QP End Term - July To Nov. 2017

I.D. No.
___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER - 2017
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-I
Law of Contract-I
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried by
each question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
a. Differentiate between ‘Void agreement’ and ‘Void contract’.
b. If the acceptance and its revocation come to the knowledge of the proposer at the same time, which
will be effective? Is there anything in the Indian Contract Act, 1872 to substantiate your answer?
c. Which factor/factors in the Indian Contract Act, 1872 negates/negate the requirement of intention
to create contract in India?
d. Can a minor ratify his agreement after attaining majority?
e. Why the consequence of consent caused by undue influence is provided under section 19-A of the
Indian Contract Act, 1872, whereas the consequences of coercion, fraud and misrepresentation are
provided under section 19?
f. How can you correlate inadequacy of consideration with undue influence?
g. Who said that the public policy is an unruly horse, and why?
h. Give an illustration of anticipatory breach of a contingent contract.
i. Two co-widows mutually agree that one who will remarry, lose the right in deceased husband’s
estate. Examine the nature of this agreement.
j. Under the common law principle, when the special damages can be recovered? Give one
illustration.
2. (a) Discuss the law relating to communication of acceptance by instantaneous modes of
communication. Examine whether the same law also applies to e-contract in India? (Marks 06)
(b) A made an offer from Raipur by telephone to B at New Delhi to purchase a software and it was
duly accepted. State whether the conversation resulted in a contract at Raipur or at New Delhi.
(Marks 04)
3. (a)Discuss the doctrine of restitution in relation to a minor’s agreement. Can it be applied to money in
India? (Marks 06)
(b) Why the money lender in the case of Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose could not be benefited
from sections 64 and 65 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 and section 41 of the Specific Relief Act,
1877 (section 33 of 1963)? (Marks 04)
4. “Although a contract is a private relationship between the parties who make it and the third party
generally do not acquire any right nor incur any liability under it, yet under certain circumstances the
legitimate exception of the third parties are fulfilled.” Elaborate. (Marks 10)
5. (a)While defining undue influence, discuss the circumstances under which a person said to be in a
position to dominate the will of the other. (Marks 06)
(b)Differentiate between undue influence and coercion. (Marks 04)
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6. (a) Discuss the circumstances under which an agreement in restraint of trade is valid. (Marks 06)
(b) A agreed to become an assistant for three years to B, who was a physician practicing at New Delhi.
The appointment was subject to the clause against practicing. A left the service within a year and began
to practice there on his own account. B sues A to restrain him from practicing. Would ‘B’ succeed?
(Marks 04)
7. (a) “The Quasi contracts aim to prevent unjust enrichment.” Discuss the statement in the light of
relevant case laws and provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. (Marks 06)
(b)In order to avoid eviction A, who is the tenant of B, paid to Nagar Mahapalika the house tax which
was legally payable by B. Thereafter, A sues B to recover the amount of house tax paid by him. B
defends himself by saying that he had never agreed to pay this amount to A. Decide. (Marks 04)
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I.D. No.___________________

B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-III
Family Law-II
1. Explain the following (each explanation should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210= 20)
a. Alienation of Coparcenary property by father
b. Doctrine of Alu (Increase) and Rudd (return)
c. Doctrine of Marz-ul-maut
d. Essentials of will under Mohammedan Law
e. Full –blood preferred to half-blood
f. Rights of infant
g. Role of Karta under Hindu Coparcenaries
h. Procedures of Re-opening of Partition
i. What do you mean by adoption of a legacy?
j. Explain Void Bequest
2. Give Reasons:-
a. A, a Mohammedan executes a deed of gift in favour of ‘B’ containing the words ‘so long as I
live I shall enjoy and possess the property and I shall not sell or make gift to anyone, but after
my death you will be the owner Is the gift valid? (Marks 5)
b. A Muslim woman X owned an undivided share in an immovable property, capable of division,

executed a gift deed of this share in favour of her two nephews B and C, who were to pay her
Rs. 10,000/- per year for her maintenance. If they failed to pay she could recover it by filing
suit against them. Is it a valid transaction? (Marks 5)
3. Give Reasons:-
a. ‘A’ a Hindu dies in 1960 leaving behind widows W1 and W2 mother M, two sons S1 and S2
and two daughters D1 and D2. Explain their respective shares. (Marks 5)
b. ‘F’- an unmarried Hindu female dies in intestate. Her real sister, real brother and stepmother
claim shares in the property of ‘F’ what will be the shares of each of them? (Marks 5)
4. Answer the following:
(a) Define Hiba. Discuss the capacity to make Hiba with essential elements. How a person revoke
Hiba? (Marks 5)
(b) What are the procedures of Nafaqa of divorced women? Discuss the provisions under the
Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986. (Marks 5)
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5. What are the rights of Hindu female to adopt a child? Discuss the provisions for adoption under the
Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act 1956. (Marks 10)
6. Elaborate with leading and recent case laws Women’s gains in inheritance and property rights
under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956. (Marks 10)
7. Write short notes on the following:-

a. Absolute Property.
b. General principles of Sunni & Shia Law of inheritance. (Marks 5+5=10)
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I.D. No.___________________

B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-V
Jurisprudence-I
1. Explain the following (each explanation should be in approximately 100 words)

(Marks 210=20)
a. Living Law
b. Primary Rules and Secondary Rules
c. Expositorial and Censorial jurisprudence.
d. Social Solidarity.
e. Jural Postulates
f. Static Societies and Progressive Societies
g. Interrelation between Law and Justice
h. Law as a Hierarchy of Norms
i. Father Complex Theory
j. New Economic approach of Jurisprudence
2. “Law grows with the growth, and strengthens with the strength of the people, and finally dies away
as the nation loses its nationality”. In the light of given statement, discuss the theory of Volksgeist
propounded by F.K.Von Savigny. Also highlight the merits and demerits of Volksgeist theory.
(Marks 10)
3. “Aim of social engineering is to build an efficient structure of society with maximum satisfaction
and minimum wastage“. In the light of above statement explains Sociological School of Law and
its application in India. (Marks 10)
4. “A rule laid down for the intelligent being by an intelligent being having power over him”. Explain
this statement with reference to John Austin’s Theory of Law. Also point out the major criticisms
of Austin’s Theory and its relevance in Indian Context (Marks 10)
5. Trace the evolution and development of ‘Natural Law Theories’ from the ancient to the
contemporary times. Also discuss the significance of Natural Law in the modern times.
(Marks 10)
6. “The Prophecies of what the courts will do in fact and nothing more pretentious are what I mean
by the law.” Explain the statement with reference to the main features and significance of
American Realism. Also discuss the application of American Realism in Indian Legal System.
(Marks 10)
7. Write Short Notes on the following:- (Marks 5+5=10)
a. Scandinavian Realist and American Realist
b. Distributive Justice and Corrective Justice
*******
I.D. No.___________________

B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VII & IX
CG (Hons.-I)-Compensatory Discrimination
a. Protective Discrimination and Reverse Discrimination
b. Sanskritisation of Caste
c. Horizontal Reservation and Vertical Reservation
d. Impact of Migration on Reservation
e. Protection Officer under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
f. Objectives of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1976
g. Adequate Representation does not mean Proportional Reservation
h. Impact of Adoption on Reservation
i. Judicial Approach towards Reservation in Super-Speciality Courses
j. Justification for Exclusion of Creamy Layer from benefits of Reservation Policy
2. “The Backward Class of citizens are classified as a separate category deserving a separate
treatment and reservation in appointments (posts) in the services of the State. Therefore Article
16(4) is to be read along with Article 16(1) and is a facet of Article 16(1). At the same time the
doctrine of equality is not to be eroded away and the concept of equality needs to be preserved and
administrative efficiency should be kept in view while giving preferential treatment to Backward
Classes.” In the light of given statement critically examine the judicial decisions in the following
cases and give your own comments analysing the impact of the decisions:
a. General Manager, Southern Railway v. Rangachari AIR 1962 SC 36
b. Balaji v. State of Mysore AIR 1963 SC 649
c. T. Devadasan v. UOI AIR 1964 SC 179
d. State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas AIR 1976 SC 490 (Marks 2.5×4=10)
3. “Caste is a brahmanic child of Indo-Aryan Culture cradled in the land of the Ganges and hence
transferred to other parts of India”. In the light of given statement explain the Aryan Origin Theory
and the influence of the Aryan Culture on the origin and development of Caste System in India.
Also point out the merits and demerits highlighted by various authors with respect to the Caste
System. (Marks 10)
4. “The Private Educational Institutions are a necessity in the present day context. It is not possible to
do without them. They need to have autonomy to regulate their own administration and fee
structure. At the same time the private unaided educational institutions are allowed to make profits
but not profiteering.” In the light of given statement critically examine the judicial decisions in the
following cases and give your own comments by analysing the impact of the decisions on private
unaided educational institutions:
a. Unnikrishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh 1993
b. The Pai Foundation Case 2002
c. Islamic Academy of Education v. State of Karnataka 2003
d. P.A. Inamdar v. State of Maharashtra 2005 (Marks 2.5×4=10)
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5. “The areas inhabited by aboriginals are given a different treatment from the rest of the country as
the scheduled tribes and aboriginals are having different patterns of living and are socially and
economically backward.” In the light of given statement explain the meaning of Scheduled Tribes.
Discuss the various provisions in Indian Constitution for the administration of Scheduled Areas
and Tribal Areas. (Marks 10)
6. Explain the Following:- (Marks 5+5=10)

