Engineering Mechanics No1236
Engineering Mechanics No1236
2.
Which one of the following is the antonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence:
‘As the ice RECEDED, glacial deposits and moraines were formed’?
(a) Waned
(b) Intensified
(c) Tapered
(d) Relented
3.
Which one of the following is the antonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence:
‘With essential resources at a NADIR, the streams of the plateau attract a lot of wildlife’?
(a) Zero
(b) Inimical
(c) Temper
(d) Zenith
4.
Which one of the following is the antonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence:
‘Human life is certainly ENIGMATIC’?
(a) Cryptic
(b) Mysterious
(c) Perspicuous
(d) Perplexing
5.
Which one of the following is the antonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence:
‘Mary was known for her UNCOUTH behaviour’?
(a) Crass
(b) Loutish
(c) Tacky
(d) Refined
6.
Which one of the following is the synonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence:
‘The UNKEMPT lawn caught his attention’?
(a) Maintained
(b) Tidy
(c) Slovenly
(d) Covetous
7.
Which one of the following is the synonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence:
‘The Romani lead an ITINERANT life’?
(a) Sedentary
(b) Established
(c) Titular
(d) Nomadic
8.
Which one of the following is the synonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence:
‘He said that he had a HANKERING for Sushi’?
(a) Abjuring
(b) Loathing
(c) Yearning
(d) Disliking
9.
Which one of the following is the synonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence:
‘He is capable of the CULPABLE act’?
(a) Propitious
(b) Criminal
(c) Impeccable
(d) Expedient
10.
Which one of the following is the synonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence:
‘TRUANCY was a characteristic feature of his behaviour’?
(a) Alertness
(b) Outlook
(c) Stance
(d) Absenteeism
11.
Which one of the following words may be used in the blank space in the sentence: ‘The building
fell down within minutes due to the earthquake but fortunately everybody_______’?
(a) was able to escape
(b) manage to escape
(c) could escaped
(d) couldn’t escape
12.
Which one of the following word(s) may be used in the blank space in the sentence: ‘It took us
quite some time to reach Agra; it was_________ journey’?
(a) long
(b) a five hour
(c) a three hours
(d) five hour
13.
Which one of the following words may be used in the blank space in the sentence: ‘The more car
you use, __________’?
(a) your expenditure will be higher
(b) higher your expenditure will be
(c) the higher your expenditure will be
(d) higher your expenditure
14.
Which one of the following words may be used in the blank space in the sentence: ‘When did they
________ the hotel’?
(a) arrive to
(b) arrive at
(c) arrive in
(d) get in
15.
Which one of the following word may be used in the blank space in the sentence: ‘The accident
took place because of his fault, so he had to pay for the damage _______my car’?
(a) for
(b) on
(c) of
(d) to
16.
Which part of the sentence “Ravi has been elected as one of the member of the Committee for the
inquiry” has an error?
(a) Ravi has been elected
(b) as one of the member
(c) of the committee
(d) for the inquiry
17.
Which part of the sentence “The Principal said that whoever has taken the test needed to report to
his office latest by that evening” has an error?
(a) The Principal said that
(b) whoever has taken the test
(c) needed to report to
(d) his office latest by that evening
18.
Which part of the sentence, “If I were you I will not ask for help as I need not require any support
from anyone” has an error?
(a) If I were you
(b) I will not ask for help
(c) as I need not require
(d) any support from anyone
19.
Which part of the sentence, “Had I learnt that you were the person in-charge, I would not send the
order with reference to the payment of bill” has an error?
(a) Had I learnt that
(b) you were the person in-charge,
(c) I would not send the order
(d) with reference to the payment of bill
20.
Which part of the sentence, “Most of the documents have been translated in the official languages
of the states of India” has an error?
(a) Most of the documents
(b) have been translated
(c) in the official languages
(d) of the states of India
21.
Which one of the following is NOT a Fifth Generation programming language used mainly in
Artificial Intelligence?
(a) Prolog
(b) COBOL
(c) Mercury
(d) OPS5
पांचवी पीढ
क एक ोामन भाषा जो मुयत: कृम बोध म यु!त क जाती है , %न&न'ल)खत
म से कौन सी एक नह है ?
(a) ोलॉग
(b) कोबोल (COBOL)
(c) म!युर1
(d) OPS5
22.
