Clinical Chemistry RTP 1

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CLINICAL CHEMISTRY RTP 1

1. The urinary excretion product measured as an indicator of epinephrine production is:


a. Dopamine b. dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA) c. homovalinic acid d. Vanilylmandelic acid
2. Which two conditions can “physiologically” elevate serum alkaline phosphatase?
a. Rickets, hyperparathyroidism c. growth, third trimester of pregnancy
b. Obstructive jaundice, biliary cirrhosis d. viral hepatitis, infectious mononucleosis
3. The T3 resin uptake test is a measure of:
a. Circulating T3 c. binding-capacity of thyroxine- binding globulin
b. Bound T3 d. total thyroxine- binding globulin
4. In the liver, bilirubin is converted of:
a. Urobilinogen b. urobilin c. bilirubin- albumin complex d. bilirubin diglucorinade
5. The electrophoretic pattern of a plasma sample compared with a serum sample shows a:
a. Broad prealbumin peak c. diffuse pattern because of the presence of anticoagulants
b. Sharp fibrinogen peak d. decrease globulin fraction
6. The Biuret reaction for the analysis of serum protein depends on the number of:
a. Free amino groups b. free carboxyl groups c. peptide bonds d. tyrosine residues
7. Total iron- binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting capacity of:
a. Hemoglobulin b. ceruloplasmin c. transferrin d. ferritin
8. In the Jendrasik- Grof method for the detrmination of serum bilirubin concentration, quantitation is obtained by
measuring the green color of:
a. Azobilirubin b. bilirubin glucorinade c. urobilin d. urobilinogen
9. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) are both elevated in which of the
following diseases?
a. Muscular dystrophy b. viral hepatitis c. pulmonary emboli d. infectious mononucleosis
10. Calcium concentration in the serum is regulated by:
a. Insulin b. parathyroid hormone c. thyroxine d. Vitamin C
11. Which of the following steroids is an adrenal corticotrocal hormone?
a. Angiotensinogen b. corticosterone c. progesterone d. pregnanetrol
12. In spectrophotometer, light of a specific wavelength can be isolated from white light with a(n):
a. Double beam b. diffraction grating c. aperture d. slit
13. The osmolality of a urine or serum specimen is measured by a change in the:
a. Freezing point b. sedimentation method c. midpoint d. osmotic pressure
14. Which of the following serum constituents is unstable if a blood specimen is left standing at room temperature
for 8 hours before processing?
a. Cholesterol b. triglyceride c. creatinine d. glucose
15. The stimulant that causes localized sweatung for the sweat test is:
a. Polyvinyl alcohol b. lithium sulfate c. potassium sulfate d. pilocarpine nitrate
16. In the sweat test, the sweating stimulant is introduces to the skin by application of:
a. Filter paper moistened with pilocarpine nitrate c. copper electrodes
b. Electric current d. filter paper moistened in deionized water
17. The formula for calculating serum osmolality that incorporates a correct for the water content of plasma is:
a. 2 Na x (Glucose/20) x (BUN/3) c. 2 Na + Glucose/20 + (BUN/3)
b. Na + [(2 x Glucose d. 2 Na + Glucose/3 + (BUN/20)
18. Most of the carbon dioxide present in blood is in the presence of:
a. Dissolve CO2 b. Carbonate c. bicarbonate ion d. carbonate acid
19. A physical suspect his patient has pancreatitis. Which test(s) would be most indicative of this disease?
a. Creatinine b. LD isoenzymes c. β-hydroxybutyrate d. amylase
20. The statistical term for the average value is the:
a. Mode b. median c. mean d. coeefficient of variation
21. An index of precision is statistically known as the:
a. Mode b. median c. mean d. standard deviation
22. The most frequent value in a collection of data is statistically known as the:
a. Mode b. median c. mean d. standard deviation
23. The middle value of a data set is statistically known as the:
a. Mean b. median c. mode d. standard deviation
24. In a specimen collected for plasma glucose analysis, sodium fluoride:
a. Serves as a coenzyme of hexokinase c. precipitates protein
b. Prevent reactivity of non-glucose reducing substances d. inhibits glycolysis
25. The solute that contributes the most to the total serum osmolality is:
a. Glucose b. sodium c. chloride d. urea
26. Which of the following chemical determinations may be help in establishing the presence of seminal fluid?
a. Lactic dehydrogenase b. isocitrate dehydrogenase c. acid phosphatase d. alkaline phosphatase
27. Which of the following serum protein fractions is most likely to be elevated in patients with nephrotic
syndrome?
