QUESTION BANK 2016

SIDDHARTH GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS :: PUTTUR

Siddharth Nagar, Narayanavanam Road – 517583

QUESTION BANK (DESCRIPTIVE)

Subject with Code : EADSM(13A02705) Course & Branch: B.Tech -EEE

Year & Sem: IV-B.Tech & I-Sem Regulation: R13

UNIT – I
Introduction to Energy auditing
1. (a) Explain concept of energy audit? types of energy audit 5M
(b) Consider a company using 3 energy forms- oil, gas, and electricity. the annual energy
Consumption is tabulated below in various energy units. 5M

Energy type consumption

Oil 10*103 gal

Gas 5*103therms
Electricity 995*103 KWh

Compute percentage energy balance.

2. Explain the energy conservation schemes 10M
3. Explain brief about electrical energy consumption and conservation in India and world 10M
4. Explain the representation of energy forms? Explain their Significance in energy
audit with suitable example. 10M
5. Write short notes on the following 10M
(a) energy index with example (b) detail energy audit(DEA)
6. Explain about the energy impedance and security act of 2007and energy policy act of 1992 10M
7. (a) Explain about codes and standards 5M
(b) Write short notes on the following 5M
(a)pie chart (b)sankey diagram
8. Write short notes on the following 10M
(a)cost index with example (b)preliminary energy audit
9. ( a). What is meant by the term ‘energy audit’ and what are its objectives? 5M
(b). Explain about energy conservation schemes
10. (a)Define Energy audit 2M
(b)Explain types of energy audit 2M
(c)Define cost index and energy index 2M
(d)Discuss about pie chart and bar chart 2M
(e)Discuss about energy conservation methods 2M

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 QUESTION BANK 2016

UNIT – II

Energy Efficient Motors and Power Factor Improvement

1. a) Explain the factors affecting of energy efficient motors. 5M
b) A 40 Hp motor is having the following duty cycle. 5M
40 Hp - 15 minutes 20 Hp - 20 minutes
10 Hp - 5 minutes stop - 5 minutes.
Is this motor is efficient for its operation? Discuss the recommendations.
2. a) Explain in detail about the loss distribution and constructional details of a motor. 5M
b) Explain about RMS hp, voltage unbalance with suitable examples 5M
3. Explain power factor improvement methods 10M
4. What Are Energy Efficient Motors (EEMS).What factor effecting the energy
Efficient motors? 10M
5. Define voltage Unbalance. What are the causes and consequences of voltage unbalance 5M

6. (a)Explain the loss distribution in energy efficient motors 5M

(b) Explain about the over motoring and motor energy audit 5M
7. Discuss how capacitors can be employed for improvement of power factor of an electrical
system. 10M
8. Explain about the location of capacitors for power factor improvement. 10M
9. (a) Explain about effect of harmonics on P.f 5M
(b) A motor is having the following duty cycle. 5M

STEP H.P DURATION(Seconds)

1 3 3
2 7.5 10
3 2.5 12
4 12.5 3

which motor is efficient for its operation? Discuss the recommendations.

10.(a) Explain the difference between energy efficient motors and standard motors. 2M
(b) The Line Voltages are Vab=462V,Vbc=463V,Vac=455V
Determine the % voltage Unbalance 2M
(c) Explain about RMS Hp Loading 2M
(d)Define power factor 2M
(e) Define harmonics 2M

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 QUESTION BANK 2016

UNIT – III

Lighting and Energy instruments for Audit

1. Write a short notes on the following:
(a)Lighting energy audit 5M
(b)Applications of Plc 5M
2. Write a short notes on the following:
(a)Lighting energy audit 5M
(b)Tongue tester 5M
3. Write a short notes on the following: 10M
(a)Lighting control
(b)Data logger
(c) Lux meter
4. Explain about Energy Instruments- Watt Meter & Tongue Tester. 10M
5. Explain about Energy Instruments- Watt Meter & Thermocouple. 10M
6. Explain about Energy Instruments- Lux meter & Thermocouple. 10M
7. Explain about Energy Instruments- Pyrometers & Applications of Plc. 10M
8. Explain about Good lighting system design and practice. 10M
9. Explain the working of following instruments 10M
(i) Thermocouples
(ii) lux meters
(iii) pyrometer
(iv) data logger
10.(a) write Applications of lux meter 2M
(b)Discuss about PLC 2M
(c)Explain about thermocouple 2M
(d) Explain about data logger 2M
(e) Explain about Tongue tester

