COURSE.1 To 10

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Section 1: Course 01 Online Assessment

All questions are mandatory


Question (1)
What should the Articles of Association be used to verify? (Select all that apply)
The purpose of the loan is within the scope of the object of the company.
The signatories to the credit agreement and any related documents are authorised by the Board to
make borrowing decisions and bind the company accordingly.
The total borrowing of the company is within the authorised borrowing limit.
The company is permitted to enter into contracts.
Question (2)
Which of the following are funded working capital products offered by banks in India? (Select all
that apply)
Packing credit.
Cash Management facilities.
Project Finance.
Overdraft.
Question (3)
Which of the following are forms of working capital finance? (Select all that apply)
Term lending for funding acquisition of plant and machinery
Performance guarantees
Short-term loans
Trade bill discounting facilities
Question (4)
Which of the following is not a non-funded facility? (Select all that apply)
Packing Credit
Performance Guarantee
Letter of Credit
External Commercial Borrowings. (ECBs)
Question (5)
Under Section 185 of the Companies Act, 2013, loans to company directors, a company:
Can guarantee a loan taken by its 75% subsidiary.
Cannot give a loan to any director.
Can give a loan to the Managing Director.
Can give a loan to its 51% subsidiary.

Question (6)
Why is it important to register a security?
The company will know who has ownership over its assets.
The Registrar of Companies is able to maintain a Register.
Banks must create rights over security offered to be able to enforce ownership on it in the event
the loan is not repaid.
It is part of the Legal Due Diligence of lending in banks.
Question (7)
Which factor has been responsible for reducing the share of total market lending by Indian banks?
The entry of non-bank financial companies (NBFCs)
Disintermediation in the Indian financial system
The ability of banks to support long-term financing
Emergence of capital markets
Question (8)
Which of the following statements does not apply to a private limited company?
It can have no share capital and be a private unlimited company.
It can only have between two and 200 members.
Its shares are freely transferable and can be traded on the stock exchange.
It can have no share capital, but be limited by guarantee.
Question (9)
In a facility against assignment of receivables: (Select all that apply)
The bank advances money to the borrower’s debtor who gives it to the borrower.
The borrower’s debtor repays the debt directly to the bank.
The bank advances the borrower a percentage of the amount owed by the borrower’s debtor
against security of that debt.
The borrower repays the debt to the bank whether or not it is repaid by the borrower’s debtor.
Question (10)
In the RBI Master Circular on Joint Ventures and Wholly Owned Subsidiaries:
Banks are permitted to lend to foreign companies having no element of Indian ownership.
Banks are not permitted to provide buyers’ credit to overseas parties to facilitate exports from
India.
Banks are permitted to lend to foreign joint ventures and wholly owned subsidiaries of Indian
entrepreneurs.
Banks are permitted to offer only non-funded facilities to foreign JVs and wholly owned
subsidiaries of Indian entrepreneurs.
Question (11)
What does the RBI do in its banking supervision function?
Issues directives for banking conduct of all banks and institutions
Issues banking licences for commercial banks in India
Regulates interest rates of financial transactions which are outside deregulation
All of the above
Question (12)
In its circular on exposure limits/norms, the RBI effectively:
Ensures that money is lent to deserving people and purposes.
Permits groups of related parties to borrow as much as they like from a bank.
Prevents concentration of lending to related borrowers and sectors.
None of the above.

Question (13)
Which is not an important credit consideration with respect to the legal structure of the company?
Its ability to offer security.
Its ability to borrow.
The liability of its members.
The transferability of its shares.
Question (14)
When a loan is taken With Recourse, it means that:
The lender can recover the money only from the guarantor.
The lender cannot recover the loan from the borrower.
The lender has recourse only to the security provided by the borrower.
The lender can recover the loan from the borrower.
Question (15)
In which of the following company types may members be held personally liable for the debts of
the company?
Public unlimited Company having share capital.
Public Company limited by Guarantee having share capital
Private Company limited by Guarantee and having no share capital.
All of the above.
Question (16)
Why do secured facilities carry a lower capital charge than unsecured facilities?
The potential residual loss after realisation of security is lower.
Pricing on secured facilities is lower.
Secured facilities are usually for a shorter tenor.
Secured facilities are usually repaid by fixed instalments.
Question (17)
Which of the following statements is true? (Select all that apply)
In their role as aggregators of deposits and providers of credit, banks occupy a position of trust.
The primary function of banks is to show profits for their shareholders, as is the case in other
sectors of industry.
The responsibility of banks to ensure prudent lending is limited. A greater responsibility rests with
the RBI in its policy making and supervision functions.
A potential cause for large Non Performing Assets may be inadequate credit assessments carried
out by banks.
Question (18)
What types of financial services do banks typically provide to investment companies? (Select all
that apply)
Underwriting of capital.
Letters of credit to facilitate trade.
Advice on mergers and acquisitions.
Retail loans to employees of the company.
Question (19)
Which is not a role of the RBI as the banker to the Government?
All state government deposits, remittances, exchange and banking transactions are conducted
through the RBI.
All central government deposits, remittances, exchange and banking transactions are conducted
through the RBI.
The RBI provides Ways and Means Advances (WMA) to meet short-term temporary payment
mismatches and investment of surplus cash balances.
Management of Public Debt and adviser on monetary and banking matters.
Question (20)
Which of the following statements is true?
Post-shipment credits are loans to bridge the time gap from receipt of the goods by the seller to
receipt of the sales proceeds from the buyer.
Since exports are a priority for the country, the RBI has not specified any guidelines for regulation
of export credit.
Pre-shipment credit is an advance given to meet working capital needs before shipment.
Pre- and post-shipment credits can be denominated only in Indian Rupees.
Question (21)
Why are banks required to be tightly regulated?
They conduct thorough credit assessments of borrowers whom they lend money to.
They print currency notes and distribute them in the economy.
They offer high interest rates on deposits which are an important source of income to depositors.
Their borrowing and lending activities play an important role in developing the economy.
Question (22)
What additional documentation do public limited companies require prior to being able to
commence business or borrow money?
Certificate of Incorporation
Certificate of Commencement of Business
Lending Limit Provisions
Articles of Association
Question (23)
Which of the following is a guideline issued by the RBI with respect to the issue of guarantees?
Banks need not confine themselves to issuing financial guarantees and performance guarantees.
Banks shall not issue guarantees on behalf of overseas JV/WOS of Indian companies.
Banks should confine themselves to the provision of performance guarantees and exercise due
caution with regard to financial guarantees.
Banks should prefer longer maturities over shorter maturities.

Section 1: Course 02 Online Assessment


All questions are mandatory
Question (1)
What sources of cash are used when undertaking the solvency test?
The injection of new capital by shareholders.
The sale of assets.
Sources other than day-to-day operations.
Arranging the refinancing of existing debts.
Question (2)
Which rating scale would generally be used to rate a five-year bond issued in India with less than
12 months to maturity?
A scale ranging from A1 (SO) to D (SO)
A nine point scale from A1 to A4 and D for default
A scale ranging from AAA (SO) to D (SO)
A 20 point scale ranging from AAA to D
Question (3)
If a corporate is proposing to raise funds from a new five-year bond, what type of rating would they
ask a rating agency to provide in order to attract investors?
An issue rating
An obligor rating
A corporate family rating
An issuer rating
Question (4)
What is a key difference between internal and external credit ratings for corporates?
Internal credit ratings provide an estimate of the likely loss in the event of default.
Internal credit ratings primarily use statistical models with limited expert opinion being used.
Rating agencies produce facility risk ratings as well as obligor credit ratings.
The main three ratings agencies use similar rating scales, but those used by banks can be less
granular.
Question (5)
What classification would you expect to see when a rating agency provides a rating outlook?
Uncertain
Negative
Watchlisted
Potential upgrade
Question (6)
What control mechanisms are often used to ensure that credit underwriting decisions have been
prudently made?
Peer reviews of an agreed percentage of all loan decisions made each month.
Post-approval monitoring of loan requirements such as compliance with loan covenants.
Post-approval reviews of a sample of loan decisions undertaken by an independent review officer.
Checks to confirm that credit decisions have only been made by individuals or committees within
delegated authorities.
Question (7)
What is the risk that a business is run in such a way that it fails to generate sufficient cash to meet
its debt obligations?
Facility Risk
Financial Risk
Industry and Business Risk
Management Risk
Question (8)
Which is one of the six key components of a bank’s credit underwriting framework?
The delegation of credit authority
Defining the calculation of risk adjusted returns
Determining policies on ethical and reputational risks
Facility structuring guidelines
Question (9)
What is the basic purpose of undertaking a credit analysis?
To confirm that the facility risks comply with the bank’s credit policy
To determine the correct pricing parameters when lending to a borrower
To calculate the expected loss if the borrower defaults
To understand a borrower’s ability and willingness to service their debt obligations when due
Question (10)
What must credit rating agencies in India do in order to comply with regulatory requirements after
they have rated a debt instrument?
Monitor company performance and update the rating on an annual basis.
Give a minimum of three months notice to the issuer before withdrawing their rating.
Report any changes in the rating to the regulator.
Continue to rate the debt instrument over its lifetime.
Question (11)
What does the liquidity test provide information about that can be used when undertaking a credit
assessment of a borrower?
Whether secondary sources of repayment will be sufficient to meet its debt obligations.
How much the borrower is able to raise from all sources to meet all its cash needs.
Whether the borrower is generating sufficient cash from day-to-day operations to cover its interest
and principal obligations.
The ability of the borrower to generate cash from day-to-day operations to meet all cash needs.
Question (12)
What factors influence the values that appear in a credit migration or transition matrix?
The final and initial ratings for the corporate at the start and end of the agreed time horizon.
The number of rating bands that a bank uses in its rating scale.
The number of rating bands that a rating is upgraded over the selected time horizon.
The number of times that a corporate’s graded credit is upgraded and downgraded.
Question (13)
What service do local rating agencies provide for investors in India?
Information that ensures that issues are priced correctly.
Research and opinions that address information asymmetry.
They ensure that there is a liquid market for debt instruments once issued.
Confirmation that an issuer will meet its financial obligations.
Question (14)
A potential customer has submitted a credit request. It has passed the liquidity test but failed the
solvency test. What action is the lender most likely to take?
Recalculate the liquidity and solvency tests.
Undertake a further credit assessment.
Decline the credit request.
Approve the credit request.
Question (15)
How are credit ratings used as part of the credit underwriting process for a credit request?
They are used to determine if allowances for losses are required.
They are used as inputs when undertaking financial analysis.
They are used to determine the required level for credit approval.
They are used to manage portfolio credit risks.
Question (16)
Why is the basis for establishing a credit rating different in capital markets and banking markets?
Capital markets facilitate capital transformation.
Rating agencies undertake an analysis of risk-return when investment decisions are made rather
than the banks when making credit decisions.
Investors bear the credit risk when they invest in debt securities.
Investors indirectly provide money to corporates who raise funds from capital markets.
Question (17)
Which measure is used to measure borrower or obligor risk?
Maturity (M)
Loss Given Default (LGD)
Probability at Default (PD)
Exposure at Default (EaD)
Question (18)
A customer has defaulted with Exposure at Default of 10,000. Mitigation held is valued at 15,000
but only 50% is recovered when it is sold and costs of 1,000 are incurred. What is the LGD%?
50%
35%
25%
65%