a. Salient Features of The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Prevention of Atrocities
Act, 1989 highlighting its merits and demerits
b. Reservation in Judicial Services
7. “Women have always been discriminated against and have suffered discrimination in silence. It is
necessary to take ameliorative steps so that women as a class may make progress and are able to
remove their disabilities as soon as possible.”In the light of given statement examine the various
constitutional provisions and judicial decisions for the protection of rights of women in India.
(Marks 10)
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I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VII & IX
T&I (Hons.-I) - NRIT
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words): (Marks 2×10=20)
a. What do you understand by the general restrictions on exports with reference to Foreign Trade
Policy 2015-20?
b. Why DGFT is known as a facilitator of exports/imports under Foreign Trade Policy?
c. What do you understand by Res extra commercium?
d. What is the role of Export Inspection Councils in India?
e. What do you understand by Direct Exporting and Indirect Exporting?
f. Discuss the differences between Licensing and Franchising.
g. What do you understand by De-bonding with reference to EOUs? How it is related with NFE
criteria?
h. Comment on the advisory bodies under the administrative control of Department of
Commerce, GOI.
i. What is the object and legal basis of current Foreign Trade Policy?
j. Comment on Foreign Venture Capital and its regulation in India.
2. In the case of Amar Chandra Chakraborty v. Collector of Excise decided by the Hon’ble Supreme
Court of India it was observed by Justice I.D. Dua that, “in the determination of reasonableness of
restrictions on trade or business regard must be had to its nature, the conditions prevailing in it
and its impact on the society as a whole. These factors must inevitably differ from trade to trade
and no general rule governing all trades or businesses is possible to lay down. The right to carry
on lawful trade or business is subject to such reasonable conditions as may be considered essential
by the appropriate authority for the safety, health, peace, order and morals of the society.”
In the light of abovementioned observation write an explanatory note on the Fundamental Right to
Trade with restrictions over it in Indian scenario. (Marks 10)
3. Justice Swatantra Kumar in the case of Competition Commission of India v. SAIL observed that,
“the rationale of the free market economy is that the competitive offers of different suppliers allow
the buyers to make the best purchase. The motivation of each participant in a free market economy
is to maximise self-interest but the result is favourable to society. As Adam Smith observed there is
an invisible hand at work to take care of this.”This observation is applicable at domestic as well as
international level from trade and commerce point of view, in context of specialisation. In the light
of this observation critically analyse the theory of absolute advantage and comparative advantage.
(Marks 10)
4. On securing Rank 100 out of 190 economies in the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business global
rankings, Annette Dixon, World Bank Vice President, South Asia announced World Bank's stamp
on the reforms initiated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. She said, "India stands out this year as
one of the 10 economies that improved the most in the areas. The alone country in South Asia and
even the BRICS to do that." In this background write a descriptive note on the salient features of
Foreign Trade Policy 2015-20. (Marks 10)
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5. Discuss the following: (Marks 5+5=10)
a. Write a descriptive note on the import and export procedure under the Customs Act, 1962.
b. Write a descriptive note on the salient features of Foreign Exchange and Management Act,
1999.
6. ‘SEZ is basically an enclave of Units operating in a distinct area within the geographical
boundary of a Nation where specific economic activities are promoted by set of policy and
regulatory measures.’
In this background write a descriptive note on the legal framework for Special Economic Zones in
Indian scenario and also discuss the key issues still to resolve related with it. (Marks 10)
7. The main aim of current Foreign Trade Policy is to increase export and for this the objective of the
Export Promotion Capital Goods Scheme (EPCG) is to facilitate import of capital goods for
producing quality goods and services to enhance India’s export competitiveness. In this background
write an analytical note on the Export Promotion Capital Goods scheme and relevant case laws.
(Marks 10)
*******
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I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VII & IX
CLS (Hons.-I) - Corporate Reconstruction
a. What do you understand by “White Knight Defence”?
b. Discuss different types of due diligence.
c. Explain the concept of Deemed Direct Acquisition.
d. What do you mean by outbound merger? Current cross-border merger provision of the
Companies Act, 2013 cannot be implemented until its flaws are removed. Do you agree with
the statement? Give reasons
e. Is acquisition of Convertible Securities covered under Takeover Code, 2011? Are there any
disclosure requirements of such convertible securities? Give legal reasoning for your answer.
f. What does Organizational Strategy means?
g. When voluntary offer does gets converted into mandatory offer?
h. State the objectives of corporate reconstruction.
i. Company XYZ came up with an open offer in the market but due to certain circumstances
company decided to revise the offer size. Can they do so? If yes then till what day revision can
be done and if no then what is the reason for the same.
j. What do you understand by Co-generic Merger?
2. What is the difference between Offer Period and Tendering Period? Also discuss in detail the
entire Open Offer Process to be followed by a company under SEBI (Substantial Acquisition and
Takeover) Regulation, 2011 with the help relevant case laws. (Marks 10)
3. Define Joint Venture? Is it defined under the Companies Act, 2013? How is Joint Venture
regulated in India? Is there a law to regulate it? Discuss. Also deal with different types of Joint
Venture.
If you are a legal advisor of Andheri Ltd, a company incorporated in India; who wants to form a
joint venture with a foreign company Liliput Association. Which type of joint venture would you
suggest them and why? (Marks 10)
4. Goli Ltd., a rubber manufacturing company is a majority shareholder of Roli Pvt Ltd. Goli Ltd
decided to merge with Roli Pvt. Ltd, which manufacture tyres and also a subsidiary of Goli Ltd.
What kind of merger will this be? Can they go for Fast Track Merger? Give reason. Also discuss in
detail the merger procedure given under the Companies Act, 2013. (Marks 10)
5. Explain the following-
a. What is the offer size of voluntary, mandatory and competing offer?
b. Can application of Demerger be filed under Section 180 of the Companies Act? Give reason
for your answer along with the case law.
c. How Central Government can compel to companies to merge? Explain the reason and process
of such merger. (Marks 2.5+2.5+5=10)
6. Decision of merger does not only change the company’s structure and functioning but affects its
employees and human resources. Discuss economic and human aspects of Merger with the help of
recent instances and case laws as relevant. (Marks 10)
7. Discuss the Squeezing-out mechanism of minority as given under the Companies Act, 2013 with
the help of relevant provisions and case laws. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________

B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VII & IX
Intellectual Property Rights (Hons.-I) – Patent
a. What are the justifications for granting patent monopoly?
b. What are the salient features of Budapest Treaty, 1977?
c. What do you mean by ‘any hardware approach’ for patenting of computer programs?
d. What constitutes ’prior use’?
e. What are the powers of controller relating to patent application?
f. Briefly discuss revocation of patent in public interest?
g. What do you mean by patent linkage?
h. What are the rights of a patentee?
i. What do you mean by ‘priority date’ and ‘unity of invention’?
j. Briefly discuss Section 92 A of the Patent Act, 1970.
2. Discuss the changes brought out in the standards of patentability in the Indian Patent Act by the
2005 Amendment. Refer to sections 2(j), (l), (ja), 3(d), (e) and (f). Also refer to the case of
Novartis AG v. Union of India. (Marks 10)
3. “Animals are potentially patentable so long as the application does not attempt to patent an animal
variety, i.e. an invention relating to an animal may be patentable, so long as the technical aspect of
the invention does not reside in a particular animal variety”. Discuss the above statement with
reference to Harvard Oncomouse case. Also refer to the view of Indian Courts on Patentability of
biological inventions. (Marks 10)
4. (a)What is doctrine of ‘Pith and Marrow’ for determination of infringement of patent? How far do
you agree with the view that it is a bit vague doctrine?
(b) Discuss the relevance of the ‘doctrine of equivalence’ adopted by American Courts.
(Marks 5+5=10)
5. (a)“Working of patent could mean local manufacture entirely and working in some cases could
mean only importation. It would depend on the facts and evidence of each case.” Discuss the
above with reference to grounds for issuance of compulsory license. Also refer to case law.
(b) Discuss the procedure to obtain compulsory licenses under the Patent Act, 1970.
(Marks 5+5=10)
6. Discuss the validity of the following:- (Marks 5+5=10)

a. Importation of a product from another country without the permission of the patent holder
after legally purchasing it from an authorized person in the other country.
b. The use of a patented invention without the consent of the patent holder for the purpose of
acquiring governmental approval.
7. Write notes on the following:- (Marks 5+5=10)

a. Opposition of a patent application
b. Examination of a patent application.
******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VII & IX
Criminal Law (Hons.-I) - Criminal Justice System
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried
by each question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words): (Marks 210=20)
a. Role of mens rea in Determining Criminal Liability
b. Vicarious Liability under Criminal Law in India
c. Right against Self-incrimination as Human Right
d. Judicial Response over Need of Speedy Trial
e. Media trial of cases of child abuse
f. Need of Juvenile Justice
g. Purpose of Punishment
h. Victims Compensation Scheme
i. Role of Correctional Institutions
j. Role of Police in Criminal Justice System
2. “The law of conspiracy is a branch of jurisprudence to be narrowly watched, to be zealously

regarded and never to be pressed beyond its true limits.” In the light of above statement examines
the need and relevance of offence of criminal conspiracy under India criminal law. (Marks 10)
3. The death penalty debate is one of the most socially relevant debate, keeping in mind the
circumstances that have been brought about by the 21st century. One section argues for its
abolition and other for its existence. What do you think, it should be abolished or should it
continue to exist in India? Justify your answer. (Marks 10)
4. What do you mean by juvenile delinquency? Do you think the Juvenile Justice (Care and
Protection of Children) Act, 2015is unfair to the victims of crime at the hands of juveniles?
Comment. (Marks10)
5. Why should an offender be punished? What are various theories of punishment and how far these
theories are relevant in present context? Elucidate. (Marks 10)
6. What is the need of organization of prison? Does emphasis shifted from custody to training and re-
education of prisoners in such organization? How far you agree that the role of prisons in Indian
has radically changed over the years and now they are no longer regarded as mere custodial
institutions. (Marks 10)
7. “Police force in India is far from efficient, it is defective in training and organization, it is
inadequately supervised, it is generally regarded as corrupt and oppressive, and it has utterly failed
to secure the confidence and cordial cooperation of the people.” In the light of above sentence
examine various attempts made by the government to reform police system in country.
(Marks10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-I
Political Science (Major): Political theory
a. Post-Behaviouralism
b. Philosophical Method
c. Nation-State
d. Rousseau’s General Will
e. Laski’s view on Liberalism
f. De jure and De facto Sovereignty
g. Deliberative Democracy
h. Mill’s view on Freedom of Action
i. Ronald Dworkin’s Theory of Equality
j. Amartya Sen’s Theory of Justice
2. Describe the Structural-Functional approach propounded by Almond and Powell. (Marks 10)
3. Discuss Marxist view of Politics. (Marks 10)
4. Explain Locke’s Theory of Social Contract. (Marks 10)
5. Critically examine Liberal theory of the state. (Marks 10)
6. Analyse the John Rawls’ Theory of Justice. (Marks 10)
7. Write short notes on any two of the following:- (Marks 5×2=10)

a. Scope of Political Science
b. J. M. Keynes view on functions of State
c. Representative democracy
*******
I.D. No.___________________

B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-III
Sociology (Minor): Indian Society- Structure & Processes
a. Socio-Cultural Importance of Vedas
b. Occupational Theory of Caste
c. Tribal Panchsheel
d. Domestic Violence
e. Radical Feminism
f. Criteria of Mate Selection in Tribes
g. Gender
h. Form of Caste in Muslim Period
i. Varna System
j. Women Empowerment Movement
2. Write short notes on any two of the following: - (Marks 5×2=10)

a. Ketkars theory of origin of caste
b. Changes in tribal marriage
c. Feminism and its types
3. Discuss that tribe is a resource less peasantry as envisaged in the early theories of modernization to
the new thrust that tribe is a category sustained self sufficiency and exertion of identity.
(Marks 10)
4. Discuss the constitutional safeguards to protect the interest of Scheduled Tribes. (Marks 10)
5. Elucidate your answer with examples, caste studied in 1950’s after independence and caste
revisited in the first quarter of 21st century. (Marks 10)
6. What is gender socialization? ‘Gender is the social construct’ discuss. (Marks 10)
7. Discuss ‘Second Wave Feminism’ and its ramification on gender discourse. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________