a. Alpha-1 globulin c. alpha-2 globulin and beta globulin
b. Alpha-1 globulin and alpha-2 globulin d. beta globulin and gamma globulin
28. Increased total serum lactic dehydrogenase (LD) activity, confined to fractions 4 and 5, is most likely to be
associated with:
a. Pulmonary infarction b. hemolytic anemia c. myocardial infarction d. acute viral hepatitis
29. Regan isoenzyme has the same properties as alkaline phosphatase that originates in the:
a. Skeleton b. kidney c. intestine d. placenta
30. The substance that is measured to estimate the serum concentration of triglycerides by MOST methos is:
a. Phospholipids b. glycerol c. fatty acids d. pre-beta lipoprotein
31. The most sensitive enzymatic indicator for liver damage from ethanol in take is:
a. Alanine aminotransferase c. Gamma- glutamyl transferase (GGT)
b. Aspartate aminotransferase d. Alkaline phosphatase
32. Which of the following serum proteins migrates with the beta- globulins on cellulose acetate at pH 8.6?
a. Ceruloplasmin b. hemoglobin c. haptoglobin d. C3 component of complement
33. Fasting serum phosphate concentration is controlled primarily by the:
a. Pancreas b. skeleton c. parathyroid glands d. small intestine
34. In the total bilirubin assay, bilirubin reacts with diazotized sulfanilic acid to form:
a. Diazo bilirubin b. biliverdin c. azobilirubin d. bilirubin glucorinade
35. Total glycosylated hemoglobin levels in a hemolsate reflect the:
a. Average blood glucose levels of the past 2-3 months c. blood glucose at the time the sample is drawn
b. Average blood glucose levels for the past week d. hemoglobin A1C level at the time the sample is drawn
36. Which percentage of total serum calcium is nondiffusable protein bound?
a. 80%-90% b. 51%-60% c. 40%-50% d. 10%-30%
37. The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a reversible exchange process between bicarbonate and:
a. Sodium b. potassium c. calcium d. chloride
38. Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main function is maintaing osmotic
pressure?
a. Chloride b. calcium c. potassium d. sodium
39. A reciprocal relationship exists between:
a. Sodium and potassium b. calcium and phosphorous c. chloride and CO2 d. calcium and magnesium
40. A blood pH 7.40 what is the ratio between bicarbonate and carbonic acid:
a. 51:1 b. 20:1 c. 25:1 d. 30:1
41. The bicarbonate and carbonic acid ratio is calculated from an equation by:
a. Siggaard- Andersen b. Gibbs- Donnan c. Natelson d. Henderson- Hasselbach
42. A common cause of respiratory alkalosis is:
a. Vomiting b. starvation c. asthma d. hyperventilation
43. The normal range for the pH of arterial blood measured at 37˚C is:
a. 7.28-7.34 b. 7.33-7.37 c. 7.35-7.45 d. 7.45-7.50
44. Hydrogen ion concentration (pH) in blood is usually determined by means of which of the following electrodes?
a. Silver b. glass c. platinum d. platinum-lactate
45. The conversion of glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate is called:
a. Glycogenesis b. glycogenolysis c. glyconeogenesis d. glycolysis
46. The different water content of erythrocytes and plasma makes true glucose concentration in whole blood a
function of the:
a. Hematocrit b. leukocyte count c. BUN d. Glucose
47. A hospitalized ptient is experiencing increased neuromuscular irritability (tetany). Which of the following tests
should be ordered immediately?