Sum-of-Products (SOP) expression is represented as:
(a) +
(b) ( + + + +
(c) + +
(d) ( + +
गुणनफल5 का योगफल (SOP) 6यंजक 7कस तरह %न89पत 7कया जाता है ?
(a) +
(b) ( + + + +
(c) + +
(d) ( + +
23.
How many number of characters can be accommodated in 16-bit Unicode?
(a) 256
(b) 65536
(c) 256256
(d) 65000
24.
Which one of the following software is NOT suitable for publishing purpose?
(a) InDesign
(b) Microsoft Publisher
(c) Apple Pages
(d) Tally
25.
Which one of the following is a low-level programming language?
(a) FORTRAN
(b) Prolog
(c) Ada
(d) Machine Language
26.
The set of rules that governs the communication process between the sender and the receiver is
known as:
(a) Router
(b) Protocol
(c) Internet
(d) Modem
ेषक और अ'भाह
के बीच संचार 7Eया को %नयिLत करने वाले %नयम-समN
ु चय को !या
कहते हO ?
(a) राउटर
(b) ोटोकॉल
(c) इंटरनेट
(d) मॉडम
27.
Which one of the following is NOT a web browser?
(a) Internet Explorer
(b) Mozilla Firefox
(c) Python
(d) Netscape Navigator
28.
Which one of the following is NOT included in TCP/IP model?
(a) Application layer
(b) Presentation layer
(c) Transport layer
(d) Network layer
29.
In the context of data transmission, the term ISP stands for:
(a) Information System Protocol
(b) Internet System Protocol
(c) Internet Service Provider
(d) Information Service Provider
आँकडा संचरण के संदभ1 म, पद ISP का अथ1 है :
(a) इंफॉमXशन 'सHटम ोटोकॉल
(b) इंटरनेट 'सHटम ोटोकॉल
(c) इंटरनेट स9व1स ोवाइडर
(d) इंफॉमXशन स9व1स ोवाइडर
30.
Which one of the following is NOT a Vector Storage Format?
(a) CGM
(b) SVG
(c) SWF
(d) JPEG
%न&न'ल)खत म कौन सा एक, सYदश भंडारण सं8प (वे!टर Hटोरे ज फॉमXट) नहं है ?
(a) CGM
(b) SVG
(c) SWF
(d) JPEG
31.
The refractive index of a substance for a light wave of frequency ν (nu) is:
(a) measured in radian.
(b) the ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the substance.
(c) the ratio of sine of angle of refraction to the sine of angle of incidence.
(d) the ratio of angle of incidence to the angle of refraction.
32.
In a pressure cooker, cooking is fast because:
(a) the boiling point of water is raised by the increased pressure inside the cooker.
(b) the boiling point of water is lowered by pressure.
(c) more steam is available to cook the food at 100 0C.
(d) more pressure is available to cook the food at 100 0C.
34.
Two simple pendulums having the same length l but different masses m1 and m2 are hanging from
the same ceiling. They execute oscillations with the same amplitude. Which one of the following is
NOT correct?
(a) They have the same time period
(b) They have the same frequency
(c) They have the same energy
(d) They have the same angular amplitude
पj
ृ वी चंhमा पर एक गुk[व बल डालती है , िजससे वह कlा म बना रहता है I Lयूटन के तीसरे
%नयम के अथ1 म, इस बल क %त7Eया !या है ?
(a) चंhमा के कारण \वार-भाटा
(b) चंhमा पर अ'भकh
बल
(c) चंhमा fवारा पj
ृ वी पर डाला गया गुk[व बल
(d) चंhमा क लगभग वतुल
1 कlा
36.
Which one of the following elements will have a property between metals and non-metals?
(a) Iron
(b) Boron
(c) Carbon
(d) Potassium
37.
Which one of the following is NOT a Colloid?
(a) Milk
(b) Smoke
(c) Sponge
(d) Sea-water
39.
Who among the following scientists have first showed that the atom is divisible?
(a) Ernest Rutherford
(b) John Dalton
(c) J J Thomson
(d) Neils Bohr
40.
Which one of the following is an example of a physical change?
(a) Germination
(b) Digestion
(c) Sublimation
(d) Electrolysis
ू रे पादप5 पर उगते हO, 7कंतु उनसे आहार ाQत नहं करते, !या कहलाते हO ?
