Application Public, (d) None of above

25. In a Mobile SIM socket, how many pins are there :-

(a)10, (b)6, (c)4, (d) None of above

26. When the VCO is damaged, then what happens :-

(a)No message, (b)No Audio Tone, (c)Power off, (d) None of above

27. The incoming signal frequency in a GSM Handset is :-

 (a)947 KHz, (b)952 KHz, (c) 947 MHz, (d) None of above

28. IMEI stands for :-

(a)International Mobile Equipment Identity, (b)International Mobile Engineering
Industry, (c) International Mobile Equipment Industry, (d) None of above

29. What type of battery are used for the memory of a Mobile Handset :-
(a)Li-Ion, (b)Li-Cd, (c)Ni-Cd, (d) None of above

30. What kind of modulation is PCM :-

(a)Delta Modulation, (b)Digital Modulation, (c)Analog Modulation, (d) None of
above

31. VLR stands for :-

(a)Voice Loading Resistor, (b)Visitor Location Resistor, (c)Visitor Loading
Resistor, (d) None of above

32. FM stands for :-

(a)Frequency Modulation, (b)Frequency Module, (c)Frequency Memory, (d)
None of above

33. When the Hagar IC in a Nokia 3310/3315 is damaged, then the fallout is :-
(a)No Network, (b)No Display, (c)No Charging, (d) None of above

34. Write value of the resistor, having the colour code Red-Red-Red :-
(a)22MΩ, (b)22KΩ, (c)2.2KΩ, (d)22Ω

35. What is the Audio Frequency Processor of Nokia 3310 :-

(a)Cobba IC, (b)Hagar IC, (c) CC cont IC, (d) None of above

36. SMS stands for :-

(a)Short Messaging Service, (b)Standard Messaging Service, (c)Short Messaging
System, (d) None of above
37. LED stands for :-
(a)Light Emitter Diode, (b)Light Eliminator Diode, (c)Light Emitting Diode,
(d) None of above

38. CDMA implies :-

(a)Code Divide Multiple Access, (b)Code Division Multiple Access, (c)Code
Division Manual Access, (d)None of above

39. GPRS stands for :-

(a)General Packet Radio Service, (b)General Pocket Radio Service, (c)General
Pin Radio Service, (d) None of above

40. Potential difference of electrical circuits are measured in

 (a)Unit of time, (b)Watt hour, (c)Unit of Volt, (d) None of above

41. What is the full form of PCB :-

(a)Printed Circuit Board, (b)Printed Circuit band, (c)Printed Circuit base, (d)None
of above

42. Optical Fibre is used in :-

(a)For Transmission, (b)Frequency Measurement, (c)Wire Breaker (d)None of
above

43. The working capacity of a battery is given by :-

(a)Watt-hour, (b)Ampere-hour, (c)Voltage-hour, (d)None of above

44. WLL stands for :-

(a)Wild Local Loop, (b)Wireless Local Loop, (c)Wire Local Loop, (d)None of
above
45. The range of Bluetooth application :-
(a)Long range, (b)Medium range, (c)Short range, (d)None of above

46. The cause of no Backlight in the display of Nokia 3310 is due to :-

(a)Damaged Flash IC, (b)Damaged Interface IC, (c)Damaged Power IC, (d)None
of above

47. FET stands for :-

(a)Field Effect Transistor, (b)Fixed Effect Transistor, (c)Field Exaggerated
Transistor, (d)None of above

48. What is the full form of ISDN :-

(a)Integrated Service Digital Network, (b)International Services Digital network,
(c)Internet Service Digital Network, (d)None of above

49. How many Diodes are there in a half-wave rectification :-

(a)2 nos, (b)4 nos, (c)1 no, (d)None of above

50. What is the meaning of the word SMD :-

(a)Short Mount Diode, (b)Surface Missing Diode, (c)Surface mount Devices,
(d)None of above

51. MMS stands for :-

(a)Multimedia Messaging Service, (b)Multiple Messaging Service (c) Multimedia
Mobile Service (d)None of above

52. ALU stands for :-

(a)Arithmatic Logic Unit, (b)Active Logic Unit, (c)Actual Logic Unit, (d)None of
above
53. Majority Carriers in n-type semiconductor are :-
(a)Electrons, (b)Holes, (c)Protons, (d)None of above

54. A Beetel telephone set uses IC UM91214Bfor :-

(a)Dialer IC, (b)Ringer IC, (c)Sound Amplifier, (d)None of above

55. A sound amplifier IC TEA1062A has how many pins :-

(a)16, (b)12, (c)10, (d)8

56. The output of a two input AND gate is low when :-

(a)Both the Inputs are low, (b)Both the inputs are high, (c)None of the inputs are
low, (d)None of above

57. What is the full form of SAW filter?

(a) Surface audio wave filter
(b) Surface acoustic wave filter
(c) Surface airwave filter
(d) None of above

58. What type of switch is antenna switch?

(a) Duplexer
(b) Diplexer
(c) Duplicator
(d) None of above

59. What is the supply pin no of the LOGICIC of NOKIA N3310?

(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 25
60. What is the full form of IVRS?
(a) Intermediate Voice Recording System
(b) Interactive Voice Response System
(c) Intermediate Voice Response System
(d) None of above

61. CO×416 implies what?

(a) 4 extension line of EPABX
(b) 16 extension line of EPABX
(c) 4 telephone lines and 16 extension line.
(d) None of above

62. What is RTC?

(a) Real Time Clock
(b) Red Tone Clock
 (c) Real Time Collector
(d) None of above

63. What is the full form of PUK?

(a) Phase Unlocking Keys
(b) Personal Unlocking Keys
(c) Personal Universal Key
(d) None of above

64. What is the unit of work done?

(a) Watt
(b) Ampere
(c) Joule
(d) Newton/meter

65. The O/P of a T-flip-flop is a

(a) Square Wave
(b) Sine Wave
(c) Triangular Wave
(d) Trapezoidal Wave
66. Full form of CRT is
(a) Colour ray tube
(b) Cascaded ray tube
(c) Cathode ray tube
(d) Contact ray tube

67. Sectoring is used in

(a) CDMA
(b) GSM
(c) FDMA
(d) None of above

68. Cell breathing is phenomenon in

(a) CDMA
(b) GSM
(c) FDMA
(d) None of above

69. The full form of TMSI is

(a) Temporary Subscriber Identity
(b) Total Mobile Subscriber Identity
(c) Total Modern Subscriber Identity
(d) None of these

70. The SIM supply voltage of NOKIA 3310/3315 is

(a) 2.5V
 (b) 3V
(c) 3.5
(d) 5V

71. Crystal Oscillator works on

(a) Piezo electric effect
(b) Ringer effect
(c) Sound effect
(d) None of these

72. 1G mobile phones are based on

(a) GSM System
(b) CDMA System
(c) FDMA based system
(d) None of these

73. What sort of microphones is used in telephone handsets?

(a) Carbon microphones
(b) Condenser microphones
(c) Ceramic buzzers
(d) None of above

74. TSOP package is a _________package.

(a) Thru’ hole
(b) SMT
(c) BGA
(d) None of above

75. What is the value of 1pF ?

(a) 10-9 F
(b) 10-12F
(c) 10-6F
(d) 10-3F

76. The row group frequency of DTMF generator is

(a) 80-100Hz
(b) 200-300Hz
(c) 500-600Hz
(d) 697-941Hz

77. PCB cleaning can be done using

(a) Thinner
(b) Alcohol
(c) Water
(d) None of above
78. Anti-static mat is used for
(a) Limiting the effect of ESD
(b) Limiting current in a PCB
(c) Limiting voltage on PCB
(d) None of these

79. Porcelain is an
(a) Conductor
(b) Semiconductor
(c) Insulator
(d) None of these

80. Cu is a
(a) Conductor
(b) Semiconductor
(c) Insulator
(d) None of these

81. The ringing voltage of a telephone handset is

(a) 50-70 VDC
(b) 80-100VAC
(c) 150-200VAC
(d) None of these

82. Thinner is
(a) Ethyl alcohol
(b) Trichloroethylene
(c) Isopropyl alcohol
(d) Methyl alcohol

83.The drop – voltage of a telephone is found in which condition?

(a) on load condition (b)off load condition (c)no load condition (d)none of these

84.hot air gun is used in mobile repairing for

(a)soldering and desoldering for SMT component (b)testing SMT
Components (c)identifying SMT components (d)none of these

85.Trojan moss is (a)computer program (b)computer command(c)virus(d)none of these

86.Amplitude shift keying is a(a)phase modulation technique(b)amplitude modulation

technique(c)analog modulation technique(d)none of these

87.Signal transmitted thru’ the local loop is(a) dc in nature(b) sinusoidal in nature
(c)pulsed in nature(d) none of these

88.The potentiometer is affixed value

(a) resistance(b) capacitor(c) inductor(d) none of these

89.IMEI is used to indentify a (a)BTS(b) MSC(c) BSC(d) mobile handset

90. A buzzer is made of -

(a) ceramic material(b) plastic material(c) polyester material (d) none of these

91.TRAI stands for(a) Telephone regulatory authority of India (b)Telephone and radio
authority of India(c) total regulatory authority of India (d)none of these

92. Antenna in a mobile phone is used for(a) receiving only(b) transmitting only
(c)transmit and receive only(c) none of these

93 Joule is unit of (a)resistor(b) time(c) work(d) power

94 To activate SIM how many volts are required (a) +10 (b) +8 (c) +5 (d) +3

95The value of resistor R22 is(a) 220ohm(b) 0.22ohm(c) 22ohm(d) 2.2ohm

96.What is the crystal frequency required to obtain dialing pulses in a telephony

(a)35MHz (b) 32MHz(c) 3.85MHz (d) 3.0MHz

97. What is the full name of BAW filter (a) background audio wave filter
(b) Background acoustic wave filter(c) bulk acoustic wave filter (d) none of these

98. Mute stands for(a) audio stop(b) video stop(c) audio & video stop(d) none of these

99. What position should be done for ring signal alert in telephone (a)ON HOOK
(b)OFF HOOK(c) transmission (d) none
100. The power on voltage of a mobile (a) 3.2V (b) 3.6V(c) 2.8V (d) none of these

101. UEM stands for(a) unit energy measurement(b) universal energy measurement
(c) universal energy module(d) none of these

102. PAM stands for (a) pulse amplitude modulation (b) pulse altered modulation
(c) phase amplitude modulation(d) none of these

103. PCM stands for (a) phase control modulation(b) pulse code modulation(c) pulse
control modulation(d) none of these

104. ROM is a (a) Resistor (b) Integrated Circuit (c) Artery (d) Tranistor

105. 3G technology are used for (a)SMS(b) video calling(c) MMS(d) none

106. What kind of modulation is PCM(a) analog(b) digital(c) delta (d) none of these
107. Phase shift keying is what sort of modulation(a) digital(b) analog(c) delta(d) none

108. A DTMF generator O/P consist of how many frequencies -

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) none of these
109. SIL stands for(a)single in line(b) straight in line(c) short in line(d) none of these

110. The ringing voltage of telephone handset is (a)50VAC(b) 70VAC(c) 80-100VAC

(d) none of these

111. The full form of MIMO is (a) multiple i/p ,multiple o/p(b) max i/p, min o/p (c) min
i/p,max o/p (d) none of these

112. The melting point of unleaded solder is (a)350ºc(b) 450ºc (c)550ºc(d) none of these

113. ESD stands for

(a) Electro-Short Discharge
(b) Electro-Static Discharge
(c) Electro-Surface Discharge
(d) None of these

114. The unit of conductance is

(a) mho
(b) Ohm
(c) Henry
(d) None of these

115. The full form of ROM is

(a) Run-only memory,
(b) Read-only memory,
(c) Rapid action memory,
(d) None of these

116. The full form of EEPROM is

(a) Electrically Eras able Programmable ROM,
(b) Electrically Erectable & Preparing ROM,
(c) Electrically Easy & Programmable ROM,
(d) None of these

117. Flash is a
(a) VRAM
(b) SRAM
(c) NVRAM
(d) None of these

118. The tolerance of a tantalum capacitor is

(a) Very low
 (b) Very high
(c) Nil
(d) None of these

119. TDMA is a
(a) Analog multiplexing technique
(b) Digital multiplexing technique
(c) Mixed multiplexing technique
(d) None of these

120. Optical fibres are .noisy than Cu.wires :-

(a) Less
(b) More
(c) Equally
(d) None of these

121. Piezo-electric effect is

(a) Conversion of mechanical energy to electrical
(b) Conversion of electrical energy to mechanical
(c) Conversion of kinetic energy to electrical
(d) None of these