B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-V
Corporate Law-I
a. Certificate of incorporation.
b. Pre- incorporation contract.
c. Doctrine of Ultra-Virus.
d. Golden rule of framing of prospectus.
e. Pre-emptive issue.
f. Meaning of Allotment of shares.
g. Transmission of shares.
h. Quorum
i. Reissue of forfeited shares
j. Debenture Trust deed.
2. Define a private company. State the special privileges and exemptions enjoyed by a private
company. Also state the procedure of conversion of private company into public company.
(Marks 2+6+2=10)
3. Explain the rule laid down in the case of Royal British Bank v. Turquand and state the exceptions
to the rule with case laws. (Marks 3+7=10)
4. What is prospectus? Mention cases in which prospectus is not required to be issued by a public
company. (Marks 4+6=10)
5. What is meaning of preference share capital of a company? Explain briefly the various kinds of
preference share a company is allowed to issues under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.
(Marks 3+7=10)
6. What is dividend? Explain the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 relating to unpaid and
unclaimed dividend and its payment. (Marks 2+8=10)
7. "Every meeting in order to be valid must be duly convened, legally constituted and properly
conducted".
In the light of above, discuss the requisites of a valid meeting with case laws. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-I
General English & Legal Language
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00
Hrs.
a. Write 24 special (auxiliary) verbs with negative contracted forms
b. Write down the importance of soft skill.
c. Describe the way you communicate with different people.
d. How do manner, choice of words and way of speaking matter in a communication?
e. What are the barriers of communication?
f. Write down the importance of command on language in legal profession.
Write a note on the following:-

g. Stage fright.
h. Body language.
i. Listening skill.
j. Effective communication.
2. (A)Write down the meaning of the following – (Marks 05)

I. Mora Omnia solvit
II. Nemo est supra leges
III. Injuria non excusatinjuriam.
IV. Malus ususestabolendus.
V. Poenaordinaria.
(B) Transcribe 26 letters of English alphabet into English sounds (eg. B=bi:) (Marks 05)
3. Define drafting. Describe the problems of drafting with suggestions for admissible drafting.
(Marks 10)
4. Define conveyancing and write its ingredients. (Marks 10)
5. (a) Supply suitable tense- (Marks 05)

i. She (play) chess now.
ii. He (study) here for 2 years.
iii. We (celebrate) Diwali last month.
iv. The train (arrive) at 10 everyday.
v. She (cut) her finger yesterday.
(b) Change into passive voice- (Marks 05)

i. Has anyone returned your book?
ii. People speak English all over the world.
iii. She broke the cup.
iv. He is repairing the machine.
v. You must send a reply.
6. (a) Write a letter to the editor of a newspaper sharing your views on educational reforms.
(b) Write a precis of the following with a suitable title –
The great advantage of early rising is the good start it gives us in our day’s work. The early riser
has done a large amount of hard work before other men have got out of bed. In the early morning
the mind is fresh, and there are few sounds or other distractions, so that work done at that time is
generally well done. In many cases the early riser also finds time to take some exercise in fresh
morning air, and this exercise supplies him with a fund of energy that will last until the evening.
By beginning so early he knows that he has plenty of time to do all the work he can be expected
to do and is not tempted to hurry over any part of it. All his work being finished in good time, he
has a long interval of rest in the evening before the timely hour when he goes to bed. He gets to
sleep several hours before midnight, at a time when sleep is most refreshing and after a sound
night’s rest rises early next morning in good health and spirits for the labours of a new day. It is
very plain that such a life as this is far more conducive to health than that of a man who shortens
his working hours by rising late and so can afford in the course of the day little leisure for
necessary rest. Anyone who lies in bed late, must, if he wishes to do a full day’s work, go on
working to a corresponding late hours and deny himself the hour or two of evening exercise that
he ought to take for the benefit of his health. But inspite of all his efforts he will not probably
produce a good result, as the early riser, because he misses the best working hours of the day.
(Marks 5+5)
7. Write an essay on any one in about 400 words:- (Marks 10)

a. My idea to make this world better.
b. Importance of harmony
c. World peace.
*******
I.D. No.___________________

B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-III
Economics (Minor): Law, Poverty & Development
a. Define Law.
b. What is Poverty Line?
c. What is Human Development Index (HDI)?
d. What are the main indicators of development?
e. What do you mean by sustainable development?
f. What are the Minimum Development Goals?
g. What do you mean by Disguised Unemployment?
h. What are the current development schemes of India?
i. What do you mean by migrant labour?
j. Define economic planning.
2. Elaborate the reasons for high population of below poverty in India. What are the various social
security schemes undertaken by the Government of India to alleviate poverty? (Marks 10)
3. Explain the constitutional remedies for enforcement of Human Rights under Indian Constitution?
(Marks 10)
4. Discuss the steps taken by the state to secure Right to Education as a Fundamental Right.
(Marks 10)
5. Discuss features and limitations of the National Food Security Act 2013. (Marks 10)
6. Explain the main functions of National Legal Service Authorities as per National Legal Services
Authorities Act, 1987. (Marks 10)
7. Write Short Notes on any two of the following :- (Marks 5×2=10)

a. ChildLabour in India
b. LokAdalats
c. Right to Information Act 2005
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-V
Political Science (Major): International Relations
Hrs.
a. International Relations and International Politics

b. Causes of World War-I
c. The Marshal Plan
d. Arms Race between USA and USSR
e. The Cuban Missile Crisis
f. The New Cold War
g. US hegemony in the Unipolar World
h. New International Economic Order
i. Climate Change and Sustainable Development
j. Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN)
2. “Discuss the evolution of international relations as a separate subject of study highlighting the
various approaches to studying international relations? (Marks 10)
3. Discuss the causes and consequences of World War-II and explain as to how it had shaped
international relations in the post World War-II period. (Marks 10)
4. Human rights refer to a set of inalienable basic rights of human beings that ensures their dignity
and worth. Discuss the role of United Nations in championing the cause of human rights and its
protection and promotion across the world. (Marks 10)
5. “In contemporary times, terrorism poses the most formidable threat to international peace and
security.” Elaborate. (Marks 10)
6. Write an essay on the structure and functions of the United Nations specifically focusing on the
role and relevance of United Nations Security Council in maintaining international peace and
harmony in contemporary times. (Marks 10)
7. Discuss the basic principles of India’s foreign policy and critically examine India’s relations with
Pakistan over the years. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________

B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VII & IX
CG (Hons.-II)-Federalism
a. Need for the constitution.
b. Distinction lies in constitution and constitutionalism.
c. Distinction in the approach of political scientists and legal scientists in classifying the
Constitutions as federal and unitary.
d. Principle of broad and liberal interpretation of each entry of every list.
e. Comparison between the composition of Niti Ayog and then Planning Commission.
f. Full faith and credit clause.
g. Contingency fund of India.
h. Importance and relevance of federalism.
i. Repugnancy between laws made by Parliament and laws made by legislature of state.
j. Meaning of federalism as suggested by Dicey.
2. Discuss the factors responsible for failure of classical concept of federalism upon which the
American Constitution was based to withhold the stresses of 20th century political evolution
resulting into the movement from competitive to cooperative federalism. (Marks 10)
3. Discuss that makers of Indian Constitution designed for India a federal structure, not with a view
to its conformity with its static or theoretical pattern, but to subserve the needs of a vast and
diverse country like India. (Marks 10)
4. Discuss the following: (Marks 5+5=10)

a. Institutional mechanism for cooperation and conflict resolution between the Union and
States, as also between States and interse.
b. Objections of States that the power exercisable by the Union under Articles 256 and 257
can be destructive of not only the autonomy of federal polity.
5. Analytically discuss the recommendations of Sarkaria Commission on scheme of distribution of

legislative powers between the Union and States. (Marks 10)
6. Discuss the new emerging trend of financial relations between Union and States with reference to
GST. (Marks 10)
7. Discuss that to preserve the basic freedoms of the individual and protect the little men against the
excesses of state, the Constitution should be permeated with Constitutionalism. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VII & IX
T&I (Hons.-II) - NRIT
Hrs.
a. Discuss the Power of Central Government to impose Quantitative Restrictions under Foreign
Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992.
b. What do you understand by Heckscher-Ohlin Model with respect to theories related with
International Trade?
c. What are the types of Special Economic Zones?
d. What do you understand by SCOMET items under the Foreign Trade Policy 2015-20?
e. Comment on the extra territorial jurisdiction of FEMA. Whether central government can
suspend the operation of any or all provisions of FEMA?
f. What do you understand by Contract Manufacturing and Turnkey Projects?
g. Comment on the Principles of Restrictions under current Foreign Trade Policy.
h. What are the functions of RBI under FEMA?
i. What is the importance of Multilateral Commitments with respect to International Trade?
j. What are the types of Bill of Entry applicable in case of Import?
2. On 19th December 1985 in the case of Life Insurance Corporation of India v. Escorts Ltd. &Ors.,
Justice O. Chinnappa Reddy observed that, “Indian economy which has to operate under the
existing world economic system needs lots of foreign exchange to meet its developmental
activities.” Since then till now, India’s Foreign Investment Policy has continuously improved to
attract more and more investment. In this background write a descriptive note on India’s Foreign
Investment Policy. (Marks 10)
3. Write a descriptive note on the Foreign Trade Policy 2015-20 relating to Export Oriented Units
(EOUs), Electronics Hardware Technology Parks (EHTPs), Software Technology Parks (STPs)
and Bio-Technology Parks (BTPs). (Marks 10)
4. Discuss the following:- (Marks 5+5=10)

a. Write a descriptive note on the evolution of India’s International Economic Policy with
special reference to its participation in GATT/World Trade Organisation.
b. What do you understand by Importer-Exporter Code Number? Whether a person is entitled

under Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992 to import or export any
goods in case of suspension or cancellation of Importer-Exporter Code Number? Discuss the
procedure to obtain IEC number as mentioned under the Foreign Trade Policy 2015-20?
Page 1/2
5. India for the first time moved into the top 100 in the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business global
rankings on the back of sustained business reforms over the past several years. This was
announced by the ‘World Bank Group’s latest Doing Business 2018: Reforming to Create Jobs
report.’ In this background write an analytical note on the current Foreign Trade Policy with
special reference to Innovative steps for Trade facilitation and ease of doing business in India.
(Marks 10)
6. The smooth flow of goods and services across borders is one of the most significant elements
contributing to a country’s competitiveness at global level. In this respect several departments of
the government of India such as the Ministry of Finance, the Ministry of Shipping, the Ministry of
Road Transport etc. play crucial role but undoubtedly from trade policy formulation and
implementation point of view major role is played by the Department of Commerce under the
Ministry of Commerce and Industry. In this background write a descriptive note on various
offices/organisations under the administrative control of Department of Commerce, Ministry of
Commerce and Industry, Government of India. (Marks 10)
7. Discuss the following:- (Marks 5+5=10)