a. Calcium b. phosphorous c. BUN d. Glucose
48. Analysis of CSF for oligoclonal bands is used to screen for which of the following disease states?
a. Multiple myeloma b. multiple sclerosis c. myasthenia gravis d. von Willebrand’s disease
49. Sixty to seventy-five percent of the plasma cholesterol is transported by:
a. Chulomicrons b. VLDL c. LDL d. HDL
50. The major fraction of organic iodine in the circulation is in the form of:
a. Thyroglobulin b. thyroxine c. thiodothyronine d. diiodotyrosine
51. The extent of which measurements agree with the true value of the quantity being measured is known as:
a. Reliabilty b. accuracy c. reproducibility d. precision
52. In the Jaffe reaction, creatinine reacts with:
a. Alkaline sulfasalazine solution to produce an orange-yellow complex
b. Potassium iodine to form a reddish- brown color
c. Sodium nitroferricyanide to yield a reddish-brown color
d. Alkaline picrate solution to yield an orange-red complex
53. Which of the following represents the end product of purine metabolism in human?
a. AMP and GMP b. DNA and RNA c. allantoin d. uric acid
54. In electrophoresis of proteins, when the sample is placed in an electric field connected to a buffer of pH 8.6 of
proteins:
a. Have a positive charge b. have a negative charge c. are electrically neutral d. migrates
toward the cathode
55. Maple syrup urine disease is characterized by an increase in which of the following urinary amino acids?
a. Phenylalanine b. tyrosine c. valline, leucine and isoleucine d. cystine and cysteine
56. The hemoglobin that is resistant to alkali (KOH) denaturation is:
a. A b. A2 c. C d. F
57. The patient substrate in the biosynthesis of androgen and estrogen is:
a. Cortisol b. cathecolamines c. progesterone d. cholesterol
58. Which of the following is secreted by the placenta and used for the early detection of pregnancy?
a. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)p c. leutenizing hormone (LH)
b. Human chorionin gonadotropin d. progesterone
59. Decreased serum iron associated with increased TIBC is compatible with which of the following disease states?
a. Anemia of chronic infection b. iron deficiency anemia c. chronic liver disease d. nephrosis
60. A characteristic of Bence Jones protein that is used to distinguished it from other urinary proteins is its solubility;
a. In ammonium sulfate b. in sulfuric acid c. at 40˚C-60˚C d. 100˚C
61. In the malloy and evelyn method for the determination of bilirubin, the reagent that is reacted with bilirubin to
form purple azobilirubin is:
a. Dilute sulfuric acid b. diazonium sulfate c. sulfobropohthalein d. diazotized sulfulinic acid
62. Which of the following enzymes are used in diagnostic of acute pancreatitis?
a. Amylase (AMS) and Lipase (LPS) c. (5’N) and (GGT)
b. Apartate aminotransferase (AST) and Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) d. AST and LD
63. An electrophoretic separation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme that demonstrates an elevation in LD-1 and
LD-2 in a “flipped” pattern is consistent with:
a. Myocardial infarction b. viral hepatitis c. pancreatitis d. renal failure
64. Which of the following is a characteristic shared by lactate dehydrogenase, isocitrate dehydrogenases and
hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase?
a. They are liver enzymes c. they catalyzed oxidation-reduction reductions
b. They are cardiac enzymes d. they are class III enzymes
65. The protein portion of an enzymes complex is called the:
a. Apoenzyme b. coenzymes c. holoenzymes d. proenzymes
66. The most heat labile fraction of alkaline phosphatase is obtained from:
a. Liver b. bone c. intestine d. placenta
67. Zinc protoporphyrin or free erythrocyte protoporphyrin measurements are useful to assess blood
contaminations of:
a. Lead b. mercury c. arsenic d. beryllium
68. The most widely employed screening technique for drug abuse is:
a. High-performance liquid chromatography c. thin layer chromatography
b. Gas liquid chromatography d. UV spectrophotometry
69. The anticonvulsant used to control tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures is:
a. Digoxin b. acetaminophen c. lithium d. phenytoin
70. A drug that relaxes the smooth muscles of the bronchial passages is:
a. Acetaminophen b. lithium c. phenytoin d. theophylline
71. A carbonate salt manic depression disorders is:
a. Digoxin b. acetaminophen c. lithium d. phenytoin
72. The measurement of light scattered by particles in the sample is the principle of:
a. Spectrophotometry b. fluorometry c. nephelometry d. atomic absorption
73. The measurement of the amount of electricity passing between the electrodes in an electrochemical cells is the
principle of:
a. Electrophoresis b. amperometry c. nephelometry d. coulometry
74. Coulometry is used to measure:
a. Chloride b. pH c. bicarbonate d. ammonia
75. Which of the following lipid results would be expected to be falsely elevated on a serum specimen from a non
fasting patient?