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 QUESTION BANK 2016

UNIT – IV

INTRODUCTION TO DEMANDSIDE MANAGEMENT

1. (a) What is meant by demand side management and list out its benefits? 5M
(b) Discuss about multi-utility power exchange model in detail. 5M
2. (a) Define DSM and explain the benefits of DSM 5M
(b) Explain about the concept of ‘time of day pricing’ 5M
3. Explain in detail about the different techniques of DSM with necessary examples 10M
4. Explain detail about the following 10M
(a) Load priority technique
(b) strategic conservation
5. (a) Define load management and explain its importance 5M
(b) Discuss in brief about peak clipping and peak shifting 5M
6. Explain briefly about Energy efficient equipments 10M
7. (a)What is load management? Explain its importance 5M
(b)Write short notes on load priority techniques. 5M
8. (a) Write short notes on strategic conservation 5M
(b) Explain the significance of load management in detail 5M
9. (a) Explain concept and features of DSM 5M
(b) Write short notes on 5M
(i) valley filling (ii)load shifting (iii)strategic load growth
10. (a) Define DSM 2M
(b) write benefits of DSM 2M
(c) Define load management 2M
(d) Discuss about valley filling 2M
(e) discuss about peak clipping 2M

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UNIT – V

ECONOMICS AND COST EFFECTIVENESS TESTS OF DSM PROGRAMS

1.Explain in detail about 10M
(a) The time value of money concept
(b) Taxes and tax credit
2. Explain in detail about 10M
(a) pay back analysis
(b) Depreciation

3. (a)Explain the methods available for determining the annual rate 5M

(b)For a system, salvage value =0,life of equipment =5years,first cost=1,50,000.calculate
The depreciation rate using sum of years digits method 5M
4. Explain in detail about the Time value of money concept payback analysis 10M
5. Explain the concept of depreciation in energy economic analysis 10M
6. (a) Discuss about net present value calculations 5M
(b) pay back analysis 5M
7. Explain about the following depreciation methods with example 10M
(a) straight line method (b) diminishing method
8. Explain the following cost effectiveness test for following DSM programs 10M
(a) participant cost test (b) Rate payer impact measure test
9. Explain the following cost effectiveness test for following DSM programs 10M
(a) program Administrator cost test (b) total resource cost test
10.(a) Define payback method 2M
(b) Discuss about depreciation 2M
(c) Discuss about net present value 2M
(d) Discuss about taxes 2M
(e)write short notes on participant cost test 2M

Prepared by: K.GunaPrasad

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 QUESTION BANK 2016

SIDDHARTH GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS :: PUTTUR

Siddharth Nagar, Narayanavanam Road – 517583

QUESTION BANK (OBJECTIVE)

Subject with Code : EADSM(13A02705) Course & Branch: B.Tech - EEE

Year & Sem: IV-B.Tech & I-Sem Regulation: R13

UNIT – I

Introduction to Energy auditing

1.The main purpose of energy audit is [ ]
A) to increase the energy efficiency (B) reduce the energy related cost (C) both (D) None
2.The objective of energy audit is to [ ]
A) characterize and quantify energy usage B)implement conservation program
C) reduce losses D) none
3. PEA is done in [ ]
A) 10-20DAYS B) 10-30days C) 2-5days (D) 5-12days
4. ------- offers a means to conserve the energy & quantify its consumption [ ]
A) working environment (B)measurement
C)energy consumption indices (D) none
5. One joule is---------- [ ]
A) 2.7855*10 -7kwh (B) 2.7855*10-7 wh (C) 2.7855*10-5kwh (D) None
6. The ratio of energy consumption to the product output is ----- [ ]
A) cost index (B) energy index (C) both (D) None
7.------ is used to represent energy consumption in terms of bandwidth [ ]
A) sankey diagram (B) load profile (C) bar chart (D) None
8. Frequent implementation of new techniques & new technologies is needed in [ ]
A) longterm (B) short term (C) medium (D) None
9. The utility sponsored incentives came into existence as a result of [ ]
(A)EP Act1992 (B) EP Act2005(C) EP Act1998 (D) Energy security act2007
10. The ASHRAE standard 90.1 is specified for [ ]
(A)residential (B)commercial building (C) both A & B (D) none
11. The goal of Kyoto protocol is to [ ]
(A)stabilize green house gases (B) increase equipment efficiency
(C)increase profits for utilities (D)none
12. The standards and codes have impact on [ ]
(A) energy policy (B)energy usage
(C) building laws for corporate (D)all the above