Question (19)
What is the primary purpose of conducting a projections scenario analysis as part of the lending
decision process?
To confirm that the assumptions underlying the projections are valid.
To identify the impact of credit enhancements.
Determine whether there is a need to reassess the initial financial risk assessment.
To compare projected financial results with the most recently available actual financial results.
Question (20)
In the Merton approach, at what point is default considered to have occurred?
When asset volatility exceeds two standard deviations.
When the value of a firm is less than the value of its liabilities based on market values.
When the firm’s leverage ratio exceeds agreed thresholds.
When the value of a firm is less than the value of its liabilities based on accounting values.
Question (21)
What is the underlying concept on which statistical models used in credit risk assessment are
based?
That the weighted outputs for the identified factors can be combined to determine a score.
That there is a relationship between company default and financial ratios and other factors.
That regression analysis can be used to build a model.
That modelled scores can be mapped to empirically observed default probabilities.
Question (22)
What should banks do if income levels are such that risk-adjusted return thresholds are not met?
Cancel unutilised facilities
Monitor the situation and seek to improve the rate of return over time.
Ask the customer to re-bank with another bank.
Reprice existing exposures
Question (23)
What is a key difference between global and Indian national ratings scales?
The number of ratings in each scale differs, making comparisons difficult.
Ratings using Indian national ratings scales and global ones are not comparable as they use
different rating methodologies.
Indian corporates rated using global scales will have their ratings capped based on the country
rating for India.
The scales use different combinations of alpha and alphanumeric symbols for each grade.
Question (24)
Why are banks more susceptible to failure as a result of their exposure to credit risk than other
types of companies?
Because they have low capital ratios
Because credit risk is the single biggest risk that banks are exposed to
Because capital buffers can be insufficient if there are significant credit losses
Because they operate with very high leverage
Question (25)
What does a credit scorecard that uses statistical techniques enable a bank to produce?
The placement of a customer in a risk bucket.
A score for a customer as part of the credit assessment process.
A credit rating
A credit risk grade for a customer
Question (26)
Which risk ratings provide a measure of the probability of default?
Through-the-cycle risk ratings
Obligor risk ratings
Single risk ratings
Facility risk ratings
Question (27)
How can banks use the information provided by the external rating agencies to improve their
credit assessment processes?
To assess credit portfolio risks.
As a benchmark for comparing with model outputs when determining the rating for a customer.
As comparators when designing and developing their internal ratings system.
To assess the customers’ attractiveness within a particular industry.
Question (28)
Which is the longest established credit rating agency in India?
ICRA Ltd.
India Rating and Research Pvt Ltd.
SME Rating Agency of India Ltd.
CRISIL Ltd.
Question (29)
Which requirement is an element of Pillar 2 of the Basel III Pillars approach?
Disclosing details of adequate capital and risk management processes.
The calculation of capital requirements for credit risk.
Holding capital in line with minimum capital requirements.
Undertaking and documenting an annual internal capital adequacy assessment.
Question (30)
How is current market information used by the Merton approach, or contingent claims model, to
assess the credit risk for a corporate?
By directly revaluing the corporate’s assets using information contained in stock prices
By calculating the leverage ratio for the corporate based on accounting values
Through highlighting the financial structure of the corporate
By revaluing the corporate’s liabilities
Question (31)
What is a good source of relative measures of credit risk for a corporate customer?
A credit rating agency rating
A structural credit risk model that uses equity information
Altman’s Z-score model
An expert system
Question (32)
Why is the level of bank capital a concern for regulators?
If a bank incurs large losses it would reduce the level of capital the bank holds and make it
vulnerable to failure.
Credit risk is the largest risk that a banks face and capital is needed to protect against large losses
when they happen.
Holding too high a level of capital will result in poor returns for shareholders.
It is inevitable that a bank will incur large losses at some point in the economic cycle.
Question (33)
As an element of portfolio credit risk, which factor has the most significant impact on exposure
credit risk?
Recovery rate
Asset correlation
Concentration risk
Correlation in exposure values
Question (34)
What is the most common definition of credit risk as it applies to banks?
Credit risk is the risk of economic loss that a bank incurs as a result of the failure by a borrower to
make interest and principal payments in full and on time.
Credit risk is the possibility of losses associated with a fall in value of traded debt instruments.
Credit risk is the risk of losses on funded credit products.
Credit risk is the loss in value of a credit exposure as a result of a deterioration in the
creditworthiness of the obligor.
Question (35)
What is the definition of Common Equity Capital?
Loss absorbing capital that can be converted to common shares or written down in the event of
substantial losses
A bank's pure or concern capital
The highest quality component of capital
A bank's gone-concern or supplementary capital
Question (36)
What factors are included in rating agencies’ industry rating methodology?
An assessment of a company’s business strategy with regards to the industries they operate in.
A peer comparison of financial performance for companies operating in the same industry.
Factors that are considered most predictive of default for companies operating in that particular
industry.
The ability of management to address issues that arise in their external environment.

Question (37)
What is a key feature of the Standardised Approach for calculating credit risk capital?
The ability to use greater granularity when calculating risk-weighted assets.
The use of a bank’s own estimates for components such as Probability of Default.
The need to obtain regulatory approval before the Standardised Approach can be used.
The use of external ratings to determine risk weights for credit exposures.
Section 1: Course 03 Online Assessment
All questions are mandatory
Question (1)
Which statement correctly describes the capital investment cycle?
Each business may have several capital investment cycles that are defined by the periods of
credit extended to it under each of its principal lending arrangements.
Each business may have several capital investment cycles that are defined by the useful life of its
significant fixed assets.
Each business has a unique capital investment cycle that is defined by the expected life of the
business.
Each business has a unique capital investment cycle that is defined by the average remaining life
of its outstanding debt at any point.
Question (2)
While analysing the financial statements of a private limited company, you discover that the
enterprise has recorded revenue before completing all obligations under the associated contract.
What possible warning sign will be available in the financial statements?
Positive operating cash flow in the cash flow statement.
Unusual increase in the unsecured loan.
Cash flow from operations lagging behind net income.
Unusual increase in trade payables.
Question (3)
Which of the component described is part of the operating cycle?
The average length of time a company takes to pay its bank loans.
The life of a piece of machinery used in the manufacturing process.
The length of time a company takes to sell goods to customers once they are manufactured.
The length of time a company takes to repay short-term loans used to finance inventory
purchases.
Question (4)
Identify the statement that is most applicable to the funding of the operating cycle.
It does not matter how it is funded as the operating cycle will carry on over time, so it can be
funded by either short- or long-term debt.
It is normally funded by longer-term debt because this provides certainty to enable the operations
to continue over the longer term.
It is typically funded by shareholder loans as shareholders are likely to be closest to the
operations of the business.
It should be funded by short-term debt as this matches the nature of the operating cycle and the
assets being funded, which are intended to be converted into cash as soon as possible.
Question (5)
Ramesh has applied for a loan to grow his business, which he owns jointly with his partner Badri.
The loan will be secured on machinery owned by the business, together with a personal
guarantee from Ramesh and he has submitted his Personal Balance Sheet to support this. Which
item would you exclude in the calculation of Ramesh's net worth?
His bank balances.
The outstanding mortgage on his apartment.
His shares in the business.
His collection of rare antique toys.
Question (6)
How evident is creative accounting in a company’s financial statements?
Creative accounting always presents warning signs that can be found by comparing a company’s
audited balance sheet with the balance sheet that is available in the MCA portal.
Creative accounting usually exhibits warning signs that can be found through scrutiny of a
company’s financial statements.
Creative accounting comes with warning signs that are typically best discovered by comparing a
company’s financial statement with its income tax returns.
Creative accounting comes with warning signs that are typically best discovered through
interaction with company management.
Question (7)
Which statement most accurately describes why financial statements are commonly used as the
basis for credit analysis?
Because accounts prepared on a cash basis are not as reliable due to variables such as
exchange rate and interest rate movements.
Because cash-based financial statements always give a more optimistic view of a company's
profitability and should therefore be treated with caution.
Because lenders typically use accruals accounting to prepare their own accounts.
Because they show a more complete view of the assets controlled and amounts owed by a
company.
Question (8)
Why would you perform an initial analytical review of a company's financial statements?
To remove credit requests that are obviously outside the bank's risk appetite.
To avoid conducting a full review of a company's financial statements if key financial targets are
met.
To make a quicker lending decision when the loan is simply being rolled over from one period to
the next.
To remove the need for further analysis where there is already a lending relationship and there is
currently no sign of financial distress.
Question (9)
Which non-current asset is categorised as an item of "property, plant, and equipment"?
Computer software
Goodwill
Investment property
Motor vehicle
Question (10)
As a lender, why is it important that you are able to reconcile the movement in equity to the
balance sheet?
Equity represents the accumulated income of a business and it is important to understand how
that has been earned.
Equity reserves are where a company stores its surplus cash, so it is critical to understand how
those reserves have changed over the period.
Changes in equity that result from unexplained items may be indicative of poor accounting
practices, indicating that the accounts may be unreliable.
Changes in equity are a result of increases in shareholder capital less dividends, so reconciling
the movement ensures you know what dividends have been paid.
Question (11)
Where would you look when trying to assess the operating lease commitments of a business?
By analysing the movement in reserves.
In the balance sheet.
In expenses in the statement of profit and loss and in the notes to the accounts.
In the directors trading update.
Question (12)
Which statement is true regarding debit entries in double-entry accounting?
Debit entries increase revenue in the statement of profit and loss and increase liabilities in the
balance sheet.
Debit entries decrease revenue in the statement of profit and loss and decrease liabilities in the
balance sheet.
Debit entries decrease revenue in the statement of profit and loss and increase liabilities in the
balance sheet.
Debit entries increase revenue in the statement of profit and loss and decrease liabilities in the
balance sheet.
Question (13)
Why are accrual-based financial statements commonly used as the basis for credit analysis?
Because accrual-based financial statements give a more conservative view of a company's
profitability.
Because lenders typically use accrual accounting to prepare their own accounts.
Because they show a more complete view of the assets owned and amounts owed by a company.
Because managers can easily manipulate accounts prepared on a cash basis by changing
accounting policies.
Question (14)
Which statement is correct in relation to funding the capital investment cycle?
Long-term financing is a suitable means of funding capital assets because it may allow the
business to extend credit beyond the serviceable life of the asset, which can then be used to
support other funding requirements.
Long-term financing is a suitable means of funding capital assets because it allows the borrower
to meet the cost of financing from operating income generated through the use of the asset.
Short-term financing is not a suitable means of funding capital assets because it is more
expensive than long-term funding.
Short-term financing is a suitable means of funding capital assets because it provides greater
flexibility to the borrower.