a. Write a descriptive note on Joint Ventures.
b. According to the current FTP, “Exporters need to project a good image of the country abroad
to promote exports. Maintaining an enduring relationship with foreign buyers is of utmost
importance, and complaints or trade disputes, whenever they arise, need to be settled
amicably as soon as possible.”
Considering above-mentioned background, discuss the Mechanism adopted under current FTP
for Quality Complaints and Trade Disputes.
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VII & IX
Corporate Law (Hons.-II)-Corporate Finance
a. Financial services
b. Credit Rating
c. Further Public Offer (FPO)
d. Book Building Concept
e. Global Depository Receipts
f. Demat Account
g. Deemed Prospectus
h. Portfolio return and risk- correlation
i. Portfolio Managers
j. Objectives of Corporate finance
2. What is the meaning and importance of financial intermediaries in Capital Market? Discuss the
role of Commercial bank and Underwriters. (Marks 10)
3. “Capital Budgeting is a long-term planning for making and financing proposed capital outlays.”
Analyze this statement and discuss the methods of capital budgeting. (Marks 10)
4. What is the meaning and importance of prospectus? What matters to be stated in prospectus and
who are liable for mis-statements in a prospectus? (Marks 10)
5. The Indian capital market is undergoing structural transformation since liberalisation. Discuss this
statement and write the difference between the primary capital market and the secondary capital
market. (Marks 10)
6. Explain the relevance which is associated with the financing decision and investment in the
organization and discuss the factors which influence the dividend decision of a firm. (Marks 10)
7. What do you mean by share capital? Explain the different forms of share that can be issued by a
company? Also discuss the difference between Share and debenture; and Equity share and
preferential share. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VII & IX
Intellectual Property Rights (Hons.-II)-Copyright
a. What is the human rights justification for protecting a work in copyright law?
b. What are the salient aspects of Universal Copyright Convention, 1952?
c. Discuss the importance of Beijing Treaty on audiovisual performance, 2012
d. Define dramatic work.
e. What do you mean by Broadcast reproduction right?
f. Discuss section 31D of the Copyright Act, 1957
g. Briefly discuss the exception under section 52(1) (c) for transient and incidental storage of
work and performance.
h. What is the administrative remedy for infringement of copyright?
i. Discuss the merger of Copyright Board with Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
j. Briefly discuss the duration of copyright.
2. (a) In relation to originality in copyright, compare the case of Eastern Book Company v. D. B.
Modak with Feist Publication Inc. v. Rural Telephone and CCH Canadian ltd. v. Law Society of
Upper Canada.
(b) Discuss the differences between the disability provision under Indian Copyright Act and the
Marrakesh Treaty, 2013. (Marks 6+4)
3. (a) ‘An idea per se has no copyright. But if the idea is developed into a concept fledged with
adequate details, than the same is capable of registration under the Copyright Act”. Discuss.
(b) What are the implications of the changes introduced in the definition of “communication to
public” through the 2012 amendment? (Marks 6+4)
4. (a)Discuss the meaning of “other than copies in circulation” in section 14(1) (b). How will one
determine whether India follows national or international exhaustion in the Copyright law?
(b)What do you mean by Mareva Injunction? Can it be issued under Indian law? (Marks 6+4)
5. Who is the first owner of copyright? Discuss the implications of the new proviso to Section 18(1)
and Sections 19(9) and 19(10) introduced by the Copyright (Amendment) Act, 2012 in the
relationship of employer and employee in the film and music industry. (Marks 10)
6. What is meant by Substantial Copying and how can it be determined? Also discuss the secondary
liability of ISPs for the copyright infringement of its users. (Marks 10)
7. Explain the following-
a. Law relating to effective technological measure to protect work or performance
b. Collective administration of copyright and neighboring rights. (Marks 5+5)
******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VII & IX
Criminal Law (Hons.-II) - Socio-Economic Offences
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words): (Marks 210=20)
a. What is Misbranded food?
b. Concept of ‘Socio-Economic Offences’ in India.
c. Criminal Breach of Trust as socio-economic crime.
d. What do you mean by Human Trafficking?
e. Define Money –Laundering offences.
f. Demerits of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
g. Explain the forms of punishment.
h. Functions of the Food Safety and Standards authorities in India.
i. Reasons for Dowry in India.
j. Who is Scheduled Tribes?
2. What various factors responsible are for arise of corruption? How can it be controlled by only
Law? Critically examine the various statutory provisions which have been made for the
prevention of corruption. (Marks 5+5)
3. Role of implementation machinery under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes
(Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. (Marks 5+5)
4. What is Dowry? Critically analyse extent of liability for the offence of demanding, taking and
giving dowry under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961. Critically examine the reason of failure of
legislative provisions. (Marks 5+5)
5. “No Court shall take cognizance of an offence against public servant without previous sanction of
the appropriate government”. In the light of above statement discusses the investigation and trial
procedures under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. (Marks 5+5)
6. What are the grounds of human trafficking? Critically examine the provisions of the Immoral
Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 to prevent human trafficking. (Marks 5+5)
7. Write short notes on the following:

a. Offences under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
b. Applicability of principle of Mens rea in Socio-Economic Offences. (Marks 5+5)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-I
Legal Method
a. Purpose of Law
b. Relationship between Municipal and International Law
c. Custom as a source of Law
d. Marginal Note as an Internal aid to Interpretation
e. ‘Delegated Legislation’, a necessary evil
f. Ground of Writ of Quo-Warranto
g. Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India
h. Kinds of Legal Research
i. Importance of Obiter dicta
j. Noscitur-a-sociis
2. Define ‘Law’. Also, define and distinguish on specific points between Civil and Criminal Law.
(Marks 10)
3. Explain ‘Precedent’ as a source of Law. What are the essentials and types of a Precedent? Give
suitable examples. (Marks 10)
4. ‘Rule of interpretation which satisfies the requirement of the society must be adopted.’ In the light
of this statement, critically elucidate Golden Rule of Interpretation. (Marks 10)
5. Write a critical note on the necessity and application of Case Law Method in the Study of Law.
(Marks 10)
6. Describe the ‘Doctrine of Separation of Power’. Also evaluate its application in any modern
welfare state in the present time. (Marks 10)
7. Critically examine the role of Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India in the
development Indian Legal System. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________

B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-III
Constitutional Governance-I
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks
carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.
a. Justiciable and Non justiciable rights
b. Are commercial advertisements protected under Article 19(1)(a)?
c. 42nd amendment and the Preamble
d. Doctrine of Eclipse
e. Does the power of the Parliament under Article 3(c) include the power to cede Indian Territory
to a foreign state?
f. What is the nature of relief that can be sought under Article 32?
g. Freedom of association as a fundamental right
h. Distinguish between the rights envisaged under Article 29(1) and 15(1)
i. Role of Fundamental duties
j. Right to propagate religion includes religious conversion. Comment
2. Explain the significance and impact of the “Instrumentality test” suggested by Matthew J. In
Sukhdev Singh v. Bhagat Ram AIR 1975 SC 1331 regarding the interpretation of “other
authorities” under Article 12. (Marks 10)
3. In 2014, illicit liquor in Vindhya Pradesh claimed 101 lives. In 2015, there have been various
cases in the state for which the root cause of concern has been the heavy consumption of alcohol.
The citizens of Vindhya Pradesh and various NGOs have raised several concerns with respect to
the menace being caused due to high proliferation of alcohol, affecting health, safety and lives of
citizens. In January 2016, the Government of Vindhya Pradesh issued a notification called the
“Vindhya Pradesh Prohibition Order, 2016.” In terms of the order, there was a complete
prohibition on the “sale, distribution, marketing and consumption of whiskey, wine, rum, vodka,
gin, tequila or any other alcohol” within the territory of the State. However, the said order
expressly excluded Beer and any other alcoholic beverage where the alcohol content is less than
5% from the ambit of prohibition. Aggrieved by the said order, United Liquor Pvt. Ltd., the largest
manufacturer of premium whiskey, vodka and beer, filed a petition under Article 32 of the
Constitution alleging that the Prohibition order violated its fundamental rights.
Discuss the various Fundamental Rights involved in the matter on behalf of the petitioner and the
respondent. Further, illustrate the nexus between Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Indian Constitution.
(Marks 10)
Page No. 1/2

4. Analyse with relevant judicial decisions, the components of Right against self incrimination as
envisaged under the Constitution of India. (Marks 10)
5. Mr. X, a Police Inspector, visited the hut of one Mrs. B w/o Mr. A in uniform and demanded to
have sexual intercourse with her. On her refusal, he tried to ravish her by force. She resisted his
attempt and made a hue and cry. During proceedings, she alleged violation of her fundamental
right to privacy, among other rights. However, she was proved to be a woman of questionable
character involved in prostitution and the High Court held that there was no such violation since
Mrs. B is an unchaste woman. Is the decision valid? Discuss the scope of right to privacy as a
fundamental right in India. (Marks 10)
6. What is meant by “religious denomination”? Discuss the various rights conferred on the religious
denominations under the Constitution. Are these rights absolute in nature? (Marks 10)
7. The Constitutional Courts in India have lately shown a good deal of flexibility with regard to the
rule of legal standing in matters involving violation of fundamental rights. Discuss. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________

B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-V
Labour Law-II
a. Can an insured person sustaining employment injury as an employee under the Employee State
Insurance Act, 1948 recover compensation under the Workmen Compensation Act, 1923?
b. What are the provisions for ‘set-on" and ‘set-off’ under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965?
c. What are the purposes for which the Employee State insurance fund may be expended?
d. What are the various welfare measures under the Factories Act, 1948?
e. What protection and benefits does a woman workman have under the Maternity Benefits Act,
1961?
f. Is a trained or untrained Teacher covered by the definition of employee under Payment of
Gratuity Act, 1972?
g. Who is responsible for payment of wages under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936?
h. What are the aims and objects of the Unorganized Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008?
i. Whether benefit of Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 may
be given to employees of contractors?
j. What are the general duties and responsibilities of “Occupier” under the Factories Act, 1948?
2. Discuss briefly the various labour standards adopted by International Labour Organization for the
protection of industrial workers. How far has India rectified such standards in its labour legislation
either directly or indirectly? (Marks 10)
3. Discuss the law relating to compensation under the Employees Compensation Act, 1923. Examine
also the concept of "arising out of and in course of employment" stipulated in the Act. (Marks 10)
4. What is the object of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948? Explain the procedure which the
government has to follow for fixing and revising minimum wages under the Act. (Marks 10 )
Page No. 1/2

5. Do you agree with this statement that provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 was actually
obstruction against the production and smooth functioning of the factories? Critically examine the
statement in the light of relevant provisions of the Act? (Marks 10)
6. Who is an "employee" under the Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948? Give an account of
various benefits extended to the employees under the Act. (Marks 10)
7. Write Short notes on any Two of the followings: (Marks 5×2= 10)
a. Concept of Social Security.
b. Hazardous Process under the Factories Act, 1948.
c. The Employees Pension Scheme, 1955.
*******
Page No. 2/2