122. The sound amplifier IC of Beetel Telephone is

(a) UM045
(b) UM91214B
(c) UM91224
(d) None of these

123. The full form of MIN is

(a) Mobile Identification Number
(b) Mobile Identity Number
(c) Maximum Identity Number
(d) None of these

124. The color code of 1K resistance is

(a) Brown, Black, Yellow
(b) Brown, Black, Red
(c) Brown, Black, Silver
(d) None of these

125. The filter in any electronic circuit is used for

(a) Boosting current
(b) Filtering noise
(c) Reducing current
(d) None of these
126. Video calling is possible in
(a) 3G
(b) 2G
(c) 1G
(d) None of these

127. A potentiometer is a resistance which is

(a) Fixed value
(b) Variable value
(c) Temperature Dependent
(d) None of these

128. Carbon film resistor are color coded for

(a) Coloring purposes
(b) Identifying the power level
(c) Identifying the value
(d) None of these

129. SIM is a
(a) Microprocessor
(b) I / O device
(c) Memory device
(d) None of these

130. FET is a
(a) Bi-polar device
(b) Uni-polar device
(c) Tri- polar device
(d) None of these

131. Voltage dropper section is used in

(a) Telephone
(b) Television
(c) Mobile
(d) None of these

132. Ohm’s law implies

(a) R=V/I
(b) R=I/V
(c) R= I x V
(d) None of these

133. The full form of MSC is

(a) Mobile Service Centre
(b) Modern Service Centre
(c) Mobile Switching Centre
 (d) None of these

134. What type of antenna is used in Mobile phone

(a) Rod antenna
(b) Patch antenna
(c) Pin antenna
(c) None of these

135. The full form of VCO is

(a) Voltage Controlled Oscillator
(b) Voltage Crystal Oscillator
(c) Voltage cut off oscillator
(d) None of these

136. Two one resistor are connected in parallel then the equivalent resistance is -
(a) 05 Ohm
(b) 1 Ohm
(c) 2 Ohm
(d) None of these

137. Signals can be seen in CRO in

(a) Time,
(b) Frequency,
(c) Voltage,
(d) None of these

138. PTC is a type of

(a) Capacitor,
(b) Resistor,
(c) Inductor,
(d) None of these

139. The frequency of line current in our country is

(a) 100 Hz,
(b) 50 Hz,
(c) 150 Hz,
(d) None of these

140. Equivalent capacitance of two capacitors connected in parallel in comparison with

any individual capacitor is -
(a) More
(b) Same
(c) Less
(d) None of these

141. Varistor is a
 (a) VDR
(b) LDR
(c) CDR
(d) None of these

142. Nokia 3315 is a . handset

(a) CDMA,
(b) GSM,
(c) EDGE,
(d) None of these

143. An induction motor is a . transformer

(a) Rotating,
(b) Static,
(c) Non-Static,
(d) None of these

144. GSM is a
(a) Simplex,
(b) Half-Duplex,
(c) Duplex,
(d) None of these

145. A Flip-Flop has

(a) Memory,
(b) No-memory,
(c) Less memory,
(d) None of these

146. NSS a GSM system is in

(a) BSC,
(b) BTS,
(c) MSC,
(d) None of these

147. P-N sequence is the . of CDMA.

(a) Time,
(b) Code,
(c) Frequency,
(d) None of these

148. A roaming mobile handset is connected to

(a) VLR,
(b) HLR,
(c) NSS,
(d) None of these
149. SOT is as .configuration.
(a) SMT,
(b) Thru hole,
(c) BGA,
(d) None of these

150. SMT inductors are made of

(a) Ferrite leads,
(b) Coils,
(c) Air-Core Inductors,
(d) None of these

MCQ type Objective Question Bank

Name of the Trade : Telephone & Mobile Set Repairing

Trade Code : TMSR

Answer :

1. (a) 24. (a) 47. (a) 70. (b)

2. (b) 25. (b) 48. (a) 71. (a)
3. (a) 26. (c) 49. (c) 72. (c)
4. (a) 27. (c) 50. (c) 73. (a)
5. (d) 28. (a) 51. (a) 74. (b)
6. (c) 29. (c) 52. (a) 75. (b)
7. (b) 30. (b) 53. (a) 76. (d)
8. (b) 31. (b) 54. (a) 77. (a)
9. (a) 32. (a) 55. (a) 78. (a)
10. (c) 33. (a) 56. (c) 79. (c)
11. (a) 34. (c) 57. (b) 80. (a)
12. (b) 35. (a) 58. (a) 81. (b)
13. (c) 36. (a) 59. (c) 82. (b)
14. (c) 37. (c) 60. (b) 83(b)
15. (b) 38. (b) 61. (c) 84(a)
16. (c) 39. (a) 62. (a) 85(c)
17. (b) 40. (c) 63. (b) 86(b)
18. (b) 41. (a) 64. (c) 87(c)
19. (c) 42. (a) 65. (a) 88(a)
20. (b) 43. (b) 66. (c) 89(d)
21. (b) 44. (b) 67. (b) 90(a)
22. (c) 45. (c) 68. (a) 91(a)
23. (b) 46. (b) 69. (a) 92(c)
93(c) 108(b) 123(a) 138(b)
94(c) 109(a) 124(a) 139(b)
95(b) 110(c) 125(b) 140(a)
96(c) 111(a) 126(a) 141(a)
97(c) 112(b) 127(a) 142(b)
98(a) 113(b) 128(c) 143(a)
99(a) 114(a) 129(c) 144(c)
100(b) 115(b) 130(b) 145(a)
101(b) 116(a) 131(a) 146(c)
102(a) 117(c) 132(a) 147(b)
103(b) 118(a) 133(c) 148(a)
104(b) 119(b) 134(b) 149(a)
105(b) 120(a) 135(a) 150(a)
106(b) 121(a) 136(a)
107(a) 122(c) 137(b)
1. Which one protects the circuit?
(Ans) Fuse.

2.What Components is used for listening the music in Card level?

(Ans) Buzzer, Headset.

3. Which Components is now designed into Glass IC?

(Ans) Diode,Transistor & Package.

4. What are major component in the PCB? For what purpose it has been Designed?
(Ans) Resistor & Capacitor (Non-Polarity)

Resistor – Oppposing the Flow of Current

Capacitor (Non-Polarity) – Filtering, Coupling, Bypassing & Increasing the Voltage

5. Which is used to reduce the distortion of sound?

(Ans) Capacitor (Non-Polarity)

6. Which Components allowing current in one direction?

(Ans) Diode

7.What are the signal receiving components in the Antenna section?

(Ans) Capacitor & Inductor

8. Which card isn’t used in your mobile is work like a PC?

(Ans) SIM Card

9. If there is no incoming call which section is fault in PCB?

(Ans) Speaker

10. Which Card level Component is damaged the mobile is dead?

(Ans) Battery Connector

11. When mobile fall’s down Which chip component get damaged? what fault?
(Ans) RTC Dead

What is the temperature for desoldering SMD Components and IC in BGA Rework Station?
150C to 400 C

What is the temperature for Lead free Soldering?

the melting point of lead-free solder is 20℃ to 45℃ higher than conventional eutectic solder.
(A popular type contains approximately 40% lead.) Assume, for example, that a soldering iron is
set to a temperature of 340℃ to use eutectic solder (Sn-Pb).

Soldering temperature for Circuit Board?

 the melting point of lead-free solder is 20℃ to 45℃ higher than conventional eutectic solder.
(A popular type contains approximately 40% lead.) Assume, for example, that a soldering iron is
set to a temperature of 340℃ to use eutectic solder (Sn-Pb).

What are the tools required for mobile Disassembling?

Screw Driver, Suction Cup,Opener,Spludger,Sim Eject tool

What are the tools required for mobile Soldering?

Soldering Iron, Tweezer,Lead, Soldering Paste, PCB Holder,Desoldering Wick

What are the tools required for BGA Rework Station?

BGA Paste, Tweezer,Lead, PCB Holder, Lead Balls
Ratio of
Lead alloy solder is often referenced by its alloy ratio such as 60/40 or 63/37

Chemical Energy is Converted into Electrical Energy?

Battery

What signal used in Mobile?

Digital Signal

Another Name of Radio Frequency is?

Micro Waves, Electrical Signal

What type of meter used in mobile repairing?

Multimeter

40+ Most Common Mobile Testing

Interview Questions and Answers
Q #1) What is the difference between Mobile
device testing and mobile application
testing?
Ans. Mobile device testing means testing the mobile device and mobile application testing
means testing of mobile application on a mobile device.
Q #2) What are the types of mobile applications?
Ans. Mobile applications are of three types:
Native Application– Native app installed from application store like Android’s google
play and apple’ app store. The application which can be installed into your devices and run are
known as native application for E.G. whats App, Angry birds etc.
Web Application– Web applications runs from mobile web browsers like Chrome, Firefox,
Opera, Safari etc using mobile network or WIFI. E.G. of web browser applications are
m.facebook.com, m.gmail.com, m.yahoo.com, m.rediffmail.com etc.
Hybrid Application- Hybrid apps are combinations of native app and web app. They can
run on devices or offline and are written using web technologies like HTML5 and CSS. For E.G.
ebay, flipkart etc
Q #3) How to test CPU usage on mobile devices?
Ans. There are various tools available in the market like google play or app store from where
you can install apps like CPU Monitor, Usemon, CPU Stats, CPU-Z etc these are an advanced
tool which records historical information about processes running on your device.
Q #4) What are the defects tracking tools used for mobile testing?
Ans. You can use same testing tool which you use for web application testing like QC, Jira,
Rally and Bugzilla etc.
Q #5) What all major networks to be considered while performing
application testing?
Ans. You should test the application on 4G, 3G, 2G and WIFI. 2G is a slower network, its good
if you verify your application on slower network also to track your application performance.
Q #6) When performing sanity test on mobile application what all
criteria should be taken into consideration?
Ans.
 Installation and uninstallation of the application
 Verify the device in different available networks like 2G, 3G, 4G or WIFI.
 Functional testing
 Interrupt testing- Able to receive the calls while running the
application.
 Compatibility testing – able to attach the photo in message from
gallery
 Test application performance on different handset.
 Make some negative testing by entering the invalid credentials and
test the behavior of the application.

Q #7) Which things to consider testing a mobile applicationthrough

black box technique?
Ans.
 By testing your application on multiple devices.
 By changing the port and IP addresses to make sure the device is
getting connected and disconnected properly.
 By making calls and sending messages to other devices.
 By testing your web application on different mobile browsers like
chrome, Firefox, opera, dolphin etc.

Q #8) What is the latest version of iOS?

Ans. iOS 8. (This changes quite often, so please check the apple site for most recent info)
Q #9) What is the latest version of Android?
Ans. Lollipop 5.0–5.0.2 (also changes often). See all here.
Q #10) What is the extension of Android files?
.apk (Android application package)
Q#11) What is the extension of iOS files?
Ans. .ipa
Q #12) What is the full form of MMS?
Ans. Multimedia Messaging Services
Q #13) What are MT and MO in SMS?
Ans. Sending message is known as MO (Message originate) and receiving the message is
known as MT(Message Terminate)
Q #14) What is WAP?
Ans. WAP is Wireless Application Protocol used in network apps.
Q #15) What is GPRS and how it works?
Ans. GPRS is General Packet Radio Service which works on mobile network with the help of
IP transmissions. GPRS provides the transmission of IP packets over existing cellular networks.
It provides you internet services on mobile.
Q #16) What is the latest version of Windows?
Ans. Windows 10 (see latest here)
Q #17) What do you mean by Streaming media?
Ans. Streaming is a process of downloading the data from the server. Streaming media is the
multimedia that is transferred from server or provider to the receiver
Q #18) What are the automation tools available for mobile
application testing?
Ans. There are many automation tools available in the market for mobile application testing but
iPhone Tester is the one of the best tool to test the application on iPhones and screenfly for
android devices.
Q #19) What is the best way to test different screen sizes of the
devices?
Ans. Using emulator. See example here.
Q #20) What is the basic difference between Emulator and
Simulator?
Ans. Emulator is based on hardware and software wherein simulator is based on software.
Simulation is system that behaves similar to something else while emulation is system
that exactly behave like something else.
Q #21) What are the common challenges in mobile application
testing?
Ans. Working on different operating systems, variety of handsets, different networks, variety of
screen size. Read more here => 5 Mobile testing challenges and solutions.
Q #22) What are the tools based on cloud based mobile testing?
Ans. Seetest, Perfecto Mobile, BlazeMeter, AppThwack, Manymo, DeviceAnywhere etc.
Q #23) What web services are used by mobile app?
Ans. They are many depend upon the application. SOAP and RESTweb services are used but
RESRful is more common now.
Q #24) What all devices have you worked till now?
Ans. Android, Symbian, Windows, iPhone etc.
Q #25) How to create Emulator on Android?
Ans. Give a name in name field -> select target API from the list -> enter the size -> select the
required skin section -> click on create AVD -> select the required AVD -> click on start button
-> launch it
Q #26) Does Selenium support mobile internet testing?
Ans. Yes it does, Opera browser is used for Mobile internet testing.
Q #27) Does Selenium support Google Android Operating System?
Ans. Yes, Selenium 2.0 supports Android Operating System.
Q #28) Name debugging tools for mobile?
Ans. Errors can be verified by the generated logs. We can use configuration utility on iOS and
android monitor.bat on android. Here are few to name Android DDMS, Remote Debugging on
Android with Chrome, Debugging from Eclipse with ADT, Android Debug Bridge, iOS
simulator etc.
Q #29) Name mobile automation testing tools you know?
Ans. Paid tools:
Ranorex, Silk Mobile, SeeTest

Free tools:
Appium, Robotium, KIF, Calabash

Also read => 5 best Android application testing tools.