Question (15)
As a senior debt-holder, which of these would be a high risk indicator and would require further
investigation when monitoring financial statements?
A reduction in the total long-term liabilities.
Repayment of subordinated debt which had been held by the shareholders of the business.
Dividends paid which are more than half of the retained profit for the year.
A decrease in long-term debt compared to the previous year, with a portion re-classified as a
current liability.
Question (16)
What is a key risk factor when considering the risk of default on long-term loans?
Accepting a large order at a lower gross margin though it still returns a net profit in excess of cost
of capital.
Paying dividends that exceed current period net income.
Disposing of assets that are surplus to business requirements.
Taking advantage of supplier discounts by reducing the period of credit taken.
Question (17)
What is the correct definition of equity from an accounting perspective?
Equity is the total of nominal share capital, plus additional paid in capital plus any other non-
distributable reserves.
Equity is the difference between assets at fair value and the total of all liabilities including those
recognised by the business and those that are off balance sheet.
Equity is a residual amount that remains after all recognised liabilities are deducted from all
recognised assets.
Equity is the sum of capital invested by shareholders plus profits of the business.
Question (18)
Gearchange LLP has the following credit balances in its books at year end. What are the total
long-term liabilities?
- Trade payables 110
- Deferred tax 30
- Pension obligation 230
- Secured loan 160 (due in 4 equal annual instalments)
- Retained profits 75
- Shares issued 125
380
350
420
730
Question (19)
Which statement is accurate in relation to the operating cycle?
A company will have numerous operating cycles relating to different product or service lines.
A company usually has numerous operating cycles, each relating to a different customer.
The number of operating cycles will increase as a company sells more of its goods or services.
A company usually has just one operating cycle.
Question (20)
In relation to fixed assets and expenses which statement is correct?
Fixed assets are tangible items, whilst expenses are payments made for intangibles, including
services.
Fixed assets are those items expected to generate income for more than a year, whereas all other
payments are expenses.
Expenses are all items which will be turned into cash in less than 12 months. All other spending is
classified as fixed assets.
Expenses are those transactions relating to the operational activities of the business. Fixed assets
are those assets which will generate income for more than 12 months.
Question (21)
What would you find on a typical business balance sheet that you would not normally find on a
personal statement of net worth?
A list of liabilities
Shareholders' equity
Tangible assets
A total for net assets or net worth
Question (22)
Which statement relating to the components of the operating cycle is accurate?
A decreasing length of the operating cycle is a sign of deteriorating performance.
As the company grows it is inevitable that the operating cycle will increase in length.
As the operating cycle gets longer, less cash is tied up.
A decreasing length of the operating cycle will result in less borrowing being needed for a
business.
Question (23)
Why are capital investment cycles often financed by long-term debt?
Short-term debt is more expensive than long-term debt, so using long-term financing minimises
the average cost.
It minimises the risk to the business rather than having to re-finance short-term borrowing
repeatedly during the life of the asset.
The loan repayments can be matched to the economic life of the asset and spread through the
statement of profit and loss over the life of the asset.
The cost of debt is known, whereas equity shareholders may demand higher returns in the future.
Question (24)
Which item would be classed as an asset on the balance sheet at the year end?
Finished goods inventory which was sold soon after the year end.
Costs of researching possible new uses of biotechnology.
Security costs relating to warehousing facilities.
Rental payments on the company's head office.
Question (25)
Which statement is correct regarding assets and expenses?
Items purchased by a business that have a useful life of less than a year are expenses. Items with
a longer life are assets.
Assets are items that are not used up immediately by a business. As an asset is used up over
time, the reduction in value is recorded as an expense.
Assets are physical items that a business purchases. Services that are purchased are expenses.
Expenses relate to the current operating activities of a business. Investments in capital assets are
used to provide returns on funds surplus to operating requirements.
Question (26)
Which of the following statements is correct?
Creative accounting is not intended to mask poor financial performance.
Creative accounting is not intended to make reasonable performance look even better.
Some level of creative accounting is present in all financial statements.
The use of creative accounting tends to reduce the financial statements’ quality and reliability.
Question (27)
Who decides the accounting policies used by a company in preparing financial accounts?
The shareholders.
The company auditors.
Senior management of the company.
Local accounting standard setters.
Question (28)
Which statement is correct regarding the funding of the operating cycle?
Long-term funding is suitable because the funds can be used elsewhere in the business if they are
surplus to the needs of the operating cycle.
A long-term loan would place an unnecessary burden on the business beyond the period that the
financing is required for.
Equity financing is suitable because it is relatively simple to organise and investors can have their
investment returned to them if the funds are no longer required.
Long-term loans are suitable because they can easily be repaid if funding is no longer required.
Question (29)
What is the purpose of financial statement notes?
To provide further analysis of the performance of the company.
To further clarify and explain the numbers found in the financial statements and provide any other
relevant information not included elsewhere.
To give detail of the key assumptions made in preparing the financial statements and show the
impact of using other assumptions.
To provide management's view of the trading environment and detail of the performance highlights
of the business.
Question (30)
You have carried out a cursory review of the financial statements of a business your bank has lent
money to and have identified some key trends. Which of the following would be of most concern to
you?
Operating cash flows have turned increasingly negative, even while the company has reported
increased turnover and profits.
Inventory turnover has increased slightly during the last 12 months, whilst sales have been flat.
Sales are flat year on year, but profit has risen due to falling cost of goods sold.
Sales and profit have been flat during the year but trade receivables has reduced significantly.
Question (31)
Which factor ultimately determines the life cycle of trade receivables?
The speed with which the company collects cash from customers.
The volume of sales made.
The payment terms offered to customers.
The length of time finished goods are held before being delivered to a customer.
Question (32)
Which statement is correct regarding the classification of an item as an asset on the balance
sheet?
Assets sold shortly after the balance sheet date should not be included on the balance sheet.
Items from which the business expects to gain an economic benefit and which it has control over
should be included.
Items the company has taken ownership of and is using, but which have not yet been paid for,
should not be included on the balance sheet.
Items on short-term lease should be included in the balance sheet.
Question (33)
Which statement accurately describes an accounting risk?
A risk that there may be insufficient assets to repay liabilities as they fall due.
A risk that the carrying amount of fixed assets may be overstated compared to their market value.
A risk that a company's financial controls may be weak, leading to the possibility of undetected
fraud, waste, or inefficiency.
A risk that severe commodity price fluctuations will destabilise the cost base of the business.
Question (34)
Which of these actions would cause the short-term financing gap of a company to increase?
Renegotiation of a revolving credit facility on more favourable terms.
Purchase of new machinery to reduce production time.
Changing the payment terms offered to customers from 30 to 60 days.
Improvements in the manufacturing process to use less raw material content.
Question (35)
Which statement correctly defines the asset conversion cycle?
A continuous series of operating cycles within a longer capital conversion cycle.
The speed with which the business turns raw materials into cash.
A continuous series of capital conversion cycles within a longer operating cycle.
The speed with which the business recovers the cost paid for capital items such as plant and
machinery.
Question (36)
What warning sign would be a clue that a company is inflating its revenues in a given year?
Trade receivables growing much more rapidly than sales in that year.
Bank balances growing much faster than sales in that year.
Trade receivables growing much more slowly than sales in that year.
Inventory growing much faster than sales in that year.
Question (37)
Which accounting treatment is correct?
Penalty imposed by the Custom Department and confirmed on appeal as having been paid is
shown as a contingent liability; payment is shown as a receivable by the company, which has
been pointed out by the auditor as being legitimately contingent in the auditor’s report.
Penalty imposed by the Custom Department and confirmed on appeal as having been paid is
shown as contingent liability; payment made is shown as a receivable by the company.
Penalty imposed by the Custom Department and allowed on appeal, but the amount paid under
protest is shown as liabilities and charged to the statement of profit and loss.
Penalty imposed by the Custom Department and confirmed on appeal as having been paid is
shown as a provision; payment is shown as an expenditure by the company.
Question (38)
Which of the following accurately describes a determining feature of a current liability?
The debt does not carry an interest charge.
The liability relates to items that are part of the trading activities such as payments to suppliers.
The original settlement period of the liability was less than 12 months at the time the liability was
recognised.
The liability is expected to settle within the normal operating cycle of the business.
Question (39)
Your client is a small group of companies that follows Ind AS. On examining the financial
statements of its main subsidiary, you notice that its accounts are not prepared under Ind AS, but
under the other accounting standards for its country of registration. Which approach should you
take in this situation?
There is little cause for concern, because national accounting standards are generally more
conservative than Ind AS.
You should research the local accounting policies and practices, compare them to those of Ind AS,
and consider their potential impact.
You should ask your customer to provide an alternative set of financial statements based on Ind
AS for the subsidiary.
You should request disclosures to align with the requirements of Ind AS, which are typically more
stringent than others.
Question (40)
You lend a company Rs.20 lacs to buy a new piece of machinery, with the loan secured against
the asset. Shortly after the machine is purchased, another company sells a similar machine for
Rs.12 lacs. What impact does this information have?
The company can choose whether to reduce the carrying value of the asset.
None; the company should record the asset at cost because it is going to be used over a number
of years and your credit analysis is based on this valuation.
The company should conduct an impairment review, which might result in a downward adjustment
of the asset's value and the need for additional security.
The company should retain the asset at cost, but it should shorten the asset's life by increasing
future depreciation.
Question (41)
How would failure to record depreciation expense affect a company’s earnings?
Failure to fully record depreciation expense inflates company earnings.
Depreciation is only an adjustment by debiting depreciation and crediting fixed assets and does
not, therefore, impact earnings.
Since depreciation is a non-cash expense, company earnings are not affected one way or the
other by its inclusion in the statement of profit and loss.
Failure to fully record depreciation expense reduces company earnings.
Question (42)
Which of these statements explains why generic IFRS might not have been fully adopted in India?
Because IFRS has yet to develop standards that are suitable for anything other than large multi-
national businesses.
Because IFRS accounts typically produce lower reported profits, which is unpopular with
investors.
Due to the reporting needs of the Indian business and banking community that were specific to
this country.
Because IFRS is technically more challenging than most national accounting standards.
Question (43)
Rudolf Trading has a seasonal business and typically has a borrowing requirement during the first
quarter of the year. When you review the financial statements prepared at the year end, which
factor would be an indicator of high risk?
The length of the operating cycle is lower than it was the previous year.
Long-term loans have been re-negotiated during the last 12 months and are now repayable on
various maturity dates beginning in 3 years.
The company has short-term borrowing at the year end close to its funding limit.
The cash flow statement shows increased operational cash flow compared to the previous year.
Question (44)
Which statement relating to the Income Statement (profit and loss account) is correct?
Differences in statement of profit and loss accounts from one period to the next reflect activity in
that period.
Statement of profit and loss balances are carried forward from one period to the next.
The amount recorded in an account within the statement of profit and loss reflects the value of
transactions in that account during the period.
In the statement of profit and loss, movement in Revenue accounts is always equal to movement
in Expense accounts.

Section 1: Course 04 Online Assessment


All questions are mandatory
Question (1)
As far as environmental risk assessment is concerned, what is a step for which there is no
substitute?
A full and professional inspection of the borrower's assets and facilities.
A comprehensive tour of the borrower's premises by a loan officer.
A full-day visit to the borrower and its premises, including getting to know its operating personnel.
A thorough interview of the borrower.
Question (2)
What is seasonality?
A predictable pattern of business activity that peaks during a particular season.
An unpredictable distribution of business activity that peaks during particular seasons, months or
quarters.
A predictable pattern of business activity that peaks during particular seasons, months or quarters.
An unpredictable distribution of business activity that peaks during a particular season.
Question (3)
Which statement about client concentration is most accurate?
Concentration issues can be significant when a borrower's customers are businesses; they may
not be an issue when a borrower primarily serves individual customers.
Concentration issues can be significant when a borrower's customers are individual customers;
they are not necessarily an issue when a borrower serves a very limited number of strong clients.
Concentration issues are significant when a borrower's customers are individual customers; they
may not be an issue when a borrower primarily serves separate businesses.
Client concentration is always an issue; it always exerts great pressure on a business.
Question (4)
Which strategy would likely decrease the chances of a mature business's survival?
Avoiding different product lines or geographic markets.
Introducing new products or services.
Merging with or acquiring a competitor.
Re-engineering the operation to improve efficiency.
Question (5)
What is the solvency test?
A test that evaluates a business's ability to generate cash from ongoing operations to pay all
normal expenses, including interest and scheduled principal payments.
A test that is a replacement for the liquidity test and provides a short-hand view of overall risk
associated with a loan.
A test that is a stress test of a lender's portfolio to assess the amount of risk it can safely take on.
A test that assesses the adequacy of cash from the liquidation of business assets in distressed
circumstances to pay interest and all debt.
Question (6)
Which of the following statements is most accurate with regard to insignificant regulation?
Expenses and cash flow increase.
Expenses and profitability are not affected.
Capital expenditures decrease.
Profitability and cash flow increase.
Question (7)
How could a business located in an economically depressed area mitigate the impact of its local
economy?
Even though the business could endeavour to find new clients, it has no choice but to weather the
impact of the local economy.
By endeavouring to develop new local contacts and clients, thereby spreading out the economic
risk on more local clients.
By finding or developing dealings with customers located in parts of the world that are thriving.
A depressed local economy is beyond the control of any business.
Question (8)
Which factors increase the bargaining power of suppliers?