I.D. No.___________________

B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VII
Law of Evidence
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks
carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.
a. The question is whether a given road is a public way or not. Does the statement by ‘A’ a
deceased headman of the village that “The road was public” is relevant?
b. Impeaching the credit of witness.
c. ‘A’ has declared the value of goods as Rs. 500/- at the time of consignment. On loss of goods,
he is claiming the value of goods much more than Rs. 500/-. Can he be allowed to take this
stand?
d. Explain presumptions as to ancient documents.
e. The question is whether ‘A’ was the legitimate son of ‘B’? Is the fact ‘A’ was always treated as
such by the members of the family relevant?
f. ‘X’ is accused of theft. During the police custody he indicated the place where the stolen goods
were hidden and the police recovered those goods. Can this information be used against ‘X’?
g. The question is whether a horse sold by ‘A’ to ‘B’ is sound. ‘A’ says to ‘B’ go and ask ‘C’, ‘C’
knows all about it. When asked by ‘B’, ‘C’ says that the horse is not sound. Is the statement
made by ‘C’ admissible in evidence?
h. ‘A’ is tried for the murder of ‘B’ by poisoning. Is the fact, that before the death of ‘B’, ‘A’
procured poison similar to that which was administered to ‘B’ relevant?
i. The difference between co-accused and accomplice.
j. Relevancy of character under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
2. State the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 relating to facts which need not be proved.
(Marks 10)
3. What do you mean by Secondary Evidence? State the circumstances in which secondary evidence
may be given. (Marks 10)
4. Explain the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 relating to Burden of proof. (Marks 10)
Page No.1/2
5. What is meant by dying declaration? Explain its evidentiary value with the help of leading cases.
(Marks 10)
6. Write a short note on any two of the following with relevant statutory provision and case laws.
a. Hostile witness.
b. Presumption of legitimacy of a child.
c. Promissory Estoppel. (Marks 5×2=10)
7. Answer the following with suitable statutory provisions of the Indian Evidence Act 1872.
a. ‘X’ a client says to ‘Y’ an attorney “I have committed murder of ‘Z’ and I wish you to defend
me”. Can this communication be disclosed by an attorney?
b. ‘X’ agrees in writing to pay ‘Y’ of Rs. 1,000/- on 11-3-2017. The fact that, at the same time,
an oral agreement was made that the money should not be paid till 31-3-2017. Can this fact be
proved?
c. A agree, in writing to sell a horse to B for “Rs.1000 or 1500”, whether the evidence could be
given to show which price was to be given?
d. X is accused of Y’s murder by beating him. At the time of incident there was an exchange of
words between X and Y. Is this fact relevant? (Marks 2.5×4=10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-IX
Civil Procedure Code (CPC)
a. Decree
b. Mesne Profits
c. Cause of action
d. Legal representative
e. Res Subjudice
f. Foreign Judgment
g. Set-off and Counter claim
h. Temporary Injunction
i. Executing court
j. Reference
2. “A suit in which the right to property or to an office is contested is a suit of a civil nature,
notwithstanding that such right may depend entirely on the decision of question as to religious rites
or ceremonies.” Explain this statement with help of decided cases. (Marks 10)
3. What do you understand by ‘matter directly and substantially in issue’ in Res Judicata? How far it
differs from ‘matter collaterally or incidentally in issue’? (Marks 10)
4. In which Civil Courts a suit may be field in the following cases, give reason for your answer:
a. A Landlord ‘L’ resident of Allahabad has a house at Varanasi. He has let out his house to a
tenant ‘T’. ‘T’ is a Government servant at Lucknow and living with his family at Varanasi. ‘L’
wants to file a suit against tenant ‘T’ for the recovery of rent of six months which has been due.
b. A resides at Shimla, B at Calcutta and C at Delhi. A, B and C being together at Varanasi, B and
C make a joint promissory note payable on demand and deliver it to A. A wants to sue B and C
on the basis of promissory note. (Marks 5+5=10)
5. Discuss the concept of “Substantial Question of Law” on which the second appeal is preferred
before the High court. Can second appeal lie in the following cases?
a. Ex parte Decree
b. Decision being contrary to law (Marks 5+5=10)
6. Discuss the grounds of Review and Revision. (Marks 10)
7. Who is indigent person? Elucidate in brief the provision of the Code of Civil Procedure in regard to
suit by indigent person. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-I
Economics (Minor): Principles of Economics
a. Define micro and macro economics.
b. How Economics is a science?
c. What do you understand by demand pull inflation?
d. What is the difference between explicit and implicit cost?
e. What do you mean by law of supply?
f. What is the relation between AP and MP?
g. What is the difference between extension and increase in demand?
h. Differentiate between substitute and complimentary good.
i. What is Quasi Rent?
j. What do you understand by Gross Domestic Product and Gross National Product?
2. Give reasons for any two of the following:- (Marks 5×2=10)

a. Marginal cost curve is “U” in shape.
b. TP increases even when MP is decreasing.
c. AFC curve is rectangular hyperbola.
d. RBI increases CRR for controlling inflation.
e. AR curve under monopolistic competition is more elastic than AR curve under monopoly?
3. Economics is one side study of wealth and on the other and more important side a part of the study
of man. Critically examine the statement. (Marks 10)
4. Critically discuss the Ricardian theory of rent. (Marks 10)
5. Discuss the price and output determination under perfect competition with the help of diagram.
(Marks 10)
6. Discuss Production, Income and Expenditure methods of estimation of national income of India.
(Marks 10)
a. Central Bank
b. Returns to scale
c. Law and Economics
*******
I.D. No.___________________

B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-III
Political Science (Major): Indian Political System-Institutional and Political Dynamics
a. Presidential Political System
b. Basic Structure of the Constitution
c. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution
d. Kitchen Cabinet
e. Power and Functions of Rajya Sabha
f. Judicial Activism
g. Inter-State Council
h. Anomic Pressure Group
i. Nature of Indian Party System
j. 73rd Amendment of the Indian Constitution
2. Critically examine the pros and cons of the Federal Political System in comparison to the Unitary
Political System. (Marks 10)
3. Discuss Salient Features of the Indian Constitution. (Marks 10)
4. Examine power, position and functions of the President of India. (Marks 10)
5. Write an essay on Centre-State Relations. (Marks 10)
6. Evaluate the implications of Grassroots Democracy in India in changing the rural power structure
and empowerment of marginalized groups. (Marks 10)

a. Right to Privacy
b. Swarn Singh Committee
c. Judicial Review
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-V
Principles of Taxation Law
a. Distinguish between Cess and Surcharge.
b. Explain Regulatory fee and Compensatory Fee.
c. Is salary of a partner from Firm taxable under the head Salary?
d. What is Tax Planning?
e. Under what head is rent received by an employer from letting out residential quarters to his
employees taxable?
f. Is income from fisheries an agricultural income?
g. What is Customs Duty?
h. When is Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST) levied?
i. What is an indirect Tax?
j. Is Tax avoidance illegal?
2. (a) Explain the term Previous Year.

(b) An assessee commences his business on (i) 1st February, 2017, (ii) 1st September, 2017. What
will be the first Previous Year and Assessment Year for the business in each case? (Marks 6+4)
3. (a) Incidence of tax varies according to the residential status of the assessee. Explain. (Marks 06)
(b)Ascertain the residential status of the assessees in the following cases for the Assessment Year
2017-18:
i. Mohan, a citizen of India left for U.S.A. on 18th April, 2016 and did not return to India till the
end of the Financial Year 2016-17.
ii. Ghanshyam, a citizen of India left for U.S.A. for a job on September 10, 2016. He has never left
India earlier. (Marks 2+2)
4. (a) What is meant by ‘annual value’ of house property?
(b) Mr. Deepak owns a house property. He has given it on rent to Mr. Shyam who pays annually
Rs. 2 Lakh as rent of the property and Rs. 50,000 for various services like lift, security, air-
conditioning etc. Will payment of Rs. 50,000 be added in computing income from house property?
(Marks 6+4)
5. (a) What are the conditions for allowing Depreciation Allowance?
(b) Explain the term business as defined under the Income Tax Act, 1961. (Marks 6+4)
6. (a)What is meant by perquisites? Give some examples of taxable perquisites under the Income Tax
Act, 1961.
(b)What were the recommendations of Wanchoo Committee to fight tax evasion?
(Marks 6+4)
7. (a) Explain the power of search and seizure as laid down under the Income Tax Act.
(b) What are the Income Tax authorities? (Marks 6+4)
*******
I.D. No.___________________

B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VII
Criminal Procedure Code (Cr.P.C.)
a. Distinguish between cognizable and non-cognizable offences.
b. Under what circumstances a private person can arrest an offender?
c. Law relating to search warrant
d. Term ‘final report’ (FR)
e. Provision related to registration of non-cognizable cases.
f. Evidentiary value of confession made by an accused before police custody.
g. Distinguish between judicial custody and police custody.
h. Content of charge.
i. Anticipatory bail
j. Law relating to Jail appeal
2. Under Sec. 125 Cr.P.C. a divorced wife can be deprived from maintenance if her husband has no
sufficient means. In the light of this statement discuss law relating to maintenance under the Code
of Criminal Procedure. (Marks 10)
3. Police is authorized to arrest a person without warrant under certain circumstances. Discuss. Also
discuss rights of arrested person under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. (Marks 10)
4. Under what circumstances first information report (FIR) can be treated as dying declaration? Also
discuss the evidentiary value of FIR. (Marks 10)
5. “Bail is a rule and Jail is an exception.” In the light of this statement discuss the circumstances
where release of the accused on bail is mandatory. (Marks 10)
6. “For every distinct offence there should be a separate charge”. Discuss the circumstances where
charges can be framed jointly. (Marks 10)

a. Summary trial
b. Plea bargaining
c. Appeal and Revision
*******
I.D. No.___________________