Q #30) What is the strategy used to test new mobile app?
Ans.
 System integration testing
 Functional testing
 Installation and uninstallation of the app
 Test HTML control
 Performance
 Check in multiple mobile OS
 Cross browser and cross device testing
 Gateway testing
 Network and Battery testing

Q #31) What does a test plan for Mobile App contain?

Ans. Test plan for mobile app is very similar to software app
1. Objective
2. Automation tools required
3. required features to be tested:
 network
 security
 performance
 size
 battery
 memory
4. features not to be tested
 display size
 resolution
5. Test cases
6. Test Strategy
7. Tested by
8. Time required
 9. No. of resources required

Q #32) Why mobile phone has 10 digit numbers?

Ans. The number of digits in a mobile phone number decide the maximum mobile phones we
can have without dialing the country code.
Q #33) Explain critical bugs that you come across while testing in
mobile devices or application?
Ans. Explain the example as per your experience.
Q #34) Name mobile application testing tools
Ans.
 Android
 Android Lint
 Find Bugs
 iPhone
 Clang Static Analyzer
 Analyze code from XCode

Q #35) Full form of the various extensions

Ans.
 apk – Android Application Package File
 exe – Executable Files
 iPA –iOS App Store Package
 prc – Palm Resource Compiler
 jad – Java Application Descriptor
 adb – Android Debug Bridge
 Aapt – Android Asset Packing Tool

Q #36) How to test different screen sizes of the devices

Ans. Using Emulators.
Q #37) What is web service?
Ans. It is a component used in software to perform the task. It is like an interface between one
program to another.
Q #38) What are the roles and responsibilities on current mobile
application you are testing?
Ans. Answer based on your experience on the current project you are working on.
Q #39) How to create the log file?
Ans. Using CAT.
Q #40) How can we install the build on iPhones and iPads?
Ans. Using iTunes.
Q #41) Can we use QTP/UFT for mobile automation testing?
Ans. Yes, with the help of Seetest add-in.
Q #42) Is cloud base mobile testing possible? Name any?
Ans. Yes, Perfecto Mobile and Seetest.
Q #43) Where to perform forward compatibility testing?
Ans. This can be done with new versions of the mobile application.

Who invented the mobile phone?

The First Mobile Phone Call Was Made 40 Years Ago Today. On April 3, 1973, Motorola
employee Martin Cooper stood in midtown Manhattan and placed a call to the headquarters of
Bell Labs in New Jersey.in chooper

What Voltage required for Multimeter?

9V DC Battery or DC Source

What Voltage required for Mobile On Condition?

4V DC Battery or DC Source

When was the first mobile phone?

The First Mobile Phone Call Was Made 40 Years Ago Today. On April 3, 1973, Motorola
employee Martin Cooper stood in midtown Manhattan and placed a call to the headquarters of
Bell Labs in New Jersey.Apr 3,

What was the very first cell phone?

The first handheld mobile phone was demonstrated by John F. Mitchell and Martin Cooper of
Motorola in 1973, using a handset weighing c. 4.4 lbs (2 kg). In 1983, the DynaTAC 8000x was
the first commercially available handheld mobile phone.

Who invented the cell phone Sampson or Cooper?

Dr. Henry Sampson did not invent the cellphone, but he did invent a number of advances in
solid-state rocket propellant and a gamma-electric cell for generating electricity from gamma
radiation. The invention of the cellphone is credited to Dr.Martin Cooper.

How long did it take Martin Cooper to invent the cell phone?
40 years ago today, April 3, 1973, the first cell phone call was made by Motorola engineer
Martin Cooper. He called his competitor at Bell Labs to gloat at having beat them. It was 40
years ago today, April 3, 1973.

When was mobile came in India?

The then Union Telecom Minister Sukh Ram and the then Chief Minister of West Bengal Jyoti
Basu spoke to each other using hand held mobile phones on July 31, 1995. It was a first for
India.

When was the first brick phone made?

Martin Cooper of Motorola made the first publicized handheld mobile phone call on a prototype
DynaTAC model on April 3, 1973. This is a reenactment in 2007. DynaTAC is a series of
cellular telephones manufactured by Motorola, Inc. from1984 to 1994.

How much money was the first mobile phone?

It would take a decade before Motorola's DynaTAC finally reached consumer hands. On
September 21, 1983, Motorola made history when the FCC approved the 8000X, the world's first
commercial portable cell phone. It cost consumers a whopping$3,995 at the time.Apr 3, 2013

How big is the first cell phone?

This year marks 40 years since the first public cellular phone call was made by Martin Cooper of
Motorola. This mobile phone was a massive device by today's standards – weighing two and a
half pounds (1.15 kg) and all of 10 inches long it could only be used for 20 minutes before the
battery died.Jan 25, 2013

Is Martin Cooper still alive?

Martin Cooper (inventor) Inventing handheld cellular mobile phone Making world's first
handheld cellular mobile phone call. Martin "Marty" Cooper (born December 26, 1928) is an
American engineer. He is a pioneer and visionary in the wireless communications industry.

Why the cell phone was invented?

40 years ago today, April 3, 1973, the first cell phone call was made by Motorola engineer
Martin Cooper. He called his competitor at Bell Labs to gloat at having beat them. It was 40
years ago today, April 3, 1973.

When did mobile phones come to India?

In August 1995, then Chief Minister of West Bengal, Jyoti Basu made the first mobile phone call
in India to then Union Telecom Minister Sukhram. Sixteen years later 4th generation services
were launched in Kolkata.

Which is the first mobile phone in India?

The first mobile call was made using Modi Telstra's MobileNet service. That cellular call
inaugurated MobileNet in Kolkata. The call was made by then telecom minister Sukh Ram to
West Bengal chief minister Jyoti Basu.

When did the first flip phone come out?

The first Motorola model to support the clamshell design was the MicroTAC, created in 1989,
although General Telephone & Electronics (GTE) held the trademark from the 1970s for its Flip-
Phone (one of the first small hand-held electronic phones), until 1993.

When was the first mobile phone sold to the public?

Somewhere in either Chicago, Baltimore or Washington, someone plunked down $3,995 to buy
the Motorola DynaTAC 8000X, the first handheld cellphone, on March 13, 1984 — 30 years
ago today.

Who made the Motorola DynaTAC 8000x?

Motorola DynaTAC 8000x. Dr. Martin Cooper made the first phone call over a cellular network
in 1973, but it took an entire decade before the DynaTAC 8000x was sold as the first commercial
handheld cellular phone in 1983.

Who made the first flip phone?

The first flip phone, called the StarTAC, was invented by Motorola in 1996. The concept of "flip
phones" was first introduced by StarTAC's predecessor, called the MicroTAC, in 1989.

When did the brick cell phone come out?

DynaTAC is a series of cellular telephones manufactured by Motorola, Inc. from1984 to 1994.
The Motorola DynaTAC 8000X commercial portable cellular phone received approval from the
U.S. FCC on September 21, 1983.

What is the name of the first cell phone?

Motorola DynaTAC. Martin Cooper of Motorola made the first publicized handheld mobile
phone call on a prototype DynaTAC model on April 3, 1973. This is a reenactment in 2007.
DynaTAC is a series of cellular telephones manufactured byMotorola, Inc. from 1984 to 1994.

Who invented the cell?

Motorola won with their researcher and executive Martin Cooper inventing and patenting the
first mobile cell phone with his boss John F. Mitchell. Martin Coopermade the first cellular
phone call on April 3, 1973 to none other than his rival and competitor Dr. Joel S. Engel of Bell
Labs.

How much did the first mobile phone cost in today's terms?
It would take a decade before Motorola's DynaTAC finally reached consumer hands. On
September 21, 1983, Motorola made history when the FCC approved the 8000X, the world's first
commercial portable cell phone. It cost consumers a whopping$3,995 at the time.

When was mobile introduced in India?

The then Union Telecom Minister Sukh Ram and the then Chief Minister of West Bengal Jyoti
Basu spoke to each other using hand held mobile phones on July 31, 1995. It was a first for
India.

Questions & Answers

about
 Cellular Networks - Mobile Phones

1. The diagram below shows the hierarchical structure of the cellular

network.

What is (i) and (ii)?

A. Mobile phone and Mobile Switching Centre(MSC)

B. Public Switched Telephone Network(PSTN) and Mobile Switching
Centre(MSC)
C. Mobile Switching Centre(MSC) and Public Switched Telephone
Network(PSTN)
D. None of the above

Answer :B
Topic : What is a Cellular Network?
 Each cell has a base station. Cells when
grouped together forms a cluster. MSC is
connected to all the base stations in a
cluster. MSC itself is connected
to MSCs of other clusters and to
the PSTN switching centre. The full
answer is shown on the left.

2. GSM is the digital standard for Europe; What do the

letters GSM currently mean?
A. Global Special Mobile
B. Greater System's Mobile
C. Global Systems for Mobile Communications
D. none of the above!

Answer : C
Topic : GSM

GSM is currently the Global system for Mobile Communications. When it

was first developed it was called a French name meaning Group Special
Mobile. GSM was later renamed to its current name by the European
Telecommunication Standards Institute (ETSI) when it gained world wide
acceptance and became the European standard.

3. Why is a digital network preferred over an analogue one?

A. It is newer
B. It is smaller
C. It has lower power consumption
D. It has higher capacity for the same bandwidth
 Answer

4. In cellular networks, simultaneous users over the same channel is achieved

by :

I. Digital Technology.
II. Frequency re-use.
III. CDMA and TDMA.

IV. Using VLRs in each area and the HLR in the network switching centre.

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. IV only

Answer

2. The (or one of the) difference(s) between GSM and PCN is :

A. GSM operates in the frequency range of 900MHz while PCN operates in
the 1800MHz range
B. GSM is the standard used in Europe, while PCN is the one in North
America
C. GSM uses digital technology while PCN is analogue
D. none! There is no difference

Answer
3. Which of these statements are correct?

I. Mobile Switching Centre(MSC) would process the call made by

one mobile phone user to another mobile phone user.
II. Public Switched Telephone Network(PSTN) would be involved in
processing a call when the call is made by a mobile phone user to a land
phone.
III. Both MSC and PSTN processes a call made from a mobile phone to a
land phone.

IV. Electronic Serial Number(ESN) is the telephone number of the

cellular instrument assigned to the subscriber.

A. III only
B. I, II and IV
C. III and IV
D. I and II

Answer

Question 7 and 8 are based on the dialogue below.

Wallace and Grommit are having a conversation through their phones.

Wallace is using a landphone while Grommit, who is slightly richer, is
using a mobile phone.
Wallace : How are you Grommit?
Grommit : Fine thank you. How about you?
Unknown person : Look Smith, you'd better get the money soon.
Wallace : Grommit! Was that you?
Grommit : No! It was someone else.
 The dialogue above describes a problem with cellular networks with
respect to mobile phones.

2. Why does the problem above occur?

A. Multipath exists between the transmitter and receiver
B. Cell size is too small.
C. Grommit's mobile phone has passed the handover area but has not been
assigned another base station. This resulted in a noticeable break in
which another conversation is transmitted.
D. The radio waves from two different conversation have added on to each
other due to the humidity of air.

Answer

3. How is this problem solved in analogue cellular network?

I. Base Station continuously transmits the Mobile Identification

Number(MIN) and received by the mobile phone.
II. Mobile phone continuously transmits the Signal Audio Tone(SAT) and
received by the base station.
III. Overall size of the cluster is increased

IV. Increasing the bandwidth allocated to each user.

A. II only
B. III only
C. I and IV
D. II and III

Answer
2. Why does GSM use TDMA, as opposed to CDMA?