जो पादप दस
(a) अ`धपादप
(b) मत
ृ जीवी
(c) बीजाणु उ%qf
(d) Pायोफाइट
42.
Which one of the following is NOT an example of modified stem?
(a) Rhizome
(b) Tuber
(c) Pneumatophore
(d) Bulb
43.
Ramsar sites are:
(a) desert areas.
(b) high altitude zones.
(c) deep sea areas.
(d) wetland areas.
45.
Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Presence of true coelom : Nematodes
(b) Absence of coelom : Platyhelminthes
(c) Absence of notochord : Echinoderms
(d) Presence of gills in larva : Amphibians
46.
If CIRCLE is related to RICELC, SQUARE is related to:
(a) UQRESA
(b) UQSERA
(c) UQSAER
(d) None
48.
B said, ‘‘A’s father is the only brother of my sister’s son.’’ How is A’s father related to B?
(a) Cousin
(b) Nephew
(c) Aunt
(d) None
49.
Let ‘m’ and ‘n’ be two positive integers and that m+n+mn = 118. What is the value of m+n?
(a) Cannot be determined
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 22
मान ल
िजए ‘m’ और ‘n’ दो धन पूणा{क हO और यह 7क m+n+mn = 118 है , तो m+n का मान !या
है ?
(a) %नधा1Tरत नह
ं 7कया जा सकता
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 22
50.
Three cars A, B and C started from the same point at 8 am, 9 am and 10 am respectively and
travelled at the speed of 40 kmph, 60 kmph and x kmph in the same direction and met
simultaneously at another point during their journey. What is the value of x?
(a) 80 kmph
(b) 90 kmph
(c) 100 kmph
(d) 120 kmph
तीन कारv A, B और C एक ह
Hथान से सुबह Eमश: 8 बजे, 9 बजे और 10 बजे चल
और उLह5ने
Eमश: 40 kmph, 60 kmph और x kmph क चाल से एक ह
Yदशा म याा क तथा अपनी याा म
7कसी अLय Hथान पर एक साथ पहुँची | x का मान !या है ?
(a) 80 kmph
(b) 90 kmph
(c) 100 kmph
(d) 120 kmph
51.
What is the number of ways of distributing identity cards to four people so that none of them
receive their own card?
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 12
53.
What is the difference of the areas of the circumcircle and incircle of an equilateral triangle of side
length 2 cm?
(a) 2π cm2
π
(b) cm2
2
(c) π cm2
3π
(d) cm2
2
2 cm लंबी भुजा वाले एक समबाहु भुज के पTरव[ृ त और अंतव[1 ृ त के lेफल5 का अंतर !या है ?
(a) 2π cm2
π
(b) cm2
2
(c) π cm2
3π
(d) cm2
2
54.
What is the unit digit of the number 1715?
(a) 9
(b) 7
(c) 1
(d) 3
55.
Which one of the following is the largest positive integer of n such that 10n divides
100 × 99 × 98 × ….. 3 × 2 × 1 ?
(a) 24
(b) 25
(c) 20
(d) 11
56.
The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this, which one of the following
will come in the second set?
BF : GK : : LP : ?
(a) JK
(b) QU
(c) VW
(d) RQ
मान ल
िजए (x,y) एक बंद ु है व[ृ त x2+y2 = 4 पर, तो x-y का मह[तम संभव मान !या है ?
(a) 4
(b) 1+ 3
(c) 2 2
(d) 3
58.
Suppose x,y and z are natural numbers such that xyz = 24. Which one of the following values is
NOT possible for the sum x+y+z?
(a) 15
(b) 11
(c) 16
(d) 12
मान ल
िजए x,y और z इस कार के धन पण
ू ा{क हO 7क xyz = 24 है | योगफल x+y+z के 'लए
%न&न'ल)खत म से कौन सा मान संभव नह है ?
(a) 15
(b) 11
(c) 16
(d) 12
59.
If 5472 = 18, 6342 = 15 and 7584 = 24, then what is the value of 9236?
(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 20
(d) 21
X (पुkष) और Y (मYहला) ने 10 वष1 पूव1 9ववाह 7कया. उनक उm 5:4 के अनुपात मv थी. X क उm
Y क उm से Y क उm का छठवाँ YहHसा अ`धक है | 9ववाह के बाद, उनके 6 बNचे हुए िजनमv
एक साथ हुए तीन और एक साथ हुए दो बNचे (जुडवां) शा'मल हO | एक साथ हुए तीन बNच5,
एक साथ हुए दो बNच5 और छठे बNचे क उm (पण
ू 1 संया म) 3:2:1 के अनप
ु ात म हO | पTरवार
क वत1मान कुल उm का मह[तम संभव मान !या है ?