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13. Which of the following is used to represent energy balance of a system [ ]

A) Sankey Diagram B) Flow Chart C) Single line Diagram D) Block Diagram
14. Watt hour is the unit of [ ]
A) Electric power. (B) Electric capacity. (C) Electric energy. (D) Electric charge.
15.Energy is a fundamental part of an________ In controlling energy costs. [ ]
A). Energy MaintainanceProgramme(EMP) B). Energy Monitoring Programme(EMP)
C). Energy Management Programme(EMP) D). Energy Conservation Programme(ECP
16.B.E.E works under __________________________. [ ]

A). MINISTRY OF POWER, GOVT OF INDIA B). MINISTRY OF POWER, GOVT OF A.P

C). MINISTRY OF POWER, GOVT OF T.N D). MINISTRY OF POWER, GOVT OF U.P

17.

18.

19. Schemes for Promoting Energy Efficiency in India during_________. [ ]

A). 2007-2013 B). 2007-2011 C). 2007-2014 D). 2007-2012
20. The Energy Conservation Act, ___came into force with effect from______. [ ]

A). 2001, 1st March, 2002 B). 2001, 1st March, 2001
C). 2002, 1st March, 2001 D). 2002, 1st March, 2002

21. Develop and recommend to the Central Government the norms for processes and_______
__________. [ ]
A). Energy Standards B).Energyconsumption Standards
C). Consumption Standards D). Energyconservation Standards

22. Specify energy consumption standards for notified________________. [ ]

A). Equipment And Bill B). Bill And Appliance
C). Equipment And Appliance D). Both A And

23._________ targets high energy end use equipments and appliances to lay down minimum energy
performance standards. [ ]
A). Standards & Rating Scheme B). Standards & Billing Scheme
C). Standards & Labeling Scheme D). Both a and b
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 QUESTION BANK 2016

24. The Ministry of Power and BEE have taken up an innovative scheme to target___. [ ]
A). Children B). Parents C).Both A And B D).employes

25. The Government has launched a National Campaign on _______. [ ]

A). Energy Conservation 2001 B). Energy Conservation 2005
C). Energy Conservation 2002 D). Energy Conservation 2004
26. The objective of energy management includes. [ ]
A).Minimising Energy Costs B).MinimisingEnvironmental Degradation
C).MinimisingEnergy wasteD).Minimising Environmental,Energy Costs&waste
27. One unit of electricity is equivalent to ___ kcal heat units. [ ]
A). 860 B).800 C). 680 D).806
28. The benchmarking parameter for air conditioning equipment is . [ ]
3
A). Kcal/M Of Chilled Water B). Differential Temperature Across Chiller
C).Kw/Ton Of Refrigeration D). Kw/ Kg Of Refrigerant Handled
29. Sankey diagram is an useful tool to represent ____. [ ]
A) Financial Strength Of The Company B) Management Philosophy
C) Input And Output Energy Flow D) Human Resource Strength Of The Company

30. The duration of preliminary energy audit(PEA) is ___________. [ ]

A)Long Time B) Short Time C)Medium Time D)Normal time

31. The duration of detailed energy audit(DEA) is ________. [ ]

A).Long Time B).Short Time C).Medium Time D).Normal time
32. Sankey diagram shows in graphics ___________. [ ]
A). energy input B).energy output
C). energy balance D).energy input,energy input&energy balance
33.A ____________ is circular chart divided into sectors. [ ]

A) Pie chart B) Flow Chart C) Bar chart D) none

34.BEE Stands for ---------- [ ]
A) BUREAU OF ENERGY EFFICIENCY B) BUREAU OF ELECTRICAL EFFICIENCY
C) BRITISH ELECTRICAL ENERGY D) none
35. “The judicious and effective use of energy to maximise profits and enhance competitive positions”
This can be the definition of: [ ]
A) Energy conservation B) Energy management
C) Energy policy D) Energy Audit

36.Energy Audit is fundamental part of energy management program(EMP) it will identify the areas
of wasteful & inefficient use of ----------- [ ]
A) power B) Energy C) reactive power D) none
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37.In one company addition insulation permitted to increase temperature with additional cost Rs 25000
Savings per annum are Rs 60000 pay back period is [ ]
A) 8 months B) 10 months C) 5 months D) none
38. One BTU is --------- joules [ ]
A) 1059 joules B) 1050 joules C) 1060 joules D) none
39.--------- is a parameter to monitor and compare energy consumption of specific products
manufactured by industry [ ]
A) cost index B) energy index C) power index D) none
40.---------is a parameter can be used to monitor and assess energy [ ]
A) cost index B) energy index C) power index D) none