I. Provision of basic inputs.


II. Suppliers' ability to integrate forward.
III. Lack of substitute inputs.
IV. Dominance by few suppliers.
I and III only.
II, III and IV only.
I and IV only.
II and III only.
Question (9)
From a risk management perspective, what is the most reliable indicator of profitability?
Total amount of profits or in terms of percentage of sales.
Total amount of profits or in terms of units still to be sold.
By the percentage of sales relatively to the number of units not sold.
By the actual monetary value of profits.
Question (10)
Which factor is most adversely affected by market overcapacity?
Number of businesses in the market.
Product availability.
Product pricing.
Unit sales.
Question (11)
What are some characteristics of a market in which supply and demand are equal?
Market is at a mature stage; products and services are widely accepted albeit with a declining
demand; new competitors have entered the market; industry status risk is moderate and rising.
Market is at a mature stage; products and services are widely accepted albeit with a declining
demand; new competitors have entered the market; industry status risk is moderate.
Market is at a mature stage; products and services are widely accepted; new competitors have
entered the market; industry status risk is moderate.
Market is at a mature stage; products and services are widely accepted; no new competitors are
entering the market; industry status risk is moderate.
Question (12)
In which scenario would a business's sales, cash flow and financial viability be most at risk?
A business that deals with many individual customers.
A business that deals with many large customers.
A business that deals with many small customers.
A business that deals with very few large customers.
Question (13)
How can the risks inherent in a borrower's industry be assessed?
Understand the stages of both the industry's and business's life cycles and their correlation;
quantify how the industry's risk profile may affect the borrower's performance.
Assess the general status of the industry; understand the stages of both the industry's and
business's life cycles; quantify how the industry's risk profile may affect the borrower's
performance.
Assess the general status of the industry; understand the stages of the borrower's life cycle;
quantify how the industry's risk profile may affect the borrower's performance.
Assess the general status of the industry; understand the stages of the industry's life cycle;
quantify how the industry's risk profile may affect the borrower's performance.
Question (14)
Which is most affected by seasonality in the operations of a business?
Expense levels.
The capital base.
Annual cash flow.
The timing of cash flows.
Question (15)
Which is the most accurate statement regarding financing the growth phase of profitable
businesses?
Profitable businesses may need financing for both accounts receivable (trade debtors) and
inventory (stock).
Profitable businesses do not need financing for either inventory (stock) or accounts receivable
(trade debtors).
Profitable businesses may need financing for accounts receivable (trade debtors) but not
inventory (stock).
Profitable businesses may need financing for inventory (stock) but not accounts receivable (trade
debtors).
Question (16)
"There is almost a non-existent risk that unforeseen events with one employer will adversely
impact a particular enterprise. Only a catastrophic set of events might cause enough of a market
disturbance to cause revenues and cash flow levels to deteriorate. Market risk is very low and the
overall risk is low." What situation does the this commentary best describe?
An industry or local market is dominated by a single business that employs a significant number of
people.
An industry or market has a large number of employers and there is a very diversified economic
base.
A number of different employers and a broad economic base.
Industry or marketplace remains fairly reliant on a few dominant employers.
Question (17)
What statement concerning the impact of domestic competition on debt repayment is most
accurate?
High domestic competition leads to increased cash flow and decreased ability to repay debt as
scheduled.
High domestic competition leads to decreased cash flow and decreased ability to repay debt as
scheduled.
High domestic competition leads to decreased cash flow and increased ability to repay debt as
scheduled.
High domestic competition leads to increased cash flow and increased ability to repay debt as
scheduled.
Question (18)
What statement concerning the impact of barriers to entry on debt repayment is most accurate?
Low barriers to entry lead to a less competitive environment and increased ability to repay debt as
scheduled.
Low barriers to entry lead to a more competitive environment and decreased ability to repay debt
as scheduled.
Low barriers to entry lead to a less competitive environment and decreased ability to repay debt
as scheduled.
Low barriers to entry lead to a more competitive environment and increased ability to repay debt
as scheduled.
Question (19)
What are some characteristics of a marketplace dominated by one large supplier?
Because it is not the only supplier, it exerts only average influence over its products' terms and
prices. Its bargaining power could have a real impact on a buyer's cost structure. It is more difficult
for borrowers to achieve profitability and generate adequate cash flow.
The supplier exerts significant influence over its products' terms and prices. Its bargaining power
has a low impact on a buyer's cost structure. It is more difficult for borrowers to achieve
profitability and generate adequate cash flow.
The supplier exerts significant influence over its products' terms and prices. Its bargaining power
begins to have a real impact on a buyer's cost structure. It is much more difficult for borrowers to
achieve profitability and generate adequate cash flow.
It is not the only supplier in the marketplace, and exerts only average influence over its products'
terms and prices. Its bargaining power could start to have a real impact on a buyer's cost
structure. It is still easy for borrowers to achieve profitability and generate adequate cash flow.
Question (20)
Which of the following statements is most accurate with regard to the impact environmental risk
has on lending?
Environmental risk can extend a lender's liability beyond the loss of principal and interest.
Environmental risk decreases the lender's risk of loss of principal and interest.
Despite environmental risk, a lender's liability is limited to the loss of principal and interest.
Environmental risk has no impact on the extent of a lender's liability.
Question (21)
What information about a borrower's customer base would likely be most relevant to assessing
credit risk?
The total number of the business's customers.
The terms offered by the business to retain the best customers.
The names of the business's largest and most loyal customers.
The impact on cash flow if the business loses its largest customer.
Question (22)
What are the most likely consequences of significant regulation (other than barriers to entry) on a
business?
Expenses increase while capital expenditures decrease.
Expenses decrease while capital expenditures increase.
Expenses and capital expenditures increase.
Expenses and capital expenditures decrease.
Question (23)
Which of the following is most accurate regarding the relationship between sales and business
and industry health?
Reviewing sales over six months should yield similar results to a 10-year review.
Expanding sales imply a declining business or industry.
Sales trends are not impacted by business and industry health.
Declining sales imply a declining business or industry.
Question (24)
As a recession approaches, which combination of borrower characteristics would cause a lender
to be most concerned?
Decreasing profitability, small market share and low gearing.
Small market share, flat cash flow and low gearing.
Marginal cash flow, flat profits and small market share.
Declining profits, increasing gearing and declining cash flow.
Question (25)
Which of the following statements is true regarding durable products?
Non-durable product sales tend to lag durable product sales during a downturn.
Demand for durable goods decreases as the macro economy enters a recovery.
The most critical factor related to sales volatility is the durability of the product being sold.
The durability of a product has no impact on the volatility of its sales.
Question (26)
How do you arrive at a preliminary financial risk assessment?
Conduct general research, then review and analyse ratios and cash flow.
Conduct market research, then review and analyse ratios and projections.
Conduct market research, then review and analyse ratios and cash flow.
Conduct general research, then review and analyse ratios and projections.
Question (27)
Which risk category is typically considered critical when addressing a borrower's overall credit
risk?
Sovereign risk.
Audit risk.
Management risk.
Counterparty risk.
Question (28)
Which company below would likely be least impacted by government regulation?
Bar.
Clothing store.
Restaurant.
Airline.
Question (29)
Your borrower supplies most of its goods and services to a large steel manufacturer that is in
decline. What impact could this have on the borrower?
While the borrower's performance could be impacted by the state of affairs of that manufacturer,
there is no meaningful impact on credit risk: steel manufacturers will always be around and
needed.
The borrower's financial performance can be viewed as independent of that manufacturer. They
are two separate entities.
While the borrower's financial performance depends on the performance of that manufacturer, the
borrower can mitigate its decline by increasing its sales to it.
The borrower's financial performance depends on the steel manufacturer. Their relationship
increases the borrower's credit risk.
Question (30)
What is the impact of market overcapacity on a borrower from a lender's perspective?
Market overcapacity has an impact on market prices, sales growth, cash flow, loan repayment
ability, and profitability.
Market overcapacity has some impact on market prices, sales growth, cash flow and loan
repayment ability. Profitability is not a concern.
This is not a concern. Overcapacity means that many competitors are vying for the existing
demand. One borrower can replace another.
While market overcapacity could have an impact on market prices and sales growth, this is not a
source of concern. A strong borrower should be able to make it through any market situation.
Question (31)
To properly evaluate factors in market (industry and business) risk, one needs to:

I. Understand how market (industry and business) risk can affect a borrower's liquidity.
II. Recognise the importance of the competitive marketplace.
III. Grasp how financial, market (industry and business) and management risk affect one another.
IV. Consider the availability of liquidity in the marketplace.
III and IV only.
I, III and IV only.
II and IV only.
I, II and III only.
Question (32)
What is the effect of economies of scale on competition in an industry?
Economies of scale tend to encourage new competitors to enter an industry.
Economies of scale have no impact on competition in an industry.
Economies of scale tend to encourage established competitors to exit an industry.
Economies of scale tend to discourage new competitors from entering an industry.
Question (33)
Which factor is most likely to increase the intensity of competition within a given market?
Rapid industry growth.
Low fixed costs.
An economic recovery.
Diverse, successful competitors.
Question (34)
What statement concerning the impact of domestic competition on debt repayment is most
accurate?
Low domestic competition leads to increased cash flow and increased ability to repay debt as
scheduled.
Low domestic competition leads to increased cash flow and decreased ability to repay debt as
scheduled.
Low domestic competition leads to decreased cash flow and decreased ability to repay debt as
scheduled.
Low domestic competition leads to decreased cash flow and increased ability to repay debt as
scheduled.
Question (35)
For a business that has many small clients, what type of relationship is it likely to have with
individual customers?
Individual clients will likely exert little pressure on supplier prices.
Individual clients will likely exert significant pressure on supplier prices.
Individual clients will tend to buy more product.
The supplier will exert substantial pressure on individual clients to reduce their inventory (stock)
levels.
Section 1: Course 05 Online Assessment
All questions are mandatory
Question (1)
What typically causes position overload?
The need for a flatter organisational structure.
Traditional competitive pressures.
Insufficient management depth.
Employee dissatisfaction with supervisors.
Question (2)
What is the key risk that is evaluated in assessing a business's credit risk?
How changes in the economic environment affect a business's financing costs.
The degree of a business's earnings volatility.
Whether a business can repay principal and interest as scheduled.
The business's competitive position in its industry.
Question (3)
What statement concerning credit agency reports is most accurate?
Their value depends on the working relationship management has with the credit agency.
Their value depends on the quantity, quality and completeness of the data they contain.
They provide a complete picture of a business's financial position.
They provide a complete picture of a business's credit position and history.
Question (4)
In what way is management's response to past market disturbances useful in the credit risk
assessment process?
It is normally a useful indicator of how management might perform during similar events in the
future.
It reveals information about when disturbances occurred, but not about how they were managed.
It is generally unhelpful since major disturbances are all different from one another.
It is an unhelpful indicator because there is no independent verification of past actions.
Question (5)
What type of business plan provides the best chance for success?
Clear, unchanging and realistic.
Clear, realistic and measurable.
Unchanging, highly detailed and measurable.
Clear, highly flexible and time-tested.
Question (6)
Generally, who creates a business plan?
Management.
Lender.
Payroll department.
Human resources department.
Question (7)
Why is integrity a critical management characteristic?
It is the best single indicator of repayment ability.
The lender's relationship is with management, not with the business.
It is the best single indicator of business success.
Most of the information needed to properly assess credit risk is provided by management.
Question (8)
Which statement about credit agency reports is correct?
They are the most valuable management risk assessment tool available.
They almost always point to integrity issues if they show slow trade payments.
They are unhelpful in assessing integrity because management provides most of the report
information.
They almost always point to integrity issues if they show payment defaults.
Question (9)
What is the liquidity test?
A technique to streamline the credit risk assessment process through the use of quantitative
analytics.
An assessment of the business's ability to generate sufficient cash from ongoing operations to
meet debt service requirements.
An assessment of cash available from the distressed liquidation of a business's assets to pay
interest and amortise debt.
It is synonymous with a 'solvency test', in that it assesses whether a borrower's assets exceed its
liabilities.
Question (10)
What are the two considerations that need to be deliberated when mitigating against position
overload and ensuring adequate management depth?
Management positions should have functional overlap while ensuring managers are not
overburdened.
Management positions should have functional overlap while avoiding unnecessary overhead
expense.
Management positions should be properly staffed while ensuring managers are not overburdened.
Management positions should be properly staffed while avoiding unnecessary overhead expense.
Question (11)
Which of the following parties does not represent a typical level of oversight in the corporate
governance process?
Board of directors.
Executive officers.
Regulators.
Shareholders.
Question (12)
What would have limited value in relation to succession planning?
Emphasising on-the-job experience.
Gathering competitive intelligence.
Cross training.
Educational seminars.
Question (13)
What does the existence of a business operating budget indicate?
Management emphasises strong corporate governance.
Management has focused attention on all revenues and expenses for the relevant periods
covered by the budget.
Management has a conservative bias toward future operations.
Management will make strong profits during the budget period.
Question (14)
Which methods are useful in assessing a business's ability to recover from disturbances?

I. Reviewing contingency plans and insurance coverage with management.


II. Discussing suppliers during a facility tour.
III. Determining the status of labour relations.
IV. Discussing current economic, industry, and political issues when meeting with management.
I and II only.
I, II and IV only.
I, II, III and IV.
I, III and IV only.
Question (15)
What does management risk assessment generally include?
Assessment of financial and market (industry and business) risk, and competition.
Projections analysis, cash flow analysis and corporate governance structure.
Management integrity, skill and execution, and scope.
Management integrity, general business environment, and individual business vulnerability.
Question (16)
What attributes should objectives have in a financial plan?
Clear, realistic and measurable.
Conservative, realistic and measurable.
Clear, optimistic and measurable.
Conservative, pessimistic and measurable.
Question (17)
Identify the most desirable set of qualities that a lender should look for when evaluating a
management team.
Knowledge, communication effectiveness, financial investment in the business, commitment and
sound planning ability.
Leadership, knowledge, risk assessment and management, communication effectiveness,
commitment, sound planning ability and a solid record of managing to plans.
Leadership, detailed task performance ability, communication effectiveness, commitment, sound
planning ability and a solid record of managing to plans.
Leadership, knowledge, experience beyond the present industry, commitment, sound planning
ability and a solid record of managing to plans.
Question (18)
Why do lenders attempt to mitigate credit risk?
To justify charging higher interest rates than might otherwise be possible.
To transform a bad loan into a good loan.
To enable credit to be extended to borrowers that are otherwise considered poor risks.
To minimise risk and enhances management of loans extended to creditworthy borrowers.
Question (19)
For what business is key person insurance likely most critical?
Government agency.
Small business.
Publicly traded company.
University.
Question (20)
What is the focus of management risk?
Capacity, integrity, depth and staying power.
The competitive marketplace in which the borrower operates.
Stronger than anticipated business performance.
Loan structure.
Question (21)
Which option can mitigate work stoppages?
Liability insurance.
Alternative sources.
Dependable suppliers.
Good labour relations.
Question (22)
Which critical skill for executives deals with the creation and maintenance of loyal, satisfied
customers, dependable suppliers and dedicated employees?
Leadership.
Knowledge.
Communication.
Commitment.
Question (23)
What would be an unusual use for the proceeds of key person insurance?
Purchase heirs' interest in the business.
Plant expansion.
Pay off debt.
Reduce debt.
Question (24)
Corporate governance provides a structure to determine business objectives and a means of
achieving and monitoring their outcomes.
FALSE
I am not sure
TRUE
Question (25)
Who is considered a principal party with respect to corporate governance?
Banks.
Management.
Society at large.
Suppliers.
Question (26)
Which of the following is not one of the five management responsibilities?
Production.
Sales.
Staffing.
Finance.
Question (27)
Why do management positions need to be properly staffed?
To reduce the strain on working capital by controlling payroll expenses.
To ensure that no employees leave for the competition.
To ensure liquidity and solvency remain within lending guidelines.
To prevent position overload and provide depth while minimising overhead expense.
Section 1: Course 06 Online Assessment
All questions are mandatory
Question (1)
Why is it useful to track and analyse a company’s operating expense percentage over a period of
years?
It reflects management’s ability to control expenses under varying conditions over time.
It is the most critical indicator of a company’s ability to meet its obligations.
Operating expenses always represent the biggest draw on a company’s cash flow.
More than any other indicator, operating expense levels give us crucial insight into management
integrity.
Question (2)
What typically provides an early warning to a lender that a borrower's performance is falling short
of projections?
Private investigators.
Properly structured covenants.
Interviews with borrower's customers.
Researching borrower's competition.
Question (3)
Acceptable levels of gearing tend to vary from one industry to another.
FALSE
TRUE
Question (4)
Why is the size and movement of the gross margin (gross profit/net sales) a good indicator of a
business's financial health and credit risk?
It reflects management's ability to increase company expenses while remaining profitable.
It is a dependable predictor of the business's future profitability.
It is a dependable predictor of a business's competitive position in the marketplace.
It reflects management's ability to grow sales while remaining profitable.
Question (5)
Which of the following financial indicators are NOT commonly viewed as risk (or cash) drivers?