a. Cholesterol b. triglycerides c. HDL d. LDL
76. Turbidity in serum suggests elevation of:
a. Cholesterol b. total protein c. chylomicrons d. albumin
77. Considering a normal Gaussian curve distribution, how many values from a population will be within 2 SD?
a. 95.45% b. 75.30% c. 68.27% d. 99.73%
78. Most common light source for fluorometer?
a. Xenon b. tungsten c. mercury d. deuterium
79. Hallow cathode lamp is used a light source in:
a. flame photometry b. AAS c. Spectrophotometry d. fluorometry
80. kodak-dry slide analyzer uses this principle in measuring the color intensity of reactions:
a. reflectance spectrophotometry b. nephelometry c. fluorometry d. fluorescence
81. In flow cytometry, forward light scatter is proportional to:
a. cell granularity b. cell density c. cell size d. number of cells
82. Commercial glucose oxidase preparation contains the enzyme to convert a form of glucose to β:
a. Peroxidase b. Mutarotase c. Hexokinase d. Catalase
83. Type I DM may be describes by all of the following except:
a. Insulin dependent b. ketosis prone c. insulinopenia d. adult onset type
84. Measurement of glycosylated albumin, which reflects hyperglycemic state within the previous 2 – 3 weeks is:
a. Glucosamine b. urine glucose c. fructosamine d. Galactosamine
85. Four amino acids excreted in the urine in cystinuria
a. Cystine, lysine, argine and ornithine c. cystine, lysine, serine and glycine
b. Cystine, valine, tyrosine and serine d. cystine, valine, glycine and serine
86. Aminoaciduria characterized by excretion of amino acids valine, leucine and isoleucine:
a. Alkaptonuria b. Hartnup syndrome c. phenylketonuria d. maple syndrome urine disease
87. The function of haptoglobin is to binnd free hemoglobin by its ____chain:
a. Alpha b. beta c. gamma d. epsilon
88. In a healthy individual, in which compartment is most of the body’s iron?
a. Red cells b. hemosiderin storage c. ferritin storage d. myoglobin
89. Order of hemoglobin migration (from fastest to slowest) in cellulose acetate electrophoresis:
a. C, S, F, and A b. C, S, A, and F c. A, F, S, and C d. F, A, A and C
90. Which of the following condition is characterized by an increase in alpha- 2 macroglobulin:
a. Acute phase response b. pancreatitis c. nephrotic sydrome d. prostatic carcinoma
91. Serum analysis for antibody to envelope proteins gp41, gp120, gp160 and the core proteins p24 are useful in the
diagnosis of:
a. Hepatitis B virus b. hepatitis C virus c. human immunodeficiency virus d. varicella virus
92. Major carrier of liver synthesized triglycerides:
a. Chylomicrons b. HDL c. LDL d. VLDL
93. Select the order of mobility of lipoproteins electrophoresis on cellulose acetate or agarose at pH 8.6
a. - Chlomicrons→ prebeta→beta→alpha+ c. - Beta→prebeta→alpha→chylomicrons+
b. -Chylomicrons→beta→prebeta→alpha+ d. -Alpha→beta→prebeta→chylomicrons+
94. An abnormal lipoprotein that accumulates in Type III byperproteinemia:
a. LpX b. Lp(a) c. β- VLDL d. chylomicron
95. Uric acid is the final breakdown product of:
a. Urea metabolism b. purine metabolism c. glucose metabolism d. bilirubin metabolism