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 QUESTION BANK 2016

UNIT – II

Energy Efficient Motors and Power Factor Improvement

1.Mounting dimensions are mentioned as [ ]
A) IS1213 B)IS1321 (C) IS1312 (D)IS1231
2. Intrinsic motor losses are reduced by [ ]
A) design improvements B) retrofit C) both A&B (D) none
3. Stray load losses are reduced by [ ]
A) reducing air gap B)laminating the core C)using silicon steel (D) None
4. Cooling fans are used to reduce ----losses in EEM [ ]
A) frictional losses B)stray load losses C) cu losses D) windage losses
5. EEMs are ---% more efficiency than SMs [ ]
A) 9-6% (B)4-7% (C) 10-16% D) 22%
6. Core losses and stray load losses combined account for ----of total losses [ ]
(A) 42% (B) 56% (C) 48% (D) 54%
7. The recommended value at the voltage unbalance at the motor terminals is [ ]
(A) 10% (B) 1% (C) 20% (D) 2%
8. The process of upgrading the existing equipment is called [ ]
A) replacement (B) recalling (C) retrofit (D) process innovation
9. The Percentage share of different energy consumption in an industry can be best
shown by a [ ]
A) Pie Chart B) Bar Chart C) Line Diagram D) None
10. The synchronous speed of a motor with 6 poles and operating at 50 Hz frequency is [ ]
(A) 1000 (B) 750 (C) 1500 (D) 3000
11. The efficiency figures for energy efficient motors (in comparison with standard efficiency motor
can be generally higher by____%. [ ]
(A) 1% (B) 8-10% (C) 3-7% (D) Above 10%
12. Unbalanced voltages at motor terminals should no t be more than _____________ percent
to avoid derating of the motor. [ ]
(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 1.5% (D) 0.5%
13. The power consumption, in case of centrifugal loads (like pump, fan, blower etc.),
proportional to [ ]
(A) speed (B) square of speed (C) cube of speed (D) not applicable
14. What determines the thermal loading on the motor? [ ]
(A) Duty/Load cycle (B) Temperature of the winding
(C) Age of the motor (D) Ambient conditions
15. Which of the following is not a Primary Energy Source? [ ]
(A) Oil (B) Natural Gas (C) Electricity (D) Wood
16. The major source of electrical power generation in India is [ ]
(A) thermal (B) Hydel (C) Nuclear (D) Wind

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17. Which of the following States in India does not have proven coal reserve? [ ]
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Kerala (D) West Bengal
18.When the reactive power compensation exceeds 800kvar the capacitor is installed on [ ]
(A) LV side B) HV side C) either HV or LV D) None
19.Hormonics are caused due to [ ]
(A) Non –linear loads (B)sudden change in load
C)linear lods (D) none
20. Effect of harmonics depends on [ ]
(A) harmonic source B) harmonic source location
(C) network characteristics (D) all the above
21. Power factor can be improved by installing a device in parallel with load which draws [ ]
(A) lagging reactive power (B) leading reactive power (C) active power (D) None
22. Synchronous condenser is a [ ]
A) over excited synchronous motor on no load (B) under excited synchronous motor
(C) over excited synchronous motor on load (D) None
23. The most economical power factor for a consumer is generally [ ]
(A)0.9 lag (B) 0.95 lag (C) unity (D) 0.8 lag
24. Phase advancers are used to improve power factor for [ ]
A) synchronous motor (B) transmission line (C) induction motor (D) None
25. Capacitors improve only [ ]
A) distortion p.f B)displacement p.f (C) true p.f (D) all the above
26. Reactive Power is required for [ ]
(A) Inductive load (B)Resistive load (C)Capacitive load (D)All of the above
27. The most economical power factor for a consumer is generally [ ]
(A)0.9 lag (B) 0.95 lag (C) unity (D) 0.8 lag
28. Phase advancers are used to improve power factor for [ ]
A) synchronous motor (B) transmission line (C) induction motor (D) None
29. Static capacitors are rated in terms of [ ]
(A) KVAR (B)KW
(C) KVA (D) KWH
30. ___________are the most commonly used prime mover for various equipments in industrial
applications. [ ]
A). Induction Motors B). Synchronous Motors
C). A.C Motors D). D.C Motors

31. The two parameters of importance in a motor are _____ and _________. [ ]
A). Efficiency, Voltage B). Power Factor,Load
C). Efficiency,Power Factor D). Efficiency,Speed