I. When GSM was planned, CDMA was not approved as a multiple

access system.
II. TDMA is better than CDMA.
III. CDMA is not really needed in Europe.

IV. CDMA is too expensive to implement.

A. I and III
B. I only
C. II and III
D. I and IV

Answer

2. Which of the following statement is true about spread spectrum:

A. It uses a narrow band frequency
B. Spread Spectrum allocates disjoint resources (frequency or time slots
depending on the access system) to each user.
C. Spread Spectrum signals can be picked up by simple receivers
D. Spread spectrum signals are hard to jam and identify

Answer

3. Which of the four cellular networks in the UK is the best and why?
A. Mercury, because it offers good service within its covered area.
B. Orange, because of its good "inside building" coverage.
C. Vodafone, because it uses GSM
D. Cellnet , because it offers a wider range of phones-sets
 Answer

4. The diagram below shows a fixed channel assignment method with

borrowing strategy. Cells marked X are cells that are prohibited from
using the a4 channel before borrowing occurs.

Which one of these statements are correct?

I. The diagram above shows two adjacent cells using the a4 channel
after borrowing.
II. Channel a4 is possibly locked to cells marked N.
III. The handover rate will increase after borrowing

IV. The borrowing strategy illustrated above leads to poorer voice

reception.

A. I, II and III
B. II only
 C. II and IV
D. I and II

Answer

Question 13 and 14 are based on queuing of handover requests.

2. On the surface, queuing of handover requests seems to be a bad scheme

and not possible since handover must not be noticed(delay sensitive) by the
user. But it turns out that queuing handover request is possible.

Why is handover request queuing possible?

A. Handover request taking up to 800ms would not be noticed by the
user. Queuing is possible within this time.
B. There exist a time interval between the mobile phone reaching the
handover threshold and the receiver threshold.
C. Handover request can be made small packets. Therefore the queue
can be processed very quickly.
D. The alternative to queuing handover request is queuing new
originating calls which is far more delay sensitive. Therefore
queuing handover request(although delay sensitive) is a better idea.

Answer

3. There are five cars(C1, C2, C3, C4 and C5) moving away from cell A into
cell B. The table below shows the time at which each car arrives at the
handover threshold and the speed at which they are travelling.

Car Arrival time(ms) Speed(km/h)

C1 0 10
C2 10 40
 C3 15 50
C4 25 20
C5 100 360
4.
There are several assumption that the candidate is allowed to make about
this question. They are :-

o All the cars are travelling away from the handover threshold towards
the receiver threshold.
o none of the cars have reached the receiver threshold at 100ms.
o the handover area is divided into infinite power level ratios.

The choices below shows the possible arrangement of the FIFO queue and
the MBPS queue of the handover requests at 100ms. C1, C2, C3, C4 and
C5 represents the handover requests made by the mobile phones from the
cars of the same name. Choose the correctly arranged queue.

Answer
 ANSWERS

1. Answer : B

2. ANSWER :
For further reading :

ARTICLE 1.Cellular Communication Networks - GSM -> GSM

3. Answer : D
Topic : Multiple Access Systems

The digital network uses various methods to maximise the efficiency of

bandwidth utilisation, such as TDMA and CDMA.
4. Answer : C
Frequency re-use in non-adjacent cells allows a small bandwidth to be used
by many subscribers. Now TDMA/CDMA allows further sharing, using
spread spectrum technologies or (for TDMA) by dividing the available
bandwidth into time slots for different users. Digital technology has led to
these multiple access systems but on its own, digital technology didn't achieve
simultaneous users.

For further reading :

ARTICLE 2. Mobile Phones in the UK and Multiple Access Systems ->

Spread Spectrum

5. ANSWER : A
Topic : PCN phones

Both GSM and PCN are digital mobile systems. The system used in North
America is the PCS - personal communication system, not PCN - personal
communication network. The difference is answer A - the frequency range.
6. Answer :D
Topic : What is a Cellular Network? AND Allowing Mobility of the
Subscriber

I and II are correct

Each MSC is connected to MSCs of other clusters. Therefore any call made
from a mobile phone to another mobile phone can be processed and directed
to the appropriate mobile phone via the MSC. But a call made to a land
phone would require the PSTN to process it as land phones are connected to
the PSTN.

III is incorrect
ESN is the number assigned to the mobile phone by the manufacturer. The
statement IV actually refers to the Mobile Identification Number(MIN).

For further reading :

ARTICLE 1. EXISTING TECHNOLOGY OF CELLULAR NETWORKS-

MOBILE PHONES->What is a Cellular Network?

ARTICLE 1. EXISTING TECHNOLOGY OF CELLULAR NETWORKS-

MOBILE PHONES->Allowing Mobility of the Subscriber
 Detailed explanation on call processing

ARTICLE 2. MOBILE PHONE TECHNOLOGY VIEWED AT A

MICROSCOPIC LEVEL->Call Processing

7. Answer : C

This problem arises due to co-channel interference.

In a cellular network, an area is divided into cells which when grouped
together forms a cluster. In order to efficiently utilise the bandwidth
allocated, the channel frequency used in one cluster is reused in another
cluster. The pair of cells, located in these different clusters using this same
channel frequency must be far away from each other so that no co-channel
interference can occur.
When the cell size is too small, the distance between two cells in different
clusters using the same channel frequency would be too close to each other.
This causes co-channel interference to occur.

8. Answer : D
The problem described above is co-channel interference.

I is incorrect
The mobile phone transmits MIN when it enters a new cell for registration
purposes. This does not solve co-channel interference.

II is correct
The explanation below shows how SAT can be used to distinguish the correct
user from other users who are using the same channel frequency.

Diagram 1
As shown in the diagram on
the left, each cluster is
assigned SAT at different
frequencies. There are three
different frequencies. They
are 5970Hz(SAT
1),6000Hz(SAT 2) and
6030Hz(SAT 3).

The base station of a cell would first send this SAT to the mobile phone when
it enters this cell. After the mobile phone receives this SAT, it would re-
transmit this SAT almost continuously to the base station. So any co-channel
interference would be sensed as it would carry the wrong SAT frequency. In
this case the unknown person's mobile phone would be transmitting the
wrong SAT to Grommit's current base station. The base station can then
mute the unknown user's conversation.

III is correct
Cells using the same channel frequency would be located in different
clusters. So, increasing the size of the clusters would cause these cells using
the same channel frequency to be further away from each other. Therefore
co-channel interference is reduced.
III is not an extremely accurate answer unlike II, but it is an acceptable
answer owing to the fact that cluster size plays a major role in the degree of
co-channel interference in both analogue and digital cellular networks.

IV is incorrect
Increasing the bandwidth can only make matters worst as it reduces the
number of different channel frequencies. So, the same channel frequency
would be re-used in cells that are closer together.

9. Answer : A

GSM uses time division multiple access since code division multiple access
was not approved at the time GSM emerged.
CDMA is supposed to give better long distance transmission quality. Europe
consists of many small countries. The need to communicate with a user in
another country from one country is not high. This is because phone users in
different countries generally

o do not speak each others language

o not related to each other or even know each other

Meanwhile in the USA which is a large country, it is essential that long

distance calls have very good quality because

o people from different states talk the same language

o a very high chance that people from different state know each other or
even related to each other.

Therefore, CDMA is needed in the USA but not in Europe(not essential).

For further reading :

ARTICLE 2. Mobile Phones in the UK and Multiple Access Systems -> The
CDMA cellular standard
10. Answer : D
Topic : Spread Spectrum

Spread spectrum uses a wide frequency band and allocates all resources to
all simultaneous users, controlling the power transmitted by each to a
minimum required to maintain a signal-to-noise ratio for the required level
of performance. In this way a simple receiver will pass the signal as
background noise.

For further reading :

ARTICLE 2. Mobile Phones in the UK and Multiple Access Systems ->

Spread Spectrum

11. Answer : none??

Topic : PCN Phones

As discussed in the article, choosing a mobile phones depends on the

subscriber; where will the phone be used, what sort of services are expected
from, price and so on. For instance, a customer requiring a cheaper service
within the London area should get a Mercury One2One as compared to
someone who wants to use it in Europe - in which case the choice would be
Vodafone or Cellnet (which both use GSM by the way).

For further reading :

For a comparison between the digital networks in the UK ->

 ARTICLE 2. Mobile Phones in the UK And Multiple Access Systems

12. Answer : B

Topic : Channel Assignment Strategies in Cellular Networks

I is incorrect
Let's say cell A and cell B are adjacent to each other.
After a channel frequency in cell A is borrowed to cell B, cell A cannot use
this channel frequency. This avoids co-channel interference.

II is correct
From the diagram it can be seen that the cell using the a4 channel is closer
to the cells marked N after the borrowing had occurred. Now, more cells
around the cells marked X would be unable to use the a4 channel in order to
prevent co-channel interference. So, cells marked N are possibly the cells
that are not allowed to use the a4 channel after borrowing had occurred.

III is incorrect
Borrowing is meant to increase the efficiency of spectrum utilisation and
does not affect the handover rate.

IV is incorrect
There is no reason for poorer voice reception as there is no increase in co-
channel interference or other related problems after borrowing occurs.

For further reading :

ARTICLE 2. MOBILE PHONE TECHNOLOGY VIEWED AT A

MICROSCOPIC LEVEL->FIXED CHANNEL ASSIGNMENT
STRATEGIES
13. Answer : B
Topic : Schemes to Minimise Forced Termination of a Call

The two circle area which

overlaps shows the handover
area. The mobile phone reaches
this circle when it arrives at the
handover threshold point[t0] and
leaves this area when it reaches
the receiver threshold point[t1].

The handover threshold is set at the point where the power received from a
neighbouring cell site has started to exceed the power received from
the current BS for certain amount and/or for a certain time.
The receiver threshold is the point at which the received power from
the BS is at the minimum acceptable level.
A main requirement here in order to prevent forced termination of a call is
that :-

o The mobile phone must be assigned a new Base Station(thus the

relevant channels needed to continue a call) within the time interval
(t1 - t0).

If queuing of handover request is done within the time interval (t1 - t0), the
above mentioned condition will be satisfied. This is why queuing of handover
request is possible.
 For further reading :

ARTICLE 2. MOBILE PHONE TECHNOLOGY VIEWED AT A

MICROSCOPIC LEVEL->QUEUING HANDOVER REQUESTS

14. Answer : C
Topic : Schemes to Minimise Forced Termination of a Call

In order to answer this question follow the steps below :-

Step 1.
Convert the units of speed from km/h to m/s. Convert the unit of time from
ms to s. These steps above makes the units consistent.

Step 2.
Calculate the distance the car would have travelled away from the handover
threshold at 100ms This is done for each car by using the formula :-

speed x (0.1s - arrival time at the handover threshold)

Step 3.
Construct the table shown below.

Car Distance from the handover threshold(m)

C1 0.278
C2 1.00
C3 1.18
C4 0.417
C5 0
 FIFO queuing scheme
In this queuing scheme, the handover request that arrives first would be at
the top of the queue and the request arriving the last would be at the bottom
of the queue. In other words, the position of a request in the queue is based
on the time of arrival of the request.

Measurement Based Prioritisation Scheme(MBPS)

The handover request in the MBPS queue is arranged according to the

power level ratio of the mobile phone to which the handover request belongs
to. This power level ratio depends on where the mobile phone is in the
handover area(since the handover area is divided into power level ratios).
This power level ratio itself can be determined by the MSC by dividing the
power level received from the mobile phone by the current base station to the
power level received by the next base station. The further the mobile phone is
from the current base station, the lower the power level ratio.

Since it is assumed that the handover area is divided into infinite power level
ratios, a small difference in distance between the cars(from the table it can be
seen that this difference is as low as 0.18m) would be noticed by the system
and this would result in sorting of the queue. So, a car(e.g. C3) that is
slightly further away from another car(e.g. C2) would be assigned a higher
priority.

Another important point here is that when a handover request arrives it is

given the lowest priority. Based on this and the criteria described before, the
only correct MBPS queue is in C.

