Group 2 Report MCQ

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Group 2 Report MCQ

1. ___________ is quite similar to OPC except for the amount of iron oxide and manganese
oxide

a. High Alumina Cement

b. Colored Cement

c. White Cement

d. Air Entraining Cement

2. It is obtained by mixing calcining bauxite and ordinary lime with clinkerduring the
manufacture of OPC.

a. High Alumina Cement

b. Colored Cement

c. White Cement

d. Air Entraining Cement

3. These are the uses of Expansive Cement, except;

a. It is used in the construction of the pre-stressed concrete component.

b. It is used for sealing joints and grouting anchor bolt

c. It is used for traffic barriers and terrazo surfaces

d. I is used in the construction of different hydraulics structures.

4. Type of cement that is usually used in the construction of water structures such as dams,
spillways, or other submerged structures.

a. High Alumina Cement

b. Hydrophobic Cent

c. Masonry Cement

d. Ordinary Portland Cement

5. What is the Initial Setting Time and Final Setting Time for Rapid Hardening Cement?

a. 5 mins. - 30 mins.

b. 20 mins. - 100 mins.

c. 30 mins. - 600 mins.

d. 40 mins. - 300 mins.


6. It contains synthetic materials that contain silica in reactive forms that reacts with calcium
hydroxide generating hydrated cement.

a. High Alumina Cement

b. Colored Cement

c. Rapid Hardening Cement

d. Portland Pozzolana Cement

7. A concrete mix component which provides strength, but too much of it will increase
brittleness.
A. Cement B. Aggregates C. Water D. Air-entrained

8. A concrete mix component which increases concrete flow ability, but excess amount will
product porous.
A. Cement B. Aggregates C. Water D. Air-entrained

9. A type of concrete mix used in small scale projects.


A. Nominal B. Design C. Portland D. Vicat

10. ___________ refers to the ease of placement and compaction of a concrete mix.
a. Durability b. Strength c. Grade d. Workability

11. Normal Grade Concrete Mix is divided to two (2) types: _______ & ________.
a. Common; Fresh b. Hard; Strong c. Lean; Ordinary d. Thermal; Acoustic

12. _____ are designed to produce concrete with specified properties at the most
economical price.
a. Concrete Mixes b. Strength of Materials
c. Grades of Concrete d. Design Mix Concrete

13. A general purpose Portland cement used whenever other special properties are not
necessary. It is used for pavements, sidewalks, reinforced, concrete structural members,
bridges, tanks, water pipes, and masonry building units, among other components.

A. Type I: Normal B. Type II: Moderate C. Type III: High Early Strength D.
Type IV: Low Heat of Hydration

14. Used when protecting against moderate sulfate attack, found in some soils and
groundwater, is required. It generates less heat by hydrating at a slower rate than Type I. This
makes Type II useful in structures that have larger masses of concrete, such as abutments,
piers, and large retaining walls.

A. Type I: Normal B. Type II: Moderate C. Type III: High Early Strength D.
Type IV: Low Heat of Hydration

15. Provides higher strength in a shorter time than Types I or II. It reduces the curing period,
allowing for quick removal of forms, especially in cold-weather situations when freezing may
pose problems. High early strength normally reduces the required curing time to one week
or less.

A. Type I: Normal B. Type II: Moderate C. Type III: High Early Strength
D. Type IV: Low Heat of Hydration
16. Reduces the rate and amount of heat generated by hydration. It develops strength slower
than Type I, and is mainly used for structures having very large concrete masses such as
dams and nuclear plants. The use of type IV has diminished over the years.

A. Type V: Sulfate resisting B. Type II: Moderate C. Type III: High Early Strength
D. Type IV: Low Heat of Hydration

17. Used only in concrete that is exposed to severe sulfate conditions. This most frequently
occurs in soils and groundwater in areas where sulfate concentrations are high.

A. Type V: Sulfate resisting B. Type II: Moderate C. Type III: High Early Strength
D. Type IV: Low Heat of Hydration

18. These are similar to Types I, II, III, except that small quantities of air-entraining materials
are mixed with the clinker and gypsum.

A. Types IA, IIA, IIIA: Air - Entrained B. Types IB, IIB, IIIB: Air - Entrained C.
Types IA, IIA, IIIA: Gas - Entrained D. Types IB, IIB, IIIB: Gas - Entrained

19. Concrete grades are denoted by M10, M20, M30, according to their compressive strength.
The “M” denotes _____ design of concrete followed by the compressive strength number in
N/mm2.
a. Melt
b. Mass
c. Member
d. Mix

20. The less _______, the stronger the adhesion of cement, but the more difficult it is to work
with the concrete.
a.Coarse Aggregate
b.Sand
c.Water
d.Air Entrained
21. The more rock, the greater the compressive strength of concrete. The more______, the
greater the workability.
a.Coarse Aggregate
b.Sand
c.Water
d.Cement

22. Creates the chemical change in the quicklime of cement that makes it adhere to rock and
sand, it also makes concrete workable. Without it, mixing, forming, and finishing concrete is not
possible.
e. Cement
f. Sand
g. Water
h. Coarse Aggregate

23. ___________ is the bonding agent that holds the aggregate and sand of concrete together
once it cures.
i. Cement
j. Sand
k. Water
l. Coarse Aggregate