32. The efficiencies of induction motors remain almost constant between __ loading. [ ]
A). 50% to 90% B).60% to 80% C).20% to 70% D). 50% to 100%

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33. ________connected in parallel with the motor are typically used to improve
the power factor. [ ]
A).Regulator B).Inductors C).Resistors D). Capacitors
34. Use of thinner gauge, lower loss core steel reduces eddy current losses. Longer core adds more
steel to the design, which reduces losses due to lower operating flux densities. We can reduce
_______ [ ]
A).Core Losses B).Cu Losses C).Friction &Windage Losses D).Total loss

35. Use of more copper and larger conductors increases cross sectional area of windings. This
lowers resistance (R) of the windings and reduces losses due to current flow (I). We can
reduce _____. [ ]
A).Core Losses B).Cu Losses C).Friction &Windage Losses D).Total loss
36. ________penalty or bonus rates, as levied by most utilities, are to contain reactive
power drawn from grid. [ ]
A). Power Factor B).Apparent Power C).Real Power D).Reactive Power

37. In all industrial electrical distribution systems, the major loads are [ ]
A). Resistive And Capacitive. B). Capacitive And Inductive.
C). Capacitive. D). Resistive And Inductive.

38. The solution to improve the power factor is to ________ power factor correction capacitors to
the plant power distribution system. [ ]
A).Subtact B).Multiply C). Add D). Divide

39. The advantages of PF improvement by capacitor addition Reactive component of the network
is_________and Voltage level at the load end is ________. [ ]
A)Reduced, Reduced B) Reduced, Increased
C) Increased, Increased D) Increased, Reduced

40. Cost benefits of PF improvement________ KVA (Maximum demand) charges in utility bill
and ________ distribution losses (KWH) within the plant network. [ ]
A)Reduced, Reduced B) Reduced ,Increased
C) Increased, Increased D) Increased, Reduced

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UNIT – III

Lighting and Energy instruments for Audit

1.The standard colour temperature for calibration of lux meter [ ]
(A) 2856 kelivins B)2856°C C) 2000°C D) None
2. Which meters are used in field of cinematography in order to determine optimum
light level [ ]
A) clamp meter B) lux meter C) watt meter (D) None
3. power consumption by the industries lighting varies from [ ]
(A)1 to 5% of total power consumption (B) 2 to 10% of total power consumption
(C) 2 to 5% of total power consumption (D) none
4. EMF produced thermocouple is [ ]
(A)inversely proportional to temparature (B) directly proportional to temparature
(C) directly proportional to power (D)none
5. ---------- is an electronic device that records data over time [ ]
(A) data logger (B)thermocouple
(C) PLC (D)all the above
6. __________is an essential service in all the industries. [ ]
A) Lighting B)Motoring C) Auditing D) Monitoring.
7. ____________is a device that distributes, filters or transforms the light emitted from one or
more lamps. [ ]
A)Lumen B) Luminaire C) Lux D). Circuit Watt

8. __________is a unit of light flow or luminous flux. [ ]

A).Lumen B) Luminaire C) Lux D).Circuit Watt

4. _______is the metric unit of measure for illuminance of a surface. [ ]

A) Lumen B) Luminaire C) Lux D)Circuit Watt

5. ______is the total power drawn by lamps and ballasts in a lighting circuit under
assessment [ ]
A)Lumen B) Luminaire C) Lux D)Circuit Watt

6. _______is a measure of the effect of light on the perceived color of objects. [ ]

A) Rendering Index(RI) B. Light Rendering Index (LRI)
C) Meter Rendering Index (CRI) D) Color Rendering Index (CRI)

7. ___are used for starting high intensity Metal Halide and Sodium vapour lamps. [ ]
A) Igniters B) Switch C) Starter D) Generator

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8. Retrofit by replacing incandescent lamps with ____ lamps, which use one-tenth the electricity
of incandescent lamps and have a lifespan of more than 100,000 hours. [ ]
A)CFL B)LED C) FL D) INCANDESENT

9. Calculate the Room Index: RI = . [ ]

A) B) C) D)