B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-IX
Competition Law (Optional-II)
a. A Company named ABC Corp. indulged into the combination but fails to give notice to the
commission under sub-section (2) of section 6 of the Competition Act 2002. Is there any liability
which can be imposed on ABC Corp.? If yes, then what would be the quantum of penalty?
b. Differentiate between unfair pricing and discriminatory pricing.
c. Definition of ‘Cartel’ as provided in the definition clause of the Competition Act, 2002.
d. Discuss the principle laid down in Technip SA v. SMS Holding regarding an agreement
e. Single Economic Entity Doctrine
f. Hub model of information sharing and its impact on competition
g. Principle laid down in FTC v. Indiana Federation of Dentists, 1986
h. Objective of Robinson-Patman Act
i. Procedure laid down for deemed approval of combination under the Competition Act, 2002
j. Define enterprise under the Competition Act, 2002
2. “Competition is the process of rivalry between business enterprises for customers which is a
fundamental characteristic of a flexible and dynamic market economy. The Approach Paper to the
Eleventh Five Year Plan recognized the need for creating a competitive environment to stimulate
private investment and it emphasized the need for increased reliance on competitive markets subject to
appropriate, transparent and effective regulations. India was among the first developing countries to
have a competition law in the form of the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act,
1969. But this Act was not automatically enforced in India but after a series of study and deliberations
MRTP Act, 1969 came into existence. It was in 1991 that widespread reforms were undertaken and
consequently the march from a ‘Command-and-Control’ economy to one based more on free market
principles commenced its stride. The Indian economy witnessed a paradigm shift due to the economic
reforms that were undertaken in the nineties, moving gradually from a ‘command and control’
economy to an economy based largely upon free market principles.”
Critically analyze the abovementioned paragraph and discuss in detail the evolution of Competition
Law in India with all relevant committees and studies. (Marks 10)
PTO
3. Fast Track Cab Pvt. Ltd. and ‘Manza’ Travel Solutions Pvt. Ltd. (the ‘Informants’) had filed
information, under Section 19(1) (a) of the Competition Act, 2002 (the ‘Act’) against "Campa Cab"
alleging inter alia contravention of the provisions of Section 4 of the Act. Informants are engaged in
the business of providing radio taxi services in certain cities in South India under the brand names
"Fast Track" and ‘Manza’. Informants had alleged that "Campa Cab" had abused its dominant position
by engaging in predatory pricing in the relevant market by offering heavy discounts to passengers and
incentives to cab drivers, in contravention of Section 4 (2) (a) (ii) of the Act. Informants alleged that
the fact that "Campa Cab" controlled over 50% of a highly concentrated market, demonstrated Campa
Cab’s dominance. The Informants also alleged that there were considerable entry barriers present
which made it difficult for a new player to effectively compete. Consistent payment of high incentives
along with exclusivity clauses in agreements with drivers allowed "Campa Cab" to thwart effective
competition, lock-in drivers and create a wide base of customers. Additionally, the Informants alleged
that presence of an extensive network of "Campa Cab" across the nation has acted as a sufficient
detriment to any countervailing buying power available with consumers. It was alleged that the
presence of a large network of “Campa Cab” has restricted the power of consumers to negotiate and
substantially affect the service provider by shifting to a competing network. The CCI has directed the
Director General ("DG") to conduct a detailed investigation into the matter.
Findings of the DG: The DG recognized the different business models prevailing in the radio taxi
service industry i.e. asset-owned model, aggregator model and hybrid model. It also recognized that
while "Campa Cab" functioned under the aggregator model, its services are functionally substitutable
with those provided by other taxis operating under these different business models. Accordingly, the
DG concluded that the relevant product market would be the "market for radio taxi services" and the
relevant geographic market would be the city of Bengaluru. The DG compared the number of trips /
rides undertaken by different players in the relevant market between 2012 and 2016 to observe that
while "Campa Cab" did grow at a meeker rate of 63% between January and September of 2015,
Zuber's (another leading player of the market) trip size registered a growth of 1200% in the same
period. It noted that the rise of Zuber as a healthy competitor defeated the argument for presence of
entry barriers. The DG concluded that "Campa Cab" was not in a dominant position given these facts.
Being the regulator (CCI) analyze the above-mentioned facts in the light of sections 2(r), 4 and 19(4)
and decide the matter after considering the findings of DG. (Marks 10)
4. Discuss in detail “Tie-in arrangement” under the competition Act, 2002 on the basis of classroom
discussions. Also discuss the principle laid down in International Salt Co. v. US 332 US 392 (1947)
and Eastman Kodak Co. v. Image Tech. 504 US 451 (1992). (Marks 10)
5. The official website of World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) at http://www.wipo.int/ip-
competition/en/explains the relationship of Intellectual Property Rights and Competition Policy as:
“Intellectual property (IP) allows consumers to make choices between competing entrepreneurs, and
the goods and services they sell. Therefore, IP is inherently pro-competitive as it ensures the protection
of differentiated, intangible business assets. Without IP, less efficient manufacturers and service
providers would try to lure clients by copying the goods and services of more efficient competitors. The
latter would lose any incentive to improve or to offer new products and services. Society as a whole
would lose. But IP only performs that crucial role of ensuring competition when it protects genuine
differences.”
In the light of above statement, discuss in detail the interface between Intellectual Property Rights and
Competition Law. (Marks 10)
6. (a) Discuss the establishment of the office of Director General under the Competition Act, 2002. Also
discuss whether the DG is a statutory authority or not with the relevant case law.
(b) Discuss Competition Advocacy as a pillar of Indian competition regime. (Marks 5+5=10)
7. Write a detailed note on the following:- (Marks 5+5=10)
a. Order of commission under section 31 of the Competition Act, 2002.
b. Extraterritorial Application of the Competition Act, 2002.
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-IX
Banking Law (Optional-II)
a. What do you mean by Drawee and Drawee in need?
b. What do you mean by Inland instrument?
c. Suspension of Banking Business.
d. Define Holder and Holder in due course.
e. Banker’s right to set-off.
f. What do you mean by denomination of notes?
g. Discuss the provisions with regard to inspection of Banking Companies.
h. Explain Clayton’s Rules.
i. What is the provision of Cash reserves of Scheduled Banks?
j. What are the Banker’s right toward its customer?
2. Define the terms ‘Banker’ and ‘Customer’. Do you agree with Sir John Paget’s view that to
constitute a customer there must be some recognizable course or habit of dealing in the nature of
regular banking business? Give your reason. Discuss the obligations of bank in relation to lunatic,
minor, agent, executor and partnership firm. How and when a Banker may disclose information
regarding the customer’s account? (Marks 10)
3. “Reserve Bank of India is not only a controller of credit but also a promoter of credit.” In the light
of above statement, discuss the objectives, organizational structure and powers of the Reserve
Bank of India. (Marks 10)
4. What are the answers generally given by the banks in case of dishonoured cheques? What are the
precautions which a banker must take in giving the answers? What are the consequences of a
wrongful dishonor of a cheque? (Marks 10)
5. Write in detail the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 regarding Licensing of Banking
Companies and the Cancellation of the license by the Reserve Bank of India. (Marks 10)
6. What are negotiable instruments and their characteristics? Would you consider the following as
negotiable instrument? Give your reasons. (Marks 2.5×4 = 10)
a. Bill of lading
b. Postal Order
c. Railway Receipt
d. Share Certificate
7. Trace the evolution of Electronic Banking system in India. What are the merits and demerits of it?
Discuss in detail, the statutory protection provided to the Electronic Banking System in India.
(Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-IX
Criminology & Penology (Optional-II)
a. Concept of sin, tort and crime
b. Demonology
c. Hedonism
d. Mental disorder and criminality
e. Differential association theory
f. Culture conflict and crime
g. Alcoholism and crime
h. Retributive theory of punishment
i. Concept of punishment
j. Urban and rural crimes
2. What do you mean by Positive school of criminology? Explain the contribution of Casare
Lombroso in the arena of criminology. How far his explanation of crime causation is relevant in
modern world? (Marks 10)
3. What is sociological theory of crime? Discuss the approach of the chief proponents of this theory
with respect to crime causation? Also discuss the multiple factor approach to crime causation.
(Marks 10)
4. “Nothing is tougher than being a policeman in a free society: the policeman is supposed to mediate
family disputes that would try a Supreme Court judge, soothe angry ghetto Negroes despite his
scant knowledge of psychology, enforce hundreds of petty laws without discrimination, and use
only necessary force to bring violators to courts. The job demands extraordinary skills, restraints
and character.”
In the light of the above statement elucidate upon the challenging nature of function of police
along with the problems faced by police in administration of justice. Also suggest some measures
to improve the efficiency of police. (Marks 10)
5. “Utilization of prisoners in productive work has been accepted as one of the best methods of
bringing about rehabilitation of offenders. Keeping the prisoners engaged in productive work
would be helpful for their physical and mental fitness.”
In the light of the above statement discuss the scope and application of the concept of prison labour
in prisons. How far you subscribe to the view that prison labour could be one of the best methods
to achieve the goal of rehabilitation of prisoners. Discuss. (Marks 10)
6. Discuss the mechanism of parole and probation as a means of re-socialization process of offenders
in view of the reformative approach being adopted in the administration of criminal justice. Do
you think that these mechanisms are in consonance with the object of punishment or they militate
against the same? Comment. (Marks 10)
7. Write short notes on the following:- (Marks 5+5=10)
a. Whether criminology is a science?
b. Problems of released offender
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-I
Sociology (Minor): Introduction to Sociology
a. Define Social group
b. Is Sociology a normative science and why?
c. Social morphology
d. Inter-disciplinary approach
e. Social equilibrium
f. Structural observation of social behaviour
g. Counter culture
h. Levirate
i. Anuloma and Pratiloma
j. Have-nots as a social class
2. Understanding the construction of meanings and self-concepts involves an appreciation of the way
actors interpret the process of interaction. This requires an investigation of the way in which they
perceive the context of the interaction and the manner, appearance and actions of others. Explain
and elaborate the aforementioned lines in the light of a suitable sociological perspective of society.
(Marks10)
3. Value consensus provides the foundation for cooperation since common values produce common
goals. Members of society tend to cooperate in pursuit of goals which they share. Provide
comprehensive arguments on the above with theoretical insights and relevant examples.
(Marks10)
4. Do you consider yourself to be highly mobility oriented? What factors do you think explain your
own mobility orientation? (Marks10)
5. I am not what I think I am and I am not what you think I am. I am what I think, you think I am.
Discuss the above lines in the light of looking-glass self theory. (Marks10)
6. Define Culture and discuss its types and traits. Explain the theory of cultural growth propounded
by Alvin Toffler. (Marks10)
7. Write Short Notes on the following:-

a. Adverse effects of social media on college youth
b. Rules of Endogamy and Exogamy (Marks 5+5=10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-III
Law of Torts
a. What is meant by ‘res ipsa loquitur’?
b. What is ‘novus actus interveniens’?
c. Whether ‘Act of God’ and ‘Truth or Justification’ is specific defence?
d. What is meant by innuendo?
e. What is meant by ‘Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium’?
f. What is Public nuisance?
g. Can a husband sue his wife or vice versa for the injury caused to him/her?
h. Mention the principle propounded in the case of Donoghue v. Stevenson?
i. What is pecuniary jurisdiction of Consumer Dispute Redressal Agencies at different levels?
j. What is meant by ‘Pigeon Hole Theory’?
2. Answer the following:-

a. In an auto taxi seven passengers were travelling out of whom five were on the back seat of the
auto and two were sitting in front on the driver‘s seat along with the driver. The driver was
driving at a very high speed and when he took a left turn in that speed one of the passengers
sitting on the driver‘s seat was thrown out of the auto taxi and got injured. He filed the case
against the auto driver. Discuss the liability of driver. (Marks 05)
b. What is battery? How does it differ from Assault? (Marks 05)

a. What is the distinction between sovereign function and non-sovereign function? What is the
relevance of this distinction for the purposes of the vicarious liability of the State in the present
era? (Marks 06)
b. A theft was committed in the house of Hardayal. He gave the information to police that he has
suspicion on Ramdayal (neighbour of Hardayal). Police conducted the investigation and
arrested Ramdayal. When the final report was produced before the Magistrate, Magistrate
discharged the accused (Ramdayal) because of lack of sufficient evidences. After the
discharge, Ramdayal filed a case against Deendayal for the tort of malicious prosecution.
Decide the liability of Hardayal. (Marks 04)

a. What is nuisance? How does a private nuisance differ from a public nuisance? Distinguish
between nuisance and trespass? (Marks 06)
b. A traffic police officer stopped Roni, a 19 years old boy, who was driving his bike and asked
him to produce his driving license and said to him, “I suspect you are not possessing a valid
license”, in front of the other persons. Roni produces his valid license and filed a case against
the police officer for the tort of defamation. Decide the case. (Marks 04)
PTO
a. Who is a Consumer? Whether the person who buys the goods for commercial purposes can be
treated as a consumer under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? Explain. (Marks 05)
b. What is ‘service’ under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? Whether services provided by a
doctor can be covered under this definition? Explain with case laws. (Marks 05)

a. “The defendant in a tortuous litigation sometimes succeeds by pleading ‘Contributory
Negligence’ even if the injury is largely caused by defendant‘s negligence”. Examine the
above statement in the light of the principles of Contributory Negligence citing relevant cases.
b. In a complaint case, an accused was convicted in the Trial Court but the conviction was set
aside in Appeal Court. Decide whether the case is fit for malicious prosecution or not. In the
light of the above also examine the elements of malicious prosecution. (Marks 4+6)

a. The general rule is that a man is liable for his acts but in certain cases the law imposes liability
on a man for the acts and defaults of another. Discuss. (Marks 06)
b. Write short notes on any two of the followings: (Marks 2+2=4)

i. Statutory Authority
ii. Private Defence
iii. Unity theory
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-V Indian Penal Code (IPC)
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried by each
question is indicated at the end of the question.
a. Wrongful gain and wrongful loss.
b. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea.
c. Under what circumstances right of private defence of the property extends to causing death?
d. Infancy is a good defense from criminal liability.
e. Distinguish between abetment of conspiracy and criminal conspiracy.
f. Define rioting. How it is different from unlawful assembly.
g. A is lawfully arrested by B, a police officer, A is excited to sudden and violent passion by the
arrest, and kills B. discuss the criminal liability of A.
h. What are the eight kinds of hurt designated as grievous hurt?
i. Under what circumstances the offence of extortion is treated as robbery?
j. Define cruelty as per provision of IPC.
2. Answer the following:- (Marks 6+4=10)

