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Part 1 Phyiscs

This document contains 50 multiple choice questions and 8 short answer questions related to physics. The questions cover topics such as units, measurement, dimensional analysis, and scientific notation. Specifically, the multiple choice questions test understanding of concepts like uncertainty, significant figures, dimensions of physical quantities, and conversions between units. The short answer questions ask about natural time standards, errors in measurement, and applications of dimensional analysis. Overall, the document provides a bank of physics questions to assess foundational knowledge of measurements, units, and dimensional analysis.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
338 views54 pages

Part 1 Phyiscs

This document contains 50 multiple choice questions and 8 short answer questions related to physics. The questions cover topics such as units, measurement, dimensional analysis, and scientific notation. Specifically, the multiple choice questions test understanding of concepts like uncertainty, significant figures, dimensions of physical quantities, and conversions between units. The short answer questions ask about natural time standards, errors in measurement, and applications of dimensional analysis. Overall, the document provides a bank of physics questions to assess foundational knowledge of measurements, units, and dimensional analysis.

Uploaded by

ranaateeq
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 54

Superior Group Of Colleges

st
1 YEAR
PHYSICS
QUESTIONS
BANK
Superior Group Of Colleges

CHAPTER NO 1:

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


(1) Velocity of object has 3% uncertainty and mass has 2% uncertainty. Total %
uncertainty in “Momentum” is
(A) 3% (B) 4% (C) 5% (D) 6%
(2) Two persons measure the length of a rod with a scale on which minimum division is
1mm, which of the recorded result consider to be correct
(A) 0.19m (B) 0.198 m (C) 0.1983m (D) 0.19837m
2 x
(3) If   then the dimension of  is (where x is a displacement)

(A)  LT 2  (B) T 1  (C)  LM 1  (D) no dimension

T l
(4) What is dimension of
m
The measurement of a base quantity involves
(A) 3 steps (B) 2 steps (C) 4 steps (D) 5 steps
(5) Characteristics for an ideal standard are
(A) variable and non-accessible (B) variable and accessible
(C) invariable and accessible (D) invariable and non – accessible
(6) Steradian is the unit of
(A) plane angle (B) solid angle (C) time (D) distance
(C) one dimensional angle (D) dimensionless
(7) The unit of power in terms of base units is
(A) kg ms-2 (B) kgm-1s-1 (C) kgm-2s-2 (D) kgm2s-3
(8) The unit of thermodynamic temperature is
(A) K (B) oC (C) oF (D) none of these
(9) In scientific notation, the number 0.001 can be written as
(A) 1 x 10-2 (B) 1 x 10-3 (C) 1 x 10-4 (D) 1 x 10-1
(10) In scientific notation 1000.00 can written as
(A) 104 (B) 10-3 (C) 10-2 (D) 103
(11) When the dropped digit is 5 then retained digit increases by 1, if it is
(A) zero (B) odd (C) even (D) prime
(12) Time taken by light to reach from sun to earth is
(A) 1 min, 20sec (B) 4 min, 20sec (C) 8 min 20sec (D) 10 min, 20sec
(13) 73. 650 is rounded off as
(A) 73. 7 (B) 73.5 (C) 73. 6 (D) none of these
(14) A precise measurement is one which has
(A) less precision (B) maximum precision
(C) less absolute uncertainty (D) both „A‟ and „C‟
(15) In printing we use colours which are in number
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(16) The earliest known exquisite and sensitive thermometer have built by
(A) Colarado university (B) Accademia del Cimento
(C) ASCII (D) none of these
Superior Group Of Colleges
(17) Length of a side of a cube is 20mm. Its volume is
(A) 80 mm3 (B) 8cm3 (C) 8m3 (D) 8  m3
(18) Dimension analysis helps in
(A) deriving the formula
(B) to convert one system of unit into another
(C) to confirm the correctness of any physical equation
(D) all of these
(19) The dimension of power is
(A)  ML1T 2  (B)  ML2T 3  (C)  ML2T 2  (D)  MLT 3 
(20) Ratio of dimension of power and work [power] : [work ]
(A) 1: T (B) 1: T2 (C) T: 1 (D) T2: 1
(21) Ratio of dimensions of velocity to acceleration is
(A)  LT 1  (B)  L  (C) T 1  (D) T 

F l
(22) The dimension of is same that of dimension of
m
(A) force (B) momentum (C) velocity (D) acceleration
(23) Which of the given pairs not has same dimensions
(A) work, torque (B) force, weight (C) impulse, momentum (D) power, energy
(24) Dimension of velocity and angular velocity are
(A)  ML1  T 1  (B)  ML0T 1  T 1  (C)  ML1   LT 1  (D)  LT 1  T 1 
   
(25)  M 0 L0 T 1  is dimension of
(A) velocity (B) frequency (C) force (D) acceleration
(26) The dimensions of force is
(A)  MLT  (B)  MLT 1  (C)  ML1T 1  (D)  MLT 2 
(27) Dimension for acceleration due to gravity is
(A)  MLT 2  (B)  LT 1  (C)  LT 2  (D)  MLT 1 
(28) Light year gives measurement about
(A) space and time (B) speed of life (C) distance (D) age of universe
(29) Which is not a base unit in SI unit?
(A) kilogram (B) joule (C) ampere (D) Kelvin
(30) Light year is unit of
(A) time (B) distance (C) velocity (D) light
(31) The S.I unit of solid angle is
(A) degree (B) radian (C) steradian (D) candela
(32) If x1 = 10.5 ± 0.1 cm and x2 = 26.8 ± 0.1 cm, then x = x2 – x1 is given as
(A) 16.3 ± 0.1 cm (B) 16.3 ± 0.2 cm (C) 16.1 ± 0 cm (D) 16.3 ± 0 cm
(33) 1 revolution
(A) 57o (B) 90o (C) 180o (D) 360o

(34) Solid angle subtended at the centre by a sphere is


(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
Superior Group Of Colleges
(35) The percentage uncertainty in measurement of mass and velocity are 2% and 3%. The
maximum uncertainty in the measurement of kinetic energy is
(A) 11% (B) 8% (C) 6% (D) 1%
(36) For total assessment of uncertainty in the final result obtained by multiplication and
division
(A) Absolute uncertainties are added (B) Fractional uncertainties are added
(37) Significance figures in 0.0010 are:
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(38) The dimension of density are
(A)  ML2  (B)  M 2 L2  (C)  ML3  (D)  M1L1 
(39) Absolute uncertainty in a measuring instrument is equal to
(A) Least count of the instrument (B) Fractional uncertainty
(C) Accuracy (D) Percentage uncertainty
(40) The percentage uncertainty in the measurement of mass and velocity are 2% and 3%
respectively. The maximum uncertainty in the measurement of kinetic energy is
(A) 11% (B) 8% (C) 6 % (D) 1%
(41) The number of significant figures in the value 0.09310 is
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3
(42) Steradian is the unit of
(A) Current (B) Plane angle (C) Solid angle (D) Charge
(43) One tera is equal to:
(A) 1012 (B) 109 (C) 1012 (D) 106
(44) A light year is the unit of:
(A) Time (B) Distance (C) Time and distance (D) None of these
(45) Basic component of a computer chip is:
(A) Selenium (B) Cadmium (C) Glass (D) Silicon
(46) Number of significant figures in an observation 01.020 mm are:
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
(47) In scientific notation, the number 0.0001 may be written as
(A) 10-3 (B) 10×10-4 (C) 1.0 x 10-4 (D) 10 x 104
(48) According to Einstein‟s equation E = mc2 1 Kg mass is actually energy
(A) 3 x 1016 J (B) 9 x 1016 J (C) 9 x 108 J (D) 3 x 108 J
(49) Which of the following is derived quantity
(50) The dimension of  gh has same as that of :
(A) Work (B) Energy (C) Pressure (D) Mass

SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. Name several repetitive phenomenon occurring in nature which could serve as reasonable
time standards?
Q.2. Give the drawbacks to use the period of a pendulum as a time standard?
Q.3. Why do we find it useful to have two units for the amount of substance, the kilogram and the
mole?
Q.4. Three students measured the length of a needle with scale on which minimum division is
1mm and recorded as (i) 0.2145m (ii) 0.21 m (iii) 0.214 m. Which record is correct and why?
Q.5. An old saying is that “A chain is only as strong as its weakest link”. What analogous
statement can you make regarding experimental data used in a computation?
Superior Group Of Colleges
Q.6. The period of simple pendulum is measured by a stop watch. What types of errors are
possible in the time period?
Q.7. Does a dimensional analysis give any information on constant of proportionally that may
appear in algebraic expression? Explain.
Q.8. Write the dimensions of (i) Pressure (ii) Density
The wavelength λ of a wave depends on the speed v of the wave and its frequency f knowing that
    L , V    LT 1  and  f   T 1 
v
Decides which of the following is correct. f  v or f 

Q.9. Calculate the dimensions of pressure and work?
Q.10. Differentiate between radian and steradian?
Q.11. How many nanoseconds are in 1 year?
Q.12. Distinguish between base units and derived units?
Q.13. Add the masses given in kg upto appropriate precision 2.189, 0.089, 11.8 and 5.32.
Q.14. Show that energy-mass equation E = mc2 is dimensionally correct?
Q.15. Differentiate between precision and accuracy.
Q.16. The length and the width of the rectangular plate are 15.3 cm and 12.80 cm respectively. Find
the area of the plate upto correct significant figures.
Q.17. What are the three fundamental frontiers of fundamental sciences?
Q.18. What do you mean by scientific notation, give an example?
Q.19. Write two uses of dimensional analysis.
Q.20. Define Precise measurement.
Q.21. What do you mean by physical quantities? What steps are taken to measure the base
quantities?
Q.22. What are the Dimensions and units of Gravitational Constant “G” in the formula
m1m 2
FG .
r2
Q.23. Describe the principle of Homogeneity of Dimensional Analysis?
Q.24. How will you assess the total uncertainty in the final result? Explain it fully in different cases.
Q.25. Define and explain Random Error and Systematic Error in the measurement of a physical
quantity.
Q.26. Show that the expression v f  vi  at is dimensionally correct, where vi is the velocity at t=0
and vf is the velocity at time t.
Q.27. Define meter and kilogram.
Q.28. What is meant by scientific notation? Explain.
Q.29. How do you access the total uncertainty in the final result for multiplication and division?
Explain with example.
Q.30. Write down two uses of dimension analysis.

Superior Group Of Colleges

CHAPTER NO 2:

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


(1) If a vector A is multiplied by negative number (n < 0) then its direction is changed by:
(A) 0° (B) 90° (C) 60° (D) 180°
(2) The direction of a vector in plane is described by an angle which the vector makes with
__________ and is in____________
(A) +ve x-axis, anticlockwise (B) -ve x-axis, anticlockwise
(C) +ve y-axis, clockwise (D) -ve y-axis, anticlockwise
^ ^ ^
(3) The unit vector of A = i+ j+ k is
^ ^ ^ 
1  i+ j+ k 
(A) A (B) (C)   (D) zero
3 3
(4) The position vector r of a point p (-1, 2, -3) is given by:
(A) 2iˆ - 3 ˆj  4kˆ (B) -2iˆ -3 ˆj  4kˆ (C) -iˆ  2 ˆj - 3kˆ (D) none of these
(5) By using head to tail rule we can
(A) add the vectors (B) subtract the vectors
(C) multiply the vectors (D) both add and subtract the vectors
(6) Which process is not possible for two vectors
(A) addition (B) subtraction (C) division (D) multiplication
(7) The process of vector subtraction is similar to the process of
(A) multiplication of vectors (B) resolution of vectors
(C) addition of vectors (D) division of vectors
(8) The vector which describe the location of a point w.r.t the origin is called
(A) parallel vector (B) unit vector (C) null vector (D) position vector
(9) A vector which has the same affect as all the original vectors taken together is called:
(A) Position vector (B) null vector (C) equal vector (D) resultant vector
(10) The reverse process of addition of vectors is called
(A) negative of a vector (B) multiplication of a vector
(C) subtraction of vector (D) resolution of a vector
(11) The unit vector is expressed as
(A) A = A × A (B) A = A (C) A = A A (D) A = A × A
A
(12) The minimum number of coplanar forces of equal magnitude whose vector sum can be
zero, are
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4
(13) r =a i +b j +c k
(A) equal vector (B) position vector (C) Unit vector (D) negative vector
Superior Group Of Colleges
(14) Vector has opposite signs, then vector lies in quadrant.
(A) either in 1st or in 2nd (B) either in 2nd or in 4th
(C) 3rd (D) 4th
(15) The resultant of two forces 3N and 4N making an angle 90o with each other is
(A) 1N (B) 7N (C) 5N (D) 3.5N
(16) If a vector A lies in 3rd quadrant then its direction is given by θ =
(A) Ф (B) 180°-Ф (C) 180°+ Ф (D) 360°-Ф
th
(17) If a vector A lies in 4 quadrant and make angle of 60° with y-axis its direction is given
by θ =
(A) 30° (B) 330° (C) 270 ° (D) none
(18) i .i =
(A) i (B) i2 (C) 1 (D) 2
(19) 
By increasing the value of angle 0    90o o
 between the two given vectors their
cross product in magnitude
(A) increases (B) decrease
(C) remain same (D) may increase or decrease
(20) Three vectors of equal magnitude are added and magnitude of their resultant is zero.
The angle between any of two vectors is
(A) 30o (B) 60o (C) 90o (D) 120o
(21) Force is equal to product of mass and acceleration, the product is called
(A) scalar product (B) vector product (C) simple product (D) none
(22) Vector A is making angle θ with y-axis its rectangular components have magnitude
(A)Ax = A Sinθ, Ay=A Cosθ (B) Ax = A Cosθ, Ay=A Sinθ
(C) Ax=A tanθ, Ay = A Cotθ (D) Ax= A Cotθ, Ay = A tanθ
(23) Which relation is incorrect?
(A)   r  F (B) F  q(v  B) (C) P  F  v (D) L  r  p