(a) 107 वष1
(b) 101 वष1
(c) 83 वष1
(d) 79 वष1
61.
The term of Lok Sabha:
(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances.
(b) can be extended by six months at a time.
(c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency.
(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency.
62.
The members of which one of the following standing committees are chosen exclusively from the
Members of Lok Sabha?
(a) The Public Accounts Committee
(b) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) The Estimates Committee
(d) The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
%न&न'ल)खत म से 7कस Hथायी स'म%त के सदHय, केवल लोक सभा के सदHय5 म से ह
चुने
जाते हO ?
(a) लोक लेखा स'म%त
(b) लोक (साव1ज%नक) उपEम स'म%त
(c) ा!कलन स'म%त
(d) अनुसू`चत जा%त एवं अनुसू`चत जनजा%त कpयाण स'म%त
63.
Freedom of speech under the Constitution of India is subject to reasonable restrictions on the
ground of protection of:
(a) sovereignty and integrity of the country.
(b) dignity of a citizen.
(c) dignity of Council of Ministers.
(d) dignity of Constitutional functionaries.
भारत के सं9वधान के अधीन वाक् -Hवातं~य 7कसके संरlण के आधार पर युि!तयु!त %नब{धन के
अdयधीन है ?
(a) दे श क भुता और अखंडता
(b) 7कसी नागTरक क गTरमा
(c) मं-पTरषf क गTरमा
(d) सां9वधा%नक कृ[यकाTरय5 क गTरमा
64.
Which one of the following statements correctly defines a mixed economy?
(a) There is importance of small scale industries along with heavy industries
(b) There is co-existence of public sector along with private sector
(c) Both agriculture and industry are equally promoted by the State
(d) Economy gives importance to both primary and secondary sectors
65.
Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental duty of every citizen of India under Article 51A
of the Constitution of India?
(a) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
(b) To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
(c) To promote international peace and human rights
(d) To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
%न&न'ल)खत म से कौन सा एक, भारत के सं9वधान के अनN
ु छे द 51A के अधीन भारत के [येक
ू कत16य नह है ?
नागTरक का मल
(a) हमार
सामा'सक संHकृ%त क समg
ृ परं परा को मह[व दे ना और उसे बनाए रखना
(b) इस कार क थाओ का [याग करना जो िHय5 के स&मान के 9वkg हO
(c) अंतरराaI
य शां%त और मानव-अ`धकार5 को बढावा दे ना
(d) वैoा%नक कृ%त , मानववाद और जांच (पूछताछ) तथा सुधार क भावना का 9वकास करना
66.
Which one of the following statements about the office of the Deputy Prime Minister of India is
correct?
(a) It was created under the original Constitution of India
(b) It is not defined in the Constitution of India
(c) It was created by the 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India
(d) It was created by the 85th Amendment to the Constitution of India
67.
Which one of the following authorities conducts and supervises the election of rural and urban
local bodies?
(a) State Election Commission
(b) Election Commission of India
(c) District Collector and District Magistrate
(d) Concerned Returning Officer
68.
Which one of the following writs is issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court to a lower court
forbidding the latter to continue proceeding there in excess of its jurisdiction?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Prohibition
(c) Certiorari
(d) Quo Warranto
%न&न'ल)खत म से कौन सी एक Tरट, उNचतम Lयायालय अथवा 7कसी उNच Lयायालय fवारा
7कसी %नचले Lयायालय को, %नचले Lयायालय क अपनी अ`धकाTरता के अ%तTर!त काय1वाह
जार
69.
Who among the following was the Chairman of the Committee constituted on Panchayatiraj
Institutions in 1977?
(a) Ashok Mehta
(b) Sardar Swaran Singh
(c) Balwant Rai Mehta
(d) Madhu Dandwate
%न&न'ल)खत म से कौन, 1977 म पंचायती राज संHथाओ के 9वषय म गYठत स'म%त का अdयl
था?
(a) अशोक मेहता
(b) सरदार Hवण1 'संह
(c) बलवंत राय मेहता
(d) मधु दं डवते
70.