96. Uric acid when oxidized by the enzyme uricase is transformed to:
a. Allatoin b. xanthine c. monosodium urate d. ammonia
97. What is the urea concentration if BUN value of 8 mg/dl is obtained?
a. 17.12 mg/dl b. 2.85 mg/dl c. 3.74 mg/dl d. 4.85 mg/dl
98. The relative concentration of LD isoenzymes in normal serum:
a. LD 1>2>3>4>5 b. LD 2>1>4>3>5 c. LD 2>1>3>4>5 d. LD 5>4>3>2>1
99. Most sensitive enzyme index of primary muscle involvement:
a. Aldolase b. CK c. AST d. LD
100. Select the most sensitive marker for alcoholic liver disease:
a. GGT b. AST c. ALP d. Glutamate dehydrogenase
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY RTP 3

1. Light gray colored stool may be due to:


a. Diminunation or absence of bile in the intestine c. positive for bile
b. Bleeding from the gastro-intestinal tract d. ingestion of spinach
2. Granular casts in the urine maybe due to the following:
a. Acute glomerulonephritis b. acute cystitis c. pyelonephritis d. kidney failure
3. Most common indication of renal disease in urine sedimentation:
a. Glucosuria b. high specific gravity c. proteinuria d. malnutrition
4. Technique used to minimize cell degeneration in urine examination, except:
a. Refrigeration b. Espasti’s fixative c. chemical preservative d. heat and acetic acid
5. Bacteria using the glucose in the urine and the urea splitting organisms convert urea to ammonia trhus
producing which of the following urine:
a. Neutral urine b. acidic urine c. alkaline urine d. all of the above
6. In preparation for semen analysis, the patient:
a. Does not have any preparation c. morning sample is the best
b. Must have sexual abstinence for at least 3 days d. fasting for 12 hours
7. This peritoneal fluid may be considered as transudate due to the following except:
a. Total protein less than 50% of serum level c. clear and colorless
b. No puss cells and RBC d. usually has clot formation
8. Definite tetst for steatorrhea:
a. Occult blood determination c. fecal fat determination
b. Nitrite determination d. determination or reducing substance in stool
9. CSF with pellicle formation after 12 to 24 hours refrigeration is usually seen in:
a. Tuberculosis meningitis c. Traumatic tap
b. Encepalopathy due to drug abuse d. Brain tumor
10. Patient with Diabetes Mellitus will usually have:
a. Increase volume, pale urine with urine specific gravity c. pale urine with very low specific gravity
b. Oliguria most of the urine d. decrease in volume, dark urine with high SG
11. Why is the refractometer preferred than urinometer in the determination of urine specific gravity:
a. More practical c. large volume of urine is neede
b. Does not have to correct the temperatura d. due to small amount of the urine
12. For a 24 hours quantitative xamination of urine for creatinine clearance, the first step the medical technologist
should perform is:
a. Pipet 1 cc of urine and proceed as serum creatinine c. measure and note the total volume
b. screen for presence of urine d. place the urine in the refrigerator for 2 hours
13. Organized elements usually translucent with bright field microscopy, colorless, homogenous, cylindrical
structure with parallel sides and usually round ends indicate mildest renal disease:
a. hemosiderin cast b. hyaline cast c. erythrocyte cast d. waxy cast
14. The first morning urine is requested for routine analysis because:
a. it is freshly voided c. it is more concentrated
b. specimen is easier to collect d. patient has rested all night
15. Ketones are found in the urine as result of:
a. increased fat metabolism c. incomplete fat catabolism
b. increased fat intake d. increased glucose intake
16. A drop of 5% acetic acid to choking sediments would:
a. Make nucleus of WBC more visible c. incomplete fat metabolism
b. Dissolve amorphous urates d. neither
17. Which of the following is very helpful in identifying crystals in urine:
a. Glucose b. protein c. pH d. SG
18. Exccretion of too much urine:
a. Polyuria b. anuria c. pyuria d. oliguria
19. An instrument that determines the concentration of free particles in a solution by measuring the freezing poit:
a. Urinometer b. hydrometer c. pH meter d. Osmometer
20. Color of the urine is due largely to the pigment:
a. Nitrose naphtol b. urochrome c. azo dye d. diazonium
21. Modified connective tissue found in joints and tendon spaces:
a. Synovial fluid b. cerebrospinal fluid c. amniotic fluid d. serous fluid
22. Often confused with RBC in urine microscopic examination:
a. Bladder cells b. renal cells c. epithelial cells d. yeast cells
23. Test reagent used in the tubeless gastric analysis:
a. Guenzburg’s test b. Keling’s test c. strauss test d. diagnex tube test
24. Ectopic pregnancy is characterized by:
a. Increased alpha fetoprotein c. high level of HCG
b. Absence of HCG d. low level of HCG
25. The Guiac’s test is for:
a. Hemoglobin b. albumin c. acetone d. bile
26. The following are test for measuring glomerular filtration rate, except:
a. Fishberg concentration test c. inulin clearance test
b. Creatinine clearance test d. urea clearance test
27. Test for urinary chloride:
a. Watson-Schwartz b. Sulkowitch c. Fantus d. Thormahlen
28. A test for Indican:
a. Ammonium sulfate test b. Ehrlich test c. Schlesinger test d. Obermayer test
29. This substance is excreted in the urine of patients with alkaptonuria:
a. Porphyrins b. tyrosine c. homogentisic acid d. phenylalanine
30. Which of the following renal substances can be increased in ingestion of bananas, tomatoes, avocados and
walniuts?