(24) A . A is equal to
(A) 1 (B) zero (C) A (D) A Cosθ
(25) Which condition could make A × B = O
(A) both vectors are parallel or anti-parallel (B) vector B is a null vector
(C) vector A is null vector (D) all of these
(26) At which angle the scalar product could be negative
(A) 600 (B) 900 (C) 1800 (D) 450
(27) At what angle the dot product will be half of its magnitude
(A) 00 (B) 900 (C) 600 (D) 450
(28) The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to their vector difference. This is possible
if the forces
(A) are equal to each other (B) one force is multiple of other
(C) are equal in magnitude and perpendicular (D) none of these
(29) The rectangular components of force of 10 N are
(A) 3N and 4N (B) 6N and 8N (C) 1N and 2N (D) 2N and 3N
(30) Which one of the following is a vector quantity
(A) volume (B) Temperature (C) Density (D) Displacement
Superior Group Of Colleges

(31) What is the angle between ˆj+ kˆ and k̂


(A) /3 (B) /4 (C) /6 (D) None of these
(32) What is the maximum number of components into which a vector can be split
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) infinity
(33) Consider a vector F = 7 i + 5 ĵ another vector that is perpendicular to F is

(A) 7i  5 j (B) 7 j (C) 5i  7 j (D) 6i


(34) Which of the following is not commutative for the two vectors Aand B
     
(A) A  B (B) A  B (C) A . B (D) None of these
(35) Two force vectors have magnitude 10N and 4N, which cannot be the magnitude of their
resultant?
(A) 6 N (B) 12 N (C) 14 N (D) 16 N
(36) If A  Ai and B  B j then
       
(A) A B  A (B) A B  B (C) A. B  1 (D) A. B  0
(37) If A ×B points along x-axis, then vectors A and B lie in
(A) xy-plane (B) yz-plane (C) zx-plane (D) Along y-axis
(38) cos  i  sin  j is
(A) position vector (B) unit vector (C) null vector (D) parallel vector
(39) Torque of a body is zero, if the vectors r and F are
(A) perpendicular (B) parallel (C) anti parallel (D) both B and C
(40) If the vector A is along –ve y-axis and B is along –ve x-axis, then A ×B will be along
(A) –ve z-axis (B) +ve z-axis (C) –ve x-axis (D) –ve y-axis
     
(41) If A  2 i  6 j  3 k and B   6 i 18 j  9 k are
(A) Parallel vectors (B) Equal vectors (C) anti-parallel vectors (D) None of these
(42) The resultant of two forces 3N and 4N making an angle 90o with each other is
(A) 1N (B) 7N (C) 5N (D) 3.5N
(43) If A  2i  j  2k , then A is
(A) zero (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 9
(44) i.( j  k) =
(A) k (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 0
(45) Reverse process of vector addition is called
(A) subtraction of vectors (B) resolution of vectors
(C) making a vector negative (D) obtaining a unit vector
(46) If a  b  a  b then angle between a and b
(A) 90o (B) 0o (C) 180o (D) 45o
(47) The resultant of two forces 3N and 4N making an angle 90o with each other is
(A) 1 N (B) 7N (C) 5 N (D) 3. 5 N
(48) The dot product i.i  j. j  k .k is equal to
Superior Group Of Colleges
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) -1 (D) i2
(49) If the line of action of force passes through axis of rotation of origin then its torque is
(A) maximum (B) minimum (C) zero (D) none of these
2 1 2
(50) The magnitude of the vector i  j  k is
3 3 3
1
(A) zero (B) one (C) three (D)
9

SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. Define the terms (i) Unit vector (ii) Position vector and (iii) Components of a vector.
Q.2. The vector sum of three vectors gives a zero resultant. What can be the orientation of the
vector?
Q.3. Vector A lies in the xy plane. For what orientation will both of its rectangular components be
negative? For what orientation will its components have opposite signs? (FSD 2018)
Q.4. If one of the rectangular components of a vector is not zero can its magnitude be zero?
Explain.
Q.5. Can a vector have a component greater than the vector‟s magnitude?
Q.6. Can the magnitude of a vector have a negative value?
Q.7. If A  B  0 , What can you say about the components of the two vectors?
Q.8. Under what circumstances would a vector have components that are equal in magnitude?

Q.9. Is it possible to add a vector quantity to a scalar quantity? Explain.


Q.10. Can you add zero to a null vector?
Q.11. Two vectors have unequal magnitudes. Can their sum be zero? Explain.
Q.12. Show that the sum and difference of two perpendicular vectors of equal lengths are also
perpendicular and of the same length.
Q.13. How would the two vectors of the same magnitude have to be oriented, if they were to be
combined to give a resultant equal to a vector of the same magnitude.
Q.14. The two vectors to be combined have magnitude 60N and 35N. Pick the correct answer from
those given below and tell why it is the only one of the three that is correct.
(i) 100 N (B) 70 N (C) 20 N
Q.15. Suppose the sides of a closed polygon represent vector arranged head to tail. What is the sum
of these vectors?
Q.16. Identify the correct answer.
(i) Two ships X and Y are traveling in different directions at equal speeds. The actual
direction of motion of X is due north but to an observe on Y, the apparent direction of motion
of X is north-east. The actual direction of motion of Y as observed from the shore will be
(A) East (B) West (C) South – east (D) South – west
Q.17. If all the components of the vectors, A1 and A2 were reversed, how would this alter A1  A2 ?
Q.18. Name the three different conditions that could make A1  A2  0
Q.19. Identify true or false statements and explain the reason.
(A) A body in equilibrium implies that it is not moving nor rotating.
(B) If coplanar forces acting on a body form a closed polygon, then the body is said to be in
equilibrium.
Q.20. A picture is suspended from a wall by two strings. Show by
diagram the configuration of the strings for which the tension in the
strings will be minimum.
Superior Group Of Colleges
Q.21. Can a body rotate about its centre of gravity under the action of its weight?
Q.22. Show that the scalar product of two vectors is commutative?
Q.23. Show that vector addition is commutative?
Q.24. Show that square of a vector is a scalar quantity?
Q.25. Define the terms unit vector and position vector?
Q.26. Give two conditions of equilibrium?
Q.27. Why do you keep your legs far apart when you have to stand in the aisle of a bumpy riding bus?
Q.28. The subtraction of a be vector is equivalent to the addition of the same vector, Prove it.
Q.29. Define unit vector and find the unit vector in the direction of vector.
Q.30. To get the sum of two vectors equal to null vector, What are the conditions?
Q.31. What is the orientation of vector R and Rx and Ry have opposite signs?
Q.32. If A  4iˆ  3 ˆj then find Â
Q.33. Write down the condition for a body a to be on complete equilibrium
Q.34. Prove that A.B  Ax Bx  Ay By  Az By z

LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. Explain vector addition by rectangular components.
Q.2. Define and explain scalar product of vectors and write its characteristics.
Q.3. Define and explain vector product of vectors and write its characteristics.
Q.4. Write down the characteristics of dot and cross product.
Q.5. Define and explain torque

Superior Group Of Colleges
Superior Group Of Colleges

CHAPTER NO 3:

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


(1) The dimension of Range of projectile
(A) [T-1] (B) [L-1] (C) [LT] (D) [L]
(2) An object with constant velocity
(A) is not accelerated (B) Might be accelerated
(C) Always accelerated (D) Also has constant velocity
(3) A body dropped from tower reaches the ground in 4sec. height is about
(A) 80m (B) 20m (C) 160m (D) 40m
(4) A stone has a mass of 40 grams. Its weight would be
(A) 0.04kg (B) 0.392 kg (C) 0.0392 N (D) 0.392N
(5) Strictly speaking our earth is a frame of reference which is
(A) Inertial (B) Non-inertial (C) both A & B (D) None of these
(6) Laws of motion are not valid in a system which is
(A) inertial (B) Non-inertial (C) Both A & B (D) None of these
(7) Time of projectile to reach its maximum height
2vi sin vi sin  vi sin  vi sin 2
(A) t  (B) t  (C) t  (D) t 
g g 2g g
(8) The magnitude of acceleration produced in an object is inversely proportional with
(A) momentum (B) mass (C) velocity (D) force
(9) The rate of change of decreasing velocity is called
(A) positive acceleration (B) negative acceleration
(C) uniform acceleration (D) both B and C
(10) The SI unit of acceleration is
(A) ms-1 (B) ms-2 (C) cms-2 (D) mms-2
(11) The retardation is defined as
(A) increase in velocity per unit time (B) decrease in velocity per unit time
(C) decrease in speed per unit time (D) increase in speed per unit time
(12) If the velocity of a car is increasing along a straight line then velocity and acceleration
are
(A) perpendicular (B) parallel (C) anti-parallel (D) coplanar
(13) If an object is moving with uniform acceleration then the velocity-time graph would be
(A) parabola (B) hyperbola (C) straight line (D) elliptic shape
(14) The average acceleration of an object during the interval t is given by the slope of
(A) speed-time graph (B) velocity-time graph (C) distance-time graph (D) force displacement graph
(15) If the velocity time graph is horizontal straight line, then the body is said to be moving
with
(A) uniform velocity (B) uniform acceleration (C) zero acceleration (D) both A and C
(16) Equations of motion hold only when there is
(A) linear motion with constant velocity (B) linear motion with variable acceleration
(C) linear motion with uniform acceleration (D) none of these
(17) Velocity of an object dropped from a building at any instant „t‟ is given by
(A) gt (B) 1/2gt2 (C) vit + 1/2 gt2 (D) gt2
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(18) Inertia of body is measured in terms of
(A) its weight (B) its mass (C) its velocity (D) its force
(19) The dimension of weight is
(A) [MLT-1] (B) [ML2T-2] (C) [LT-1] (D) [ML-1T-2]
(20) Single force does not exist, is the result of which law of motion
(A) 1st law (B) 2nd law (C) 3rd law (D) all of these
(21) Mass is the quantitative measure of
(A) inertia (B) gravity (C) velocity (D) both A and B
(22) The rate of change in momentum is called
(A) force (B) torque (C) distance (D) time
(23) When the retarding time is increased during the impact than the average force
(A) increases (B) decreases (C) zero (D) no change
(24) For two colliding balls which condition is applicable for one dimensional elastic collision
(A) they should be non-rotating (B) they should be smooth
(C) both A and B (D) they should not be smooth
(25) Projectile moves with constant
(A) horizontal velocity (B) vertical velocity
(C) acceleration due to gravity (D) both A and C
(26) One dyne always is equal to
(A) 103 N (B) 105N (C) 10–5 N (D) 10–3N
(27) The horizontal range of projectile at 300 with horizontal is same at an angle.
(A) 400 (B) 450 (C) 600 (D) 900
(28) The horizontal component of velocity of projectile.
(A) remain same (B) increase (C) decrease (D) none of these
(29) As a rocket moves up ward doing its job, its acceleration goes on
(A) increasing (B) decreasing
(C) remain same (D) it moves with uniform velocity
(30) A stone is thrown up from the surface of earth when it reaches at maximum height, its
K.E. is equal to
1 2
(A) mgh (B) mv (C) Zero (D) 2mgh
2
(31) The horizontal range of projectile at 30o with horizontal is the same as that at an angle
of
(A) 45o (B) 60o (C) 90o (D) 120o
(32) Change in momentum is also called as
(A) Force (B) Acceleration (C) Torque (D) Impulse
(33) When a ball is thrown straight up, the acceleration at its highest point is
(A) Upward (B) Downward (C) Zero (D) Horizontal
(34) The slope of velocity time graph gives
(A) Speed (B) Force (C) Temperature (D) Density
(35) S.I unit of Linear momentum is
(A) Kgm2s-1 (B) Kgm2s-2 (C) Kgm-1s-1 (D) Kgms-1

(36) The dimensional unit of impulse is:


(A) [ MLT ] (B) [ MLT 1 ] (C) [ ML1T 1 ] (D) [ M –1L1T 1 ]
(37) Unit of momentum in S.I. system is:
(A) N  m (B) N  m (C) N  m (D) N  S
2 2
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(38) The S.I unit of impulse is
(A) Kg msec-1 (B) N-Sec (C) Newton (D) Kg m sec-1
(39) Time of flight of project
VSin
i  Vi Cos 2VSin
i  Vi2Sin2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
g g g g
(40) The velocity time graph is parallel to time axis the acceleration of moving body is
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Maximum (D) Zero
(41) Laws of motion and valid in those systems which are
(A) non-initial (B) at rest (C) inertial (D) in space
(42) The maximum horizontal range of a projectile is given by
vi 2 2vi 2 vi 2 2vi
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2g g g g
(43) The distance covered by a freely falling body is 2 sec. Will be
(A) 4.9 m (B) 19.6 m (C) 9.8 m (D) 39.2m
(44) The mass of an object is quantitative measure of
(A) Moment of force (B) Inertia (C) Velocity (D) Acceleration
(45) Acceleration of bodies of different masses allowed to fall freely is:
(A) The same (B) Variable (C) Different (D) None
(46) Powered and remote control guided missiles are used for:
(A) Medium ranges (B) Short ranges
(C) Long ranges (D) Very short ranges
(47) The maximum horizontal range of a projectile is given by
Vi 2 2Vi 2 Vi 2 2Vi
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2g g g g
(48) The velocity of freely falling body just before hitting the ground is 9.8 ms-1. The height
through which it falls is
(A) 9.8 m (B) 4.9 m (C) 19.6 m (D) 196 m
(49) Kg ms-1 can also be written as
(A) Nm (B) Ns (C) NS-1 (D) None of these
(50) Change of momentum is called
(A) Torque (B) Acceleration (C) Impulse (D) Force

SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. What is the difference between uniform and variable velocity? From the explanation of
variable velocity, define acceleration. Give SI units of velocity and acceleration.
Q.2. An object is thrown vertically upward. Discuss the sign of acceleration due to gravity, relative
to velocity, while the object is in air.
Q.3. Can the velocity of an object reverse the direction when acceleration is constant? If so, give
an example.
Q.4. Specify the correct statements.
(a) An object can have a constant velocity even its speed is changing.
(b) An object can have a constant speed even its velocity is changing.
(c) An object can have zero velocity even its acceleration is not zero.
(d) An object subjected to a constant acceleration can reverse its velocity.
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Q.5. Explain the circumstances in which the velocity v and acceleration a of a car are (i) Parallel
(ii) Anti-parallel (iii) Perpendicular to one another (iv) v is zero but a is not zero (v) a is zero
but v is not zero.
Q.6. A man standing on the top of a tower throws a ball straight up with initial velocity vi and at
the same time throws a second ball straight downward with the same speed. Which ball will
have larger speed when it strikes the ground? Ignore air friction.
Q.7. Motion with constant velocity is special case of motion with constant acceleration. Is this
statement true? Discuss?
Q.8. Find the change in momentum for an object subjected to a given force for a given time and
state law of motion in terms of momentum.
Q.9. Define impulse and show that how it is related to linear momentum?
Q.10. State the law of conservation of linear momentum, pointing out the importance of isolated
system. Explain, why under certain conditions, the law is useful even though the system is not
completely isolated?
Q.11. Explain the difference between elastic and inelastic collisions. Explain how would a
bouncing ball behave in each case? Give plausible reasons for the fact that K.E is not
conserved in most cases?
Q.12. Explain what is meant by projectile motion. Derive expressions for (A) the time of flight (B)
the range of projectile Show that range of projectile is maximum when projectile is thrown at
an angle of 45o with the horizontal.
Q.13. At what point or points in its path does a projectile have its minimum speed, its maximum
speed?
Q.14. Each of the following questions is followed by four answers, one of which is correct answer.
Identity that answer.
(1) What is meant by ballistic trajectory?
(A) The paths followed by an un-powered and unguided projectile
(B) The path followed by the powered and unguided projectile.
(C) The path followed by un-powered but guided projectile
(D) The path followed by powered and guided projectile.
Q.15. Describe the two uses of Ballistic missiles.
Q.16. Find the Dimensional formulas for i) Impulse ii) Momentum
Q.17. If a squash ball comes back to its starting point after bouncing several times, then what would
be its average velocity?
Q.18. What is non – uniform velocity?
Q.19. What is meant by positive and negative acceleration?
Q.20. Under what circumstances the average and instantaneous accelerations are equal.
Q.21. The slope of d – t and v-t graph represent which quantity?
Q.22. What is velocity time graph?
Q.23. If the v – t graph is parallel to time axis then what does it represent?
Q.24. Does the man can jump high on the surface of Moon as compared to surface of earth?
Q.25. What is meant by inertial frame of reference?
Q.26. A 1500kg car has its velocity reduced from 20ms-1 to 15ms-1 in 3sec. How large was the
average retarding force.
Q.27. Which will be more effective in knocking a bear down, rubber bullet or lead bullet?
Q.28. What is the effect on the speed of a fighter plane chasing another when it opens fire? What
happens to the speed of pursued plane when it returns the fire?
Q.29. As the unit of momentum is kg ms-1. Show that its unit is also NS.
Q.30. A car accelerates along a road, which force actually moves the car?
Q.31. Fnet  Fapp  Ffriction In what type of collision the total energy and momentum are
conserved.
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Q.32. What is the relation for maximum range of projectile?
Q.33. What is the horizontal acceleration of the projectile?
Q.34. What is the time taken by projectile to reach maximum height?
Q.35. What kinds of missiles are used for long and short ranges?
Q.36. What is the principle of rocket propulsion?
Q.37. What is the benefit to use the seat belt during drive the car?
Q.38. If a ball (B1) is projected at angle of 200 then by what angle another ball (B2) should be
projected to gain same range as ball (B1).
Q.39. Show that the relation for the range of projectile is same for both angles of projection of 600
and 300.
Q.40. Prove that change of momentum is the impulse?
Q.41. Is it possible for a body to have acceleration when moving with constant velocity?
Q.42. State Newton‟s second law of motion and define S.I unit of force?
Q.43. Define average and instantaneous velocities of the moving body. Under what condition they
are equal.
Q.44. Explain the difference between Elastic and inelastic collision?
Q.45. Define impulse and derive its dimensions?
Q.46. Why is it useful to use a safely helmet?
Q.47. Differentiate between distance and displacement?
Q.48. Define range and time of flight of a projectile.
Q.49. Show that range of projectile is maximum when projectile is thrown at an angle of 45º with
horizontal?
Q.50. Define inertial frame of reference? Is earth an inertial frame of referee?
Q.51. A body is projected with speed of 20ms-1 with an angle  = 450 Find the horizontal range?
Q.52. Define Ballistic flight and Ballistic trajectory?
Q.53. How would you find the momentum of explosive forces?
OR
A shell is explode in two pieces, why they move in opposite direction?
Q.54. Find relation for force due to water flow.
Q.55. Find the angle of projectile for which its maximum height and horizontal range are
equal.
Q.56. Show the acceleration and distance covered by a body can be measured from velocity
time graph?
Q.57. Write any properties of inertial frame of references.

LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. Define an isolated system? State and prove law of conservation of linear momentum.
Q.2. Explain elastic collision in one dimension and derive the relation for relative velocities of
two bodies after collision.
Q.3. Explain elastic collision in one dimension and drive the relation
When m1= m2 and m1>> m2
Q.4. Define projectile motion. Derive expressions for maximum height and time of flight for
projectile.
Q.5. Define projectile motion. Derive expressions for maximum height, range and maximum
range.

Superior Group Of Colleges

CHAPTER NO 4:

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


(1) A body of mass 5kg has P.E 100 J. Its height from the ground is
(A) 10 m (B) 8 m (C) 5 m (D) 2 m
(2) In electrical measurements, the unit of work is expressed as
(A) Js (B) Js-1 (C) 1 K watt hour (D) none of these
(3) If a spring is compressed, the work done on it equals the increase in its
(A) K.E (B) momentum (C) force (D) elastic P.E
(4) Area under force displacement curve gives
(A) distance covered (B) work done (C) power (D) none
(5) While passing through the atmosphere the solar constant value is reduce due to
(A) reflection (B) refraction (C) absorption (D) all of these
(6) Solar cells are used in
(A) satellites (B) rain forecast communication systems
(C) remote ground based weather stations (D) all of these
(7) The relation between force and velocity
(A) F .V (B) F V (C) V  F (D) PV.
(8) A force of 10N acts on the body and body moves 10m distance perpendicular to it. Work
done by the force on the body is
(A) 10J (B) 100J (C) zero (D) infinite
(9) Kilo watt hour is unit of
(A) power (B) energy (C) torque (D) momentum
(10) 1 MWh is equal to __________ joule
(A) 3.6 x 103 (B) 3.6 x 106 (C) 3.6 x 109 (D) 3.6 x 1012
(11) The dimension of power is
(A) [MLT-2] (B) [MLT-3] (C) [Ml-1T-2] (D) [ML2T-3]
(12) If an agent consumes a power of 1kilo-watt in one hour, the work done is
(A) one watt (B) one kilo-watt (C) one kilowatt-hour (D) zero
(13) The K.E of a body depends upon
(A) mass of body (B) displacement of body (C) speed of body (D) both A and C
(14) If velocity of a body is doubled and its mass is also doubled then K.E of the body
becomes
(A) doubles (B) four times (C) eight times (D) one half
(15) Basic forms of mechanical energy are
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 4
(16) Escape velocity of a body is independent of
(A) mass of earth (B) radius of earth (C) mass of body (D) both A & C
(17) If a spring is compressed, the work done on it equals the
(A) decrease in P.E (B) increase in elastic P.E
(C) decrease in elastic P.E (D) none of these
(18) P.E of a body increases this means work done by gravity is
(A) positive (B) negative (C) zero (D) infinite
(19) If a body raised up from the earth‟s surface, the work done changes the
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(A) gravitational P.E (B) K.E (C) Air resistance (D) elastic P.E
(20) The absolute P.E of the body at the earth‟s surface
GM GMm GMm GM
(A) U g   (B) U g   (C) U g   (D) U g  
2 gR R gR 2 gR
(21) All the food a person eat in one day has about the same energy as
(A) 3 liter of petrol (B) 1.3 liter of petrol (C) 1/3 liter of petrol (D) 2/3 liter petrol
(22) The energy of all the fossil fuel on the Earth is less than the energy reaching the earth
from sunlight
(A) in 1 month (B) in 1 year (C) in 10 days (D) in 10 minutes
(23) The ratio of escape velocity to the orbital velocity is
1
(A) (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 2
2
(24) The total amount of energy at any point
(A) decreases (B) increases (C) remain constant (D) zero
(25) Heat within the earth generated by the
(A) compression of heat (B) residual heat of the earth
(C) radioactive decay (D) all of these
(26) If the direction of force is perpendicular to the direction of motion of body, then work
done is:
(A) Minimum (B) Maximum (C) Zero (D) Infinity
(27) When sunlight passes through atmosphere, its total energy reduced due to?
(A) reflection by dust particles (B) scattering by dust particles
(C) absorption by dust particles (D) all of these
(28) The dimension ratio of work to power is
(A) J (B) T (C) L (D) KWH
(29) The work done by the centripetal force is
(A) maximum (B) zero
(C) minimum (D) depends on magnitude of force
(30) The source of tidal energy is:
(A) ocean (B) moon (C) earth (D) sun
(31) The area under the force-displacement graph represents:
(A) work done (B) power (C) torque (D) none of these
-2
(32) kWm is the unit of
(A) power (B) intensity
(C) energy (D) energy per unit area
(33) The force which can do no work on the body on which is acts is
(A) Elastic force (B) Frictional force
(C) Centripetal force (D) Gravitational force
(34) If the direction of force is perpendicular to the direction of motion of body, then work
done is
(A) minimum (B) maximum (C) zero (D) infinity
(35) Which of following has same units & dimensions are
(A) K.E and work (B) Torque & force
(C) Angular momentum & linear Momentum (D) work & Anguluar Momentum
(36) The value of solar constant is
(A) 1.4 kw m-2 (B) 1.0 kw m-2 (C) 4.1 kwm-2 (D) 0.1 kw m-2
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(37) If mass of a moving object is doubled, its K.E becomes


(A) 2 times (B) 4 times (C) 5 times (D) 16 times
(38) Heat is a form of
(A) Power (B) Work (C) Energy (D) Motion
(39) The dimensions of kinetic energy are
1
(A) [ML2T-2] (B) [ML-2T2] (C) [ML2T-1] (D) [ ML2 T 2 ]
2
(40) The work will be negative when angle between force and displacement
(A) 45o (B) 90o (C) 0o (D) 180o
(41) The work done is zero if the angle between the force F and displacement d is
(A) 180o (B) 90o (C) 45o (D) 0o
(42) The force, which can do no work on the body on which it acts is
(A) Elastic force (B) Centripetal force
(C) Friction (D) Gravitational force
(43) One kilowatt hour work is equal to
(A) 0.36 MJ (B) 3.6 MJ (C) 36 MJ (D) 360 MJ
(44) As we move up a body above the surface of Earth, the change in potential energy will
always be
(A) Negative (B) Positive (C) Zero (D) Infinity
(45) A 4N body falls through a height of 0.5m. after falling 0.25m its K.E will be
(A) 1.0J (B) 2.0J (C) 9.8J (D) 20J
(46) The escape velocity of the object from the Earth is
(A) 7.9 kms-1 (B) 11 kms-1 (C) 11 ms-1 (D) 7.9ms-1
(47) If the velocity of moving object is doubled, its K.E. becomes
(A) Double (B) 3 times (C) 4 times (D) 5 times
(48) Which of the following is a Non-Conservative Force
(A) Gravitational Force (B) Electric Force
(C) Frictional Force (D) Elastic Spring Force
(49) Absolute P.E. of an object at infinite height w.r.t earth is taken as
(A) Negative (B) Zero (C) Minimum (D) Virtual
o
(50) When the angle between force and displacement is greater than 90 , the work done is
(A)Maximum (B) Zero (C) Negative (D) Positive
(51) A force is acting perpendicular to the displacement perform
(A) positive work (B) no work (C) minimum work (D) negative work

SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. A person holds a bag of groceries while standing still, talking to a friend. A car is stationary
with its engine running. From the stand point of work, how are these two situations similar?
Q.2. Calculate the work done in kilo joules in lifting a mass of 10 kg (at a steady velocity) through
a vertical height of 10m.
Q.3. A force F acts through a distance L. The force is then increased to 3 F, and then acts through a
further distance of 2 L. Draw the work diagram to scale.
Q.4. In which case is more work done? When a 50 kg bag of books is lifted through 50 cm, or when
a 50 kg crate is pushed through 2m across the floor with a force of 50 N.
Q.5. An object has 1 J of potential energy. Explain what does it mean?
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Q.6. A ball of mass m is held at a height h1 above a table. The table top is at a height h2 above the
floor. One student says that the ball has potential energy mgh1 but another says that it is mg
(h1 + h2). Who is correct?
Q.7. When a rocket re-enters the atmosphere, its nose cone becomes very hot. Where does this heat
energy come from?
Q.8. What sort of energy is in the following?
(a) Compressed spring (b) Water in a high dam (c) A moving car
Q.9. A girl drops a cup from a certain height, which breaks into pieces. What energy changes are
involved?
Q.10. A boy uses a catapult to throw a stone which accidentally smashes a greenhouse window. List
the possible energy changes.
Q.11. Show that work done against frictional force is negative?
Q.12. What is the S.I unit of power? Define it.
Q.13. What is meant by KWh (Kilo Watt Hour)?
Q.14. Prove the relation P  F .V .
Q.15. Define escape velocity and write its formula?
Q.16. When an arrow is shot from its bow? It has K.E. From where does it get the kinetic Energy?
Q.17. Define absolute potential energy?
Q.18. What is meant by Non-conventional energy sources? Mention four of these energy sources?
Q.19. Define work. Explain when it is maximum and when it is zero?
Q.20. What is solar energy? How sunlight can be converted into electrical energy?
Q.21. Define conservative and non-conservative forces?
Q.22. When a body is dropped from a height 4m, calculate its velocity?
Q.23. Define work energy principle. Also write down its equations.
Q.24. What happens to the K.E of a bullet when it penetrates into bag of sand?
Q.25. How can you calculate work done by a force acting on an object from force
displacement graph?

LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. Explain work done by variable force.
Q.2. What is conservative field? Explain work done by gravitational force.
Q.3. Explain that work done in gravitational field is independent of path followed.
Q.4. State and explain absolute potential.
Q.5. Define escape velocity. Derive mathematical expression for escape velocity.
Q.6. State and explain law of conservation of energy.
Q.7. Explain inter-conversion of K.E into P.E, when frictional forces are not present.
Q.8. Discuss in detail the inter-conversion of kinetic and potential energy.

Superior Group Of Colleges

CHAPTER NO 5:

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


(1) A satellite moving around the earth constitutes
(A) an inertial frame of reference (B) non inertial frame of reference
(C) neither inertial and non inertial (D) Both inertial and non inertial
(2) Tangential and centripetal accelerations are always
(A) parallel to each other (B) perpendicular to each other
(C) anti – parallel (D) none of these
(3) If a body of mass 10 kg is allowed to fall freely, its weight becomes
(A) 98 N (B) 9.8 N (C) 10 N (D) zero
(4) The direction of angular acceleration is
(A) perpendicular to radius of circle (B) along the axis of rotation
(C) along the radius of circle (D) both A and B
(5) The acceleration of a motor car is 8 m/s . If the diameter of its wheel be 2m. It‟s angular
2

acceleration will be
(A) 8 rad/s2 (B) 10 m/s2 (C) 16 rad/s2 (D) 10 rad/s2
(6) Relation between linear and angular velocity is
r ac v
(A) ω = (B)   (C) ω = (D) both B and C
v v r
(7) The direction of motion changes continuously in
(A) rectilinear motion (B) circular motion (C) linear motion (D) none of these
(8) Centripetal force performs.
(A) maximum work (B) minimum work (C) negative work (D) no work
(9) A body is rotated in a vertical circle by a string. The tension in the string is minimum at
the
(A) top (B) Bottom
(C) Midway between top and bottom (D) Remains same
(10) A body is rotated in a vertical circle by a string. The tension in the string is maximum at
the
(A) top (B) Bottom
(C) Midway between top and bottom (D) Remains same
(11) The centripetal force has the same dimension as the
(A) angular acceleration (B) centrifugal force
(C) centripetal acceleration (D) centrifugal acceleration
(12) The vector form of centripetal force is
(A) mr (B) mr 2 (C) mr (D) mr 2
(13) The relation between torque „τ‟ and the moment of inertia „I‟ is given by
(A)   m r  (B)   I (C)   mr
2 2
(D) both a and b
(14) Moment of inertia of hoop
1 2 2 2
(D) I = I
2
(A) I = mr (B) I = mr (C) I = mr
3 3
(15) The expression for angular momentum is given by
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r
(A) L  r  p (B) L  (C) L  p  r (D) L  r  v
p
(16) The direction of angular momentum is
(A) along the axis of rotation (B) perpendicular to the radius of circle
(C) perpendicular to the velocity of object (D) all of these
(17) The expression for angular momentum is given by
(A) L = I (B) L = mr 2 (C) L = mvr (D) all of these
(18) The diver can move faster when its moment of inertia
(A) become large (B) become smaller (C) become zero (D) none of these
(19) Earth moves around the sun according to
(A) law of conservation of charge
(B) law of conservation of angular momentum
(C) law of conservation of mass
(D) law of conservation of momentum
(20) The direction of angular momentum along the axis of rotation
(A) remain fixed (B) changes continuously
(C) become zero (D) none of these
(21) When a body of cylindrical shape is rolled down on an inclined plane of height „h‟, it
contains
(A) only rotational K.E (B) only translational K.E
(C) both „A‟ and „B‟ (D) none of these
(22) When a hoop of mass m rolling down on an inclined plane then its rotational K.E is
1 2 3 2 1 2 2 2
(A) mv (B) mv (C) mv (D) mv
2 4 4 5
(23) The expression for the time period of low flying satellite put into the orbit is
2 R 2 R 2 g 2 R
(A) T  (B) T  (C) T  (D) T 
g G R v
(24) Generally the weight of an object is measured by a
(A) ordinary balance (B) spring balance (C) both „A‟ and „B‟ (D) none of these
(25) The mass of the satellite is unimportant in describing the
(A) earth‟s orbit (B) satellite‟s orbit (C) earth‟s radius (D) earth‟s gravity
(26) The minimum number of geo-stationary satellites use to send telecommunication signals
to all parts of earth are
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 4
(27) The number of Earth stations which transmit signals to satellites and receive signals via
satellite from other countries are
(A) 200 (B) 400 (C) 300 (D) 240
(28) The time rate of change of angular displacement called:
(A) Linear velocity (B) Linear speed (C) Angular velocity (D) Angular speed
(29) A man in an elevator descending with an acceleration will conclude that his weight has:
(A) increased (B) decreased (C) reduced to zero (D) not changed
(30) The expression for the orbital speed of a satellite is
Gr M r GM
(A) (B) (C) (D)
M Gr GM r
(31) I revolution =
(A) 57o (B) 90o (C) 180o (D) 360o
Superior Group Of Colleges

(32) The linear velocity of dise moving down an inclined plane is


4 2 gh
(A) gh (B) gh (C) gh (D)
3 3 2
(33) The frequency of second‟s pendulum is
(A) 1Hz (B) 2Hz (C) 0.3Hz (D) 0.5Hz
(34) When a body is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string, the centripetal force
is supplied by:
(A) Mass of a body (B) Velocity of a body
(C) Tension in the string (D) Centripetal acceleration
(35) Weight of a 60 kg man in moving elevator (downward) with constant acceleration of
1
g ( g  10ms 2 )
2
(A) Zero (B) 300N (C) 600N (D) 200N
(36) The S.I unit of angular displacement is
(A) Degree (B) Revolution (C) Radian (D) Rotation
(37) A Wheel of radius 50 Cm having an angular speed of 5 rad s-1 have linear speed
(A) 1.5ms -1 (B) 3.5ms-1 (C) 4.5ms-1 (D) 2.5ms-1
(38) A body of mass 8 kg moves along a circle of radius 4m with a constant speed of 8m/sec.
The centripetal force on the body is
(A) 48 N (B) 8N (C) 128 N (D) 72 N
(39) Minimum number of communication satellites required to cover the whole earth is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 5
(40) The cylinders of same mass but different diameter are
(A) Same of moment of inertia
(B) Moment of inertia is larger for larger diameter
(C) Moment of inertia is smaller for larger diameter
(D) Depends upon angular velocity
(41) The angular momentum L is given by
(A) m (B)  r (C) r  F (D) r  p
(42) The ratio between orbital and escape velocities is
1 1
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D) 2
2 2
(43) A man standing in an elevator is acted upon
(A) One force (B) Two forces (C) Three forces (D) Four forces
(44) The minimum number of communication satellites required to cover the whole earth is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 5
(45) The speed of a disc at the bottom of inclined plane can be a given by
4gh 3
(A) v  gh (B) v  2gh (C) v  (D) v  gh
3 4
(46) If the speed of a moving body is double, its K.E. is:
(A) Double (B) Four times (C) Unchanged (D) Halved
(47) The direction of angular velocity is along the
(A) Radius of the circle towards the center (B) Radius of circle away from the center
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(C) Tangent at a point (D) axis of rotation
(48) The dimensions of angular velocity are
(A) [LT-1] (B) [LT-2] (C) [T-1] (D) [T-2]

(1) 30o =
1 1 1
(A)  rad (B)  rad (C)  rad (D)  rad
2 4 6
(49) A man of weight „W‟ is standing on an elevator which is ascending with an acceleration
„a‟ the apparent weight of the man is
(A) W + ma (B) W – ma (C) W (D) ma
(50) According to Einstein theory, space time is
(A) Linear (B) Curved (C) Circular (D) Elliptical
(51) A ball tied to the end of a string is swung in a vertical circle under the action of gravity,
the tension in the string when ball is at maximum height
(A) Equal to centripetal force (B) Zero
(C) Equal to weight of ball (D) Maximum
SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. Explain the difference between tangential velocity and the angular velocity. If one of these is
given for a wheel of known radius, how will you find the other?
Q.2. Explain what is meant by centripetal force and why it must be furnished to an object if the
object is to follow a circular path?
Q.3. What is meant by moment of inertia? Explain its significance.
Q.4. What is meant by angular momentum? Explain the law of conservation of angular
momentum.
Q.5. Show that orbital angular momentum L0 = mvr.
Q.6. Describe what should be the minimum velocity, for a satellite, to orbit close to the Earth
around it.
Q.7. State the direction of the following vectors in simple situation; angular momentum and
angular velocity.
Q.8. Explain why an object, orbiting the Earth, is said to be freely falling. Use your explanation to
point out why objects appear weightless under certain circumstances.
Q.9. When mud flies off the tyre of a moving bicycle, in what direction does it fly? Explain.
Q.10. A disc and hoop start moving down from the top of an inclined plane at the same time. Which
one will be moving faster on reaching the bottom?
Q.11. Why does a diver change his body positions before and after diving in the pool?
Q.12. A student holds two dumb-bells with stretched arms while sitting on a turn table. He is given
a push until he is rotating at certain angular velocity. The student pulls the dumb-bells
towards his chest (Fig.) What will be the effect on rate of rotation?
Q.13. Explain how many minimum number of geo-stationary satellites are required for global
coverage of T.V transmission.

Q.14. Find the velocity of a disc rolls down along an inclined plane of height 10m?
Q.15. Show that v = r ω
Q.16. Prove that 1 Radian = 57.3o
Q.17. Is any work done by centripetal force?
Q.18. What does “INTELSAT” stand for?
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Q.19. Define real weight and apparent weight.
Q.20. How is artificial gravity created?
Q.21. Why banked tracks are needed for turns?
Q.22. State the direction of angular displacement with the help of right hand rule?
Q.23. What is Geo- Stationary Satellite?
Q.24. On what factors, moment of inertia depends?
Q.25. Show that S=r 
Q.26. Write down applications of communication satellites.
Q.27. Give an example to illustrate law of conservation of angular momentum.
Q.28. Why Einstein‟s theory of gravity is better than Newton‟s?
Q.29. Why the motion of projection of a point revolving in a circle with a variable angular
velocity is not Simple harmonic motion.
LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. Define and explain centripetal force.
Q.2. Define rotational K.E. and find rotational K.E. of the disc. and hoop.
Q.3. Define artificial satellites. Find the expression for minimum velocity and period.
Q.4. What are real and apparent weight? Find the apparent weight in different cases for an
object suspended by a string and spring balance in a lift.
Q.5. What are geostationary orbits and geostationary satellites? Find the orbital radius of
geostationary satellites
Q.6. What is orbital velocity and derive an expression for orbital velocity?
Q.7. What is artificial gravity? Derive expression for frequency of spaceship required to
provide the artificial gravity?

Superior Group Of Colleges

CHAPTER NO 6:

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


(1) Two row boats moving parallel in the same direction are pulled towards each other
according to
(A) Stoke‟s law (B) Bernoulli‟s equation
(C) equation of continuity (D) Archimedes principle
(2) When each particle of fluid moves along a smooth path called
(A) turbulent flow (B) stream line flow (C) unsteady flow (D) irregular flow
(3) Above the certain velocity of fluid flow the motion of the fluid become
(A) steady (B) irregular (C) streamline (D) laminar
(4) The volume flow per unit time is called
(A) fluid flow (B) flow rate (C) turbulent flow (D) laminar flow
(5) When external pressure applied becomes larger than the systolic pressure, the blood vessels
(A) expand (B) Collapse (C) become wider (D) none
(6) The speed of efflux of liquid is _______ the speed of a ball that falls through height (h 1 –
h2).
(A) same as (B) large than (C) smaller than (D) equal to
(7) As the streamlines are forced together then the speed of fluid will
(A) zero (B) increases (C) decreases (D) remain same
(8) Working of chimney can be improved by making
(A) tall (B) small (C) medium (D) none of these
(9) The carburetor of a motorcar works on the basic of
(A) Stokes law (B) Bernoulli‟s principle
(C) equation of continuity (D) Pascal‟s law
(10) The unit torr or mm of Hg is opted instead of S.I unit of
(A) pressure (B) force (C) work (D) speed
(11) Sphygmomanometer measure blood pressure
(A) numerically (B) dynamically (C) statically (D) chemically
(12) If an object is moved through a liquid and gases then
(A) force is not required (B) a force is required
(C) both A and B (D) none of these
(13) The velocity of liquid below which its flow is laminar is called
(A) critical velocity (B) escape velocity
(C) relative velocity (D)terminal velocity
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(14) With increase in temperature viscosity of gases
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) may increase or decrease (D) no change
(15) Liquid and gases have
(A) zero viscosity (B) non zero viscosity (C) maximum viscosity (D) both A and B

(16) The frictional effect between different layers of flowing fluids is described in terms of
(A) viscosity of fluid (B) velocity of fluid
(C) pressure of fluids (D) acceleration of fluids
(17) The unsteady flow of the fluid is called
(A) steady flow (B) streamline flow (C) turbulent flow (D) none of these
(18) The formula one cars have a
(A) steady flow designed (B) streamlined designed
(C) Turbulent designed (D) Unsteady flow designed
(19) The incompressible and non viscous fluid is called
(A) viscous fluid (B) non ideal fluid (C) fluid (D) ideal fluid
(20) The law of conservation of mass gives us
(A) Bernoulli‟s equation (B) equation of continuity
(C) Van-derwall‟s equation (D) Einstein‟s equation
(21) Bernoulli‟s equation is expressed as
1 2 1 2
(A) P   v  constant (B) P   v   gh  constant
2 2
1 2 1 2
(C) P   v   gh  constant (D) P   v   gh  constant
2 2
(22) The effect used in perfume bottles and paint sprays is based upon.
(A) Bernoulli‟s theorem (B) equation of continuity
(C) Einstein‟s mass energy equation (D) Archimedes principle
(23) Speed of efflux of a liquid from an orifice is equal to
2g h
(A) 2g (B) (C) 2gh (D)
h 2g
(24) Venturi meter is used to measure
(A) fluid pressure (B) fluid density (C) Fluid viscosity (D) fluid speed
(25) The venturi relation is given by
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
(A) P1  P2   v2 (B) P2  P1   v2 (C) P2  P1   v1 (D) P2  P1   v2
2 2 2 3
(26) Human blood pressure measured in
(A) Nm-1 (B) torr (C) Nm-2 (D) Nm-3
(27) Blood is an
(A) incompressible fluid (B) ideal fluid (C) compressible fluid (D) perfect fluid
(28) Normally human blood density is equal to
(A) 111 kg m-3 (B) 133.3 kg m-3 (C) (80 – 120) kg m-3 (D) water density
(29) Stokes law holds for:
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(A) Motion through free space (B) motion through viscous medium
(C) Bodies of all shapes (D) All mediums
(30) In equation of continuity the units of Av is given as:
(A) Cubic meter (B) Cubic meter per second
(C) square meter per second (D) Square meter