10. Installation ______ electronic ballasts in place of conventional ballasts. [ ]

A). Low frequency (LF)B).Frequency C). High frequency (HF) D).No Frequency

11. Which of the following will need the highest level of illumination ? [ ]
(A) Proof reading (B) Bed rooms (C) Hospital wards (D) Railway platforms
12.Which of the following will need lowest level of illumination ? [ ]
(A) Displays (B) Fine engraving (C) Railway platform (D) Auditoriums.
13.One lumen per square meter is the same as [ ]
(A) One lux (B) One candela (C) One foot candle (D) One lumen meter
14.Light waves travel with a velocity of [ ]
(A) 3 x 1010cm/s (B) 3 x 1012cm/s (C) 3 x 1015 cm/s (D) 3 x 1018 cm/s.
15.Radiant efficiency of the luminous source depends on [ ]
(A) shape of the source (B) temperature of the source
(C) wavelength of light rays (D) all of the above.
16.The unit of luminous flux is [ ]
(A) steradian (B) candela (C) lumen (D) lux.
17. What device is similar to an RTD but has a negative temperature coefficient? [ ]
A) Strain gauge. B) Thermistor.
C) Negative-type RTD D) Thermocouple

18. The output voltage of a typical thermocouple is [ ]

A) Less than 100 mV B) Greater than 1 V

C) Thermocouples vary resistance, not voltage. D) None of the above

19. The connections to a thermocouple [ ]

A) Can produce an unwanted thermocouple effect, which must be compensated for

B) Produce an extra desirable thermocouple effect
C) Must be protected, since high voltages are present
D) Produce an extra desirable thermocouple effect and must be protected, since high
voltages are present
20. What is the zero-voltage switch used for? [ ]

A) To reduce radiation of high frequencies during turn-on of a high current to a load

B) To control low-voltage circuits
C) To provide power to a circuit when power is lost
D) For extremely low-voltage applications

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21. Temperature sensing can be achieved by the use of [ ]

A) Thermocouples B) RTDs C) thermistors D) All of the above

22. The purpose of compensation for a thermocouple is [ ]

A) to decrease temperature sensitivity B) to increase voltage output

C) to cancel unwanted voltage output of a thermocouple D) used for high-temperature
circuits
23. The change in value of an analog signal during the conversion process produces what is
called the [ ]

A) quantization error B) resolution error C) nyquist error D) sampling error

24.The resistance in the circuit of the moving coil of a dynamometer wattmeter should be [ ]

A) almost zero B) low C) high D) none of the above

25. A dynamometer wattmeter can be used for [ ]

A) both D.C. and A.C. B) D.C. only C) A.C. only D) any of the above
26. An induction wattmeter can be used for [ ]
A) both D.C. and A.C. B) D.C. only
C) A.C. only D) any of the above
27. The pressure coil of a wattmeter should be connected on the supply side of the current coil
When [ ]
A) load impedance is high B) load impedance is low
C) supply voltage is low D) none of the above
28. In a low power factor wattmeter the pressure coil is connected [ ]

A) to the supply side of the current coil B) to the load side of the current coil
C) in any of the two meters at connection D) none of the above
29. In a low power factor wattmeter the compensating coil is connected [ ]
A) in series with current coil B) in parallel with current coil
C) in series with pressure coil D) in parallel with pressure coil

30. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter method, both the watt meters had
identical readings. The power factor of the load was [ ]

A) unity B) 0.8 lagging C) 0.8 leading D) zero

31. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter method the reading of one of the
wattmeter was zero. The power factor of the load must be [ ]
A) unity B) 0.5 C) 0.3 D) zero
32. PLCs are _____________ designed for use in the control of a wide variety [ ]
of manufacturing machines and systems.
A) special-purpose industrial computers B) personal computers
C) electromechanical systems D) All of the above
33. The PLC was invented by _____________. [ ]

A) Bill Gates B) Dick Morley C) Bill Landis D) Tod Cunningham

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34. The ______________ is moved toward the relay electromagnet when the [ ]
relay is on.
A) Armature B) Coil C) NO contact D) NC contact
35.When a relay is NOT energized: [ ]
A) There is an electrical path through the NO contacts
B) There is an electrical path through the NC contacts
C) Neither the NO or the NC contacts have an electrical path
D) Both the NO and the NC contacts have an electrical path
36. The first company to build PLCs was _____________. [ ]

A) General Motors B) Allen Bradley C) Square D D) Modicon

37.Current flows into the ___________. [ ]

A) Input terminal of a sinking DC input module

B) Input terminal of a sinking output field device
C) Output terminal of a sinking input field device
D) All of the above
38.In a current sinking DC input module _____________. [ ]

A) The current flows out of the input field device

B) Requires that a AC sources be used with mechanical switches
C) The current flows out of the input module
D) Currents can flow in either direction at the input module
39.AC output field devices can interface to _______________ [ ]