a. Aldosterone b. 5-HIAA c. lactic dehydrogenase d. 17-ketosteroids
31. The principle of the reagents strip test for nitrite is based on:
a. Granulocytic esterase reaction b. Diazo reaction c. Ehrlich’s reaction d. Greiss’s reaction
32. What is a positive leukocyte esterase test in the standard urine dipstick?
a. Brown color development c. purple color development
b. Pink color development d. yellow color development
33. Sodium nitroprusside tablet test detects the presence of which of the following urine?
a. Glucose b. protein c. ketones d. crystals
34. The principle of the reagent strip for bilirubin is based on:
a. Diazo reaction c. protein error of indicators
b. Double indicator system d. double sequential enzyme reaction
35. What is the substance secreted by the kidneys that is necessary for the normal production of red blood cells?
a. Amino acid b. Erythropoiesis c. Renin d. Erythropoietin
36. Which of the following describes a calcium oxalate crystals?
Oa. Octahedral square with double diagonal lines b. coffin lid c. whetstone d. thorny apples
37. A person with normal glucose has glycosuria. What could be a cause?
a. Diabetes insipidus b. renal tubular damage c. diabetes mellitus d. urinary tract infection
38. A urine specific gravity 1.040 – 1.050 suggests
a. Antispetic contamination c. radiographic contrast medium contamination
b. Highly concentrated urine d. highly alkaline urine
39. One drop of urine is placed on a newspaper, after which one drop of 10% HCl is added. If a yellowish orange
color is observed, what crystal is present in the urine?
a. Acetaminophen b. cholesterol c. bilirubin d. sulfonamide
40. Urinary sediment treated with _____, causes the nuclei of pus cells to become more prominent.
a. Acetic acid b. NSS c. nitric acid d. sulfuric acid
41. The urinometer is adapted to measure the specific gravity of urine at room temperature, for 3 degrees C above
or below the calibration temperature, one should add or subtract
a. 1.003 b. 0.004 c. 1.001 d. 0.002
42. Which of the following descriptions best fits calcium carbonate crystals?
a. Dumbbells b. thorny apples c. octahedral squares with diagonal lines d. Coffin lids
43. Possible causes of black stools are:
1. Iron therapy 2. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding c. bile duct obstruction d. barium sulphate
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1,2 and 3 d. 1,2,3 and 4
44. CSF “pellicles” can be detected by the surface of the CSF specimen after hours at refrigerator temperature
a. 1 – 5 b. 6 – 12 c. 5 – 10 d. 12 – 24
45. Elevated CSF glutamine is seen in which of the following conditions?
a. Guillian- Barre syndrome b. Reye’s syndrome c. Multiple myeloma d.Multiple sclerosis