(a) Under what circumstances the right of private defense of body extends to causing death?
Discuss in detail.
(b) Z under the influence of madness, attempts to kill Y. In this circumstance can Y exercise
his right to private defense against Z? Discuss with relevant provision.

(a) Differentiate legal insanity from medical insanity with the help of leading case law.
(b) A, a soldier fires on a mob by the order of his superior officer in conformity with the
commands of the law. Discuss the criminal liability of A.
(a) Death caused under the influence of grave and sudden provocation is culpable homicide not
murder. Discuss the statement in the light of judicial pronouncement.
(b) Y gives grave and sudden provocation to A. A on his provocation fires a pistol at Y but kills Z
who is near to him (Y). Discuss the criminal liability of A.
5. Write short notes on any two of the following- (Marks 5+5=10)
(a) Dowry death
(b) Robbery
(c) Adultery
(a) Weather a married man could be held liable for committing rape against his wife? Discuss
with case law.
(b) Mr. X and Mr. Y are married and have been living as a husband and wife from more than
twenty years but they have no issue (child). Mrs. Y requested her husband to get married with
another women Z and after accepting the request of Mrs. Y, Mr. X marries with Z. weather
Mr. X has committed offence? Discuss.
(a) Kidnapping and Abduction are two distinct offences under IPC, 1860. Explain the difference
between the two offences.
(b) Distinguish between theft and extortion.
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VII & IX
Competition Law (Optional-I)
Give a brief note on the following:
a. There are 10 firms in a market with unequal market shares as:
Firm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Market
10 25 5 8 7 5 10 15 5 10
Share
Calculate the Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (HHI) and identify the market in terms of
concentration.
b. Discuss Resale Price Maintenance (RPM) and its relevance
c. Define Predatory Pricing
d. Discuss the penalty in contravention of orders of commission as provided under section 42
of the Competition Act, 2002
e. ‘Consumer’ under the Competition Act, 2002
f. Application of ‘Rule of Reason’ under Indian Competition Law
g. Leniency provision under the Competition Act, 2002.
h. ‘Exclusive Supply Agreements’ under the Competition Act, 2002
i. Principle of Counterfactual
j. Doctrine of ‘Cease and desist’ under Competition Law
2. (a) The model of perfect competition is based on assumptions unlikely to be observed in practice.
Discuss.
(b) Discuss the Efficiency as one of the basic objective of Competition Law. (Marks 5+5)
3. “Principles of competition law have a long history since the Roman Empire and middle ages when
cartels, the so-called guilds, were formed in most European cities. It was also demonstrated in
19th century in U.S. antitrust law, U.K. Competition Law, EC Competition Law. A first prohibition
of contracts that restrain trade can be traced to English common law of the early fifteenth century.
The development of competition law has been started in Europe in the late 19th century as Canada
was the first country to formulate and adopt a competition policy in 1889 even before the Sherman
Act of the US but the Sherman Act of 1890 (US antitrust Legislation) is the oldest and perhaps
most important federal statute.”
In the light of abovementioned paragraph discuss in detail the evolution of competition law in
United States and EU only. (Marks 10)
PTO
4. The Informant Western Coalfields Limited is one of the eight subsidiary companies of Coal India
Limited and has been conferred ‘Miniratna’ status. It has mining operations spread over the States
of Maharashtra (Nagpur, Chandrapur and Yeotmal districts) and Madhya Pradesh (Betul and
Chhindawara districts). It is a major supplier of coal to industries located in the States of
Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala. A
large number of power houses i.e. Electricity Boards in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat,
Karnataka, Punjab and Uttar Pradesh are the major customers of the Informant Western Coalfields
Limited along with cement, steel, chemical, fertilizers, paper and brick industries. The Opposite
Parties (OPs) SSV Coal Carriers Pvt. Ltd, Bimal Kumar Khandelwal, Pravin Transport,
Khandelwal Transport, Khandelwal Earth Movers, Khanduja Coal Transport Co, Punya Coal Road
Lines, B Himmatlal Agrawal, Punjab Transport Co and Avaneesh Logistics Pvt. Ltd are engaged
in the business of providing ancillary services in colliery areas including of sand and coal
transportation in the areas of operation of the Informant. The instant information was filed
pursuant to four tenders floated by the Informant for coal and sand transportation. In these tenders,
bids were called in two parts: Part I for general eligibility criteria and Part II for price bids which
was to be opened only for bidders who qualify and were found eligible after scrutiny of their
respective Part I bid documents. For ease of reference, the details of the rates quoted by the OPs in
the abovementioned four impugned tenders are produced in a tabular form below:
Table No. 1: Details of price quoted in Tender No. 1
Rates Quoted (Rs. per cum.)
Bidder
Job No. 1 Job No. 2 Job No. 3 Job No. 4
OP-1 173 168 29 25
OP-2 173 168 29 25
OP-3 Disqualified Disqualified Disqualified Disqualified
OP-4 173 168 29 25
Table No. 2: Details of price quoted in Tender NO. 2

Rates Quoted (Rs. per cum.)
Bidder
Job No. 1 (a) Job No. 1 (b) Job No. 2
OP-1 175 175 35
OP-2 171 171 31
OP-3 171 171 31
OP-4 171 171 31

Rates Quoted (Rs. per Te.)
Bidder
Job No. 1 Job No. 2 Job No. 3 Job No. 4 Job No. 5
OP-5 26 25.70 39 45 8.35
OP-7 26 25.70 39 45 8.35
OP-8 26.51 26 40.46 46 9
OP-9 26 25.70 39 45 8.35
OP-10 26 25.70 39 45 8.35

Rates Quoted (Rs. per Te.)
Bidder
Job No. 1 Job No. 2 Job No. 3
OP-5 20 8.75 8.75
OP-6 20 8.75 8.75
OP-7 20 8.75 8.75
OP-8 21 9 9
The information in the present case was filed by the Informant under Section19 (1) (a) of the
Competition Act, 2002 against the Ops alleging contravention of the provisions of Section 3 of
the Act. The CCI had ordered a probe by its investigation arm Director General (DG) and the
report was submitted wherein it was concluded that the entities had indulged in anti-
competitive agreement.
Being the regulator (CCI) identify if there is any contravention of Section 3 of the Competition
Act, 2002? If yes, then on the basis of above-mentioned data only decide the matter with your
reasoning. (Marks 10)
5. What do you understand by Abuse of Dominant Position? Discuss in the light of the Competition
Act, 2002. Also explain the procedure for inquiry laid down in the Competition Act, 2002 in the
cases of Abuse of Dominant Position with the relevant order which can be passed by the CCI in the
contravention of Section 4 of the Competition Act, 2002. (Marks 10)
6. Competition is the best means of ensuring that the ‘Common Man’ or ‘Aam Aadmi’ has access to
the broadest range of goods and services at the most competitive prices. With increased
competition, producers will have maximum incentive to innovate and specialize. This would result
in reduced costs and wider choice to consumers. A fair competition in market is essential to
achieve this objective. The objectives of the Act are sought to be achieved through the Competition
Commission of India (CCI), which has been established by the Central Government with effect
from 14th October 2003.(http://www.cci.gov.in/about-cci)
Analyze the above-mentioned paragraph and explain the establishment and composition of CCI
and also mention the powers given to CCI under the Competition Act, 2002, to prevent practices
having adverse effect on competition, to promote and sustain competition in markets, to protect the
interests of consumers and to ensure freedom of trade carried on by other participants in markets,
in India. (Marks 10)
7. Write a note on the following:- (Marks 5+5=10)

a. Regulation of combination as provided under Section 6 of the Competition Act, 2002
b. Briefly discuss the establishment of Competition Appellate Tribunal (COMPAT)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VII & IX
Banking Law (Optional-I)
a. What do you mean by banking business?
b. ‘Deposit’ as defined under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
c. What do you mean by Payment in due course?
d. How far the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 is applicable to Cooperative Societies?
e. Describe provisions relating to crossing of cheques.
f. Explain the legal norms for creation of reserve fund.
g. Explain Banker’s Lien.
h. What do you mean by nationalization of banks?
i. What do you mean by Scheduled Bank?
j. Who may endorse on a negotiable instrument?
2. When can a person be said to have become a ‘Customer’ of the Bank? What are the essential
features of a Banker-Customer relationship? In what circumstances can a Banker disclose the state
of his customer’s account to their parties? Discuss. (Marks 10)
3. Describe briefly the functions of the following financial institutions explaining how they help in
the economic development of the country: (Marks 2.5×4=10)
a. Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Limited
b. Agricultural Finance Corporation
c. Industrial Financial Corporation of India Limited
d. State Industrial Development Corporations
4. (a) Discuss the position of a Collecting Banker as: (Marks 2.5×2 =05)
(i) a holder for value
(ii) an agent of the customer
(b) What is the statutory protection afforded to a Collective Banker (Marks 05)
5. Explain the role of Reserve Bank of India in relation to: (Marks 4+3+3=10)
(a) Licensing of Commercial Banks
(b) Inspection of Banks
(c) Control of Bank Credit
6. What are the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India, 1934 regarding the composition of the
Board of Directors? How are they removed from office and under what circumstances they can be
removed from office? Discuss. (Marks 10)
7. Define E-Banking. What are merits and demerits of E-Banking? What are the statutory protections
granted to the E-Banking system under the Information Technology Act, 2000? Discuss.
(Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VII & IX
International Commercial Arbitration (Optional-I)
a. International arbitration
b. Geneva convention
c. Emergency award
d. Fast track arbitration
e. Status of tribunal
f. Ad hoc vs. Institutional arbitration
g. Consolidate arbitration
h. Delocalisation in International Commercial Arbitration
i. Confidentiality
j. Competence-Competence
2. The arbitrators not only decide on the merits, but the choice of arbitrators will also affect the way
the arbitration is conducted. So parties should be conscious about their choice of arbitrators. In
context of this statement explain the process of appointment of arbitrators. What practical and
strategic consideration should be adopted in choice of arbitrator(s). Also discuss the ground for
challenges and replacement of arbitrator with suitable cases. (Marks 10)
3. An award is a binding determination on the substance of the dispute by the arbitrators. In this
respect, an award is equivalent of a judgment of a national court. Discuss. Also explain the
categories of awards and the Res Judicata effect of an arbitral award in international arbitration.
(Marks 10)
4. The seat chosen for arbitration will usually determine the courts in which any annulment of the
award must be commenced and the law applicable to such a challenge. Explain with suitable
illustration and also discuss the public policy as a ground for setting aside an international arbitral
award. (Marks 10)
5. The commercial arbitration is most usually a creature of contract. In this reference-