Wireless Communication

Q1. Reflection is?

a) Propagation mode
b) Propagation mechanism
c) Spread spectrum
d) None of the above

Q2. Which type of handoff used in CDMA?

a) Soft handoff
b) Hard handoff
c) Soft & hard handoff
d) None of the above
Q3. What is intersystem handoff?
a) During a course of a call,
b) Hard handoff
c) Soft & hard handoff
d) None of the above

Q4. The type of access used in GSM technology is

a) FDMA/TDMA
b) CDMA
c) OFDMA
d) None of the above

Q5. Which of these is not true for TDD?

a) TDD uses different time slots for transmission and reception paths
b) Single radio frequency can be used
c) Duplexer is required
d) It increases the battery life of mobile phones

Q6. The coverage & capacity of CDMA system is more than that of GSM system
a). True
b). False
c). Equal
d). None of the above

Q7. The type of Access technology which can enhance the battery life is
a). CDMA
b). TDMA
c). OFDMA
d). None of the above

Q8. The uplink frequency of P-GSM system is

a). 1850-1910Mhz
b). 1710-1785Mhz
c). 890-915 Mhz
 d). None of the above
Q9. The technique adopted to increase the system capacity and reduce co-chl interference is
a). High power BTS
b). By installing the Omnidirectional antenna
c). Sectorisation
d). None of the above

Q10. The remote and sparsely populated areas will be covered by

a). Microcell
b). Macrocell
c). Picocell
d). None of the above
Q11. The cell having the same number in the adjacent cluster using the same set of RF
channels are termed as
a). adjacent cell
b). Co channel cell
c). Macro cell
d). Selective Cell

Q12. Higher value of Q is achievable in

a). big cluster size
b). small cluster size
c). medium cluster size
d). None of the above

Q13. The process of channel coding, Encryption, Multiplexing and modulation for Trans
direction and reverse for reception are to be carried out by
a). BTS
b). BSC
c). MS
d). None of the above

Q14. The terminal is under observation from the network for the possible problems. Under
which list will this belong in EIR
a). White List
b). Grey List
c). Black List
d). None of the above

Q15. Modulation technique used in DECT is

a). GFSK
b). QPSK
c). BPSK
d). None of the above

Q16. The broad spectrum of the transmitted signal gives rise to

a). Fadiing
b). Noise
c). Spread Spectrum
 d). All Of the above

Q17. Which of these are Digital Cellular Technologies

a). IS:54 / IS-136 – N America
b). GSM – Europe and Asia
 c). IS-95 – N America
d). All of the above

Q18. Which of these block processes CDMA channels, and performs digital and analogue
signal processing for IS-95A calls of each channel and interface with the RF block.
a). BHI
b). CCB
c). TCP
d). None of the above

Q19. What is channel assignment ? what are the types?

a) For efficient utilization of radio spectrum a frequency reuse scheme with increasing
capacity and minimizing interference is required.
b). For efficient utilization of radio spectrum a frequency reuse scheme with
increasing capacity and maximizing interference is required.
c). a & b
d). None of the above

Q20. what are the types of channel assignment?

a) Fixed channel assignment, dynamic channel assignment.
b).moderate channel assignment
c). a & b
d). None of the above

Q21. What is fixed channel assignment?

a) If the channels in each cell are allocated to the users within the cell, it will be called as
fixed channel assignment. If all channels are occupied, the call Will be blocked.
b If the channels in each cell are allocated to the users within the cell, it will be called as
fixed channel assignment. If all channels are occupied, the call Will not be blocked.
c). a & b
d). None of the above

Q22. What is dynamic channel assignment?

(a) If the voice channels are not allocated permanently in a cell, it will be called as
dynamic channel assignment. In this assignment, channels are dynamically allocated to
users by the MSC.

b). If the voice channels are allocated permanently in a cell, it will be called as dynamic
channel assignment. In this assignment, channels are dynamically allocated to users by the
MSC.
c). a & b
d). None of the above

Q22. What is hand off?

 (a) When a mobile moves into a different cell while conversation in progress, the MSC
automatically transfers the call from one cell to other cell without any interference. This
is called as hand off.

b). When a mobile moves into a different cell while conversation in progress, the MSC
automatically transfers the call from one cell to other cell with interference. This is called as
hand off.
c). a & b
d). None of the above

1. IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN, called _______, which covers the
physical and data link layers.

A) IEEE 802.3
B) IEEE 802.5
C) IEEE 802.11
D) IEEE 802.2

2. In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and an optional central
base station, known as the access point (AP).

A) ESS
B) BSS
C) CSS
D) none of the above

3. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called an _________.

A) an ad hoc architecture

B) an infrastructure

network C) either (a) or (b)

D) neither (a) nor (b)

4. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP is sometimes referred to as ____________.

A) an ad hoc architecture

B) an infrastructure network
C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
5. In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two different BSSs usually occurs via
two ________.

A) BSSs
B) ESSs
C) APs
D) none of the above

6. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility is either stationary (not moving) or
moving only inside a BSS.

A) no-transition
B) BSS-transition
C) ESS-transition
D) none of the above

7. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________mobility can move from one BSS to another, but the
movement is confined inside one ESS.

A) no-transition
B) BSS-transition
C) ESS-transition
D) none of the above

8. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility can move from one ESS to another.

A) no-transition

B) BSS-transition

C) ESS-transition

D) none of the above

9. In IEEE 802.11, _______ is an optional access method that can be implemented in an

infrastructure network (not in an ad hoc network).

A) DCF
B) PCF
C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)

10. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one station in a BSS to another without passing
through the distribution system, the address flag is _____

A) 00
B) 01
C) 10
D) 11

11. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is coming from an AP and going to a station, the address flag
is _______.

A) 00
B) 01
C) 10
D) 11

12. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from a station to an AP, the address flag is _____.

A) 00

B) 01

C) 10

D) 11
13. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one AP to another AP in a wireless distribution
system, the address flag is _____

A) 00
B) 01
C) 10
D) 11

14. The IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LANs defines two services: ______ and _______.

A) BSS; ASS

B) ESS; SSS

C) BSS; ESS

D) BSS; DCF

15. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the DCF sublayer is _________.

A) ALOHA
B) CSMA/CA
C) CSMA/CD
D) none of the above

16. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the PCF sublayer is ______.

A) contention

B) controlled

C) polling

D) none of

the above

17. In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a timer used for collision avoidance.

A) NAV
B) BSS
C) ESS
D) none of the above
18. In IEEE 802.11, the MAC layer frame has ______

fields. A) four

B) five

C) six

D) none of the above

19. In IEEE 802.11, the addressing mechanism can include up to

______addresses. A) four

B) five

C) six

D) none of the above

20. The original IEEE 802.11, uses _________.

A) FHSS
B) DSSS
C) OFDM
D) either (a) or (b)

21. The IEEE 802.11a, uses _________.

A) FHSS

B) DSSS

C) OFDM

D) either (a) or (b)

22. The IEEE 802.11b, uses _________.

A) FHSS

B) DSSS

C) OFDM

D) either (a) or (b)

23. The IEEE 802.11g, uses _________.

A) FHSS

B) DSSS

C) OFDM

D) either (a) or (b)

24. The original IEEE 802.11, has a data rate of

_____Mbps. A) 1

B) 6

C) 11

D) 22

25. IEEE 802.11a, has a data rate of _____Mbps.

A) 1

B) 2

C) 6

D) none of the above

26. IEEE 802.11b, has a data rate of

_____Mbps. A) 1

B) 2
C) 5.5

D) none of the above

27. IEEE 802.11g, has a data rate of

_____Mbps. A) 1

B) 2

C) 11

D) 22

28. The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use ________ types of frames.

A) four

B) five

C) six

D) none of the above

29. Bluetooth is a _______ technology that connects devices (called gadgets) in a small

area. A) wired LAN

B) wireless LAN

C) VLAN

D) none of the above

30. A Bluetooth network is called a ________.

A) piconet

B) scatternet

C) bluenet

D) none of the above

31. In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form a network called a _________.

A) scatternet; piconets

B) piconets: scatternet

C) piconets: bluenet

D) bluenet; scatternet

32. A Bluetooth network consists of _____ primary device(s) and up to ____ secondary devices.

A) one; five

B) five; three

C) two; six

D) one; seven

33. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the hidden station problem. The RTS
and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the exposed station problem.

A) can; cannot

B) cannot; can

C) can; can

D) cannot; cannot

34. In Bluetooth, the current data rate is

____Mbps A) 2

B) 5

C) 11

D) none of the above

35. In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is roughly equivalent to the physical layer of the
Internet model.

A) radio

B) baseband
C) L2CAP

D) none of the above

36. In Bluetooth, the _____layer is roughly equivalent to the MAC sublayer in

LANs. A) radio

B) baseband

C) L2CAP

D) none of the above

37. In Bluetooth, the L2CAP sublayer, is roughly equivalent to the LLC sublayer in LANs.

A) radio

B) baseband

C) L2CAP

D) none of the above

38. The access method in Bluetooth is ________.

A) FDMA
B) TDD-TDMA
C) CDMA
D) none of the above

39. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when avoiding latency (delay in data delivery) is
more important than integrity (error-free delivery).

A) SCO
B) ACL
C) ACO
D) SCL
40. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when data integrity is more important than
avoiding latency.

A) SCO
B) ACL
C) ACO
D) SCL

41. Bluetooth uses ______method in the physical layer to avoid interference from other
devices or other networks.

A) DSSS
B) FHSS
C) FDMA
D) none of the above

42. Some examples for wireless communication system are:

(a) Cordless phones,

(b )handheld walkie-talkies,
(c) pagers
(d) all of these

43. The terms “data” and “information” mean the same thing.

(a) True
(b) False
(c) Same
(d) None of these

1. What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11a standard?

A.2.4Gbps B.5Gbps
C.2.4GHz D.5GHz
2. What is the maximum distance running the lowest data rate for 802.11b?

A. About 100 feet

B. About 175 feet

C. About 300 feet

D. About 350 feet

3. What is the maximum distance with maximum data rate for 802.11a?

A. About 65-75 feet

B. About 90-100 feet

C. About 150 feet

D. Over 200 feet

4. What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11b standard?

5. You have a Cisco mesh network. What protocol allows multiple APs to connect with many
redundant connections between nodes?

A.LWAPP B.AWPP
C.STP D.IEEE

1. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _______.

(a) modulation
(b) encoding
(c) line disciple
 (d) multiplexing

2. Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals?

(a) FDM
(b) TDM
(c) WDM
(d) a&c

3. What is the frequency reuse factor in CDMA?

(a). 0
(b). 1
(c). 10
(d). infinity

4. In CDMA, Reduction of co channel interference due to processing gain allows

frequency reuse factor of ________.

(a). zero
(b). one
(c). ten
(d). infinity

1. Transmission media are usually categorized as _______.

A) Fixed or unfixed
B) Guided or unguided
C) Determinate or indeterminate
D) Metallic or nonmetallic
2. Transmission media lie below the _______ layer.
A) physical B)
Network C)
Transport D)
Application

3. _______ cable consists of an inner copper core and a second conducting outer
Sheath.
A) Twisted-pair
B) Coaxial
C) Fiber-optic
D) Shielded twisted-pair

4. In fiber optics, the signal is _______ waves.

A) Light
B) Radio
C) infrared
D) Very low-frequency

5. Which of the following primarily uses guided

media? A) Cellular telephone system
B) Local telephone system
C) Satellite communications
D) Radio broadcasting

6. Which of the following is not a guided medium?

A) twisted-pair cable
B) Coaxial cable
C) fiber-optic cable
D) Atmosphere

7. What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less susceptible to noise than?
Twisted-pair cable?
A) Inner conductor
B) Diameter of cable
C) Outer conductor
D) Insulating material

8. In an optical fiber, the inner core is _______ the cladding.

A) Denser than
B) Less dense than
C) The same density as
D) Another name for

9. The inner core of an optical fiber is _______ in composition.

A) Glass or plastic
B) Copper
C) Bimetallic
D) liquid

10. When a beam of light travels through media of two different densities, if the angle
of Incidence is greater than the critical angle, _______ occurs.
A) Reflection
B) Refraction
C) Incidence
D) Criticism

11. When the angle of incidence is _______ the critical angle, the light beam bends
along The interface.
A) More than
B) Less than
C) Equal to
D) None of the above

12. Signals with a frequency below 2 MHz use _______ propagation.

A) Ground
B) Sky
C) line-of-sight
D) None of the above

13. Signals with a frequency between 2 MHz and 30 MHz use ______ propagation.
A) Ground
B) Sky
C) line-of-sight
D) None of the above

14. Signals with a frequency above 30 MHz use _______propagation.

A) Ground
B) Sky
C) line-of-sight
D) None of the above

15. A parabolic dish antenna is a (n) _______ antenna.

A) omnidirectional
B) Bidirectional C)
Unidirectional D)
Horn

16. A (n) _____ medium provides a physical conduit from one device to another.
A) Guided
B) Unguided
C) Either (a) or (b)
D) None of the above

17. ________ cable consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together.
A) Coaxial
B) Fiber-optic
C) Twisted-pair
D) None of the above

18. _______ cable is used for voice and data communications.