A) AC output modules B) Relay output modules

C) Both a and b D) Neither a or b
40. Which of the following RLL applications is not normally performed in early. [ ]
automation systems?
A) On/off control of field devices
B) Logical control of discrete devices
C) On/off control of motor starters
D) Proportional control of field devices

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UNIT – IV

INTRODUCTION TO DEMANDSIDE MANAGEMENT

1. _______ promises immense opportunity in reducing the overall power consumption, improving
efficiencies of ground water extraction and reducing the subsidy burden of the states without
sacrificing the service obligation to this sector. [ ]
A) AG DSM B) MU DSM C) SG DSM D) IG DSM

2. The need to implement ___ in the Country, especially in Agriculture Sector, Municipal
Sector and Small & Medium Enterprises was also emphasized upon. [ ]
A) GSM B)DSM C) ASM D) MSM

3. ___ awareness in consumers, needs to be inculcated at child hood level. [ ]

A) GSM B) ASM C) DSM D) MSM

4. Usually industrial customers are billed according to ____ rates. [ ]

A) Year-Of-Use B) Month-Of-Use C) Day-Of-Use D) Time-Of-Use

5. _____ also assumes significance given that the Municipalities consume 10% of energy overall
and the cost input of energy is as high as 60% of the costs incurred by the municipalities[ ]

A) AG DSM B)MU DSM C.SG DSM D) IG DSM

6. Energy costs constitute up to _____ percent of an Indian municipality's total cost of pumping
water to its residents. [ ]
A) 50-70 B)40-70 C) 60-70 D) 20-70

7. The electricity bills of the municipalities accounts for a significant part of its expenditure,
given that an estimated 10%of electricity is consumed for urban water pumping. [ ]

A) 10% B)20% C)30% D) 40%

8. ___ is a concept in which a power utility, such as an vertically integrated SEB or an unbundled
distribution utility, manages the demand for power among some or all its customers to meet its
current or future needs. [ ]
A) GSM B)DSM C) ASM D) MSM

9.______ are an effective part of Demand Side Management. [ ]

A) Generation Response Programs B)Energy Response Programs
C) Demand Response Programs D) Load Response Programs

10. In India, ____ can be achieved through energy efficiency, which is the reduction of
kilowatt hours (kWh) of energy consumption or demand load management, which is the
reduction of kilowatts (kW) of power demand or the displacement of demand to off-peak
times. [ ]

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 QUESTION BANK 2016

A) GSM B).ASM C)DSM D)MSM

11. Operationalising EC Act by Strengthening Institutional Capacity of______. [ ]
A) State Designated Agencies (SDAS). B) National Designated Agencies (NDAS).
C)India Designated Agencies(IDAS). D) System Designated Agencies (SDAS).

12. The government of India launched Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) on _____to
set minimum energy standards for commercial buildings. [ ]
A)27th May, 2001 B) 27th May, 2007 C)27th May, 2002 D) 27th May, 2005

13. There is a huge scope of ______ in the existing buildings. [ ]

A) energy wasting B)energy consuming C)energy savings D) all

14. _______ are statutory bodies set up by states to implement energy conservation measures at
state level. [ ]
A) State Designated Agencies (SDAS). B) National Designated Agencies (NDAS).
C) India Designated Agencies(IDAS). D) System Designated Agencies (SDAS).

15. In terms of electricity saved, given that most of the pilot projects as well as other studies
project potential savings of 45-50% by mere replacement of _______,the overall electricity
savings (from 20 million pumps) is estimated at 62.1 billion units annually. [ ]
A) Sufficient Pumps B) Efficient Motors C) Efficient Pumps D) Inefficient Pumps

16. Promotion of ______ particularly for existing buildings. [ ]

A) Energy system Companies (ESCOs) B) Energy Service Companies (ESCOs)
C) Efficient Service Companies (ESCOs) D) Energy Saving Companies (ESCOs)

17. Peak clipping is_________ . [ ]

A) Use Time Of Day Tariffs B) Use Interruptible Rates

C) Direct Load Control & Load Shedding D) All

18. Time of day rates,off-peak rates, seasonal rates, thermal storage, etc.,comes under___ [ ]

A) Peak Clipping B)Valley Filling C)Load Shifting D) Strategic Conservation

19. Encourage energy audits and offer low interest loans comes under________. [ ]
A) Peak Clipping B) Valley Filling C) Strategic Conservation D) Load Shifting

20. _____ effects significant saving for transmission and distribution. [ ]