46. What is an excellent urinary sediment preservative of cells and casts for monitoring microscopic analysis
a. Formalin b. Chloroform c. Boric acid d. Phenol
47. Which of the following can determine specific gravity of urine?
1. Urinometer 2. Refractometer 3. Reagent strip 4. Sound wave frequency
a. 1,2 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 1,2,3 and 4
48. Seminal vesicles produce______
a. Glucose b. Fructose c. Sucrose d. Mannose
49. These fluids have high protein content
a. Exudates b. urates c. sulfate d. transudates
50. The kidneys receive approximately______ of the cardiac output, equal almost a liter of blood every minute
a. 20% b. 30% c. 50% d. 10%
51. The test for CSF which is not considered a part of routine analysis:
a. Chloride determination b. color and turbidity c. cell count d. protein and glucose determination
52. Casts are precipitate of protein formed in the:
a. Distal convoluted tubule b. loop of henle c. proximal convolutred tubule d. bladder
53. Phenolsulphonophthalein (PSP) test measures the:
a. Specific gravity b. urine volume c. glomerular filtration rate d. secretory capacity of the tubules
54. The estimation of hyaluronic acid concentration by measurement of viscosity is useful in evaluating which type
of fluid?
a. Pericardial b. peritoneal c. pleural d. synovial
55. Exudates result froma:
a. Hypoproteinemia b. inflammatory process c. cirrhosis d. synovial
56. A term which means increased number of casts in the urine:
a. Porphyrin b. isosthenuria c. alkaptonuria d. cylinduria
57. Which of the following substances would interfere in the amniotic fluid spectrophotometric method for the
detection of the isoimmunization syndrome:
a. Protein b. hemoglobin c. galactose d. lactose
58. Copper sulfate reduction test detects the following suigars:
a. Glucose b. Sucrose c. Galactose d. Lactose
59. Blood in feces may be detected by the use of each of the following, except:
a. Sudan b. benzidine c. Guaic d. Orthotoluidine
60. Oliguria means:
a. Passage of abnormally large volumes of urine c. abnormal decrease in urinary secretion
b. Increased in urinary secretion at night d. complete absence of urinary secretion
61. Which of the following amniotic fluid measurements is increased in neural tube disorder?
a. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio c. acetylcholinesterase activity
b. Bilirubin d. phosphatidylinotisol
62. Which of the following CSF constituents is elevated in children with Reye’s syndrome?
a. 5- HIAA b. Glutamine c. 5- Hydroxy tryptophan d. creatinine kinase
63. Which of the following urine is likely to contain calcium carbonate?
a. With pH 5.6 b. With pH 6.8 c. With pH 8.0 d. With pH 4.5
64. What is the nonpathogenic reason for the presence of pasty, grayish-white stools?
a. Cocoa ingestion b, Diet high milk products c. barium ingestion d. diet high in meat
65. Spermatozoa mature in what part of the male genitalia?
a. Epididymis b. seminal vesicle c. prostate d. testis
66. CSF specimen is usually collected in3 sterile tubes labelled in the order in which they are drawn. What lab study
is done with tube #3?
a. Chemistry b. Microbiology c. Cell count d. Serology
67. Struvite renal stones consists of which of the following crystals?
a. Magnesium ammonium phosphate b. uric acid c. cysteine d. calcium oxalate
68. For the quantitativedetermination of fat excretion, stool should be collected for a period of how many days?
a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1
69. Benzidine is used for testing:
a. Glucose b. occult blood c. urobilin d. bile
70. Which of the following is the preferred sample for routine urinalysis?
a. 24 hours urine b. first morning urine c. random sample d. midnight sample
71. The cerebrospinal fluid formed in:
a. The arachnoid villi b. the centricular choroid plexus c. the spinal cord d. the 3rd ventricle
72. Diluting fluid for sperm count:
a. Chilled water b. unnas polychrome c. sodium carbonate d. acetic acid
73. A yellowish dicoloration of spinal fluid is called:
a. Lipemia b. hematuria c. xantochrome d. hemolysis
74. Bence- Jones protein coagulate at:
a. 40 - 60˚C b. 60 - 80 ˚C c. 50 - 60 ˚C d. 80 -100 ˚C
75. Pellicle form in CSF is indicative of:
a. Tuberculus meningitis b. epidemic meningitis c. influenzal meningitis d. pyogenic meningitis
76. The term that implies the presence of more or less intact red blood cells in the urine:
a. Anuria b. Hematuria c. Oliguria d. Albuminuria
77. Which of the following urine pH is likely to contain ammonium biurate crystals:
a. pH 4.3 b. pH 6.8 c. pH 5.5 d. pH 8.5
78. When a large amount of porphyrins is present in the urine it is often colored:
a. Pink b. yellow c. dark brown d. port wine red
79. An increase in the number of cells in CSF:
a. Microcytosis b. anisocytosis c. pleocytosis d. poikilocytes
80. Total volume of CSF in adults is approximately 150 ml in neonates it is primarily:
a. 8 - 100ml b. 50 – 80ml c. 100 – 150ml d. 10 – 60ml
81. Viscosity of the joint fluid is assessed by:
a. None of these b. string test c. mucin clot formation d. string test and clot test
82. These are indication of a traumatic tap, except:
a. Clotted specimen
b. Colorless supernatant fluid in tube 1 (CSF is collected in 3 sterile tubes) after centrifugation of a tinted CSF
c. Decrease in red blood cells in the serial tubes
d. Crenation of red blood cells
83. Each of the following conditions may produce transudative effusion, except:
a. Nephrotic syndrome b. pleural infection c. cirrhosis d. congestive heart failure