The members of the Constituent Assembly were:
(a) directly elected by the people.
(b) elected by the legislatures of various provinces and nominated by the rulers of the Princely
States.
(c) nominated by the Governor-General.
(d) nominated by the Congress and the Muslim League.
71.
Report of which one of the following bodies is NOT placed before the Parliament?
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(b) Election Commission of India
(c) Finance Commission
(d) Union Public Service Commission
%न&न'ल)खत म से 7कस एक %नकाय क Tरपोट1 , संसf के समl नहं रखी जाती है ?
(a) भारत के %नयंक एवं महालेखा पर
lक
(b) भारत %नवा1चन आयोग
(c) 9व[त आयोग
(d) संघ लोक सेवा आयोग
72.
With regard to the Finance Commission of India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It ensures transparency in financial administration
(b) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
(c) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the public sector undertakings
(d) It recommends on the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State
73.
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Constitution of India is NOT correct?
(a) It is more rigid than flexible
(b) It contains Fundamental Rights which are justiciable
(c) Its chapters on Fundamental Duties were inserted in 1976
(d) Judicial review is an important feature
74.
Special provisions of Article 371 of the Constitution of India relate to which of the following
states?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Manipur, Maharashtra and Nagaland
(c) Assam, Meghalaya and Tripura
(d) Karnataka, Delhi and Gujarat
भारत के सं9वधान के अनN
ु छे द 371 के 9व'शaट उपबंध, %न&न'ल)खत म से 7कस रा\य या रा\य-
समूह से संबं`धत हO ?
(a) ज&मू एवं कrमीर
(b) म)णपरु , महाराaI और नागालOड
(c) असम, मेघालय और पुरा
(d) कना1टक, Yदpल
और गुजरात
75.
The word ‘Secular’ was inserted in the Preamble to the Constitution of India by which one of the
following Constitutional Amendment Acts?
(a) 2nd Constitutional Amendment Act
(b) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
(d) 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
76.
The ‘Communal Award’ was introduced by which one of the following Acts?
(a) Government of India Act 1919
(b) Government of India Act 1935
(c) Indian Councils Act 1892
(d) Indian Councils Act 1909
‘सांदा%यक अ`ध%नण1य (क&यूनल अवाड1)’, %न&न'ल)खत म से 7कस अ`ध%नयम fवारा परु :Hथा9पत
7कया गया था ?
77.
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Government of India Act, 1858 is
correct?
(a) Established an advisory council composed of Indians
(b) Powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India
(c) The administration of the country was federalized
(d) There was clear separation of powers between the executive and the legislature
भारत शासन अ`ध%नयम, 1858 के संबंध म, %न&न'ल)खत म से कौन सा कथन सह
है ?
(a) भारतीय5 से बनी एक सलाहकार पTरषf Hथा9पत क
(b) Eाउन क शि!तय5 का योग भारत के सेEेटर
ऑफ Hटे ट fवारा 7कया जाना था
(c) दे श का शासन संघबg 7कया गया था
(d) इसम काय1पा'लका और 9वधान मंडल के बीच शि!तय5 का Hपaट पथ
ृ !करण हुआ था
78.
In which one of the following years was the State Reorganization Commission constituted?
(a) 1956
(b) 1953
(c) 1952
(d) 1961
79.
Which one of the following princely states held elections to transform itself into a Constitutional
Monarchy a few days before independence of India?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Travancore
(c) Cooch Behar
(d) Manipur
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
A B C D
(b) 2 4 3 1
A B C D
(c) 1 4 3 2
A B C D
(d) 1 3 4 2
उ[तर च%ु नए :
सूची I सूची II
(भारतीय राजनी%तक दल) (नेता)
A. भारतीय राaI
य कांेस 1. ए के गोपालन
B. भारतीय जन संघ 2. 6योमेश सी बनजt
C. Hवतं पाट
3. rयामा साद मुखजt
D. भारतीय क&यु%नHट पाट
4. सी राजगोपालाचार
कूट:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
A B C D
(b) 2 4 3 1
A B C D
(c) 1 4 3 2
A B C D
(d) 1 3 4 2
81.
The First Five Year Plan mainly addressed which of the following sector(s)?
(a) Heavy industries
(b) Defence industries
(c) Agriculture
(d) Employment and poverty alleviation
पहल
पंचवषtय योजना ने %न&न'ल)खत म से मुयत: 7कस से!टर पर dयान कYhत 7कया ?