a. define arbitration agreement
b. submission agreement
c. separability doctrine
d. choice of law clause (Marks 2.5×4 =10)
6. An international arbitration generally proceeds in distinct stages. The stages to any arbitration are
not as rigid as court proceedings in many national law systems. Comment. Also analyze the role of
national court during the arbitral proceeding. (Marks 10)
7. Write a brief note on: (Marks 5+5=10)

a. provision of interim relief
b. Enforcement of awards
*******
I.D. No.___________________
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VII & IX
Cyber Law (Optional-I)
a. Jurisdiction to prescribe
b. Data Diddling
c. Metatags and trademark infringement
d. Advantages of E-governance
e. Hash Result
f. Deep Linking
g. Love Bug and Melissa Virus
h. B2C business model
i. Internet Time Theft
j. Classes of Digital Signature
2. Answer the following:- (Marks 6+4)
a. Write short notes on:
i. Role of Root Certifying Authority in PKI system in India
ii. Netizens
iii. Internet time theft
b. Techno World the plaintiff residing in Ontario was the owner of the software WILLO, in
Canada and United States. The defendant, Compu world sold an in-house line of computers
that was also called WILLO. From the outset, Compu World was aware of the registrations of
trademark WILLO owned by Techno World. The computers were offered for sale all over
United States but not in Canada. The only connection Compu World had with Canada was
through its website www.compuworld.com which it used to advertise and provide product
information. The plaintiff brought an action in trademark infringement in Ontario under the
Trademark Act. How would you determine jurisdiction in this particular factual situation?
3. Answer the following:- (Marks 5+5)

a. Mithul found a software that will enable the users to remotely shut down the computers on the
network. She felt that the software would be very useful and with this intention she
downloaded it and installed it in many computers of her office XYZ Ltd. She did not know that
the software was in effect a Trojan that would compromise the security of the database
maintained in the company. As a result of installation of such software such crucial
information of the company was leaked causing huge loss to the company. You being the
lawyer for XYZ Ltd, advise your client as to what remedy it has against Mithul under the
Information Technology Act 2000.
b. Discuss the types of cloud computing and legal issues related to cloud computing.
PTO
4. Answer the following:- (Marks 3+4+3)

a. Discuss the grounds for determination of bad faith in domain name disputes as under UNDRP.
b. In light of security and safety of nation, highlight the provisions relating to cyber Surveillance
by Government in India.
c. What are spywares and how they facilitate intrusion into privacy?

a. What are the three pillars of E-governance in India? Discuss with appropriate examples.
b. “The post infringement measures like the ones informed by the defendants (Myspace) which
are in compliances of US statute may hold good in US due to the legislative measure but the
same are not operative in India. Such post due diligence on the ground of some inherent
helplessness which the defendants are pleading only because they are sitting on internet or
cyberspace may not be correct as the law does not exclude cyberspace from its purview to do
infringements there.”
Discuss the nature of due diligence as required under Section 79 of the Information
Technology Act. Compare and comment whether the same is in line with the requirement as
demanded by Delhi High Court in Super Cassettes Industries Ltd. V. MySpace Inc. & Another.
(Marks 5+5)
6. Answer the following:
a. What are the types of Top Level Domain Name? Illustrate with examples. (Marks 04)
b. “Desi-lawyer-swag” is a popular fashion and clothing brand in India, owned and started by
Atul Pandey in 2011. It has 26 stores across India in various states and is of immense
popularity among law school students. Atul Pandey approached GoMummy.com, LLC (an
accredited registrar of domain names in India) for registering “Desi-lawyer-swag.com” and
“Desi-Lawyer-swag.org” as their domain names. However, the GoMummy.com reported
“Desi-Lawyer-swag.org” have already been registered by Lawyer’s Den (a student run
platform) where interviews of renowned advocates from various High Courts and the Supreme
Court of India are posted. Harsh, a friend of Atul Pandey, sent him thumbnail images from
Google search which shows photos of blazers and skirts from “Desi-lawyer-swag” brand and
the source (link) listed for such image is directed to “Desi-Lawyer-swag.org” page. Atul
Pandey filed a case on grounds of
i. Cyber-squatting by Lawyer’s Den of the domain “Desi-Lawyer-swag.org”
ii. Copyright infringement for publication of thumbnails against Google.
Decide each issues relying in relevant concept and caselaws. (Marks 06)
a. Write short notes on: - (Marks 04)
i. Sealed envelope contract
ii. Mailbox rule in E-contracting
b. A gynecologist had fit a video camera in her chamber in such way that the camera shoots the
activities taking place in her chamber. Ms. Sheetal took her grandmother for breast cancer check
up and discovered this hidden camera in the doctor’s chamber. On being asked, the Doctor denied
such shooting and asked them to get out. Later, on investigation Ms. Sheetal procured a copy of
video in pendrive from the nurse attending the doctor who said such videos are sold outside
chamber at high prices to various pornographic content vendors. Can any provision of the
Information Technology Act apply in the given set of situations? (Marks 06)
*******
I.D. No.___________________

B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-IX
Criminology & Penology (Optional-I)
a. Education and causation of crime
b. Solitary confinement
c. Retributive theory of punishment
d. Neo- classical school of criminology
e. Types of prison
f. Probation
g. Parole
h. Prison education
i. Prison labour
j. Communal riots
2. The Sociological theory of criminal behavior presupposes that criminals are a product of society.
The impact of sociological factors is so great that they either shun criminality or embrace it
depending on their environment and immediate social conditions. Comment. (Marks 10)
3. While referring to the relevant cases discuss the constitutional validity of death sentence. Also
state the arguments advanced by abolitionists and retentionist with respect to its abolition and
retention. (Marks 10)
4. “Punishment must also respond to society’s cry for justice against the criminal. While considering
punishment to be given to the accused, the court should be alive not only to the right of the
criminal to be awarded just and fair punishment by administering justice tempered with mercy as
the criminal may deserve, but also to the rights of the victims of the crime to have the assailant
appropriately punished and the society’s reasonable expectation from the court for the appropriate
deterrent punishment conforming to the gravity of the offence and consistent with public
abhorrence for heinous crime committed by the accused.”
In the light of the above statement critically discuss the changing approach towards the concept
and object of punishment which led to the evolution and development of various theories of
punishment. How far the reformative theory of punishment responds to the notion underlying the
above statement? Elucidate. (Marks 10)
PTO
5. “The ideal police officer is expected to have the wisdom of Solomon, the courage of David, the
strength of Samson, the patience of Job, the leadership of Moses, the kindness of a good
Samaritan, the strategy of Alexander, the faith of Daniel, the diplomacy of Lincoln, the tolerance
of the carpenter of Nazareth and finally an intimate knowledge of every branch of natural,
biological and social sciences.”
In the light of the above statement discuss the role and function of police in administration of
justice. Also critically discuss the mismatch between the expectations and the service conditions
and environment in which police work. (Marks 10)
6. “A prisoner, be he a convict or undertrial or detenu, does not cease to be a human being. Even
when lodged in the jail, he continues to enjoy many of his fundamental rights including the right to
life guaranteed to him under the constitution. On being convicted of crime and deprived of their
liberty in accordance with the procedure established by law, prisoners still retain the residue of
constitutional rights.”
In the light of the above statement discuss the rights of the prisoners. Refer to important cases
especially the contribution of the Supreme Court in this regard. (Marks 10)
7. Write short notes on the following:

a. Differential association theory
b. Effect of Television, Videos and Press on causation of crime (Marks 5+5=10)
*******

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I.D. No.

(b)Differentiate between undue influence and coercion. (Marks 04)

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Page No. 2/2

END TERM EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER - 2017

b. A Muslim woman X owned an undivided share in an immovable property, capable of division,

4. Answer the following:

Page No. 1/2

7. Write short notes on the following:-

Page No. 2/2

END TERM EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER - 2017

1. Explain the following (each explanation should be in approximately 100 words)

END TERM EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER - 2017

Page No. 1/2

6. Explain the Following:- (Marks 5+5=10)

Page No. 1/2

Page No. 2/2

END TERM EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER - 2017

6. Discuss the validity of the following:- (Marks 5+5=10)

7. Write notes on the following:- (Marks 5+5=10)

2. “The law of conspiracy is a branch of jurisprudence to be narrowly watched, to be zealously

3. Discuss Marxist view of Politics. (Marks 10)

4. Explain Locke’s Theory of Social Contract. (Marks 10)

5. Critically examine Liberal theory of the state. (Marks 10)

6. Analyse the John Rawls’ Theory of Justice. (Marks 10)

7. Write short notes on any two of the following:- (Marks 5×2=10)

END TERM EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER - 2017

2. Write short notes on any two of the following: - (Marks 5×2=10)

END TERM EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER - 2017

Write a note on the following:-

2. (A)Write down the meaning of the following – (Marks 05)

5. (a) Supply suitable tense- (Marks 05)

(b) Change into passive voice- (Marks 05)

(b) Write a precis of the following with a suitable title –

7. Write an essay on any one in about 400 words:- (Marks 10)

END TERM EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER - 2017

7. Write Short Notes on any two of the following :- (Marks 5×2=10)

a. International Relations and International Politics

END TERM EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER - 2017

4. Discuss the following: (Marks 5+5=10)

5. Analytically discuss the recommendations of Sarkaria Commission on scheme of distribution of

4. Discuss the following:- (Marks 5+5=10)

b. What do you understand by Importer-Exporter Code Number? Whether a person is entitled

7. Discuss the following:- (Marks 5+5=10)

7. Write short notes on the following:

END TERM EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER - 2017

Page No. 1/2

END TERM EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER - 2017

Page No. 1/2

Page No. 2/2

END TERM EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER - 2017

6. Discuss the grounds of Review and Revision. (Marks 10)

2. Give reasons for any two of the following:- (Marks 5×2=10)

4. Critically discuss the Ricardian theory of rent. (Marks 10)

END TERM EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER - 2017

3. Discuss Salient Features of the Indian Constitution. (Marks 10)

5. Write an essay on Centre-State Relations. (Marks 10)

7. Write short notes on any two of the following:- (Marks 5×2=10)