24. The formula for dry volume is wet volume multiply by ______.
a.1.19
b.1.45
c.1.91
d.1.54
25. A type of test for concrete which is most commonly performed on hardened concrete.
a. Split-tension test
b. Compressive strength test
c. Flexure strength test
d. Maturity test
26. It test the ability of unreinforced concrete beam or slab to withstand failure in bending.
a. Split-tension test
b. Compressive strength test
c. Flexure strength test
d. Maturity test
27. A type of test which measures the tensile strength of concrete.
a. Split-tension test
b. Compressive strength test
c. Flexure strength test
d. Maturity test
28. The compressive strength of normal-weight concrete is between ___ to ___.
a. 2.5 MPa to 3.1 MPa
b. 10 MPa to 15 MPa
c. 20 MPa to 40 MPa
d. 40 MPa to 60 MPa
29. Typical indirect tensile strength of concrete varies from ___ to ___.
a. 2.5 MPa to 3.1 MPa
b. 10 MPa to 15 MPa
c. 20 MPa to 40 MPa
d. 40 MPa to 60 MPa
30. Failure of the specimen of a split-tension test occurs along its ________ diameter.
a. Horizontal
b. Diagonal
c. Longitudinal
d. Vertical
31. What is the ideal value of slump in case of a dry sample?
A.1-2 inches
B.3-4 inches
C.5-6 inches
D.6-7 inches
32. What is the ideal value of slump in case of a wet sample?
A.1-2 inches
B.3-4 inches
C.5-6 inches
D.6-7 inches
33. Which of the following type of slump is/are desirable?
A. True Slump
B. Shear Slump
C. Collapsible Slump
D. All of the above
34. What is the ASTM Standard for Concrete Slump Test?
A. ASTM C 141
B. ASTM C 142
C. ASTM C 143
D. ASTM C 144
35. Water will initiate the chemical process in the cement by adding “_-_” percentage of the
cement volume.
A. 19-20%
B. 21-22%
C. 23-25%
D. 28-30%
36. What is the other term is used for slump cone?
A. Abram’s Cone
B. Cond’s Cone
C. Right Circular Cone
D. Oblique Cone
37. For new road construction and overlaying works, the minimum thickness of Portland
Cement Concrete Pavement and Asphalt Pavement shall be __________ and _________
respectively.
a. 230 mm, 50 mm
b. 280 mm, 50 mm
c. 230 mm, 70 mm
d. 280 mm, 60 mm
38. Is a process specifically designed to remove a cylinder of a material, much like a hole
saw for the purpose of evaluating the thickness of a completed pavement.
a. Drilling Test
b. Core Boring Test
c. Core Drilling Test
d. Pavement Drilling Test
39. The following are the significance of Pavement Thickness Determination except one:
a. It enables engineers to compare the actual thickness of pavement to the proposed
road thickness.
b. It helps determine the cost of the completed pavement.
c. It determines the workability of the road.
d. It ensures that the completed pavement followed the standard set by DPWH.
40. The standard core sample diameter of pavement for thickness determination will be
_________ to ___________.
a. 101.1 mm, 150.2 mm
b. 99.9 mm, 149.99 mm
c. 102.2 mm, 152.1 mm
d. 101.6 mm, 152.4 mm
41. The Thickness Design Procedure and Pavement Design Analysis of the DPWH were
based from ___________________.
a. ASTM
b. AASHTO
c. AISC
d. None of the Above
42. Are those ingredients in concrete other than port land cement, water, and aggregates
that are added to the mixture immediately before or during mixing?
a. Admixture
b. Aggregates
c. Cement
d. Stone

43. Used to improve the quality of concrete during mixing, transporting, placement and
curing.
a. Mechanical admixtures
b. Chemical admixtures
c. Mineral admixtures
d. Admixture
44. These admixtures are used to purposely introduce and stabilize microscopic air
bubbles in concrete.
a. Water reducers
b. Retarders
c. Air Entraining
d. Plasticizers
45. also known as superplasticizers or high-range water reducers (HRWR).
a. Accelerators
b. Plasticizers
c. Water Reducers
d. Retarders
46. These admixtures are used to delay the rate of setting of concrete. High temperatures
of fresh concrete (30°C [86°F]) are often the cause of an increased rate of hardening that
makes placing and finishing difficult.
a. Accelerators
b. Plasticizers
c. Water Reducers
d. Retarders
47. These admixtures are used to reduce the quantity of mixing water required to produce
concrete of a certain slump, reduce water-cement ratio, reduce cement content, or
increase slump. Typical water reducers reduce the water content by approximately 5% to
10%.
a. Water reducers
b. Retarders
c. Air Entraining
d. Plasticizers

48. This test method is performed to determine the setting time of hydraulic cement by
mean of manually operated standard ________.
a. Vicat Aparatus
b. Spatula
c. Thermometer
d. Shovel

49. Can be defined as “time taken by paste to stiffen to such an extent that the Vicatt’s
needle is not permitted to move down through the paste more than 25 mm.

a. Final setting time


b. Middle setting time
c. Initial setting time
d. First setting time

50. Can be defined as “it is the time after which the paste becomes so hard that Vicatt’s
5mm needle doesn’t sinks visibly and leave no impression”.

a. Final setting time


b. Initial setting time
c. Middle setting time
d. First setting time

Answer keys:

1. C
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. D
11. C
12. A
13. A
14. B
15. C
16. D
17. D
18. A
19. B
20. C
21. B
22. C
23. A
24. D
25. B
26. C
27. A
28. C
29. A
30. D
31. A
32. D
33. A
34. C
35. C
36. A
37. B
38. B
39. B
40. D
41. B
42. A
43. B
44. C
45. B
46. D
47. D
48. A
49. C
50. A

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