(a) भार
उfयोग
(b) रlा उfयोग
(c) कृ9ष
(d) रोजगार और गर
बी उLमूलन
82.
The idea of Five Year Plans in India was drawn from which one of the following?
(a) Experiences of erstwhile USSR
(b) Gandhian vision of society
(c) Bombay plan
(d) Bretton Woods Conference
83.
Articles 36-51 of the Constitution of India contain provisions related to:
(a) Fundamental Rights and Duties
(b) Procedure for Amendment of the Constitution
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Government of the States
85.
Which one of the following is NOT a qualification for election as Vice-President of India?
(a) Following nomination, he or she must not be a member of any political party
(b) He or she should have completed 45 years of age
(c) He or she should not hold any office of profit
(d) He or she should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha
86.
The ‘Chipko Movement’ was aimed at resisting:
(a) commercial logging.
(b) big dams.
(c) creation of reserve forests.
(d) caste discrimination.
मजदरू 7कसान शि!त संगठन (MKSS) %न&न'ल)खत म से 7कस आंदोलन को ारं भ करने के 'लए
स
ु 'सg है ?
(a) सरदार सरोवर पTरयोजना के 9वkg आंदोलन
(b) अरक 9वरोधी आंदोलन
(c) 7कसान अ[मह[या के 9वkg आंदोलन
(d) सूचना के अ`धकार के 'लए आंदोलन
88.
The India International Institute of Democracy & Election Management is located at:
(a) Kolkata
(b) New Delhi
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Mussoorie
भारत अंतरा1aI
य लोकतं और %नवा1चन बंधन संHथान कहाँ पर िHथत है ?
(a) कोलकाता
(b) नई Yदpल
(c) है दराबाद
(d) मसूर
89.
Which one of the following is NOT a writ or special orders that can be issued by the Courts in
India?
(a) Prohibition
(b) Recall
(c) Certiorari
(d) Quo Warranto
91.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the levels of training evaluation suggested by
Kirkpatrick?
(a) Reaction, Learning, Behaviour and Results
(b) Learning, Behaviour, Reaction and Results
(c) Learning, Reaction, Results and Behaviour
(d) Reaction, Learning, Results and Behaviour
92.
The policy involving payment of such compensation as will be conducive in attracting and holding
the quantity and quality of labour force required is known as:
(a) Policy of equity
(b) Policy of balance
(c) Policy of adequacy
(d) Policy of efficiency
वह नी%त, िजसमv ऐसे %तकर का भुगतान शा'मल हो, जो अपेlत nम शि!त क माा और
योuयता को आकृaट करने और संभाले रखने म सहायक हो, !या कहलाती है ?
(a) सा&या क नी%त
(b) संतुलन क नी%त
(c) पया1Qतता क नी%त
(d) दlता क नी%त
93.
Which one of the following statements is NOT true according to the norms recommended by the
Indian Labour Conference, 1957 for fixation of the minimum wages?
(a) The standard working class family should be taken into account comprising three
consumption units for one wage earner, the earnings of women, children and adolescents
being disregarded
(b) Clothing requirements should be estimated on the basis of per capita consumption of 18
yards per annum with maximum 54 yards for each family
(c) In terms of housing, the rent corresponding to the minimum area provided for under
Government Industrial Housing Scheme should be considered
(d) Fuel, lighting and other miscellaneous items of expenditure should constitute 20% of the
total minimum wage
Lयूनतम मजदरू
के %नयतन के 'लए भारतीय nम स&मेलन, 1957 fवारा अनुशं'सत मानक5 के
अनुसार, %न&न'ल)खत म से कौन सा कथन सह
नहं है ?
(a) मजदरू वग1 का ऐसा मानक पTरवार dयान म रखा जाना चाYहए, िजसमv एक मजदरू
94.
Which one of the following statements explains the term “real wage”?
(a) The gross amount of money an employee receives as wages
(b) The net amount of money an employee receives after all deductions
(c) The purchasing power of the money wages
(d) The amount of money and the cost of all the benefits given to an employee
भारत के सं9वधान के रा\य क नी%त के %नदे शक त[व5 के उपबंध5 के अनुसार, रा\य %न&न'ल)खत
म से कौन सी मजदरू
दान करने के यास करे गा ?