(31) The device used for the measurement of liquid flow is


(A) Manometer (B) Barometer (C) Hydrometer (D) Venturiemeter
(32) A horizontal pipe narrows from a diameter of 10cm to 5cm For a fluid flowing from
larger diameter to smaller
(A) the velocity and pressure both increase (B) the velocity increases and pressure decrease
(C) the velocity decreases and pressure increases (D) the velocity and pressure both decreases
(33) The efficiency of carnot engine depends upon
(A) Sink temperature (B) Source temperature
(C) Both “A” and “B” (D) The working substance
(34) The systolic pressure of normal healthy person is
(A) 120 torr (B) 130 torr (C) 115 torr (D) 110 torr
(35) The S.I unit of flow rate of fluid is
(A) m3Sec 1 (B) m 2Sec 1 (C) m 2Sec 2 (D) M 3Sec 3
(36) The S.I units of flow rate are:
(A) m 2 S 1 (B) m 3 S 2 (C) m3 S 1 (D) m 2 S 2
(37) The dimensions of viscosity are:
(A)  M 2 L1T 2  (B)  M 1LT 1  (C)  M 1L1T  (D)  ML1T 1 

(38) 'η' is denoted for coefficient of


(A) Friction (B) Viscosity (C) Gravitational constant (D) Linear expansion
(39) Swing is produced to
(A) Increase the speed of ball (B) Decrease the speed of ball
(C) Deceive the player (D) Apply the force on the ball
(40) The SI unit of rate of flow of fluid is
(A) m x sec-2 (B) m2 x sec-1 (C) m3 x sec-1 (D) m/sec
(41) The working carburetor of a car uses
(A) Equation of continuity (B) Gravitational law
(C) Bernoulli‟s theorem (D) Stoke‟s theorem
(42) 1 torr is equal to
(A) 13.33Nm-2 (B) 1.333Nm-2 (C) 133.3Nm-2 (D) 1333 Nm-2
(43) Blood has density equal to that of
(A) Mercury (B) Sodium (C) Honey (D) Water
(44) The S.I unit of coefficient of viscosity is
(A) Kgm-1s-1 (B) Kgm-2s-1 (C) Kgm-2s-2 (D) Kgm2s
(45) The SI unit of viscosity is:
(A) Kgm 1s 2 (B) Kgms 1 (C) Kgm 1s 1 (D) Kgm 2s 1
(46) Torr is unit of:
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(A) Power (B) Energy (C) Pressure (D) Work
(47) The Blood pressure is measured by an instrument called:
(A) Stethoscope (B) Thermometer (C) Sphygmomanometer (D) Inflated bag
(48) Which of the following has maximum viscosity
(A) air (B) water (C) acetone (D) glycerin
(49) The law of conservation of mass gives the
(A) Bernoulli‟s Equation (B) Equation of continuity
(C) Torricelli‟s Theorem (D) None of these
(50) One Torr is expressed in Nm-2 as
(A) 133.3 Nm-2 (B) 13.33 Nm-2 (C) 1333 Nm-2 (D) 1.33 Nm-2
(51) The maximum constant velocity of an object falling vertically downward is called
(A) Final velocity (B) Terminal velocity (C) Initial velocity (D) None of these
(52) Ball pen function, of the principle of
(A) Surface tension (B) Viscosity
(C) Gravitational force (D) Equation of continuity

SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. Explain what do you understand by the term viscosity?
Q.2. What is meant by drag force? What are the factors upon which drag force acting upon a small
sphere of radius r, moving down through a liquid, depend?
Q.3. Why fog droplets appear to be suspended in air?
Q.4. A person is standing near a fast moving train. Is there any danger that he will fall towards it?
Q.5. Explain the difference between laminar flow and turbulent flow.

Q.6. State Bernoulli‟s relation for a liquid in motion and describe some of it applications.
Q.7. Identify the correct answer. What do you infer from Bernoulli‟s theorem?
(i) Where the speed of the fluid is high the pressure will be low.
(ii) Where the speed of the fluid is high the pressure is also high.
(iii) This theorem is valid only for turbulent flow of the liquid.
Q.8. Two row boats moving parallel in the same direction are pulled towards each other. Explain.
Q.9. Explain how the swing is produced in a fast moving cricket ball.
Therefore, the pressure on shiny side decreases and the ball swings towards the shiny side. Explain
the working of carburetor of a motorcar using by Bernoulli‟s principle.
Q.10. For which position will the maximum blood pressure in the body have the smallest value?
(a) Standing up right (b) Sitting
(c) Lying horizontally (d) Standing on one‟s head
Q.11. In an orbiting space station, would the blood pressure in major arteries in the leg ever be
greater than the blood pressure in major arteries in the neck?
Q.12. Give statement of Bernoulli‟s equation for liquid in motion.
Q.13. State the Stoke‟s Law and write its mathematical form?
Q.14. Explain what do you understand by the term viscosity?
Q.15. What do you mean by terminal velocity?
Q.16. State and explain Torricelli‟s Theorem?
Q.17. Write the three characteristics of an ideal fluid?
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Q.18. Define terminal velocity and state Torricelli‟s theorem.
Q.19. What is Venturi‟s effect?
Q.20. Define systolic pressure and diastolic pressure.
Q.21. What is meant when we say fluid is non-viscous and incompressible?

LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. What is terminal velocity? Show that terminal velocity of a fog droplet is directly
proportional to the square of its radius?
Q.2. State and explain equation of continuity?
Q.3. State and explain Bernoulli‟s equation.
Q.4. State and explain Torricelli‟s equation.
Q.5. What is venture relation? Explain?
Q.6. What is the relationship between pressure and speed of the fluid in a horizontal pipe
system?

Superior Group Of Colleges

CHAPTER NO 7:

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


(1) Food is heated in microwave ovens by the effect of
(A) mechanical resonance (B) electrical resonance
(C) sharpness of resonance (D) Place discuss
(2) A force of 20 N displace a body attached to a spring upto 10 cm, the spring constant k is
(A) 10 Nm-1 (B) 10 Nm-2 (C) 2N m-1 (D) 200 Nm-1
(3) The time period of mass spring system can be increased by
(A) decreasing the length of spring
(B) decreasing the mass of object attached to spring
(C) increasing the mass of object attached to spring
(D) none
(C) gravitational acceleration (D) all of these
(4) In mass spring system as the mass rises to the top of the swing then
(A) P.E converted into K.E (B) K.E converted into P.E
(C) no change (D) none of these
(5) Swing is an example of
(A) free oscillations (B) forced oscillations (C) damped oscillations (D) none of these
(6) The unit of spring constant k is same as that of
(A) force (B) pressure (C) flow rate (D) surface tension
(7) The acceleration of a body executing S.H.M is directly proportional to
(A) amplitude (B) displacement from mean position
(C) frequency (D) time period
(8) The one complete round trip of an object in motion is called
(A) time period (B) amplitude (C) frequency (D) vibration
(9) Velocity of a body executing SHM is given by
(A)  xo  x (B)  x  xo (C) xo  2  x 2 (D) x   xo
2 2 2 2 2 2

(10) At what distance from mean position the energy of vibrating body is half potential and
half kinetic (x0 = amplitude)
x0 x0 x0
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2x0
2 4 2
(11) The total distance traveled by an object moving with SHM in a time equal to its period if
its amplitude is x0
(A) zero (B) 2x0 (C) 3x0 (D) 4x0
(12) Maximum velocity of a body executing SHM is
(A) v   x0  x (B) v   x0 (C) v   x (D) v   x  x0
2 2 2 2

(13) By increasing the weights on an oscillatory spring, the period of oscillation would be
(A) increases (B) decreased
(C) remain same (D) may increase or decrease
(14) The phase angle θ=ωt of a body performing SHM indicates
(A) both direction and displacement (B) only direction of displacement
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(C) both magnitude and direction (D) none of these
(15) 
The expression for displacement x  xo sin t  90o is equal to 
(A) x  xo sin t (B) x  xo cos t (C) x  xo tan t (D) x   xo cos t
(16) The angle   t executing SHM is known as
(A) amplitude (B) displacement (C) phase (D) time period
(17) If a mass is attached to an elastic spring then its maximum velocity v o

(A) vo  xo m (B) vo  xo k (C) vo  x k (D) vo  x m


k m m k
(18) The angular frequency is
k
(A)   m (B)   k (C)   2 (D)   2 m
k m m k
(19) If four springs, each of spring constant K are connected in parallel then the resultant
spring constant is
k
(A) k (B) 2k (C) 4k (D)
4
(20) Frequency of a mass spring system is given by
1 k k m 1 m
(A) (B) 2 (C) 2 (D)
2 m m k 2 k
(21) The frequency of simple pendulum is given by
1 1 g g
(A) f  (B) f  (C) f  2 (D) f  2
2 g 2 g
(22) In simple pendulum the value of “g” can be calculated by
4 2 4 2 2
2 2
(A) g  (B) g  (C) g  (D) g 
T2 T2 T2 T
(23) Total energy of mass spring system is equal to
(A) (K.E) max (B) (P.E) max (C) both A & B (D) neither a nor b
(24) The maximum K.E of mass spring system is
1
(A) K .E  kx02 (B) K .E  1 kx 2 (C) K.E = 2 k x02 (D) K.E  kx02
2 2
(25) At any instant the K.E of vibrating mass spring system is given by
1 2
(A) K .E  1 kx02 1  x  (B) K.E 
2
kx 0
2 
2
x0  2

(C) K .E  1 kx02 1  x0  (D) K .E  1 kx02 1  x 


2 2

2 2
2  x  2  x0 
(26) The total energy of mass spring system
1 2 1 2 2 1 2  x2 
(A) kx0 (B) k x0 (C) kx02 (D) kx0 1  2 
2 2 2  x0 
(27) In microwave oven, heating is produced by phenomenon of
(A) resonance (B) harmonic vibration
(C) free oscillation (D) forced oscillation
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(28) Resonance occurs when the frequency of the applied force is_ to one of natural
frequency
(A) equal (B) smaller (C) greater (D) none of these
(29) At resonance the transfer of energy is
(A) zero (B) minimum (C) maximum (D) none
(30) If the spring of spring constant K is cut into two pieces, then spring constant of each
spring is
(A) k (B) 2k (C) k/2 (D) none of these
(31) The frequency of a second‟s pendulum is
(A) 1 Hz (B) 0.5 Hz (C) 1.5 Hz (D) 2 Hz
(32) Tuning of a radio is the best example of
(A) mechanical resonance (B) electrical resonance
(C) damping (D) phase modulation
(33) A body is executing SHM. What fraction of its total energy will be kinetic energy when its
displacement from the mean position is half of its displacement?
1 3 3 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 4 4
(34) The frequency of second‟s pendulum is
(A) 1Hz (B) 2Hz (C) 0.3Hz (D) 0.5Hz
(35) The product of time period and frequency is
(A) Zero (B) One (C)  (D) Two
(36) Distance covered during one vibration of an oscillating body in terms of amplitude „A‟ is

A
(A) (B) A (C) 2A (D) 4A
2
(37) The frequency of waves produced in microwave oven is
(A) 1435 Hz (B) 2450 MHz (C) 1860 MHz (D) 2850 Hz
(38) In simple harmonic motion the velocity of a particle is maximum at
(A) Extreme position (B) Mean position
(C) In between extreme and mean position (D) none of these
(39) The product of frequency and time period is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(40) If amplitude of a simple pendulum is increased by 4 times the time period will be:
(A) Four times (B) Half (C) Same (D) Two times
(41) The distance covered by wave in 1 sec. is:
(A) Wave number (B) Wavelength (C) Frequency (D) Wave speed
(42) Tuning of radio is the best example of:
(A) Mechanical resonance (B) Electrical resonance
(C) Magnetic resonance (D) Musical resonance
(43) The wavelength of waves produced by microwave oven is:
(A) 0.12 cm (B) 1 cm (C) 6cm (D) 12 cm
(44) The process in which energy is dissipated in oscillating system is called
(A) Resonance (B) Forced oscillation (C) Damping (D) None
(45) Angular frequency is basically a characteristics of
(A) Circular motion (B) Linear motion
(C) Vibratory motion (D) Elliptical motion
(46) At mean position during SHM
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(A) PE is maximum and K.E minimum (B) P.E is minimum and K.E is maximum
(C) Both P.E are maximum (D) Both K.E and P.E are minimum
(47) The frequency of second‟s pendulum is
(A) 0.5 Hz (B) 1 Hz (C) 2 Hz (D) 4 Hz
(48) In S.H.M, the velocity of the particle is maximum at
(A) Mean position (B) Extreme position
(C) In between mean and extreme position (D) None
(49) In simple harmonic motion, the restoring force is directly proportional to
(A) Velocity (B) Acceleration (C) Displacement (D) Time period
(50) The frequency of waves produced in microwave oven is
(51) The acceleration of a body performing S.H.M depends upon its:
(A) Mass (B) Time period (C) Amplitude (D) Displacement
(52) The process by which energy is dissipated from an oscillating system is called
(A) resonance (B) damping
(C) forced vibration (D) harmonic oscillation
(53) The frequency of second‟s Pendulum is
(A) 0.5 Hz (B) 1 Hz (C) 2 Hz (D) 4 H
SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. Name two characteristics of simple harmonic motion.
Q.2. Does frequency depends on amplitude for harmonic oscillators?
Q.3. Can we realize an ideal simple pendulum?
Q.4. What is the total distance traveled by an object moving with SHM in a time equal to its
period, if its amplitude is A?
Q.5. What happens to the period of a simple pendulum if its length is doubled? What
happens if the suspended mass is doubled?
Q.6. Does the acceleration of a simple harmonic oscillator remain constant during its motion? Is
the acceleration ever zero? Explain.
Q.7. What is meant by phase angle? Does it define angle between maximum displacement and the
driving force?
Q.8. Under what conditions does the addition of two simple harmonic motions produce a resultant,
which is also simple harmonic?
Q.9. Show that in SHM the acceleration is zero when the velocity is greatest and the velocity is
zero when the acceleration is greatest?
Q.10. In relation to SHM, explain the equations:
(i) y  A sin t   

(ii) a   x
2

Q.11. Explain the relation between total energy, potential energy and kinetic energy for a body
oscillating with SHM.
Q.12. Describe some common phenomena in which resonance plays an important role?
Q.13. If a mass spring system is hung vertically and set into oscillations, why does the motion
eventually stop?
Q.14. Write any three uses of simple pendulum?
Q.15. How resonance is produced in tuning a radio set?
Q.16. Define S.H.M.
Q.17. Define frequency and time period. Give relation between them?
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Q.18. Define phase angle.
Q.19. What is the frequency of a second‟s pendulum?
Q.20. Define damping and resonance?
Q.21. Why soldiers are advised to break their steps when marching on a bridge?
Q.22. Briefly give two phenomena in which resonance plays an important role.
Q.23. What are damped oscillations? Give some of its applications.
Q.24. Define resonance and give an example of resonance.
Q.25. Define sharpness of resonance.
Q.26. State Hook‟s law. Write it in mathematical form.
Q.27. Define simple harmonic motion. Does it obey law of conservation of energy?
Q.28. Differentiate between free and forced oscillations.
Q.29. Describe function of a microwave oven.
Q.30. Which force actually provides the restoring force to the simple pendulum?

LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. Define Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM). Show that motion of mass attached with a
spring is SHM.
Q.2. Define Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM). Derive the relation for instantaneous velocity
for the projection of particle “P” moving in a circle.
Q.3. Define Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM). Derive the relation for acceleration in terms of
ω and displacement for the projection of particle “P” moving in a circle.
Q.4. Discuss the motion of a horizontal mass spring system.
Q.5. Define Simple Pendulum. Show that the motion of pendulum is SHM. Find relations for
its time period and frequency.
Q.6. Derive an expression for K.E and P.E of the mass spring system executing SHM. Also
prove that its total energy remains conserved.
Q.7. Write a note on Resonance

Superior Group Of Colleges

CHAPTER NO 8:

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


(1) When the observer moves towards a stationary source then the frequency
(A) decreases (B) increases (C) remain same (D) none of these
(2) The speed of sound in hydrogen at STP
(A) 258 ms-1 (B) 1286 ms-1 (C) 332 ms-1 (D) 315 ms-1
(3) The ratio of wavelength ( )to the time period (T) gives
(A) frequency (B) velocity (C) density (D) elasticity
(4) Electromagnetic waves transfer
(A) mass (B) energy (C) both A and B (D) none
(5) The water waves transfer
(A) only mass (B) only energy (C) both a and b (D) none of these
(6) What kind of waves can be setup in liquids.
(A) transverse waves (B) longitudinal waves (C) both A and B (D) matter waves
(7) The formation of compressions and rarefactions are in
(A) transverse wave (B) longitudinal waves (C) electromagnetic wave (D) none of these
(8) A conical surface of concentrated sound energy sweeps over the ground as a super sonic
plane passes over head called
(A) ultra sonic boom (B) ultra violet boom (C) infrasonic boom (D) sonic boom
(9) At what temperature the velocity of sound in air is two times its velocity at 100C
(A) 859K (B) 10 C o (C) 1132K (D) 890 Co
(10) For small changes in temperature, the velocity of sound can be find by the relation
(A) vt = vo + 0.61t (B) vt = vo + 0.061t (C) vt = vo - 0.61t (D) vt = vo - 0.061t
(11) If speed of source becomes greater than speed of sound then it produces
(A) Doppler‟s effect (B) silence zone (C) sonic boom (D) all
(12) One degree Celsius rise in temperature increases the speed of sound by
(A) 0.661ms-1 (B) 1.62ms-1 (C) 0.61ms-1 (D) 1.67ms-1
(13) When two waves of same frequency meet destructively then resultant displacement
displayed on C.R.O
(A) zero (B) maximum (C) minimum (D) none
(14) Which of the following property is followed by the superposition principle of the wave.
(A) simple multiplication (B) simple addition
(C) simple division (D) none of these
(15) Beats cannot be heard if the difference of frequencies is more than about
(A) 6 HZ (B) 10Hz (C) 4 Hz (D) 9 Hz
(16) Beast are produce when
(A) sound is heard after multiple reflections
(B) interference of two sound waves of slightly different frequencies take place
(C) sound waves enter into a highly dispersive medium
(D) interference of two sound waves of the same frequency but different in amplitude take place
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(17) of loops formed are
(A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four
(18) The fixed ends of vibrating string are called
(A) nodes (B) antinodes (C) overtone (D) none
(19) When the string vibrates in two loops, its frequency becomes ________ than when it
vibrates in one loop.
(A) half (B) double (C) 4 times (D) remain same
(20) If the string vibrates in „n‟ loops, the wavelength is given by
2 2l l
(A) n  (B) n  (C) n  (D) none of these
nl n 2n
(21) In open pipe, harmonics generated are
(A) even (B) odd (C) both A and B (D) None of these
(22) In resonance tube, which of the followings is formed at open end
(A) node (B) antinodes (C) neither A nor B (D) either A or B
(23) The stationary longitudinal waves in a pipe closed at one end, only _______ harmonics
are present.
(A) even (B) odd (C) just multiple of 5 (D) all of these
(24) Doppler‟s effect can be used to calculate the
(A) speed of light (B) speed of galaxy
(C) speed of sound (D) speed of electromagnetic waves
(25) Sonar is used to detect
(A) location of submarine (B) depth of sea
(C) control anti-submarine weapons (D) all of them
(26) It is possible to distinguish between transverse and longitudinal waves from the
property of
(A) refraction (B) Interference (C) diffraction (D) polarization
(27) Stationary waves are generated on string of length „l‟. Its fundamental frequency is
given by
v 2l
(A) f1 = v  l (B) f1 = (C) f1  (D) f1  2(v  l )
2l v
(28) Sound waves cannot travel through
(A) air (B) material medium (C) water (D) vacuum
(29) If the pressure of the gas is doubled then the speed of sound is
(A) also doubled (B) become half (C) not affected (D) increase by four
times
(30) A distance between two consecutive nodes
 
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D) 
2 4
(31) A stationary wave is established in a string which vibrates in four segments at a
frequency of 120 Hz. Its fundamental frequency is
(A) 15Hz (B) 30 Hz (C) 360 Hz (D) 480 Hz
(32) Beats are formed when two notes of frequencies f 1 and f2 (f1 > f2) are sounded together.
The beat frequency will be
f1  f 2 f1  f 2
(A) f1  f 2 (B) f1  f 2 (C) (D)
2 2
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(33) The error in the value of speed of sound calculated by Newton at STP is about
(A) 14% (B) 15% (C) 16% (D) 18%
(34) The speed of sound is greater in solids due to their high
(A) Density (B) Pressure (C) Temperature (D) Elasticity
(35) Which one of the following media can transmit both transverse and longitudinal waves
(A) Solid (B) Liquid (C) Gas (D) Plasma
(36) On increasing the tension, frequency of vibration of a string
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remain constant (D) First increases then decreases
(37) The wavelength of the fundamental mode of vibration of a closed pipe of length „l‟ i
l
(A) (B) l (C) 2l (D) 4l
2
(38) The distance between two consecutive nodes is
(A)  / 2 (B)  / 4 (C)  (D) 2
(39) Tuning fork is a source of:
(A) Energy (B) Heat (C) Light (D) Sound
(40) Increase in velocity of sound in air for 1°C rise in temperature is:
(A) 0.61 cms–1 (B) 61 cms–1 (C) 0.61 ms–1 (D) 61 ms–1
(41) The waves produced in microwave even have a wavelength of
(A) 12 cm (B) 12 m (C) 18 m (D) 18 cm
(42) Speed of sound in cooper is
(A) 38000 m s 1 (B) 3600 m s 1 (C) 3500 m s 1 (D) 3400 m s 1
(43) Periodic alternations of sound between maximum and minimum loudness are called
(A) Interference (B) Resonance (C) Doppler‟s effect (D) Beats
(44) At the open end of an organ pipe
(A) Nodes are formed (B) Antinodes are formed
(C) Nodes or antinodes by formed (D) Neither node nor antinodes is formed
(45) The waves which do not require any medium for their propagation are called
(A) Mechanical waves (B) Matter waves
(C) Electromagnetic waves (D) Compressional waves
(46) Beats can be heard when the difference of frequency is not more than
(A) 8 Hz (B) 4 Hz (C) 10 Hz (D) 6 Hz
o
(47) The speed of sound in air would become double than its speed at 20 C , is:
(A) 313o C (B) 586o C (C) 1172o C (D) 899 o C
(48) A maxima is produced at points where path difference for two monochromatic waves is:
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 3 
4 2 2
(49) Two tuning forks of frequencies f1 and f2 are sounded together, beats are produced. The
time interval between adjacent maximum and minimum loudness is
1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) f1  f 2
f1  f 2 2  f1  f 2  f1
(50) The speed of sound has maximum value in
(A) Oxygen (B) Air (C) Hydrogen (D) Helium
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SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. What features do longitudinal waves have in common with transverse waves?
Q.2. The five possible waveforms obtained, when the output from a microphone is fed into the Y-
input of cathode ray oscilloscope, with the time base on, are shown in fig 8.23. Theses
waveforms are obtained under the same adjustment of the cathode ray oscilloscope controls.
Indicate the waveform
(A) Which trace represents the loudest note?
(B) Which trace represents the highest frequency?
Q.3. Is it possible for two identical waves traveling in the same direction along a string to give rise
to a stationary wave?
Q.4. A wave is produced along a stretched string but some of its particles permanently show zero
displacement. What type of wave is it?
Q.5. Explain the terms crest, trough, node and anti-node.
Q.6. Why does sound travel faster in solids than in gases?
Q.7. How are beats useful in tuning musical instruments?
Q.8. When two notes of frequencies f1 and f2 are sounded together, beats are formed. If f1 > f2,
what will be the frequency of beats?
Q.9. As a result of a distant explosion, an observer senses a ground tremor and then hears the
explosion. Explain the time difference.
Q.10. Explain why sound travels faster in warm air than in cold air.
How should a sound source move with respect to an observer so that the frequency of its
sound does not change?
Q.1. Define waves and progressive wave.
Q.2. Write characteristics of stationary waves?
Q.3. Write the formula for speed of sound at 0oC.
Q.4. State and explain the principle of super position?
Q.5. What are conditions for constructive interference and destructive interference?
Q.6. Write any two applications of Doppler‟s effect?
Q.7. What is apparent change in frequency when source is moving away from stationary observer?
Q.8. Define mechanical waves and electromagnetic waves. Give examples of each.
Q.9. What is the effect of variation of pressure on the speed of sound in gas?
Q.10. Define transverse wave and Longitudinal wave.
Q.11. Define Beats. Write its two uses.
Q.12. What is Doppler‟s effect?
Q.13. What do you meant by “ Sonar technology”?
Q.14. Taking an example of Periodic wave , prove that v  f 
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LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. Explain newton‟s formula of speed of sound in air and Laplace correction for speed of
sound.
Q.2. Prove that .
Q.3. Write a note on Beats.
Q.4. Define stationary waves. Show that frequencies of stationary waves in a stretched sting
are quantized.
Q.5. Define stationary waves. Find the frequencies of stationary waves produced in organ pipe
when it is
(a) Open at both ends (b) Closed at one ends
Q.6. Define and explain Doppler Effect in detail.
Q.7. Define Doppler effect and explain
(a) When observer moves towards source
(b) When source move away from observer.