A) Coaxial
B) Fiber-optic
C) Twisted-pair
D) None of the above

19. __________ consists of a central conductor and a

shield. A) Coaxial
B) Fiber-optic
C) Twisted-pair
D) None of the above

20. _____ cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than _____
cable. A) Twisted-pair; fiber-optic
B) Coaxial; fiber-optic
C) Coaxial; twisted-pair
D) None of the above

21. ______ cables are composed of a glass or plastic inner core surrounded by
cladding, All encased in an outside jacket.
A) Coaxial B)
Fiber-optic C)
Twisted-pair
D) None of the above

22. ______ cables carry data signals in the form of light.

A) Coaxial
B) Fiber-optic
C) Twisted-pair
D) None of the above

23. In a fiber-optic cable, the signal is propagated along the inner core by _______.
A) Reflection
B) Refraction
C) Modulation
D) None of the above
24. _________ media transport electromagnetic waves without the use of a
physical Conductor.
A) Guided
B) Unguided
C) Either (a) or (b)
D) None of the above

25. Radio waves are _________.

A) omnidirectional
B) unidirectional
C) Bidirectional
D) None of the above

26. Microwaves are _________.

A) omnidirectional
B) Unidirectional
C) Bidirectional
D) None of the above

27. _______ is used for cellular phone, satellite, and wireless LAN communications.
A) Radio waves
B) Microwaves
C) Infrared waves
D) None of the above
28. ________ are used for short-range communications such as those between a PC
and A peripheral device.
A) Radio waves
B) Microwaves
C) Infrared waves
D) None of the above
1. Location Area is an area covered by ______.

(a). BTS
(b). BSC
(c) MSC
(d). Operator

2. GSM is a digital system with an over-the-air bit rate of _________

(a). 9.6 kbps

(b). 56 kbps
(c). 144 kbps
(d). 270 kbps
3. The separation between adjacent carrier frequencies is called . In GSM, this is __________.

(a). 100 kHz

(b). 200 kHz
(c). 225 kHz
(d). 250 kHz

4. GSM uses linear predictive coding (LPC). The purpose of LPC is to ____________ the bit rate

(a). reduce
(b). increase
(c). maintain
(d). None of the above
Q1. In free space transmission, the signal attenuation increases

(a) proportionally with distance

(b) proportionally with the square distance
(c) proportionally with distance cube
(d) none of these

Q2. When transmitting over a perfectly reflecting, smooth, plane earth, the path loss tends
to increase

(a) linearly with distance

(b )with the square of distance
(c) with distance cube
(d) with the fourth power of distance

Q3. Consider a cellular operator, who must select an appropriate frequency reuse distance. If

radio propagation attenuation increases rapidly with distance, his cellular systems will be

(a) relatively inefficient.

(b) relatively efficient
(c) poor performance
(d) none of these

Q4. Consider propagation over a perfectly reflecting, smooth, plane earth. Doubling the
antenna height of a mobile receiver near the cell boundary

(a) does not change the received power

(b) leads to 3 dB power increase
(c) leads to 6 dB power increase
(d) none of these
(a) the fade margin
(b) the speed of the antenna
(c) the delay spread
(d) none of these

Q6. If reflected waves arrive with uniformly distributed angles of arrival, the Doppler spectrum,

(a) is bell shaped

(b) is U-shaped
(c) has a raised cosine shape
(d) has a rectangular shape
(a) cordless telephony
(b) cellular telephony
(c) wireless communication
(d) none of these

(a) Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)

(b) Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)
(c) Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA)
(d) A combination of TDMA and FDMA
(a) a standard for cellular CDMA
(b) a standard procedure for measuring indoor multipath propagation charcteristics
(c) the 1995 edition of the conference proceedings on Information Systems
(d) a standard interconnecting base stations

Q10. The better measure of spectrum efficiency of a wireless system is

(a) bits per second per Hertz

(b) bits per second per Hertz per km2
2
(c) bits per second per km

(d) none of these

(a) This is true for DECT and GSM

(b) True for DECT but not for GSM

( c) True for GSM, but not for DECT

(d) none of these

Q12. The cluster size of the frequency reuse pattern of a hexagonal cellular system can only
take on a particular values. Namely

(a) 1,3,5,7,9,...
(b) 1,4,9,16,25,..
(c) 1,3,4,7,9,11,...
(d) 1,3,4,6,7,9,10,..
(a) with the square root of the cluster size
(b) proportional to cluster size
(c) with the square of the cluster size
(d) with the logarithm of the cluster size
Q14. propagation phenomena as experienced in wireless communication tend to improve
the stability of an ALOHA random access method

(a) True
(b) False
(c) same
(d) none of these

Q15. In a packet data transmission system with Rayleigh fading, error correction coding is more
critical in a system

(a) with short packet duration compared to the average fade duration
(b) with long packet duration compared to the average fade duration
(c) with short packet duration compared to the mean fade duration
(d) none of these

Q16. In an analog narrowband-FM cellular network, an operator can choose between a transmit
bandwidth of 12.5 or 25 kHz. Which bandwidth would you choose, if spectrum efficiency is
your prime concern?
(a) 12.5 kHz, because the system can accomodate twice as many channels per MHz of system
bandwidth
(b) 25 kHz, because it allows much denser frequency reuse than with 12.5 kHz.
(c) 25 kHz, because it allows much denser frequency reuse than with 125.5 kHz.
(d) none of these

Q17. The IS 95 Cellular CDMA uses the following spreading code in the downlink:

(a) a Walsh Hadamard code

(b) a Maximum Length PN sequence
(c) Gold code
(d) a combination of Walsh-Hadamard and a PN-sequence

Q18. a cellular telephone network, random access inevitably occurs

(a) during call set-up initiated the mobile

(b) during call set-up initiated a fixed subscriber of the PSTN
(c) during a handover
(d) during roaming

Q1. Bluetooth profiles are also referred to as:

a. Interfaces

b. Protocols
c. Applications
d. Procedures

2. Power consumption level changes when a Bluetooth device is in different states. Which
of the following options represents the incremental trend of power consumption among
all possible states?
   
(a) Standby Park Sniff Hold Active
   
(b) Standby Sniff Park Hold Active
   
(c) Standby Park Hold Sniff Active
   
(d) Standby Hold Park Sniff Active

3. Which of the following protocols is NOT part of Bluetooth core protocol?

a. Baseband
b. SDP
c. L2CAP
d. LMP
e. RFCOM

4. Bluetooth security Mode 2 is:

a. Link lever security

b. No security
c. Baseband level security
d. Service level security
e. None of the above
5. The IEEE 802.11b standard is also known as:

a. Bluetooth
b. Hiperlan
c. i-Fi
d. IrDA
e. HomeRF

6. Which of the followings are the characteristics of WPAN?

a. Short range
b. Low power
c. Low cost
d. Small networks
e. All of the above
7. HCI is one of the Bluetooth transport protocols

(a) False
(b) true
(c) same
(d) none of these

8. Bluetooth devices use maximum of 79 RF channels throughout the world

(a) False
(b) true
(c) same
(d) none of these

9. Bluetooth ACL link is a best-effort link

(a) True
(b) false
(c) same
(d) none of these

1. In ________ each station sends a frame whenever it has a frame to send.

A) pure ALOHA
B) slotted ALOHA
C) both (a) and (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
2. In pure ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time.

A) the same as
B) two times
C) three times
D) none of the above
3. The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent.

A) 12.2
B) 18.4
C) 36.8
D) none of the above
4. In __________, each station is forced to send only at the beginning of the time slot.

A) pure ALOHA
B) slotted ALOHA
C) both (a) and (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
5. In slotted ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time.

A) the same as
B) two times
C) three times
D) none of the above

6. The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent.

A) 12.2
B) 18.4
C) 36.8
D) none of the above
7. The vulnerable time for CSMA is the ________propagation time.

A) the same as
B) two times
C) three times
D) none of the above
8. In the _________ method, after the station finds the line idle, it sends its frame
immediately. If the line is not idle, it continuously senses the line until it finds it idle.

A) nonpersistent
B) 1-persistent
C) p-persistent
D) none of the above
9. In the ________method, a station that has a frame to send senses the line. If the line is
idle, it sends immediately. If the line is not idle, it waits a random amount of time and then
senses the line again.

A) nonpersistent
B) 1-persistent
C) p-persistent
D) none of the above
10 In the _______method, after the station finds the line idle it sends or refrain from sending
based on the outcome of a random number generator. If the line is busy, it tries again.

A) nonpersistent
B) 1-persistent
C) p-persistent
D) none of the above
11. We have categorized access methods into _______ groups.

A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
12. In ___________ methods, no station is superior to another station and none is assigned
the control over another.

A) random access
B) controlled access
C) channelization
D) none of the above
13. In ______, the chance of collision can be reduced if a station senses the medium before
trying to use it.

A) MA
B) CSMA
C) FDMA
D) CDMA

14. ________ requires that each station first listen to the medium before sending.

A) MA
B) CSMA
C) FDMA
D) CDMA
15. __________ augments the CSMA algorithm to detect collision.
A) CSMA/CA
B) CSMA/CD
C) either (a) or (b)
D) both (a) and (b)
16. In ________, a station monitors the medium after it sends a frame to see if the
transmission was successful. If so, the station is finished. If, however, there is a collision, the
frame is sent again.
A) CSMA/CA
B) CSMA/CD
C) either (a) or (b)
D) both (a) and (b)
17. To avoid collisions on wireless networks, ________was invented.

A) CSMA/CA
B) CSMA/CD
C) either (a) or (b)
D) both (a) and (b)
18. In _______, collisions are avoided through the use of three strategies: the interframe
space, the contention window, and acknowledgments.

A) CSMA/CA
B) CSMA/CD
C) either (a) or (b)
D) both (a) and (b)
19. In _______ methods, the stations consult one another to find which station has the right
to send.

A) random access
B) controlled access
C) channelization
D) none of the above

20. In _______ methods, a station cannot send unless it has been authorized by other
stations.

A) random access
B) controlled access
C) channelization
D) none of the above
21. We discussed ______ popular controlled-access methods.

A) two
B) three
C) four
D) none of the above
22. In the ________ method, a station needs to make a reservation before sending data. Time
is divided into intervals.

A) reservation
B) polling
C) token passing
D) none of the above
23. In the _____ method, time is divided into intervals. In each interval, a reservation frame
precedes the data frames sent in that interval.

A) reservation
B) polling
C) token passing
D) none of the above
24. In the ______ method, all data exchanges must be made through the primary device even
when the ultimate destination is a secondary device.

A) reservation
B) polling
C) token passing
D) none of the above
25. In the _______ method, the primary device controls the link; the secondary devices
follow its instructions.

A) reservation
B) polling
C) token passing
D) none of the above
26. In the _______ method, the stations in a network are organized in a logical ring.

A) reservation
B) polling
C) token passing
D) none of the above

27. In the _______ method, each station has a predecessor and a successor.
A) reservation
B) polling
C) token passing
D) none of the above

28. In the _________ method, a special packet called a ______ circulates through the ring.

A) reservation: control frame

B) polling: poll request
C) token passing: token
D) none of the above
29. _________ is a multiple-access method in which the available bandwidth of a link is
shared in time, frequency, or through code, between different stations.

A) Random access
B) Controlled access
C) Channelization
D) none of the above
30. We discussed ________ channelization protocols.

A) two
B) three
C) four
D) none of the above
31. In ________, the available bandwidth is divided into frequency bands.

A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
D) none of the above
32. In ______, each station is allocated a band to send its data. In other words, each band is
reserved for a specific station, and it belongs to the station all the time.

A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
D) none of the above
33. In _______, the stations share the bandwidth of the channel in time.

A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
D) none of the above
34. In _____, each station is allocated a time slot during which it can send data. Each station
transmits its data in its assigned time slot.

A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
D) none of the above
35. In _____, each station transmits its data in its assigned time slot.

A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
D) none of the above
36. In ______, the stations use different codes to achieve multiple access.

A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
D) none of the above
37. _______ is based on coding theory and uses sequences of numbers called chips.

A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
D) none of the above

38. In _______, the sequences are generated using orthogonal codes such the Walsh tables.

A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
D) none of the above

1. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals?

A) FDM
B) TDM
C) WDM
D) None of the above

2. Which multiplexing technique shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency?

A) FDM

B) TDM

C) Both (a) and (b)

D) None of the above

3. In synchronous TDM, for n signal sources of the same data rate, each frame contains _______ slots.

A) n

B) n+1

C) n-1

D) 0 to n

4. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum of the transmission
rates of the signal sources.