(a) Lयूनतम मजदरू
96.
The four different learning styles namely; activists, reflectors, theorists and pragmatists have been
developed by:
(a) Honey and Mumford
(b) Kolb
(c) Bandura
(d) Reynolds
97.
Which one of the following is a non-analytical scheme of job evaluation?
(a) Proprietary brands
(b) Job classification
(c) Point- factor evaluation
(d) Factor comparison
कोई औfयो`गक या 6यापार %तaठान, िजसमv सामYू हक क़रार म इस आशय का एक य%ू नयन
सरु lा खंड है 7क %नयो!ता य%ू नयन सfHय5 को या ग़ैर-य%ू नयन सदHय5 को भाडे पर लेने के 'लए
सहमत है , 7कंतु सभी ग़ैर-य%ू नयन सदHय5 को एक 9व%नYद1 aट समयाव`ध म य%ू नयन का सदHय
बन जाना आवrयक होगा अLयथा वे काम पर नह
रहv गे, !या कहलाता है ?
(a) संघ-पाबंद %तaठान
(b) Yहत-शुpक %तaठान
(c) सदHयता अनुरlण %तaठान
(d) यू%नयन %तaठान
99.
Which one of the following statements relating to the Grievance Redressal Committee under the
provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is NOT correct?
(a) Grievance Redressal Committee is to be constituted in every establishment employing a
minimum of twenty workmen
(b) The maximum number of members of the committee shall be six
(c) The committee may complete its proceedings within thirty days on receipt of a written
application by or on behalf of the aggrieved party
(d) The chairperson of the committee shall be selected from among the members representing
the employer
औfयो`गक 9ववाद अ`ध%नयम, 1947 के उपबंध5 के अधीन 'शकायत %नवारण स'म%त के संबंध म
%न&न'ल)खत म से कौन सा कथन सह
नह है ?
(a) 'शकायत %नवारण स'म%त हर उस Hथापना म बनाई जानी है िजसमv कम से कम बीस
कम1कार काम करते ह
(b) इस स'म%त के सदHय5 क अ`धकतम संया छह होगी
(c) 6य`थत पl से या उसक ओर से 'ल)खत आवेदन 'मलने के तीस Yदन5 के अंदर यह
स'म%त अपनी काय1वाह
पूण1 करे गी
(d) इस स'म%त का अdयl %नयो!ता का %त%न`ध[व करने वाले सदHय5 म से चन
ु ा जाएगा
100.
Semantic problem in communication is related to which one of the following?
(a) Physical distance
(b) Problems in hearing
(c) Meaning and interpretation of words and sentences
(d) Mental set-up of receiver
101.
A form of non-verbal communication involving touch is known as:
(a) Haptics
(b) Argot
(c) Chronemics
(d) Infographics
102.
Who among the following has given the three tier institutional structure of industrial relations
activity?
(a) Dunlop
(b) Sidney and Beatrice Webb
(c) Richardson
(d) Kochan, Katz and McKersie
यह 9वrवास 7क “ संघष1 आवrयक है , 7कंतु इसे सँभालना और इसका समाधान करना जkर
होता
है और यह 7कया जा सकता है ” औfयो`गक संबंध5 के %न&न'ल)खत म से 7कस एक पTरेय से
संबg है ?
(a) एका[मक उपागम
(b) आमूल पTरवत1नवाद
उपागम
(c) बहुवाद
उपागम
(d) Lयासी उपागम
104.
Which one of the following perspectives reflects the employment relations pattern in India?
(a) Regulated protective
(b) Constrained competitive
(c) Deregulated competitive
(d) Protective competitive
105.
The All India Organisation of Industrial Employers was set up by:
(a) Federation of Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industry.
(b) Associated Chamber of Commerce.
(c) All India Manufacturers’ Organization.
(d) Employers’ Federation of India.
अ)खल भारतीय औfयो`गक %नयो!ता संगठन 7कसके fवारा Hथा9पत 7कया गया था ?
(a) फेडरे शन ऑफ इंCडयन चै&बर ऑफ कॉमस1 ऐंड इंडHI
107.
A conciliation proceeding pending before a Conciliation Officer shall be deemed to have been
concluded on the date:
(a) the conciliation officer records that the conciliation proceedings have failed.
(b) the conciliation officer sends the failure report to the appropriate Government.
(c) the appropriate Government receives the failure report.