I. Operating expense percentage.


II. Net profit.
III. Trade payables days.
IV. Total sales.
II, III and IV only.
I and III only.
II and III only.
II and IV only.
Question (6)
The asset conversion cycle is identical from one company to another.
FALSE
TRUE
Question (7)
Capital spending falls outside normal trading activities.
FALSE
TRUE
Question (8)
A gain on the sale of fixed assets is shown in which section of a direct cash flow statement?
Non-operating activities.
Operating activities
Investing activities.
Financing activities.
Question (9)
What is the value of establishing a range of possible projected financial outcomes of a borrower?
It provides an analytically useful set of parameters within which borrower performance is likely to
fall.
It guarantees borrower repayment of the anticipated loan.
It ensures that projected cash flows will be accurate.
It makes it easy to adjust parameters to reach pre-determined results.
Question (10)
Which of the following statements is correct?
The cash required to support inventory (stock) increases on a relative basis if inventory (stock)
turnover slows.
The cash required to support inventory (stock) increases on a relative basis if inventory (stock)
turnover accelerates.
The cash required to support inventory (stock) decreases on a relative basis if inventory (stock)
turnover slows.
The more quickly inventory (stock) is sold, the more funds are needed to support inventory
(stock).
Question (11)
Which projected scenarios would likely absorb the most cash flow?
Low sales growth, decreasing trade payables days and increasing trade receivables and inventory
(stock) days.
High sales growth, increasing trade payables days and decreasing trade receivables and
inventory (stock) days.
Minimal sales growth, increasing trade creditor days and decreasing trade receivable and
inventory (stock) days.
High sales growth, decreasing trade payables days and increasing trade receivables and
inventory (stock) days.
Question (12)
What is typically considered an adequate interest coverage ratio?
Varies based on the business's industry.
At least 2.
One that is a positive number.
At least 5.
Question (13)
Identify the greatest borrowing need of a service provider in a period of sustained economic
growth.
Finance a change in the business's ownership.
Finance inventory (stock) until products are sold.
Finance trade receivables until they are collected in cash.
Finance trade payables until they are paid in cash.
Question (14)
What event is most likely to decrease inventory (stock) days?
Automation of the inventory control process.
Recession.
Product becomes obsolete.
Substitute product introduced.
Question (15)
A new sales manager has been hired by the company, and she promises to double sales within
one year. How should forecast assumptions be changed?
The experience of a seasoned manager is priceless. Forecast assumptions are to be improved
with no delay.
While past performance, the realism of plans, and the external environment must be reviewed,
such claims are usually reliable; assumptions can be changed accordingly.
Such claims, based on past performance and ambitious future plans, are just what drive a
company ahead. Previous assumptions can be improved accordingly.
Claims are not enough. Past performance, the realism of plans, and the external environment and
market must be reviewed.
Question (16)
What is the calculation for sales growth?
(Prior Period Sales - Recent Period Sales) / Prior Period Sales
(Recent Period Sales - Prior Period Sales) / Prior Period Sales
(Prior Period Sales - Recent Period Sales) / Recent Period Sales
(Recent Period Sales - Prior Period Sales) / Recent Period Sales
Question (17)
Which accounts would most likely be included in the financial statements of a service business?

I. Cost of goods sold.


II. Inventory (stock).
III. Fixed assets.
IV. Trade receivables.
II and IV only.
I and III only.
III and IV only.
I, II and IV only.
Question (18)
What does a company's current ratio show?
Whether trade receivables and inventory (stock) will cover trade payables in the next operating
period.
Whether fixed assets exceeded current assets in the most recent operating period.
Whether current assets, if converted to cash, will cover short-term liabilities in the next operating
period.
Whether current liabilities will cover short-term assets in the next operating period.
Question (19)
How are projections most useful?
Pinpointing a company's future performance.
Helping the lender work through a variety of forecast scenarios quickly.
Establishing a range of likely outcomes and determining if "most likely case" results are
acceptable.
Establishing a range of likely outcomes and determining if the "worst case" results are acceptable.
Question (20)
What event is most likely to increase trade receivables days?
Focus on collections.
Billings are computerised.
Sales increase.
Competing with terms.
Question (21)
Which of the following is reflected in trade payables days calculation?
Gross profit.
Gross margin.
Terms offered by suppliers.
Capital expenditures.
Question (22)
Which tasks are commonly performed by financial analysts as they assess the credit risk of a
commercial borrower?

I. Understand the root causes of changes in the company’s financial position.


II. Forecast future company performance.
III. Understand the qualitative factors that contributed to the business’s historical financial results.
IV. Accurately assesses the business's credit needs and risks.
I, III only.
I only.
II and III only.
I, II, and IV only.
Question (23)
As a company's interest expenses rise, its operating expenses increase at the same time.
TRUE
FALSE
Question (24)
In a UCA cash flow statement, if a business has a cash deficit after repaying debt as scheduled,
what does it likely indicate?
It will have eliminated its potential for going out of business in the short run.
It will not require additional financing to pay for fixed asset purchases.
It will require additional financing to pay for fixed asset purchases.
Its financing requirement for the period will be less than that deficit.
Question (25)
What happens to a borrower's supporting financing needs and financial risk when inventory
(stock) is sold more quickly?
Both decrease.
Both increase.
Expenses and inventory (stock) just build up until further notice.
The borrower's supporting financing needs increase while financial risk decreases.
Question (26)
What is the formula for free cash flow?
Net sales + amortisation and depreciation - change in working capital - capital expenditures.
Net income (NPAT) - amortisation and depreciation + change in working capital + capital
expenditures.
Net sales - amortisation and depreciation + change in working capital + capital expenditures.
Net income (NPAT) + amortisation and depreciation - change in working capital - capital
expenditures.
Question (27)
Sales growth is a particularly useful starting point for assessing which component of a business's
overall risk profile?
Financial risk.
Market (industry and business) risk.
Economic risk.
Management risk.
Question (28)
Trade receivable days do not tend to vary from industry to industry.
TRUE
FALSE
Question (29)
Why can sensitivity analysis be a useful part of the projection process?
It allows the analyst to utilise intuition to set key variables at the right levels.
It helps identify the degree to which critical risk drivers can vary before forecasts fall outside the
range of acceptable outcomes.
It identifies how critical risk (cash) drivers can be optimised.
It allows the analyst to complete the projections process more quickly.
Question (30)
What do the business financial statements of a sole trader display as opposed to their personal
financial statements (income tax forms)?
Net profit on its profit and loss statement that does not include business income taxes.
The salary of the sole trader in the operating expenses of the business.
Withdrawals in the operating expenses of the business.
Net profit including the sole trader's personal income taxes.
Question (31)
What is usually the first step in a traditional credit decision process?
Collect sufficient information to make a credit decision.
Spread the business's financial data.
Determine whether the request fits loan policy guidelines.
Interview borrower management.
Question (32)
How does an increase in gearing affect a business's liquidity?
Improves the ability to generate profits from normal business operations.
Typically increases cash required to be paid to outside creditors.
Increases cash available to service debt.
Improves the ability to convert assets to enough cash to pay creditors.
Question (33)
Gross margin does not tend to vary from industry to industry.
TRUE
FALSE
Question (34)
What are the three classification categories for cash receipts and payments in the statement of
cash flows?
Operating activities, investing activities and financing activities.
Investing activities, operating activities and capital activities.
Investing activities, financing activities and capital activities.
Capital activities, operating activities and financing activities.
Question (35)
What event is most likely to reduce trade payables days?
Recession.
Competition among suppliers becomes stronger.
Supplier tightens terms.
Interest rate increases.
Question (36)
What is meant by "short-term financing gap" of the operating cycle?
The amount of time it takes a financial institution to fund a business's loan request.
The difference between the days of receivables and inventory (stock) on hand and the days of
supplier credit.
The difference between the sales a business generates and the amount of cash it actually collects
based on those sales.
The amount of time it takes a cheque to clear allowing a depositing business access to the funds.
Question (37)
What is the formula for current ratio?
Current Assets / Current Liabilities
Current Liabilities / Current Assets
Current Liabilities - Current Assets
Current Assets + Current Liabilities
Question (38)
What analytical purpose is served by creating projections, beyond simply evaluating a business's
projected cash flows?
Expediting the credit decision-making process.
Discovering the true motivations of borrower management.
Focusing attention on critical credit risk-related issues, whether internal or external.
Reassessing historical solvency.
Question (39)
What form of business organisation is an extension of a sole trader?
Partnership.
Sole trader.
Joint stock company.
Company.
Question (40)
What is EBITDA best suited to measure?
A business's operational cash flow.
Comparative return on capital between businesses and industries.
A business's liquidity.
Comparative profitability between businesses and industries.