84. Using an improve neubauer chamber, 42 cells are counted in the 4 large with a 1:2 CSF. What is the WBC count?
a. A 200 x 10 to the 6th power/L c. 210 x 10 to the 6th power/L
b. 100 x 10 to the 6th power/L d. 205 x 10 to the 6th power/L
85. In the urine ketone tests, which of the following components is not detected?
a. Acetoacetate b. Diacetic acid c. Acetone d. Beta-hydroxybutyrate
86. What are the functions of the CSF?
1. Carries nutrients to the brain and spinal cord 3. Act as a shock absorber
2. Removes metabolic waste products 4. Transmits nerve impulses
a. 1,2,3 and 4 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 1,2 and 3
87. If 2 large WBC squares of the Neubauer, hemocytometer are used for sperm count (specimen is diluted 1:20),
what is the multiplying factor to calculate the number of sperm/ml?
a. 100,000 b. 1 million c. 50,000 d. 2 million
88. Stool is mixed the roughly on a sterile with 10% alcohol solution of eosin, allowed to stain for 3 minutes and
examined under the microscope. This procedure examines which of the following stuctures?
a. Starch granules b. vegetable oils c. Cysts d. meat fibers
89. P-aminohippuric cid (PAH) clearance is a test for which of the following?
a. Tubule area b. tubule absorption c. renal blood flow d. renal urine flow
90. Nicroscopic examination of diarrhea stools for the presence of fecal polymorphonuclear leukocytes is seen in:
a. Chlora b. salmenollosis c. parasitric infestation with G. Lamblia d. viral diarrhea
91. Cloudiness of urine that is cleared by acidification could be due to:
a. Spermatozoa and prostatic fluid b. leukocytes c. ammonium urates d. bacterial growth
92. Which of the following may be found in pleural fluid in association with bacterial pneumonia?
a. Neutrophils b. macrophages c. plasma cells d. lymphocytes
93. Most of the glucose that is filtered through the glomerulus is reabsorbed in what part of the nephron?
a. Proximal tubule b. loop of henle c. collecting duct d. distal tubule
94. What is the fluid obtained by paracentesis called?
a. Peritoneal b. pericardial c. synovial d. pleural
95. Which of the following is not a normal constituents of stools?
a. White cells b. bacteria c. desquamated epithelial cells d. water
96. In what potion of the nephron are urinary casts formed?
1. Distal convoluted tubule c. proximal convoluted tubule
2. Collecting duct d. Loop of henle
a. 1,2,3 b. 1,2 c. 2,3 d. 1,2,3,4
97. What renal function abnormality can be associated with 4+ glucose?
a. Glomerular membrane damage c. increased renal blood flow
b. Proximal convoluted tubule d. decrease ADH
98. In the CSF, which of the following proteins is found relatively high in concentration, compared with plasma?
a. Ceruloplasmin b. albumin c. prealbumin d. IgG
99. Which of the following are serum protein fraction are absent in normal CSF?
1. IgM 2. Fibrinogen 3. Beta lipoprotein 4. IgG
a. 3 and 4 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1,2 and 3
100. What is azoospermia?
a. Low sperm count b. absence of sperms c. high sperm count d. presence of nonmotile sperms

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