A) greater than
 B) less than

C) equal to

D) not related to

5. Which multiplexing technique involves signals composed of light beams?

A) FDM

B) TDM

C) WDM

D) none of the above

6. _________ utilization is the use of available bandwidth to achieve specific goals.

A) Frequency
 B) Bandwidth

C) Amplitude

D) None of the above

7. ________ can be achieved by using multiplexing; ______ can be achieved by using spreading.

A) Efficiency; privacy and anti jamming

B) Privacy and anti jamming; efficiency

C) Privacy and efficiency; anti jamming

D) Efficiency and anti jamming; privacy

8.________ is the set of techniques that allows the simultaneous transmission of multiple signals across
a single data link.

A) Demodulating

B) Multiplexing

C) Compressing

D) None of the above

9. In a multiplexed system, __ lines share the bandwidth of ____ link.

A) 1; n

B) 1; 1

C) n; 1

D) n; n

10. The word ______ refers to the portion of a _______ that carries a transmission.

A) channel; link

B) link; channel

C) line; channel

D) line; link
11. ______ can be applied when the bandwidth of a link (in hertz) is greater than the
combined bandwidths of the signals to be transmitted.

A) TDM

B) FDM

C) Both (a) or (b)

D) Neither (a) or (b)

12. FSM is an _________technique.

A) analog

B) digital

C) either (a) or (b)

D) none of the above

13. ____ is designed to use the high bandwidth capability of fiber-optic cable.

A) FDM

B) TDM

C) WDM

D) None of the above

14.______ is an analog multiplexing technique to combine optical signals.

A) FDM

B) TDM

C) WDM

D) None of the above

15____ is a digital process that allows several connections to share the high bandwidth of a link.

A) FDM

B) TDM
 C) WDM

D) None of the above

16_____ is a digital multiplexing technique for combining several low-rate channels into one high-rate
one.

A) FDM

B) TDM

C) WDM

D) None of the above

17. We can divide ____ into two different schemes: synchronous or statistical.

A) FDM

B) TDM

C) WDM

D) none of the above

18. In ________ TDM, each input connection has an allotment in the output even if it is not
sending data.

A) synchronous

B) statistical

C) isochronous

D) none of the above

19. In ________ TDM, slots are dynamically allocated to improve bandwidth efficiency.

A) synchronous

B) statistical

C) isochronous

D) none of the above

20. In ________, we combine signals from different sources to fit into a larger bandwidth.

A) spread spectrum
B) line coding
 C) block coding

D) none of the above

21. _______ is designed to be used in wireless applications in which stations must be able to share the
medium without interception by an eavesdropper and without being subject to jamming from a
malicious intruder.

A) Spread spectrum

B) Multiplexing

C) Modulation

D) None of the above.

22. The _______ technique uses M different carrier frequencies that are modulated by the source signal.
At one moment, the sign modulates one carrier frequency; at the next moment, the signal modulates
another carrier frequency.

A) FDM

B) DSSS

C) FHSS

D) TDM

23. The ______ technique expands the bandwidth of a signal by replacing each data bit with n bits.

A) FDM

B) DSSS

C) FHS

D) TDM

24. _______ is a first-generation cellular phone system.

A) AMPS

B) D-AMPS

C) GSM

D) none of the above

25.__________ is a second-generation cellular phone system.

A) AMPS

B) D-AMPS

C) GSM

D) none of the above

26.____________ is a digital version of AMPS.

A) GSM

B) D-AMPS

C) IS-95

D) none of the above

27.___________ is a second-generation cellular phone system used in Europe.

A) GSM

B) D-AMPS

C) IS-95

D) none of the above

28________ is a second-generation cellular phone system based on CDMA and DSSS.

A) GSM

B) D-AMPS

C) IS-95

D) none of the above

29. The __________ cellular phone system will provide universal personal communication.

A) first-generation

B) second-generation

C) third-generation

D) none of the above

30. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station only communicates with one base station.

A) hard

B) soft

C) medium

D) none of the above

31. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with two base stations at the same time.

A) hard

B) soft

C) medium

D) none of the above

32. _______ is an analog cellular phone system using FDMA.

A) AMPS

B) D-AMPS

C) GSM

D) none of the above

33. AMPS operate in the ISM _____ band.

A) 800-MHz

B) 900-MHz

C) 1800-MHz

D) none of the above

34. In AMPS, each band is divided into ______ channels.

A) 800

B) 900

C) 1000

D) none of the above

35. AMPS has a frequency reuse factor of _______.

A) 1

B) 3

C) 5

D) 7

36. AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels.

A) FDMA

B) TDMA

C) CDMA

D) none of the above

37. D-AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels.

A) FDMA

B) TDMA

C) CDMA

D) both (a) and (b)

38. GSM allows a reuse factor of _______.

A) 1

B) 3

C) 5

D) 7

39. GSM is a digital cellular phone system using ________.

A) FDMA

B) TDMA

C) CDMA

D) both (a) and (b)

40. IS-95 is based on ____________.

A) FDMA

B) CDMA

C) DSSS

D) all of the above

41. IS-95 uses the ISM _______band.

A) 800-MHz

B) 900-MHz

C) 1900-MHz

D) either (a) or (c)

42. IS-95 uses the _______ satellite system for synchronization.

A) GPS

B) Teledesic

C) Iridium

D) none of the above

43. In an IS-95 system, the frequency-reuse factor is normally _____.

A) 1

B) 3

C) 5

D) 7

44. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses W-CDMA.

A) IMT-DS

B) IMT-MC

C) IMT-TC

D) IMT-SC
45. In the third generation of cellular phones, ________ uses CDMA2000.

A) IMT-DS

B) IMT-MC

C) IMT-TC

D) IMT-SC

46. In the third generation of cellular phones, ______ uses a combination of W-CDMA and TDMA.

A) IMT-DS

B) IMT-MC

C) IMT-TC

D) IMT-SC

47. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses TDMA.

A) IMT-DS

B) IMT-MC

C) IMT-TC

D) IMT-SC

Q1. The spacing between subcarriers in 802.11a specifications is

(a) 100 kHz

(b) 615 kHz

(c) 312.5 kHz

(d) none of these

Q2. The duration of an OFDM symbol in 802.11a specification is

(a) 0.8us

(b) 2.4us

(c) 3.2us

(d) 4us
3. The coding scheme used in 802.11a specifications is

(a) Hamming Code

(b) Convolutional code

(c) Reed Solomon Code

(d) Turbo code

4. The number of used subcarriers in 802.11a specification is

(a) 52

(b) 64

(c) 48

(d) 24

5. The modulation used in SIGNAL field in 802.11a specification is

(a) BPSK

(b) D-BPSK (differential-BPSK)

(c) QPSK
(d) 64QAM

6. The acronym CCA in 802.11a specification stands for

(a) Cross Correlation Algorithm

(b) Clear Channel Assessment

(c) Cross Coupled Antenna

(d) Co Channel Access

7. The number of short preambles used in 802.11a specification is

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 8

(d) 10

8. The duration of the long preamble in 802.11a specification is

(a) 3.2us

(b) 4us

(c) 8us

(d) 10us

9. The number of TAIL bits in 802.11a specification is

(a) 6

(b) 9

(c) 12

(d) 18
10. The transmitter center frequency tolerance in 802.11a specification is
(a) +/-10 ppm

(b) +/-20 ppm

(c) +/- 40 ppm

(d) +/- 50 ppm

Q1. What is soft handoff?
(a) In CDMA system, MSC selects received signals from a variety of base stations with the help
of software. This is called as soft handoff.

(b) In CDMA system, BSC selects received signals from a variety of base stations with the help
of software.

(c) In GSM system, MSC selects received signals from a variety of base stations with the help of
software. This is called as soft handoff.

(d) None of these

Q2. What is co channel interference?

(a) The interference between the signals from co channel cells is called as co cannel interference.

(b) In CDMA system, BSC selects received signals from a variety of base stations with the help
of software.

(c) The interference between the signals from channel cells is called as co cannel interference.

(d) None of these

Q3. Define co-channel reuse ratio.

(a) The interference between the signals from co channel cells is called as co cannel interference.

(b) It is define as the ratio between the distance between the centers of nearest co channel
cells to the radius of the cell. Q = D/R

(c) The interference between the signals from channel cells is called as co cannel interference.

(d) None of these

Q4. Define adjacent channel interference.

(a) The interference between the signals from co channel cells is called as co cannel interference.

(b) Interference resulting from signals which are adjacent in frequency to the desired signal is
called adjacent channel interference.
(c) The interference between the signals from channel cells is called as co cannel interference.

(d) None of these

Q5. Define Grade of service.

(a) The interference between the signals from co channel cells.

(b) It is defined as the measure of the ability of a user to access a trunked system during the
busiest hour.

(c) The interference between the signals from channel cells.

(d) None of these

Q6. What is blocked call clear system (BCC)?

(a) In a system, a user is blocked without access by a system when no channels are available in
the system. The call blocked by the system is cleared and the user should try again. This is called
BCC system.

(b) It is defined as the measure of the ability of a user to access a trunked system during the
busiest hour.

(c) The interference between the signals from channel cells.

(d) None of these

Q7. What is blocked call delay system?

(a) If a channel is not available immediately, the call request may be delayed until a channel
becomes available.

(b) It is defined as the measure of the ability of a user to access a trunked system during the
busiest hour.

(c) The interference between the signals from channel cells.

(d) None of these

Q8. Define cell splitting.

(a) If a channel is not available immediately, the call request may be delayed until a channel
becomes available.

(b) Cell splitting is the process of subdividing congested cells into smaller cells each with its own
base stations and a corresponding reduction in antenna height and transmitter power. It increases
the capacity of cellular system.

(c) The interference between the signals from channel cells.

(d) None of these

Q9. What is sectoring?

(a) If a channel is not available immediately, the call request may be delayed until a channel
becomes available.

(b) Sectoring s a technique for decreasing co-channel interference and thus increasing the
system performance by using directional antennas.

(c) The interference between the signals from channel cells.

(d) None of these

Q10. What is propagation model?

(a) If a channel is not available immediately, the call request may be delayed until a channel
becomes available.

(b) Propagation models that predict the mean signal strength for an arbitrary transmitter –
receiver separation distance are useful in estimating the radio coverage area of a transmitter.

(c) The interference between the signals from channel cells.

(d) None of these

Q11. Define large scale propagation model?

(a) If a channel is not available immediately, the call request may be delayed until a channel
becomes available.

(b) Propagation models that predict the mean signal strength for an arbitrary transmitter –
receiver separation distance are useful in estimating the radio coverage area of a transmitter.

(c) The propagation models that characterize the signal strength over large T -R
separation distances (several hundreds or thousands of meters.

(d) None of these

Q12. What is small scale model?

(a) If a channel is not available immediately, the call request may be delayed until a channel
becomes available.
(b) Propagation models that predict the mean signal strength for an arbitrary transmitter –
receiver separation distance are useful in estimating the radio coverage area of a transmitter.

(c) The propagation models that characterize the rapid fluctuations of the received signal strength
over very short travel distances (a few wavelengths) or short time duration.

(d) None of these

Q13. What is free space propagation model?

(a) The free space propagation model is used to predict received signal strength, when
unobstructed line-of-sight path between transmitter & receiver.

(b) Propagation models that predict the mean signal strength for an arbitrary transmitter –
receiver separation distance are useful in estimating the radio coverage area of a transmitter.

(c) The propagation models that characterize the rapid fluctuations of the received signal strength
over very short travel distances (a few wavelengths) or short time duration.

(d) None of these

Q14. Explain path loss?

(a) The free space propagation model is used to predict received signal strength, when
unobstructed line-of-sight path between transmitter & receiver.

(b) Propagation models that predict the mean signal strength for an arbitrary transmitter –
receiver separation distance are useful in estimating the radio coverage area of a transmitter.

(c) The path loss is defined as the difference(in dB) between the effective transmitted power &
the received power, &may or may not include the effect of the antenna gains.

(d) None of these

Q15. What is scattering?

(a) The free space propagation model is used to predict received signal strength, when
unobstructed line-of-sight path between transmitter & receiver.

(b) Propagation models that predict the mean signal strength for an arbitrary transmitter –
receiver separation distance are useful in estimating the radio coverage area of a transmitter.

(c) When a radio wave impinges on a rough surface , the reflected energy is spread out in all
directions due to scattering.
(d) None of these

Q16. Explain small scale fading?

(a) Small scale fading is used to describe the rapid fluctuations of the amplitudes, phases, or
multipath delays of a radio signal over a short period of time or travel distance.