Superior Group Of Colleges

CHAPTER NO 9:

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


(1) Which of the following is nearly monochromatic light
(A) light from simple lamp (B) light from sun
(C) light from fluorescents tube (D) light from sodium lamp
(2) Diffraction grating can be used to determine the
(A) a speed of light (B) wave length of light (C) both a and b (D) none of these
(3) Polarized light vibrates in one direction where as ordinary light has components of
vibration in
(A) one direction (B) different direction (C) along x and y-axis (D) All direction
(4) The sunlight is partially polarized by
(A) dispersion (B) scattering (C) Interference (D) all of these
(5) When crest of one wave falls on the trough of other wave this phenomenon is called
(A) Diffraction (B) Polarization
(C) Constructive Interference (D) Destructive Interference
(6) In young‟s experiment if white light is used then
(A) no fringe will be seen (B) bright fringe will be seen
(C) few coloured fringes will be seen (D) dark fringe will be seen
(7) Interference effects of light was verified by
(A) Bragg (B) Young (C) Newton (D) Huygen
(8) The light from the sun reaching the earth is in the form of
(A) plane wavefront (B) spherical wavefront (C) circular wavefront (D) none
(9) The fringe spacing varies directly with the
(A) distance (L) between the slits and screen (B) wavelength
(C) separation of slits (D) both a and b
(10) The fringe spacing in double slit experiment can be increased by decreasing
(A) width of the slits (B) separation of the slits
(C) wavelength of light (D) distance between the slit and screen
(11) In Young‟s double slit experiment, fringe spacing will be maximum if we used (LHR 2018)
(A) yellow light (B) red light (C) green light (D) blue light
(12) Maxima is termed as
(A) bright fringe (B) monochromatic light (C) white light (D) dark fringe
(13) What happened to the fringe spacing, when the experiment is performed in water instead of
air
(A) enlarge (B) shrink (C) disappear (D) no effect
(14) The colours appears in the thin films is due to the
(A) interference (B) dispersion (C) polarization (D) scattering
(15) The sky seems to be blue due to the
(A) interference (B) dispersion (C)diffraction (D) scattering

(16) The path difference means the phase change of


2
(A) 90o (B) 60o (C) 180o (D) 45o
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(17) By using the transmitted light the central spot of Newton‟s ring appears to be
(A) bright (B) dark (C) red (D) blue
(18) Michelson measured the length of standard meter in terms of wavelength of
(A) sodium light (B) red cadmium light (C) platinum light (D)cesium light
(19) Which instrument is used to view the fringes in Michelson interferometer
(A) compound microscope (B) interferometer (C) spectrometer (D) telescope
(20) Michelson‟s formula for the displacement L is
 m
(A) L  m (B)  L  (C) L  2m (D)  L  2m
2 2
(21) A typical diffraction grating has about
(A) 400 to 5000 lines per meter (B) 400 to 5000 lines per centimeter
(C) 400 to 5000 lines per cubic meter (D) 400 to 5000 lines per millimeter
(22) The relation of grating element can be expressed as
(A) d  length of grating element
distance betweenthe slits

(B) d  length of grating element


number of lines rules onit
(C) d  number of lines ruled onit
length of grating element
(D) d  (length of grating element )  (number of lines ruled on it )
(23) On a compact disc the width of each fine ruling is about
(A) 0.5mm (B) 0.5cm (C) 0.5μm (D) 0.5 dm
(24) When θ = 0, along the direction of normal to the grating, the path difference between the
rays coming out from the slits of grating will be
(A) minimum (B) maximum (C) zero (D) none of these
(25) Polarizer are made by special substances called
(A) dichroic substances (B) super conductor (C) organic substances (D) none of these
(26) Which one of the following proves that light waves are transverse in nature
(A) interference (B) diffraction (C) polarization (D) reflection
(27) Longitudinal waves do not exhibit
(A) refraction (B) reflection (C) diffraction (D) polarization
(28) When Newton‟s ring are observed with reflected light, the central spot is
(A) red (B) blue (C) dark (D) bright
(29) When sunlight passes through atmosphere, its total energy reduces due to
(A) reflection of dust particles (B) scattering by dust particles
(C) absorption by dust particles (D) all of these
0
(30) Phase angle of 180 is equivalent to a path difference of
 
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D) 
2 4
(31) Bending of light around the edges of an obstacles is called
(A) refraction (B) reflection (C) diffraction (D) interference
(32) The appearance of colours in thin films is due to
(A) refraction (B) reflection (C) diffraction (D) interference
(33) Which phenomenon of light proves that light is a transverse wave
(A) polarization (B) interference (C) reflection (D) diffraction
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(34) Newton‟s rings are formed as a result of
(A) interference (B) Dispersion (C) Diffraction (D) Polarization
(35) The distance between two consecutive wave fronts is called
(A) time period (B) frequency (C) wavelength (D) displacement
(36) Which of the phenomena of light is used in propagation of light through optical fibe
(A) total internal reflection (B) polarization (C) interference (D) diffraction
(37) The bending of a beam of light when it passes from one medium to another is knows as
(A) Reflection (B) Refraction (C) Diffraction (D) Dispersion
(38) The wavelength of x-ray is the order of
(A) 100 x 10-10m (B) 102 x 10-10 (C) 1 x 10-10m (D) None
(39) The theory of wave nature of light proposed by
(A) Thomas Young (B) Huygen (C) Maxwell (D) Frensel
(40) The medium in which speed of light is the same in all directions is called
(A) Homogenous (B) Heterogeneous (C) Non-homogenous (D) Free space
(41) One angstrom is equal to
(A) 10-9m (B) 10-8 m (C) 10-10 m (D) 10-11 m
(42) Michelson‟s interferometer is an instrument to measure
(A) frequency of light (B) intensity of light
(C) amplitude of light (D) wave length of light
(43) The equation of Michelson‟s interferometer is
m m
(A) L  (B) L  (C) L  m (D) L  2m
2 4
(44) Light reaches from the sun to the earth in the form of
(A) Spherical wave front (B) Plane wave front
(C) Cylindrical wave front (D) circular wave front
(45) The distance between two consecutive wave fronts is called
(A) Time period (B) Frequency (C) Wavelength (D) Displacement
(46) The wave nature of light was proposed by:
(A) Young (B) Gallileo (C) Huygen (D) Newton
(47) Brilliant and beautiful colours in soap bubbles are due to
(A) diffraction of light (B) polarization of light
(C) interference of light (D) reflection of light
(48) The equation of Michelson‟s Interferometer is
m m
(A) L  (B) L  (C) L = m  (D) L  2m
2 4
(49) Soap film exhibits brilliant colours in sun light due to
(A) Dispersion of light (B) Interference of light
(C) Diffraction of light (D) Scattering of light
(50) Which Phenomena shows that light wave is transverse wave
(A) Interference (B) Diffraction (C) Polarization (D) Reflection
(51) Light from Sun reaches the Earth in form of
(A) Spherical wave front (B) Plane wave front
(C) Elliptical wave front (D) None of these
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(52) Huygen‟s Principle is used to
(A) Explain Polarization (B) Locate the wave front
(C) Find the speed of light (D) Find the index of refraction
SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1 Under what conditions two or more sources of light behave as coherent sources?
Q.2 How is the distance between interface fringes affected by the separation between the slits of
Young‟s experiment? Can fringes disappear?
Q.3 Can visible light produce interference fringes? Explain.
Q.4 In the Young‟s experiment, one of the slits is covered with blue filter and other with red filter.
What would be the pattern of light intensity on the screen?
Q.5 Explain whether the Young‟s experiment is an experiment for studying interference or
diffraction effects of light.
Q.6 An oil film spreading over a wet footpath shows colours. Explain how does it happen?
Q.7 Could you obtain Newton‟s rings with transmitted light? If yes, would the pattern be different
from the obtained with reflected light?
Q.8 In the white light spectrum obtained with a diffraction grating, the third order image of a
wave length coincides with the fourth order image of a second wavelength. Calculate the ratio
of the two wavelengths.
Q.9 Why the Polaroid sunglasses are better than ordinary sunglasses?
Q.10 How would you distinguish between unpolarized and plan polarized lights?
Q.11 How would you manage to get more orders of spectra using a diffraction grating?
Q.12 What is physical difference between interference fringes and diffraction fringes?
Q.13 What do you mean by Polaroid?
Q.14 Define wave front?
Q.15 What are conditions for constructive and destructive interference?
Q.16 What is the diffraction of light?
Q.17 Under what conditions two or more sources of light behave as coherent sources?
Q.18 The centre of Newton‟s rings are dark. Why?
Q.19 Write down two methods to obtain plane polarized beam of light.
Q.20 Define diffraction grating and grating element.
Q.21 State Huygen‟s principle.
Q.22 Write the conditions to observe the phenomenon of interference of light.
Q.23 Define optical rotation. Give its practical use.
In a double slit experiment the second order maximum occurs at   0.025 . The wave
o
Q.24
length is 650 nm. Find the slit separation.
LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. Explain Briefly Young‟s double slit experiment.
Q.2. Describe the construction and working of Michelson‟s Interferometer.
Q.3. Define Diffraction of light. Discuss the diffraction of light through a narrow slit.
Q.4. What is Diffraction grating and obtain the grating equation to find the wave length of
light?
Q.5. Explain diffraction of x-rays through crystals. Derive Braggs equation.
Q.6. Explain diffraction of x-rays through crystals. Derive Bragg‟s equation to study crystal
structure.
Superior Group Of Colleges

CHAPTER NO 10:

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


(1) The focal length of the objective of telescope (f o) can be expressed as
M fe 1
(A) (B) (C) M  f e (D)
fe M Mf e
(2) The resolving power of spectrometer of “N” number of rulings is expressed as
m
(A) R = N + m (B) R = (C) R = N x m (D) none of these
N
(3) Which device is used to determine the refractive index of transparent material
(A) microscope (B) periscope (C) spectrometer (D) telescope
(4) In digital modulation the digit 1 shows
(A) absence of signal (B) presence of signal (C) may a or b (D) none of these
(5) Light rays after passing through the convex lens
(A) bent away from the principle axis (B) bent towards principle axis.
(C) remain same (D) none of these
(6) Watch makers uses
(A) convex lens (B) concave lens (C) plano-concave lens (D) mirror
(7) Focal length of convex lens will be maximum for
(A) blue light (B) red light (C) green light (D) yellow light
(8) If the image is at the least distance of the distinct vision then
(A) q = d (B) q= 1/d (C) 1/q = d (D) qd = 1
(9) The image is formed at 2f when the object is placed
(A) behind 2f (B) at f (C) between f and 2f (D) at 2f
(10) If the object is 5mm high and image is 2cm high then the magnification is
(A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 10
(11) For a lens of high magnification the focal length should be
(A) large (B) small (C) of any size (D) none of these
(12) The angular magnification of the compound microscope defined by
tan o tan e 1
(A) (B) (C) tan e  tan o (D)
tan e tan o tan e  tan o
(13) For higher magnification which of the following instrument is used
(A) optical fiber (B) compound microscope
(C) collimator (D) LED
(14) The diverging lens of compound microscope is
(A) eyepiece (B) objective (C) eye (D) none of these
(15) The rays after refraction through the eye piece will become parallel and the final image
appears to be formed at
(A) f (B) 2f (C) between f and 2f (D) infinity
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(16) The resolving power of an astronomical telescope depends on


(A) the focal length of the objective lens
(B) the least distance of distinct vision of the observer
(C) the focal length of the eyepiece
(D) the diameter of the objective lens
(17) For normal adjustment the distance between the objective and eye-piece of a telescope is
(A) fo + fe (B) fo - fe (C) fe - fo (D) none of these
(18) A fixed metallic tube with a convex lens at one end of the spectrometer is called
(A) telescope (B) microscope (C) collimator (D) periscope
(19) Which light can travel faster through the optical fibre
(A) infra-red (B) ultraviolet (C) visible (D) none of these
(20) Snell‟s law is expressed as
1 n1 sin 1 n2 sin  2
(A) sin c  (B) n1 sin 1  n2 sin  2 (C) 0 (D) 0
n2 n1 n2 sin  2 n1 sin 1
(21) Optical fibres are of
(A) 3 types (B) 2 types (C) 4 types (D) 5 types
(22) Cladding is the layer of lower refractive index over central core of
(A) small refractive index (B) high refractive index
(C) zero refractive index (D) none of these
(23) In mono mode step index fibre which source is used to send light through it
(A) dichromatic (B) monochromatic (C) polychromatic (D) none of these
(24) Single mode step index fibre can handle
(A) 10 T.V channels (B) 14 T.V channels (C) 12 T.V channels (D) 16 T.V channels
(25) Multi mode graded index fibre has core of relatively
(A) high density (B) low density (C) zero density (D) none of these
(26) In multimode graded index fibre core and cladding has boundary
(A) noticeably (B) no boundary (C) no noticeably (D) none of these
(27) Multimode step index fibre has a core of relatively larger diameter such as
(A) 25μm (B) 100 μm (C) 75 μm (D) 50 μm
(28) The final image formed by simple microscope is
(A) Virtual and inverted (B) virtual and erect
(C) real and erect (D) real and inverted
(29) The refractive index of water is 1.33. The speed of light in water is
(A) 3 108 ms 1
1 1
(B) 1.8 10 ms (C) 2.3  10 ms
8 8
(D) zero
(30) The least distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is
(A) 15 cm (B) 25cm (C) 30 cm (D) 40 cm
(31) The normally adjusted telescope, its length is
fo
(A) fo x fe (B) (C) fo + fe (D) None
fe
(32) The optical fiber in which the central core has higher refractive index and its density
gradually decreases towards its periphery is called
(A) Single mode step index fibre (B) Multi mode step index fiber
(C) Multi mode graded index fibre (D) None
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(33) Which is optical instrument?
(A) Telescope (B) Galvanometer (C) Ammeter (D) Avometer
(34) The resolving power of a lens is expressed by a relation?
D  
(A)  min  1.22 (B)  min  1.22 (C)  min  1.22D (D)  min  1.52
 D D
(35) The magnification of a convex lens of focal length 5cm is
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 20
(36) The collimator in a spectrometer is used to
(A) Disperse the light beam (B) Reflect the light beam
(C) Make the beam light parallel (D) Converge the light beam
(37) The power of lens is measured in
(A) Watt (B) Joule (C) Diopter (D) Minutes
(38) A single convex lens can be used as a
(A) simple microscope (B) simple telescope
(C) Prism (D) diffraction grating
(39) An optical fibre carries data in the form of
(A) light signals (B) sound signals (C) waves (D) particles
(40) The magnifying power of a simple microscope is
 d  d  f   f 
(A) 1   (B) 1   (C) 1   (D) 1  
 f   f   d  d
(41) The optical fibers are of
(A) Two types (B) Three types (C) Four types (D) Five types
(42) A double convex lens acts as a diverging lens when the object is
(A) Inside the focus (B) Plane wave front
(C) At a range distance (D) Between f and 2f
(43) The diameter of single mode step index fiber is
(A) 10 µ m (B) 50 µ m (C) 100 µ m (D) 5 µ m
(44) The magnifying power of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm is
(A) 7 (B) 9.6 (C) 11 (D) 3.5
(45) For the phenomenon of total internal reflection, the angle of incidence should be
(A) Equal to critical angle (B) Smaller than critical angle
(C) Greater than critical angle (D) Zero
(46) The light emitted from LED has a wavelength
(A) 1.3 pm (B) 1.3m (C) 1.3mm (D) 1.3m
o
(47) At some angle of incidence when the angle of refraction becomes 90 , this angle is called
(A) Phase angle (B) Incident angle (C) Refractive angle (D) Critical angel
(48) The least distance of distinct vision is
(A) 5cm (B) 10cm (C) 25cm (D) 50cm
(49) The magnifying power of a simple Microscope is
 d  d  f  f
(A) 1   (B) 1   (C) 1   (D) 1  
 f  f  d  d
(50) A transparent refracting medium bounded by two curved surfaced is called
(A) Lens (B) Glass (C) Mirror (D) Prism
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(51) A real object placed inside the focus of a convex lens gives
(A) Real image but diminished (B) Real image but enlarged
(C) Virtual image but diminished (D) Virtual image but enlarged
(52) Television signals are converted into light signals by
(A) Decoder (B) Transistor (C) Photodiode (D) Optical fibre

SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1 What do you understand by linear magnification and angular magnification? Explain how a
convex lens is used as a magnifier?
Q.2 Explain the difference between angular magnification and resolving power of an optical
instrument. What limits the magnification of an optical instrument?
Q.3 Why would it be advantageous to use blue light with
Q.4 One can buy a cheap microscope for use by the children. The images seen in such a
microscope have coloured edges. Why is this so?
Q.5 Describe with the help of diagrams, how (A) a single biconvex lens can be used as a
magnifying glass. (B) biconvex lenses can be arranged to form a microscope.
Q.6 If a person was looking through a telescope at the full moon, how would the appearance of
the moon be changed by covering half of the objective lens.
Q.7 A magnifying glass gives a five times enlarged image at distance of 25cm from the lens. Find,
by ray diagram, the focal length of the lens.
Q.8 Identify the correct answer.
(i) The resolving power of a compound microscope depends on:
(A) Length of the microscope
(B) The diameter of the objective lens.
(C) The diameter of the eye piece.
(D) The position of an observers eye with regard to the eye lens.
(ii) The resolving power of an astronomical telescope depends on:
(a) The focal length of the objective lens.
(b) The least distance of distinct vision of the observer.
(c) The focal length of the eye lens.
(d) The diameter of the objective lens.
Q.9 Draw sketches showing the different light paths through a single – mode and multimode fibre.
Why is the single mode fibre preferred in telecommunication.
Q.10 How the light signal is transmitted through the optical fibre?
Q.11 How the power is lost in optical fibre through dispersion? Explain.
Q.12 Write different type of optical fibers?
Q.13 In a compound microscope magnifications of objective and eyepiece are 5 and 50
respectively. What is the total magnification of microscope?
Q.14 Name the three essential components of a spectrometer?
Q.15 Define Refractive index. Write its two mathematical forms.
Q.16 Define least distance of distinct vision. How it is affected with increase of age?
Q.17 What is Snell‟s Law?
Q.18 The objective of a telescope is of 20cm and eye piece of 5.0cm focal length. What is
magnifying power and length of telescope?
Q.19 Define critical Angle?
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Q.20 Why objective of short focal length is preferred in microscope?
Q.21 What is spectrometer used for?
Q.22 What is multimode step index fiber?
Q.23 Draw the ray diagram of astronomical telescope.
Q.24 What is the function of collimator in a spectrometer?
Q.25 Why we use infra-red light in a fibre optic communication system?
Q.26 What is the principle of optical fiber?
Q.27 What should be length of telescope if f o = 20 cm and f e = 4 cm?
Q.28 Define resolving power of an instrument. Give its mathematical expression.
1
Q.29 In simple microscope, the focal length of its lens is d where d is the least distance of
5
vision. Find its magnifying power.
Q.30 Focal length of a convex lens is 5 cm. calculate its magnification.
LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. Define and explain Simple Microscope.
Q.2. Define Compound microscope. Describe its construction, working and find its
magnifying power.
Q.3. What is an Astronomical telescope? Find its magnifying power.
Q.4. What is spectrometer? Explain its all parts.
Q.5. Explain Michelson‟s method for measurement of speed of light.
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Superior Group Of Colleges

CHAPTER NO 11:

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


(1) For mono-atomic
3R
(2) gas CV  , therefore γ for this gas is
2
3 3 5 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 5 3 4
(3) Explosion is an example of
(A) highly reversible process (B) highly irreversible process
(C) slowly irreversible process (D) cyclic process
(4) The melting of ice is an example of
(A) irreversible (B) reversible (C) adiabatic (D) isochoric
(5) An ideal heat engine has
(A) 100% efficiency (B) highest efficiency
(C) an efficiency which depends on the nature of working substances
(D) zero efficiency
(6) As the entropy of universe increases so a stage will come when there will left no way to
convert heat into useful work thus we might face
(A) heat death (B) universal death (C) earth death (D) all of these
(7) At constant pressure the graph between V and T is
(A) hyperbola (B) parabola (C) ellipse (D) straight line
(8) In all real processes where heat transfer occurs, the energy available for doing work
(A) increases (B) decreases (C) remain constant (D) none of these
(9) The temperature at which all the gases become liquid is called
(A) absolute zero (B) absolute celcius (C) triple point (D) 00 Fahrenheit
(10) Which of the following relation holds for CP – CV = R
(A) CV  CP (B) CV  CP (C) CV  CP (D) CV  CP
(11) The sum of all forms of molecular energy present in a thermodynamic system is called
its
(A) Environmental energy (B) Temperature (C) Heat (D) Internal energy
(12) Work done by the system on its environment is taken as
(A) positive (B) negative (C) neutral (D) none of these
(13) The work done can also be calculated by the area of the curve under
(A) P-V graph (B) V-T graph (C) P-T graph (D) P-1/V graph
(14) The relation for the work done by the system can be expressed as
(A) W= AΔV (B) W= PΔV (C) W=AΔP (D) W= PΔA
(15) Compressed air coming out of punctured football becomes cooler because of
(A) isothermal expansion (B) adiabatic expansion
(C) energy dissipation (D) adiabatic compression
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(16) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one mole of substance through
1 Kelvin is called
(A) Specific heat (B) molar specific heat
(C) specific heat at constant volume (D) Heat capacity
(17) Work done against friction is a
(A) reversible process (B) irreversible process (C) adiabatic process (D) isobaric process
(18) All changes which occur suddenly or which involve friction or dissipation of energy are
(A) Reversible (B) adiabatic (C) isothermal (D) irreversible
(19) The oceans and our atmosphere contain large amount of heat energy but it cannot be
converted into useful
(A) chemical work (B) mechanical work (C) electrical work (D) power
(20) On which factor the efficiency of Carnot engine depends upon
(A) temperature of sink (B) temperature of source
(C) both a & b (D) working substance
(21) If the temperature of the sink is decreased then the efficiency of the Carnot engine
(A) decreases (B) increases (C) remain same (D) zero
(22) Carnot cycle is an example of
(A) isothermal process (B) adiabatic process
(C) irreversible process (D) reversible process
(23) All Carnot engines operating between the same two temperatures have
(A) same efficiency (B) zero efficiency
(C) maximum efficiency (D) depend upon the nature of working
substances
(24) The concept of entropy was introduced into the study of thermodynamics by
(A) Lord Kelvin (B) Sadi Carnot
(C) Graham (D) Rudolph Clausius
(25) The relation for entropy is expressed as (FSD 2018)
T Q T
(A) S  (B) S  (C) S  (D) S  Q  T
Q T Q
(26) The unit of entropy is
(A) J K-1 (B)J K (C) J K-1 s-1 (D) J-1K-1
(27) The concept of entropy was introduced in
(A) 1840 (B) 1897 (C) 1756 (D) 1856
(28) The efficiency of petrol engine is about
(A) 25% – 30% (B) 30% – 35% (C) 10% – 30% (D) 35% – 40%
(29) Value of triple point of water is given as:
(A) zero K (B) 100 K (C) 273.16 K (D) 373.16 K
(30) The process which is carried out at constant temperature is called
(A) Isothermal (B) Adiabatic (C) Isochoric (D) Isobaric
(31) The value of „‟ for diatomic gas is
(A) 1.67 (B) 1.40 (C) 1.29 (D) infinity
(32) The value of triple point of water is given by
(A) 373.16 K (B) 285.16 K (C) 273.16 K (D) 300.16 K
Superior Group Of Colleges
(33) Entropy remains constant in
(A) An isothermal process (B) Adiabatic process
(C) Isobaric process (D) Isochoric process
(34) The Celsius scale starts from
(A) 32oF (B) 273oK (C) 0oC (D) 373oK
(35) An ideal heat engine can only be 100% efficient of its exhaust temperature is
(A) 100oC (B) 0oC
(C) 0 K (D) temperature of hot reservoir
(36) In an irreversible process, there is
(A) a decrease in entropy (B) no change in entropy
(C) an increase in entropy (D) no change of state
(37) The change in entropy of a system is given by
Q T 1
(A) s  (B) s  Q  T (C) s  (D) s 
T Q Q  T
(38) The efficiency of diesel engine is about
(A) 25% to 30% (B) 35% to 40% (C) 40% to 50% (D) 50% to 60%
(39) Pressure of the gas depends upon
(A) Only on molecular speed
(B) Only on mass of molecule
(C) Only on number of the molecules in a unit volume
(D) Number of molecules in unit volume, mass and speed of molecules
(40) No entropy change is associated with
(A) Isothermal process (B) Adiabatic process (C) Isochoric process (D) Boyle‟s law

(41) The ratio of Cp/Cv for diatomic gas is


(A) 1.67 (B) 1.50 (C) 1.40 (D) 1.29
(42) The highest efficiency of a heat engine whose lower temperature is at 17 oC and the
higher temperature of 200oC is
(A) 70% (B) 60% (C) 38% (D) 35%
(43) A process in which no heat enters or leaves the system is called
(A) Isothermal process (B) Adiabatic process (C) Isochoric process (D) Isobaric process
(44) The curve representing an adiabatic process is called an:
(A) Isotherm (B) Adiabat (C) Adiabatic (D) Isothermal
3R
(45) For monatomic gas C v  , therefore „  ‟ for this gas is:
2
3 4 15 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 15 4 3
(46) One of the following is true for Carnot engine:
(A)   1 (B)   1 (C)   1 (D) Power is max
(47) Which one is true for an isothermal process?
(A) Q = W (B) Q = 0 (C) W = 0 (D) W = U
(48) The concept of entropy was introduced by Rudolph Clausius in:
(A) 1840 (B) 1856 (C) 1857 (D) 1905
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(49) The efficiency of carnot engine depends on the
(A) size of the engine (B) construction of the engine
(C) temperature of hot and cold reservoirs (D) nature of working substance
(50) The change is entropy of a system is given by
Q T 1
(A) S  (B) S  Q  T (C) S  (D) S 
T Q Q  T
(51) In Thermodynamics, the change in the Internal Energy depends upon
(A) The Initial State only (B) The Final State only
(C) The path taken between these two states (D) The Initial and Final State
(52) Heat Engine is a device which converts
(A) Heat Energy into Chemical Energy (B) Heat Energy into Mechanical Energy
(C) Heat Energy into Electrical Energy (D) Heat Energy into Potential Energy
(53) In reversible process, entropy
(A) Remains constant (B) Decreases Gradually
(C) Increases (D) First decreases than increases

SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1 Why is the average velocity of the molecules in a gas zero but the average of the square of
velocities is not zero?
Q.2 Why does the pressure of a gas in a car tyre increase when it is driven through some distance?
Q.3 A system undergoes form state P1 V1 to state P2 V2 as shown in fig 11.12. What will be the
change in internal energy?

P1

Constant
P Temperature

P2

V1 V V2

Q.4 Variation of volume by pressure is given in Fig. A gas is taken along the paths ABCDA,
ABCA and A to A. What will be the change in internal energy?
U  ?
A B A B
A
P P P

C
D V C V V

Q.5 Specific heat of a gas at constant pressure is greater than specific heat at constant volume.
Why?
Q.6 Given an example of a process in which no heat is transferred to or from the system but the
temperature of the system changes.
Q.7 Is it possible to convert internal energy into mechanical energy? Explain with an example.
Q.8 Is it possible to construct a heat engine that will not expel heat into the atmosphere?
Superior Group Of Colleges
Q.9 A thermos flask containing milk as a system is shaken rapidly. Does the temperature of milk
rise?
Q.10 What happens to the temperature of the room, when an air conditioner is left running on a
table in the middle of the room?
Q.11 Can the mechanical energy be converted completely into heat energy? If so given an example.
Q.12 Does entropy of a system increases or decreases due to friction?
Q.13 Give an example of a natural process that involves an increase in entropy.
Q.14 An adiabatic change is the one in which
a. No heat is added to or taken out of a system
b. No change of temperature takes place
c. Boyle‟s law is applicable
d. Pressure and volume remains constant
Q.15 Which one of the following process is irreversible?
Q.16 An ideal reversible heat engine has
Q.17 Differentiate between reversible and irreversible process?
Q.18 Derive Charles Law from kinetic theory of Gas molecules.
Q.19 What is triple point of water?
Q.20 A molecule of gas having mass „m‟ moving with velocity v collides with wall of container
and rebounds. What is the change in momentum?
Q.21 State Law of increases of entropy.
Q.22 Define molar specific heat of a gas at constant volume and at constant pressure?
Q.23 Define Entropy and give its unit.
Q.24 Define internal energy.
Q.25 Derive Boyle‟s Law from Kinetic theory of gases?
Q.26 Define isothermal and adiabatic process.
Q.27 Calculate the efficiency of Carnot engine working between temperature 450 K and 300K.
Q.28 Is it possible to construct a heat engine that will not expel heat into atmosphere?
Q.29 Describe why the pressure of a gas in a car type increases when it is driven through some
distance?
Q.30 Write four points of kinetic theory of gasses.
Q.31 CP > CV. Why?
Q.32 Show that CP - CV= R .
Q.33 What is diesel engine? Explain.
Q.34 Draw schematic diagram of refrigerator.
Q.35 No spark plug is used in Diesel Engine. How it gets ignition.
Q.36 Why adiabatic is steeper than isothermal?
Q.37 Explain bicycle pump as an example of first law of thermodynamics.
LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. Derive the relations for pressure and temperature in terms of average Kinetic energy of
the molecules.
Q.2. Define molar specific heat, molar specific heat at constant volume and molar specific
heat at constant pressure. Prove that .
Q.3. What is Carnot Engine and Carnot‟s theorem? Explain Carnot cycle and find efficiency
of Carnot Engine.
Q.4. Explain the working of Petrol engine and Diesel engine.
Q.5. Explain entropy and second law of thermodynamics.


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