Section 1: Course 07 Online Assessment


All questions are mandatory
Question (1)
Why was the Tandon Committee initially established?
To study the Indian banking system.
To report to the Reserve Bank of India to whom Indian banks were lending money.
To make recommendations on how the Indian banking system can become more liberal.
To review the then existing Indian banking system and submit recommendations to introduce
credit discipline on both borrowers and bankers.
Question (2)
In which situation would you expect to grant a grace period?
If the equipment purchased had broken down and the borrower was not able to derive benefit from
it.
If the capital expenditure investment requires a ramp up period until full cash flow generation and
if the borrower is highly rated and where there is a DSCR cushion.
If the borrower was not able to meet a repayment in a particular period.
Grace periods are only granted for mortgages not term loans.
Question (3)
Should the term loan be granted if it is not possible to validate all information about the financial
feasibility of the equipment?
Yes, an accurate assessment may not always be possible. The approach should be to validate as
much as is practically feasible, while critically examining all the components.
Yes, as the risk that the new equipment is not financially feasible sits with the borrowing company.
No, without having a full picture on the financial feasibility of the equipment, not all risks are
known.
No, a full financial feasibility study on the equipment is always required.
Question (4)
How is the working capital cycle measured?
Working capital cycle (months) = (Current assets ÷ Inventory held) x 12
Working capital cycle (months) = (Current assets ÷ Net sales) x 12
Working capital cycle (months) = (Current assets ÷ Sales) x 12
Working capital cycle (months) = (Current assets x Net sales) ÷ 12
Question (5)
When using the Forms, how should future projections be treated?
All future projections need to be ignored as it is not possible to forecast the future.
Future projections should be accepted as projected as the company knows best what their future
performance is likely to be.
It should be ensured that projections have a basis in reality and not merely a number chosen to
result in the desired amount of working capital facility.
There should be an automatic reduction applied to all futur forecasts.
Question (6)
What is the role of the Nominated Bank?
The nominated bank becomes the primary obligor under the Letter of Credit.
The nominated bank is where the Letter of Credit is available. In the majority of the cases this is
the bank which the buyer has a banking relationship.
The nominated bank authenticates the Letter of Credit once it is received, and passes it on to the
beneficiary.
The nominated bank assumes the responsibilities of the issuing bank towards the beneficiary.
Question (7)
How is assessing working capital with the cash budget method different?
The banks rely entirely on the company’s forecast of its income month on month.
Profitability, liquidity, asset quality, and funds flow are not analyzed.
Audited accounts are not required from the company.
The amount of required working capital is assessed based on projected cash flows and not on
projected levels of assets and liabilities.
Question (8)
How is working capital financed?
Short-term sources only
Long-term sources only
It is not material as long as working capital is available.
Combination of long- and short-term sources
Question (9)
In international transactions, does import duty impact the Letter of Credit limit?
No, as import duty is a tax that the applicant must pay directly.
No, import duty must be paid by the applicant without recourse to the Letter of Credit to prove his
financial viability.
Yes, import duty should be deducted from the overall Letter of Credit limit calculated.
Yes, the amount of the raw material purchase estimated for the Letter of Credit limit assessment
should include import duty.
Question (10)
Under a financial guarantee, a bank essentially guarantees the applicant’s financial worth,
creditworthiness and capacity to take up financial risks. Is this correct?
No
Yes
Question (11)
What is Form II?
Comparative Statement of Current Assets (CA) and Current Liabilities (CL)
Analysis of the Balance Sheet
Funds Flow Statement
Operating Statement (Profit and Loss Statement)
Question (12)
A manufacturing client wants to make a large purchase of raw materials. The seller has requested
a bank guarantee. On investigation, the client’s order book was found to be a large multiple of his
gross sales. Should a bank guarantee be granted?
As the order book is a large multiple of gross sales, it is clear that the client is in the process of
expanding his business. The bank should support him in this and grant the bank guarantee.
As the order book is a large multiple of the gross sales, this implies the client is overextending
itself, which could adversely affect execution abilities and may result in invocations. Further credit
investigation is required.
As the order book is a large multiple of gross sales, it is clear that the client is not managing the
business well. The bank guarantee should not be granted.
As the order book is a large multiple of gross sales, it would seem that the client has recently built
new business relationships. The bank should support this development and grant the bank
guarantee.
Question (13)
If a bank guarantee is invoked by a beneficiary, must the guarantor bank always pay out?
Yes, if the claim is within the claim period and the beneficiary is not satisfied with the goods or
service provided by the applicant, or if the applicant has not fulfilled its financial obligations, the
guarantor bank must make payment immediately.
Yes, but the guarantor does not need to pay in full if the applicant has made partial payment/made
partial performance under the contract.
No, if the applicant does not have sufficient funds to make good the amount to the guarantor bank.
No, if the beneficiary is also in breach of contract.
Question (14)
In which example is high working capital level not a cause for concern?
The company has an inventory pile up due to the price it charges for its goods.
The company has experienced a delay in trade receivable realisation.
The company has experienced an erosion of its market share.
The company where the amount of work in processed and finished goods is high due to the long
time required to convert raw material into finished goods.
Question (15)
What is the purpose of a letter of credit?
To protect the bank from loss
To facilitate trade
To offer a security
To guarantee performance
Question (16)
What minimum data from the borrower is used to assess working capital?
Financial forecast for current and next financial year
Previous 2 years’ audited accounts and forecast for current and next financial year
Statement of Directors’ income
Previous 2 years’ audited accounts
Question (17)
What is a Sight/Demand Letter of Credit?
This type of Letter of Credit enables the seller to assign part of the Letter of Credit to other parties.
In this type of Letter of Credit, the seller can request an advance for an agreed amount of the
Letter of Credit before shipment of goods and submittal of required documents.
In this type of Letter of Credit, the seller allows the buyer a credit period as stated in the
documents. The buyer accepts the Letter of Credit documents, if they are found to be in order, but
no payment is required until the stated due date.
This type of Letter of Credit does not provide the buyer with a credit period. The buyer has to pay
immediately once the Letter of Credit documents are received and found to be in order.
Question (18)
Why do CMA forms continue to be used in assessment?
Credit officers and relationship managers are familiar with the forms and find them easy to use.
They are very useful in simplifying the representation of financial statements, clarifying their
content and providing a clear understanding of the credit assessment’s purpose.
Companies are familiar with the information which needs to be entered in the forms and provide
the required data.
There have been no other forms issued to be used by the RBI.
Question (19)
In what form is a bank guarantee executed?
It is a gentlemen’s agreement
It is a verbal contract
It is a legal deed
It is a legal contract
Question (20)
What was the Tandon Committee’s approach to lending?
The borrower should be expected to only borrow when it could repay the borrowing in full on time.
The borrower should be expected to hold a reasonable level of current assets in relation to the
requirements of his production.
The borrower should be expected to hold a low level of current assets in relation to the
requirement of his production.
The borrower should be expected to hold a high level of current assets in relation to the
requirement of his production.
Question (21)
Should the technical aspects of equipment be evaluated prior to granting a term loan?
No, banks do not have expertise in the technical aspects of equipment.
No, banks only need to be concerned whether the loan will be repaid.
Yes, the bank should use a mixture of in-house knowledge, previous experience, publicly available
information and common sense to evaluate the technical aspects of the equipment prior to
granting the loan.
Yes, the bank should instruct an expert to act on its behalf in evaluating the technical aspects of
equipment.
Question (22)
Can a tax authority request a bank guarantee for payment of tax liabilities?
Yes
No
Question (23)
What is working capital?
Working capital is the funding required by a business to carry the current assets required so the
business can operate at the expected level, efficiently and without interruption.
Working capital is the amount that the company employees need to work in order to allow the
business to operate at the expected level.
Working capital is funding received by a business from a bank to operate at expected level,
efficiently and without interruption.
Working capital is funding received from shareholders to enable the business to operate at the
expected level.
Question (24)
What are the different steps to a basic Letter of Credit transaction, up to but not including
shipment?
Contract of sale between seller and buyer, letter of credit request by buyer, issuing bank issues
letter of credit to advising bank who then advises seller of its receipt.
Contract of sale between seller and buyer, letter of credit request by buyer, issuing bank issues
letter of credit to advising bank.
Letter of credit request by buyer, issuing bank issues letter of credit to advising bank who then
advises seller of its receipt.
Contract of sale between seller and buyer, issuing bank issues letter of credit to advising bank
who then advises seller of its receipt.
Question (25)
What average processing/production cycle is assumed for this method of calculation?
6 months
3 months
1 month
9 months
Question (26)
Identify the project most likely to be financed with an off-balance sheet funding structure.
Project to invest in more advanced technology platform and systems for a mid-sized services
company.
Project to build a new bridge
Project to buy-out a small competitor
Project to expand current small factory capacity
Question (27)
What are the primary characteristics for a term loan?
Indefinite period, intended for a variety of existing or new business purposes, with possible flexible
drawdowns.
Fixed period, intended for the purchase of real estate, with possible flexible drawdowns.
Fixed period, intended for a variety of existing or new business purposes, with possible flexible
drawdowns.
Fixed period, intended for a variety of existing or new business purposes, with revolving
drawdowns.
Question (28)
Does Method 2 offer extra protection for banks?
No extra protection is offered by Method 2, it allows the calculation of Maximum Permimssible
Bank Finance for companies with varied forms of bank financings.
The second Method redcues the amoung of bank funding for companies with complex funding
requirements.
No extra protection is offered by Method 2, it is merely a different calculation for companies with
higher debt levels.
The second Method reduces the amount of bank funding and increases the amount which the
company needs to finance from long-term sources.
Question (29)
What is an important change in Assessed Bank Finance as compared to the Maximum
Permissible Bank Finance method?
Greater variety of companies are now able to apply for working capital funding because of the
Assessed Bank Finance method.
There is less emphasis placed on profitability, asset quality and fund flow.
The amount of bank financing is no longer determined on the basis of a stipulated minimum level
of liquidity, but with due consideration to the company’s overall financial position and projected
liquidity.
Banks are able to take greater risks under Assessed Bank Finance.
Question (30)
Pick all examples of large project term loans.
Company manufacturing shirts wants to have the capacity to manufacture buttons and has
requested a loan for this purpose.
A food packing company has requested a loan to support their plan to substantially expand their
capacity.
A mid-sized services company has requested a loan to buy-out a small competitor.
All of the above
Question (31)
What changes were proposed in 1997 to the management of working capital finance?
To scrap the requirement to calculate working capital finance using the measure of Maximum
Permissible Bank Finance.
Each bank was given freedom to develop its own system of working capital finance for a faster
credit delivery so as to serve various borrowers more effectively.
Banks were requested to lay down transparent policy and guidelines for credit dispensation.
All of the above
Question (32)
Is it ever advisable to rely solely on the technical feasability report submitted by the client?
Yes, as the client will understand the project best and will have all the relevant data.
If the project is not complex and involves modest expansion or modernisation of existing facilities,
then the bank may be able to rely on reports drawn up solely by the client.
No, as the bank needs to involve third party experts to be considered as impartial.
No, as in all projects, it is important to test the information provided by the client.
Question (33)
How is the LC limit calculated?
Based on a formula with inputs of the amount of purchases, proportion of such purchased with a
Letter of Credit and the average credit received. Domestic and imported purchases are calculated
separately.
Based on the value of the goods purchased assessed separately for domestic and imported
goods.
Based entirely on the credit profile of the applicant.
Based on the amount of previous Letters of Credit granted to the applicant with a distinction
between the purchase of domestic and imported goods.
Question (34)
In addition to determining the working capital finance limits, what additional analysis is required
prior to advancing funds?
None. The two methods of calculating working capital finance limits are sufficient to understand
the risks posed.
An assessment of the quality of the borrower’s key current assets is required.
Due diligence on the company’s management is required.
An analysis of the industry in which the company operates and its competitors is required.
Question (35)
What is the role of the guarantor in a bank guarantee?
The guarantor, usually a bank, agrees to discharge the applicant’s obligations in the case of his
default.
The guarantor agrees to appoint a bank to settle the applicant’s obligations in case of his default.
The guarantor, usually a bank, steps in to negotiate a settlement between the applicant and the
beneficiary in case there are financial problems.
The guarantor, usually the principal debtor, agrees to pay his debts on time.
Question (36)
What is the last required step to conclude the working capital assessment?
Evaluation of liquidity
Critical scrutiny of projections for other assets and liabilities
Validation of bank finance requested by the borrower
Testing of projected profitability, gearing, debt levels, capital position, investment in fixed assets
and other investments