(b) Propagation models that predict the mean signal strength for an arbitrary transmitter –
receiver separation distance are useful in estimating the radio coverage area of a transmitter.

(c) When a radio wave impinges on a rough surface , the reflected energy is spread out in all
directions due to scattering.

(d) None of these

Q17. What are the factors influencing small scale fading?

(a) Speed of surrounding objects

(b) Multipath propagation
(c) Transmission bandwidth of the signal.
(d) all of these

Q18. Define Doppler shift?

(a) Speed of surrounding objects

(b) Multipath propagation
(c) The shift in received signal frequency due to motion is called the Doppler shift.
(d) None of these
Q19. What flat fading?

(a) If the mobile radio channel has a constant gain & linear phase response over a bandwidth
which is greater than the bandwidth of the transmitted signal, then the received signal will
undergo flat fading.
(b) Multipath propagation
(c) The shift in received signal frequency due to motion is called the Doppler shift.
(d) None of these
Q20. What is frequency selective fading?

(a) If the mobile radio channel has a constant gain & linear phase response over a bandwidth
which is greater than the bandwidth of the transmitted signal, then the received signal will
undergo flat fading.
(b) If the channel possesses a constant gain & linear phase response over a bandwidth that is
smaller than the bandwidth of the transmitted signal, then the channel creates frequency selective
fading on the received signal.
(c) The shift in received signal frequency due to motion is called the Doppler shift.
(d) None of these

Q21. Define fast fading channel?

(a) If the mobile radio channel has a constant gain & linear phase response over a bandwidth
which is greater than the bandwidth of the transmitted signal, then the received signal will
undergo flat fading.
(b) The channel impulse response changes rapidly within the symbol duration. This type of a
channel is called fast fading channel.
(c) The shift in received signal frequency due to motion is called the Doppler shift.
(d) None of these

Q22. Define slow fading channel?

(a) The channel impulse response changes at a rate much slower than the transmitted baseband
signal. This type of a channel is called slow fading channel.
(b) The channel impulse response changes rapidly within the symbol duration. This type of a
channel is called fast fading channel.
(c) The shift in received signal frequency due to motion is called the Doppler shift.
(d) None of these

Q23. What is multiple access?

(a) Multiple access schemes are used to allow many mobile users to share simultaneously a finite
amount of radio spectrum. It is required to achieve high capacity by simultaneously allocating
the bandwidth to multiple users.
(b) The channel impulse response changes rapidly within the symbol duration. This type of a
channel is called fast fading channel.
(c) The shift in received signal frequency due to motion is called the Doppler shift.
(d) None of these
Q24. What is frequency division duplexing?

(a) It is duplexing done using frequency techniques.FDD provides two distinct bands of
frequencies for every user. The forward band provides traffic from the base station to the mobile,
and the reverse band provides traffic from the mobile to the base station.

(b) The channel impulse response changes rapidly within the symbol duration. This type of a
channel is called fast fading channel.
(c) The shift in received signal frequency due to motion is called the Doppler shift.
(d) None of these
Q25. What are the multiple access techniques?

(a) Frequency division multiple access

(b) Time division multiple access
(c) Code division multiple access
(d) all of these

Q26. What is a wide band system?

(a) In wideband system, the transmission bandwidth of a single channel is much larger than the
coherence bandwidth of the channel. Thus multipath fading does not greatly vary the received
signal power within a wideband channel.

(b) Time division multiple access

(c) Code division multiple access
(d) None of these

Q27. What are the nonlinear effects in FDMA?

(a) In FDMA, many channels share the same antenna at the base station. The powers amplifiers
are nonlinear which causes signal spreading in the frequency domain and generate inter
modulation frequencies. It is undesirable and can result in interference.
(b) Time division multiple access
(c) Code division multiple access
(d) None of these
Q28. What is time division multiple access?

(a) Time division multiple access systems divide the radio spectrum into time slots and in each
slot only one user is allowed to either transmit or receive.
(b) Time division multiple access
(c) Code division multiple access
(d) None of these

Q29. What is fast and slow frequency hopping?

(a) If the rate of change of the carrier frequency is greater than the symbol rate, then the system
is referred to as fast frequency hopping. If the rate of change of the carrier frequency is lesser
than the symbol rate, then the system is referred to as slow frequency hopping.

(b) Time division multiple access

(c) Code division multiple access
(d) None of these
Q30. Define capacity of cellular systems

(a) It can be defined as the maximum number of channels or users that can be provided in a fixed
frequency band.
(b) Time division multiple access
(c) Code division multiple access
(d) None of these
Q31. Define forward channel interference

(a) It can be defined as the maximum number of channels or users that can be provided in a fixed
frequency band.
(b) For a particular subscriber until, the desired base station will provide the desired forward
channel while the surrounding co-channel base stations will provide the forward channel
interference.
(c) Code division multiple access
(d) None of these
Q32. Define adaptive channel allocation

(a) It can be defined as the maximum number of channels or users that can be provided in a fixed
frequency band.
(b) Adaptive channel allocation in TDMA eliminates system planning since it is not required to
plan frequencies for cells.
(c) Code division multiple access
(d) None of these
Q33. State some of the features of CDMA

(a) Users of CDMA share the same frequency.

(b) CDMA has soft capacity limit.
(c) Multipath fading may be substantially reduced
(d) All of these
Q34. Define efficiency of TDMA

(a) The efficiency of a TDMA is a measure of the percentage of transmitted data that contains
information as opposed to providing overhead for the access scheme.
(b) CDMA has soft capacity limit.
(c) Multipath fading may be substantially reduced
(d) None of these

Q35. What are the features of TDMA?

(a) TDMA shares a single carrier frequency with several users, where each user makes use of
non overlapping time slots.
(b) Data transmission occurs in bursts.
(c) Handoff process is much simpler
(d) All of these

Q36. What are the features of TDMA?

(a) Duplexers are not required, since transmission and reception occurs at different time slots.
(b) Data transmission occurs in bursts.
(c) Handoff process is much simpler
(d) All of these

Q37. What is time divison multiplexing?

(a) TDD uses time instead of frequency to provide both a forward and reverse link.
Multiple users share a single radio channel by taking turns in the time domain.
(b) Data transmission occurs in bursts.
(c) Handoff process is much simpler
(d) None of these

Q38. What are the features of FDMA?

(a) FDMA channel carries only one phone circuit at a time

(b) The bandwidth of FDMA channels is relatively narrow as each channel supports only one
circuit per carrier.
(c) a & b
(d) None of these

Q39. Why the second generation was developed?

(a) FDMA channel carries only one phone circuit at a time

(b) The bandwidth of FDMA channels is relatively narrow as each channel supports only one
circuit per carrier.
(c) The second – generation systems have been developed to provide higher quality
signals, higher data rate for support of digital services and greater capacity.
(d) None of these

Q40. What are second generation are available?

(a) Global System Mobile (GSM) in Europe

(b) Interim standard
(c) Pacific Digital Cellular
(d) All of these

Q41. What are second generation are available?

(a) Interim standard-95

(b) Interim standard
(c) Pacific Digital Cellular
(d) All of these

Q42. Write advantages 2G over 1G.

(a) Natural integration with the evolving digital wireless network

(b) Higher data rate
(c) Flexibility for capacity expansion
(d) All of these

Q43. What is service offered by GSM?

(a) Telephone services
(b) Bearer or Data services
(c) Supplementary services
(d) All of these

Q44. What is the function of NSS in GSM?

(a) The NSS managing the switching function of the systems and allows the MSCs to
communicate with other networks such as PSTN and ISDN.
(b) Bearer or Data services
(c) Supplementary services
(d) None of these

Q45. Define the bursts.

(a) Data is transmitted small portions called bursts.

(b) Bearer or Data services
(c) Supplementary services
(d) None of these

Q46. Write types of TCH channels of GSM?

(a) Full-rate TCH

(b) Half-rate TCH
(c) both a & b
(d) None of these
Q47. What is the need guard period (space)?

(a) Full-rate TCH

(b) Half-rate TCH
(c) The guard period is used to avoid overlapping with other bursts due to different path delays
and to give the transmitter time to turn on and off.
(d) None of these

Q48. Why Dummy burst is used?

(a) Dummy burst is used as filter information for unused time slots on the forward link.
(b) Half-rate TCH
(c) The guard period is used to avoid overlapping with other bursts due to different path delays
and to give the transmitter time to turn on and off.
(d) None of these

Q49. Define burst formatting in GSM.

(a) Dummy burst is used as filter information for unused time slots on the forward link.
(b) Burst formatting adds binary data to the ciphered blocks, in order to help synchronization and
equalization of the received signal.
(c) The guard period is used to avoid overlapping with other bursts due to different path delays
and to give the transmitter time to turn on and off.
(d) None of these

Q50. What is the need of pilot channel?

(a) Dummy burst is used as filter information for unused time slots on the forward link.
(b) Burst The pilot channel is intended to provide a reference signal for all MSS within a cell
provides the phase reference for coherent demodulation.
(c) The guard period is used to avoid overlapping with other bursts due to different path delays
and to give the transmitter time to turn on and off.
(d) None of these

Q51. Define Piconet.

(a) The simplest Bluetooth networks called piconet can have from two to eight nodes. Piconet
is a collection of Bluetooth devices which are synchronized to the same hopping sequence.
(b) Burst The pilot channel is intended to provide a reference signal for all MSS within a cell
provides the phase reference for coherent demodulation.
(c) The guard period is used to avoid overlapping with other bursts due to different path delays
and to give the transmitter time to turn on and off.
(d) None of these

Q52. What is Bluetooth?

(a) The simplest Bluetooth networks called piconet can have from two to eight nodes. Piconet
is a collection of Bluetooth devices which are synchronized to the same hopping sequence.
(b) Bluetooth is an open specification for the short range wireless voice and data communication
that’s was originally developed for cable replacement in personal area networking to operate all
over the world.
(c) The guard period is used to avoid overlapping with other bursts due to different path delays
and to give the transmitter time to turn on and off.
(d) None of these

Q53. What is Scatternet?

(a) The simplest Bluetooth networks called piconet can have from two to eight nodes. Piconet is
a collection of Bluetooth devices which are synchronized to the same hopping sequence.
(b) One Bluetooth devices can operate simultaneously on two piconet acting as a bridge between
the two.
(c) The guard period is used to avoid overlapping with other bursts due to different path delays
and to give the transmitter time to turn on and off.
(d) None of these
54. What is T1 data rate?

(a) 1.544 Mbps (b) 15.44 Mbps

(c) 544 Mbps (d) None of these

Q55. ISM stands as_________.

(a) Industrial, Scientific, Medical (b) Industrial, Scientific, Matrix
(c) Inter, Scientific, Medical (d) None of these

Q55. The Fresnel zone clearance, radius of Fresnel circle at K=4/3:

(a) R (d1d2 ) / 2 (b) R (d1d 2 )

(c) R (d1 ) / 2 (d) None of these

Q55. The Fresnel zone clearance, radius of Fresnel circle at K=2/3:

(a) R (d1d2 ) / 2 (b) R (d1d 2 )

(c) R (d1 ) / 2 (d) None of these
Q56. The equation for ray bending is expressed as:

(a) 1 dn (b) 1 dn
R dh R dh
dn
(c) R (d) None of these
dh

Q57. Effective earth radius is

(a) r' 4r (b) r' 2 r

3 3
(c) r' 1 r (d) None of these
3
Q58. The frequency range for infrared link is

(a) 300 GHz to 400THz (b) 30 GHz to 40THz

(c) 3000 GHz to 4000THz (d) None of these

Q59. _________ for microwave and VHF band.

(a) LOS Propagation (b) Ground wave propagation

(c) Sky wav Propagation (d) none of these

Q60. The total bits per frame in T1 carrier is

(a) 193 bits/frame (b) 192 bits/frame

(c) 194 bits/frame (d) none of these

Q61. MAC stands as

 (a) Medium Access Control (b) Introduce of the multipath reception

(c) Multipath propagation (d) none of these

Q62. Fresnel zone clearance is

(a) Elimination of the multipath reception (b) Introduce of the multipath reception

(c) Multipath propagation (d) none of these

Q63. WAP stands as

(a) Wireless Application Protocol (b) Wire-line Application Protocol

(c) Wireless access protocol (d) none of these

Q64. WLL stands as

(a) Wireless Local Loop (b) Wire-line Application Protocol

(c) Wireless access protocol (d) none of these

Q64. DECT stands as

(a) Digital Enhanced Cordless Telecommunications (b) Wire-line Application Protocol

(c) Wireless access protocol (d) none of these

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