(d) the appropriate Government decides whether to refer the industrial disputes for adjudication
or not.
भारत के सं9वधान के मल
ू अ`धकार5 के अधीन उपबं`धत (दान 7कया गया) य%ू नयन बनाने का
अ`धकार, 7कस अ`धकार के अधीन सि&म'लत है ?
(a) समता का अ`धकार
(b) शोषण के 9वkg अ`धकार
(c) Hवातं~य अ`धकार
(d) 9व`धक उपचार5 का अ`धकार
109.
Which one of the following is NOT a method of resolving an industrial dispute under Industrial
Disputes Act, 1947?
(a) Conciliation
(b) Arbitration
(c) Adjudication
(d) Settlement
110.
Which one of the following refers to the Japanese ‘5S’ concept?
(a) Good Housekeeping practices
(b) Grievance handling
(c) Profit sharing
(d) Information sharing
112.
‘Man’s love for mankind’ is the basis of which one of the following theories of labour welfare?
(a) Trusteeship theory
(b) Public Relations theory
(c) Philanthropic theory
(d) Religious theory
113.
Which one of the following principles of Labour Welfare should counteract the baneful effects of
the industrial system for the development of human personality?
(a) Principle of social responsibility
(b) Principle of efficiency
(c) Principle of totality of welfare
(d) Principle of re-personalization
115.
The conflict handling approach when each of the parties in a conflict desires to fully satisfy the
concern of all parties is known as:
(a) Accommodation
(b) Compromise
(c) Collaboration
(d) Avoidance
संघष1 %नपटान का वह उपागम, जहाँ संघष1 का हर एक पlकार सभी पlकार5 के सरोकार को पूण1
8प से संतुaट करने क इNछा रखता है , !या कहलाता है ?
(a) समंजन (अक&मोडेशन)
(b) समझौता
(c) सहयोग (कोलैबोरे शन)
(d) पTरहार
116.
The tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively than when working
individually is known as:
(a) Groupthink
(b) Groupshift
(c) Sabotaging
(d) Social loafing
118.
What is the respective minimum and maximum number of workmen to be recognized as protected
workmen under Section 33(4) of Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
(a) 10 and 50
(b) 10 and 100
(c) 5 and 150
(d) 5 and 100
औfयो`गक 9ववाद अ`ध%नयम, 1947 क धारा 33(4) के अधीन संरlत कम1कार5 के 8प म माLय
7कए जाने के 'लए कम1कार5 क Eमश: Lयूनतम और अ`धकतम संया !या है ?
(a) 10 और 50
(b) 10 और 100
(c) 5 और 150
(d) 5 और 100
119.
No workman employed in any industry who has been in continuous service for not less than one
year under an employer shall be retrenched by the employer under Section 25 F of Industrial
Disputes Act, 1947, until:
(a) notice in the prescribed manner is served on the appropriate Government.
(b) the workman is given three months notice in writing indicating the reason for retrenchment.
(c) prior permission of the appropriate Government is obtained on an application made in this
behalf.
(d) a copy of the application made to the appropriate Government seeking permission for
retrenchment is also served simultaneously on the workman concerned.
7कसी उfयोग म %नयोिजत 7कसी कम1कार क, जो 7कसी %नयो!ता के अधीन कम से कम एक वष1
लगातार सेवा म रहा हो, %नयो!ता fवारा, औfयो`गक 9ववाद अ`ध%नयम 1947 क धारा 25 F, के
अधीन, तब तक छं टनी नह
क जाएगी जब तक 7क :
(a) सम`ु चत सरकार को 9वYहत र
%त म नोYटस न Yदया गया हो
(b) उस कम1कार को छँ टनी का कारण बताते हुए 'ल)खत म तीन माह का नोYटस न Yदया गया
हो
(c) इस संबंध म 7कए गए आवेदन पर समु`चत सरकार क पूव1 अनुम%त न ले ल
गई हो
(d) छँ टनी के 'लये अनुम%त चाहते हुए समु`चत सरकार को 7कए गए आवेदन क एक
%त'ल9प, संबं`धत कम1कार को भी साथ ह
साथ न दे द
गयी हो
120.
Employee-oriented and production-oriented as the two dimensions of leadership behaviour are
associated with which one of the following?
(a) University of Michigan Studies
(b) Managerial Grid
(c) Fiedler Model
(d) Ohio State Studies