Section 1: Course 08 Online Assessment


All questions are mandatory
Question (1)
Select the most accurate statement concerning deal structuring and monitoring.
Good deal structuring and monitoring make a bad deal an acceptable risk.
Monitoring, but not good deal structuring, makes a bad deal an acceptable risk.
Good deal structuring and monitoring do not make a bad deal an acceptable risk.
Good deal structuring, but not monitoring, makes a bad deal an acceptable risk.
Question (2)
Who is a Hypothecatee?
The person who holds the asset on behalf of the lender
The person in whose favour the asset is charged
The person who charges the asset in favour of the lender
The official who registers the charge
Question (3)
Which of the following are required for a corporate guarantee to be valid?
A Board resolution and the guarantee document signed by the Chairman of the Board.
A guarantee document signed by the Chairman of the Board and approval from the Registrar of
Companies.
A Board resolution and approval from the Registrar of Companies.
A Board resolution and approval to issue a guarantee to be contained in the Memorandum/Articles
Question (4)
Select the most accurate statement concerning the inclusion of a guarantee from an operating
subsidiary when lending to a holding company?
This will give the HC lender a secured claim on the assets and cash flows of the guarantor
This will give the HC lender a first ranking claim on the assets and cash flows of the guarantor
This will give the HC lender an unsecured claim on the assets and cash flows of the guarantor
This will give the HC lender a subordinated claim on the assets and cash flows of the guarantor
Question (5)
What is the most common credit risk faced when realising hypothecated assets?
Legal proceedings have to be completed to realise the hypothecated assets.
The borrower may not agree to hand over the hypothecated assets.
The assets may not be in existence, as they have never been in the possession of the lender.
There is no risk. The assets merely have to be possessed and realised.
Question (6)
What is the difference between a covenant and a trigger?
Covenants seek to reduce probability of default, while triggers do not
Triggers reduce probability of default, while covenants do not
There is no difference, they are the same
Triggers are legally enforceable, while covenants are not
Question (7)
Why should a lender not depend on internal triggers alone to monitor a loan?
A lender may place full dependence on a well defined set of triggers.
Triggers may sometimes be seen in isolation rather than in totality.
Not all credit deterioration can be captured by internal triggers.
Sometimes triggers may cause an over reaction on the part of the lender's staff.
Question (8)
Which of the following correctly describes EaD?
The amount outstanding from the borrower at the point of default
The amount which is expected to be eventually irrecoverable
The amount that was initially advanced to the borrower
The amount that can eventually be recovered from the borrower
Question (9)
What is the main difference between a covenant and a trigger?
A breached trigger is tantamount to default, while a breached covenant requires action internal to
the lender.
A covenant is a term in a loan agreement which specifies a fact of the agreement, e.g., rate of
interest. A trigger requires action on the part of the lender on the happening of a certain event
A breached covenant tantamounts to default, while a breached trigger requires action internal to
the lender.
There is no difference between them, they are the same.
Question (10)
What statement concerning internal triggers is most accurate?
They eliminate probability of default.
They are legally enforceable.
They do not rely on client cooperation for resolution.
They provide an early warning system.
Question (11)
In what phase of deal structuring is the lender likely to decide that "ring fencing" (legally
separating/ protecting the transaction from the rest of company) is essential to the deal structure?
Prospecting phase.
Drawdown/monitoring phase.
Design phase.
Negotiation phase.
Question (12)
Which of the following factors may be affected by a change in ownership or control of the
borrower’s company?
Probability of Default of the borrowing company.
Borrowing documentation of the company.
Method of computation of Loss Given Default of the borrowing company.
Downstream guarantees issued for subsidiaries.
Question (13)
What is the primary purpose behind completing proper lending documentation with a borrower?
To enable registration of certain securities
To record an informal agreement between lender and borrower
To record the amount and type of facilities advanced
To establish recourse to recover the debt in a court of law
Question (14)
Which of the following associations have developed acceptable standard definitions for lending
covenants?
London Stock Exchange
Loan Market Association
Financial Accounting Standards Board
Securities and Exchange Board of India
Question (15)
Which of the following assets can usually be hypothecated as security?
Inventories
Goodwill
Plant and machinery
Land
Question (16)
Which of the following is a collateral security?
Mortgage of plant and machinery used in the business of the borrower
Hypothecation of inventories of the business of the borrower
Pledge of shares in the name of the borrowing entity
Pledge of fixed deposit in the personal name of the owner
Question (17)
What is the principal difference between pledge and hypothecation?
In a pledge, possession of the asset goes to the lender, while in a hypothecation it remains with
the borrower
There is no difference, they are the same
In a hypothecation, the lender can sell the asset immediately, while in a pledge the lender has to
approach the courts
In a pledge, possession of the asset remains with the borrower, while in a hypothecation it goes to
the lender
Question (18)
Select an example of a structural mitigant.
A holding company benefits from diversification
A holding company receives a guarantee from an operating subsidiary
A holding company has operating assets
A holding company owns a strong group
Question (19)
Which statement is correct with respect to the law of limitation?
It limits the type of advances which can be recovered from the borrower
It limits the period within which the debt can be recovered from the borrower
It limits the amount which can be recovered from the borrower
It limits the jurisdictions in which debts can be recovered from the borrower
Question (20)
Which of the following is a legally necessary pre-execution formality?
Ensuring that loan disbursements are made to the designated purpose and beneficiary.
Obtaining certified specimen signatures of the borrower's officials who will operate the facilities.
Issue of cheque books for the borrower's proposed ovedraft account.
Filing of charges with the Registrar of Companies.
Question (21)
A lender lends to all companies in a group. What type of guarantee is most likely to dilute the
unsecured claims of this lender’s lending to an operating subsidiary guarantor with the least
impact on the claims of lending to its parent company?
A cross guarantee
An upstream guarantee
A personal guarantee
A downstream guarantee
Question (22)
Where goods pledged to the lender are placed in a warehouse, what would be an important factor
to regard the pledge as complete?
The warehouse must be in the constructive possession and control of the lender
The warehouse and the goods within must be insured
Expired, damaged and perishable goods must not be kept in the warehouse
The goods must be well maintained in the warehouse
Question (23)
Select an example of a natural mitigant to protect from Holding company risk.
Loan documentation requires that a holding company houses most of the consolidated debt
A holding company has operating assets
A holding company arranges a third-party collateral
A holding company receives a guarantee from an operating subsidiary
Question (24)
What is the liability of a Director who gave guarantees in his personal capacity?
The Director remains liable to the lender to the extent of his shares, if any, in the company
The Director is discharged upon his giving notice to the lender that his responsibilities as Director
have been concluded
The Director is automatically discharged when he ceases to be a director
The Director remains liable until formally discharged by the lender
Question (25)
How should unconsolidated financial covenants be defined for effective structural mitigation when
lending to groups?
The definition should include both the positive and negative impact of intercompany transactions
The definition should include the positive and exclude the negative impact of intercompany
transactions
The definition should exclude the positive and include the negative impact of intercompany
transactions
The definition should exclude both the positive and negative impact of intercompany transactions
Question (26)
Which of the following is an example of a negative covenant?
Compliance with certain defined financial ratios
Undertaking to insure plant and machinery on time
Not to provide security over a borrower’s assets to other lenders
Submission of audited financials
Question (27)
With respect to the deal structure, what is the primary purpose of transaction control?
To gain insight into deteriorating business and financial risk through the use of covenants
To prevent subordination through the use of covenants
To give the lender the right to access the data required to monitor the risk of the borrower
To use trade finance and cash management products to gain insight into potential problems with
the borrower’s business dealings
Question (28)
How do banks that follow the Foundation IRB approach estimate EaD?
100% of the funded outstanding only
100% of the funded outstanding plus 100% of off balance sheet credits
100% of the funded outstanding plus 75% of off balance sheet credits
100% of the funded outstanding plus 25% of off balance sheet credits
Question (29)
Why are securities necessary for lending?
Lenders see security as a demonstration of good faith and intent on the part of the borrower
Securities reduce the amount of capital required to support the corresponding lending
They can be disposed off in the event of default and thus reduce the credit risk of the lender
All of the above
Question (30)
Which of the following is a joint and several guarantee?
Signed by five persons who are responsible for different shares of the debt, but totalling the full
debt
Signed by one person who is responsible for the full debt
Signed by five persons, each of whom are responsible for the full debt
Signed by two persons who are responsible for 50% of the debt each
Question (31)
Which asset is an assignment usually taken as security over?
Land and building
Inventories
Contracting receivables
Fixed deposits
Question (32)
Which type of assets is an assignment usually created over?
Plant and machinery
Receivables
Inventories
Bonds
Question (33)
When are artificial transactions that move assets and cash flows into group companies outside the
legal reach of the lender most concerning?
When the group’s current ratio is increasing
When the group’s leverage is decreasing
When the group’s loss given default is decreasing
When the group’s probability of default is increasing
Question (34)
Which of the following is a security over a tangible asset?
Pledge over goodwill.
Pledge over trademarks.
Pledge over copyrights.
Pledge of shares.
Question (35)
What is an example of a cross guarantee?
When a holding company guarantees a subsidiary.
When a subsidiary guarantees a fellow subsidiary.
When a parent company guarantees a subsidiary.
When a subsidiary guarantees a holding company.
Question (36)
Which type of covenant requires submission of audited financials?
Financial covenant
Insurance covenant
Restrictive covenant
Information covenant
Question (37)
What is a key component of structure risk?
Access to the borrower’s financial statements
Access to the borrower’s cash flows
Access to the borrower’s articles of incorporation
Access to the borrower’s budgetary projections
Question (38)
Which statement defines the responsibility of a pledgor even after goods have been pledged to
the lender?
The pledgor continues to be responsible to the lender for the entire amount of the debt,
irrespective of the value of the pledged goods
The pledgor is discharged from the debt to the lender when the pledged goods are sold,
irrespective of the amount of the sale proceeds
The pledgor has no further responsibility to the lender for the debt
The pledgor continues to be responsible to the lender for the entire amount of the debt, less the
estimated value of the pledged goods
Question (39)
What is the difference between a financial covenant and a financial trigger?
Financial covenants are usually set at tighter levels so that their breach draws attention before the
corresponding financial trigger is breached
Financial triggers are usually set at tighter levels so that their breach draws attention before the
corresponding financial covenant is breached
There is no difference, they are the same
They are the same, except that a financial covenant is contained in the loan agreement, while a
financial trigger is not
Question (40)
What are the key deal structure components before disbursement of funds?
Conditions precedent and ensuring loss given default does not decrease
Representations and warranties and ensuring exposure at default does not decrease
Conditions precedent and representations and warranties
Ensuring loss given default and exposure at default do not decrease
Question (41)
What term is used to describe a debt provider’s access to assets, cash flow and contracts
naturally ranking after another stakeholder because of circumstances?
Legal Subordination
Contractual Subordination
Structural Subordination
Effective Subordination
Question (42)
What type of structure risk deals with a lender’s inability to enforce a guarantee due to missing
signatures?
Other Stakeholders
Documentation
Cross Border
Group Structure
Question (43)
Setting a financial covenant to monitor which of these would ensure ability to service debt?
Change of ownership.
Negative pledge.
Leverage.
Cash flow.
Question (44)
Which of the following is a "haircut"?
The eventual loss incurred on realisation of a security.
A discount assumed by the lender in the realisable value of a security.
The percentage by which the borrower seeks a reduction in the rate of interest.
The amount by which the borrower seeks a reduction of the debt in view of his inability to pay.
Section 1: Course 09 Online Assessment
All questions are mandatory
Question (1)
The concept of need-based finance implies that
Bank finance is intended to supplement the funds already available to the borrower from other
sources
Bank finance should be made available to the borrower as and when they need it
Extent of bank finance would be determined by the need as advised by the borrower without any
consideration of funds already available from other sources
Bank should extend finance to the borrowers in accordance with the bank’s need to lend
Question (2)
Why should you check for any inventory pile-up during unit inspection?
Inventory pile-up offers additional business opportunity in terms of the borrower’s need for more
financing
Higher inventory may pose a logistical challenge for the unit in terms of handling/storage
Excess inventory, when disposed off in bulk, would lead to sudden cash inflow which would cause
cash imbalance
Inventory pile-up may be indicative of adverse developments such as obsolescence, reduced
market acceptability, order cancellation, speculative intentions, etc.
Question (3)
Among the following, which is a purpose of monitoring? (i) Ascertain the level of current assets (ii)
Ascertain if the unit’s operations are as per the projections (iii) Be aware of events that can impact
the borrower’s business
Option (i)
Option (i) and (iii)
Option (ii) and (iii)
All the options (i), (ii), and (iii)
Question (4)
What information can be obtained from CRILC?
Borrower’s loan account being reported as SMA by another bank
Details of wilful default by the borrower
Details of other companies with common directors
Details of criminal case against the promoters
Question (5)
Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of stock audit?
The main purpose of stock audit is to get an independent third party insight on the borrower’s
affairs and a detailed examination of specific issues in relation to the borrower’s business, if
required
Stock audit is a monitoring tool employed when the relationship team is not in a position to carry
out unit inspections due to time constraint
Stock audit conveys to the borrower that the bank is seriously keeping a watch on his business
Stock audit is one more monitoring tool
Question (6)
The cash credit limit of a company is Rs. 40 crore and stipuated margin on inventory and
receivables is 25%. As per the latest stock statement, the inventory is Rs 25 crore and the
receivable level is Rs. 35 crore. What would be the drawing power?
Rs. 30 crore
Rs 60 crore
Rs. 45 crore
Rs. 40 crore
Question (7)
What is the relevance of stock statement in the administration of FBWC limits
Stock statement contains information which is “good to have” for the bank, though not “must have”
Based on a scrutiny of stock statement does a bank decide whether to renew a FBWC limit
Submission of stock statement is a statutroy requirement for availing FBWC limits
Stock statement contains details of inventory, receivables and creditors under LCs which are
necessary to compute the drawing power which regulates the amount that can be drawn from the
FBWC account
Question (8)
Which among the following is NOT a primary objective of unit inspection?
To hold discussion with the promoters and other important employees
To verify the quantity and quality of inventory
To solicit more business opportunities with the borrower
To assess the activity level at the unit
Question (9)
A bank guarantee can become a perpetual obligation for the bank because
The applicant can obtain stay order from a court of law restraining the bank from making payment
for a guarantee which has been invoked
The contracts underlying bank guarantees are sometimes very complicated and beyond the
understanding of bank officials
The beneficiary can seek any number of extensions of validity period
Bank guarantees are usually issued for long periods
Question (10)
One of the objectives of monitoring a term loan during the project implementation stage is
To ensure that adequate raw material is available
To ensure that the borrower has adequate working capital limits in place
To ensure that the borrower mobilises the means of financing as per the terms of sanction
To ensure that the promoters have brought in their contribution towards working capital margin
Question (11)
You come across a news report that an agitation has started against one of your borrowers
engaged in production of aerated beverages for drawing water from a local river. What are the
implications for your bank’s loan to the company?
The operations can be temporarily affected since the borrower would take the legal route and get
a favourable ruling ultimately
No implication since such agitations are easily manageable
No implications since water is a cheap resource and can be obtained from alternative sources
It can have serious implications since agitation can lead to a ban on drawing water from the river.
Sourcing water from elsewhere would add transportation costs which would affect the viability of
the borrower
Question (12)
You have sanctioned a term loan to a company for an expansion project. A portion of the project
cost amounting to Rs 10.00 crores is to be met by internal accruals during the current year. The
company has repayment obligation of Rs 4 crores towards existing term loans during the year.
The internal accruals up to the first half of the year are Rs 3.00 crores. Which of the following
statements is the most appropriate for this situation?
While there is a possibility of shortfall, it is too early to think of any action. The actual amount of
internal accruals would be known only after the year end
The availability of funds for project implementation does not face any constraints
The overall requirement of funds from internal accruals is Rs 14.00 crores for the current year.
Going by the internal accruals up to the first half of the year, there is a likelihood of shortfall and
alternative means of financing need to be identified.
Difficult to say anything at this stage
Question (13)
One of the key objectives of the loan pricing process is
To ensure that the bank gets acceptable return on risk undertaken on the relationship
To ensure that the potential business is not lost to the competitors at any cost
To enhance the bank’s image as a customer-friendly organisation
To build customer loyalty
Question (14)
Risk premium is calculated on the basis of
Expected loss to the bank in lending to a category of borrowers
Expected return on capital
Amount of capital to be set aside for each lending
Expected loss to the borrowers in their business
Question (15)
A letter of credit is
An undertaking issued by a bank on behalf of a buyer to the seller to pay for the goods and
services
A letter issued by a seller to the buyer offering credit on the supplies
An undertaking issued by the buyer to the seller to pay for the goods and services
An undertaking issued by a bank on behalf of the seller to the buyer promising due performance of
sales
Question (16)
What is the implication of a large number of round sum transactions by a borrower?
Such transactions result from netting off the discounts
These are no different from other transactions and are just a coincidence
Such transactions are done for accounting convenience
Such transactions may not be on account of the borrower’s regular business and need to be
probed
Question (17)
Request for LC in favour of an associate concern is
A cause of concern since purchases of material from associate concerns is quite unusual
Unusual because the LC is resorted to by the buyer and seller where seller does not want to take
a credit risk on the buyer and therefore wants to secure the payment through the LC. Such
situation should not arise between associate concerns. Such request could be indicative of
accomodation transaction
Not a cause of concern as long as there is no record of LC devolvements in respect of the
applicant
Not unusual as long as the item being purchased is relevant to the business of both parties
Question (18)
Term premium is one of the factors affecting the cost of funds of a bank because
Generally long-term money is costlier than the short-term money
Raising short-term money is less risky for the bank
Generally short-term money is costlier than the long-term money
Raising long-term money is riskier for the bank
Question (19)
Stock audit report on one of your borrowers mentions that the inventory level shown in the stock
statement was substantially higher than the actual level found in the audit. Consequently, the
drawing power works out to be substantially lower and the account would be rendered irregular.
What is the most appropriate action for you?
Wait for the next stock statement and ask the auditor to verify the position with reference to the
new stock statement
Examine the matter closely. Have a detailed discussion with the borrower and the auditor. Analyse
the borrower’s explanations and assess if those are justified. Finally, take action as appropriate.
Immediately reduce the drawing power as indicated in the stock audit report
Do nothing because reduction in drawing power would lead to irrgularity in the account which may
ultimately lead to the account becoming NPA
Question (20)
Why should you look at the external sources of information when you have already analysed all
the risks of an entity thoroughly?
External sources are impartial
External sources are more reliable
External sources cannot be managed by the borrower
The information available from external sources is often not available from the internal monitoring
mechanisms, though it can have substantial bearing on credit quality
Question (21)
Credit administration is a critical activity in a bank’s lending business because
It regulates flow of loan funds to the borrower in accordance with the terms and conditions of loan
sanction
It ensures that need-based credit lines are sanctioned to the borrower
It facilitates building of a cordial relationship with the borrower and creates goodwill for the bank
It improves the bank’s competitive position as compared with other banks
Question (22)
Why should the stock statement include age-wise break-up of receivables?
It is always helpful to get as much information as possible so as to be ready to meet any future
requirement of such information
It enables the bank to identify the receivables within and outside the sanctioned cover period.
Further, it gives a sense about the pace of realisation of receivables and impending bad debts
It facilitates enforcement of the bank’s security in recovery proceedings in the event of default
It is manadatory as per RBI guidelines
Question (23)
For a term loan sanctioned with debt-equity ratio of 2.00, what would be the overall margin
requirement?
0.25
0.3333
0.4
0.6667
Question (24)
An EPC (Export Packing Credit) should be liquidated by
Only by long-term sources of funds
There is no restriction on the source of funds for liquidation of EPC
Only the regular cash flows of the borrower
Only by export proceeds
Question (25)
Competition is among the more critical elements of loan pricing because
Competition places a ceiling on the pricing that the borrower is likely to accept
Being competitive in pricing is helpful in attracting new business
Competition enhances the efficiency of the pricing process
Competition makes the Relationship Officer more market savvy
Question (26)
Setting the pricing of a loan involves evaluation of
Customer’s total relationship with the bank
Only the credit risk of the customer
The capability of the customer to pay
Long-term trends in the movement of interest rates
Question (27)
One of the key aspects of monitoring of a term loan post commencement of commercial
production is
Estimating the cost of production
Checking if there are delays in submission of stock statements
Keeping tab on the salaries of key executives
Checking if the borrower is defaulting on loan repayments to other lenders

Section 1: Course 10 Online Assessment

 Question (1)
Which factor is a reflection of a substantial problem loan portfolio and is also most likely to trigger
further problems related to such a portfolio?

Increased monitoring and audit checks


Lowering of rating by rating agencies
Increased funding costs
Increased legal costs

 Question (2)
Which situation does not describe that of a wilful defaulter?

The borrower is unable to pay because the project's viability has changed following government
regulation.
Financing for the project has been diverted to acquisition of shares.
Borrowings have been used for a purpose other than that for which the advance was made.
Short-term borrowings have been diverted to investment in shell subsidiaries.

 Question (3)
Which definition best fits a special mention account?

An account that has been provided to the extent of 25%.


An account where income recognition has been stopped.
An account that has begun to show early signs of distress and can be rectified by remedial action.
An account in which there are overdues for 90 days or more.

 Question (4)
Which situation would result in an account being classified as SMA-0?

Projected sales shown for loan sanction falling short by 25%.


Drop in internal risk rating by two or more notches in a single review.
Delay of more than 60 days in submission of stock statements.
Return of 2 cheques in 30 days for lack of funds.
 Question (5)
During which stage will management start selling vital assets?

Cash crisis stage.


Cash crunch stage.
Cash clearance stage.
Cash concern stage.

 Question (6)
What is an early warning sign that might affect an individual business operation?

Use of post-dated cheques.


A period of political instability.
Bad press.
Changes in product quality.

 Question (7)
Which measure is not used as a penal measure in dealing with wilful defaulters?

Initiating change of management of the defaulting unit.


Making further advances to the defaulter to facilitate repayment of defaulted borrowings.
Ensuring through RBI that wilful defaulters are debarred from institutional finance for 5 years.
Initiating civil or criminal action against the borrower.

 Question (8)
What is one sign that an account should should be classified as RFA (i.e., a red flag account)?

Frequent excesses over limit.


Frequent past dues leading to limits being temporarily frozen.
Entire account under a difficult restructuring process.
One or more early warning signals from a prescribed list being met.

 Question (9)
Which characteristic describes an out-of-order account?

Outstanding exceeds limit for 60 continuous days.


Outstanding exceeds limit for 60 days.
Outstanding exceeds limit for 30 days.
Outstanding exceeds limit for 90 continuous days.

 Question (10)
Review and assess the accuracy of this statement: When initiating a DRT suit against a defaulting
party, the lender must send a recall notice to the borrower with sufficient time given to the borrowers
and guarantors to comply.

The statement is accurate in all respects.


The statement is not true.
Recall notice is required to be served only on a case by case basis, based on the profile of the
borrower and the urgency of the suit filing.
While a recall notice needs to be served to the borrower, there is no need to offer sufficient time for
them to respond as it is not required by law.

 Question (11)
How can you reduce exposure to potential losses with new clients?
This is a mulitiple choice question.
Reduce pricing on uncommitted letter of credit.
Replace existing facilities with lower-risk products.
Restrict new draw-downs on committed facilities.
Offer additional facilities on a cash-secured basis.

 Question (12)
What is the purpose of the Central Repository for Information on Large Credits (CRILC)?

To issue credit opinions on individual borrowers to all banks.


To collect information on borrowings of each lender and circulate the total number to all lenders.
To collect, store, and disseminate credit data to lenders.
To act as RBI's watchdog on the total borrowings by individual lenders across all banks.
 Question (13)
Which statement is correct with respect to wilful defaulters?

Wilful defaulters of Rs. 1 million or more must be reported to the CIC with RBI.
Even one isolated instance is adequate to categorise the case as one of wilful default.
A case where the borrower loses diverted funds and makes a full disclosure of the diversion and loss
is still a case of wilful default.
A substandard or doubtful account is almost always a case of wilful default.

 Question (14)
Which statement is correct with respect to restructuring options?
Taking no action is always the worst option.
A judicial process is not an option in restructuring a corporate debt.
One method to induce a reduction in exposure is to reduce pricing.
Liquidation is rarely used for companies of material size.

 Question (15)
Why can cyclicality affect an entire industry?

Pricing can change too quickly for companies to make profits.


Changes can happen too quickly for costs to be cut.
Capacity can increase too quickly for companies to provide inventory.
Sectors can grow too quickly for companies to expand their services.

 Question (16)
If an RP involves restructuring, how should the accounts that were classified as 'standard' prior to
such restructuring be re-classified?

Doubtful
SMA-2
Sub-standard
SMA-1

 Question (17)
Which item is a direct cost of problem loans?

Legal expenses
Damage to reputation
Event risk
Lost opportunities

 Question (18)
Which statement is correct with respect to provisioning on doubtful exposures?

100% provision is required on the unsecured portion of the exposure.


50% provision is required on the exposure when it is first classified as doubtful.
100% provision is required on the full exposure, irrespective of security.
No provision is required on the secured portion.
 Question (19)
Which statement with respect to a non-performing asset (NPA) is correct?

Interest may continue to be recognised as income, without there being any credits to the account.
The exposure should be classified as a Special Mention Account in the grading system of the bank.
Past interest should be reversed out of income if not collected.
A provision of 50% should be created when the exposure is first classified as an NPA.

 Question (20)
How can aggressive competition from a new entrant into the market affect a company's business and
operations?

It could increase market share.


It could increase product pricing.
It could reduce the number of competitors.
It could reduce potential sales.

 Question (21)
Which rule, practice, or principle was acknowledged as the prime basis for prudential norms?

Objectivity.
Accounting practices.
Rules set by the Ministry of Finance.
Consensus of the relevant committees.

 Question (22)
What is an example of a lagging indicator?

The borrower stops returning phone calls.


The borrower is late submitting financial accounts.
A competitor introduces a new popular product on the market.
A price war has started on the marketplace.

 Question (23)
Which item is an early warning signal listed by the RBI?

An onerous clause in the issue of BG/LC/ standby letters of credit


A formal request made to the bank to restructure a loan.
In merchanting trade, evidence that an import leg was not revealed to the bank.
A request received from the borrower to postpone the inspection of the godown for flimsy reasons.

 Question (24)
How should security be regarded when determining whether an account should be classified as a
non-performing asset (NPA)?

It should be ignored.
None of the above.
The value should be deducted from the debt, and only the net debt should be classified.
The account should first be classified disregarding security and then be upgraded.

 Question (25)
With respect to the borrower's management, what does a successful restructuring require?

The management should be focused, motivated and going in the same direction as the bank.
The management should be competent more than anything else.
The management should have a good general understanding of the situation.
The management should be focused and ready to push its agenda ahead, regardless of other parties'
opinions.

 Question (26)
Which statement is correct with respect to wilful defaulters and liability?

Part time directors of the borrowing company are as liable as full time directors in the process of
determining wilful default.
An individual guarantor automatically becomes a wilful defaulter when the original borrower is
identified as a wilful defaulter.
A committee consisting of senior staff from relationship and credit, constituted for identification of
wilful default, may issue a final judgment on the issue.
Corporate guarantors within the group are held as wilful defaulters only if they do not honor claims
on their guarantees.

 Question (27)
What is involved in the second step, developing an action plan, during the restructuring process?

Engaging with stakeholders and securing their immediate support.


Drafting detailed plans for implantation stages and timelines.
Assessing the total funding required to deliver the plan.
Assessing the cash position to determine the time frame.

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