A) DSM B) GSM C) ASM D) ISM
21.From the combination below, which is not a key element of a successful energy management
program? [ ]
A) Technical Ability B) Monitoring System & A Strategy Plan
C) Security Of Plant D) Top Management Support

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22. In force field analysis of energy action-planning, one of the actions below do not fall under
positive force? [ ]
A) High Price Of Energy B) Energy Efficient Technology Available
C) Top Management Commitment D) Lack Of Awareness

23. To assess the existing situation of a plant, good energy saving strategy plan starts
with_________. [ ]
A) Energy Audit B) Training C) Seminar D) Planning
24. The results of the energy audit would depend on. [ ]
A). Experience Of The Auditor B). Availability And Completeness Of Data.
C). Only A D).Both A And B

25. Publishing a formal statement of energy policy that can be used to define company activities
in energy matters is the role of __________. [ ]
A) Top Management B) Middle Management
C) Energy Auditor D) Energy Manager

26. The energy manager has to perform the function of ____. [ ]

1) Organizer 2)Planner 3)Decision Maker 4)Team leader
A) 1,2& 3 B) 1 & 2 Only
C) 1,2& 4 D) All The Four Above

27. “Publicizing the energy conservation program” includes the following [ ]

A) Signs And Posters Displayed In The Factory Or Office
B) Progress Charts Showing Targets And Achievements
C) Energy Conservation Stickers On Light Switches And Thermostats
D) All The Above

28. “A public expression of organisation's commitment to energy conservation and environmental

protection” is called as . [ ]
A) Company Policy B) Energy Policy
C) Management Philosophy D) Corporate Plan
29. Under Energy Conservation of Act 2001, data on energy consumed & action on
recommendations of accredited energy auditor should be reported to. [ ]
A) Bee And State Level Agency Once A Year B) Bee And State Level Agency Twice Year
C) Bee Only D) State Level Designated Agency Only

30. Which one of them is a positive force towards achieving goal of reduced energy
consumption? [ ]
A) Insufficient Financial Resources To fund B) Competing Corporate Priorities
C) Tax On Energy Consumption D) Absence Of Corporate Energy Policy

31. When an energy efficient programe is carried out as a part of a strategy to manage electricity
is called [ ]

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 QUESTION BANK 2016

A) need based energy management B)demand side management

C) environmental management D) none
32. Valley filling can be accomplished by [ ]
A) directed load control B) by adding new thermal energy storage
C) by increasing appliance efficiency D) by use of fossil fuels
33. Strategic load growth can be defined as [ ]
A)change in load shape that refers B) shifting load from on peak to off peak periods
to a general increase in sales
C) change in load shape resulting from utility simulated programs D) none
34. Which of the following falls under DSM [ ]
A) generator maintenance B) installation of transmission line
C) power flow D) scheduling of load
35. Maximum demand controller is used to ___________. [ ]

A) switch off essential loads in a logical sequence

B) exceed the demand of the plant
C) switch off non-essential loads in a logical sequence
D) controls the power factor of the plant
36. During resistance welding heat produced at the joint is proportional to [ ]

A) I2R B) KVA C) Current D) Voltage

37. Current rating is not necessary in case of [ ]

A) circuit breaker B) load peak switches C)both A and B D) isolator

38.Graphiteis used in nuclear power plant as a [ ]

A) fuel B) coolant C)moderator D) electrode

39. Spinning reserve is required for [ ]

A) Economic operation of power systems B) Reliable operation of power systems

C) dicontinue operation of power systems D) none
40.Improving p.f [ ]

A) Reduce the current for a given power B) increases losses in line

C) increases cost of the station euipment D) none

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UNIT – V

ECONOMICS AND COST EFFECTIVENESS TESTS OF DSM PROGRAMS

1. In which depreciation method is not applicable for salvage value is zero [ ]

A) sinking fund method B)declining balance method C)straight line method (D) None
2. The value of an asset at the end of its life period is known as [ ]
A)scrap value B) depreciate value C) both A&B (D) none
3. Which of the following is not a source power [ ]
(A) solar cell (B) thermocouple C) fuel cell D) photo-voltaic cell
4. Load factor of a power station is defined as [ ]
A) maximum demand/average load
B) average load x maximum demand
C) average load/maximum demand
D) (average load x maximum demand)172
5. Load factor of a power station is generally [ ]
A) equal to unity
B) less than unity
C) more than unity
D) equal to zero Diversity factor is always
6.The load factor of domestic load is usually [ ]
A) 10 to 15% B) 30 to 40% C) 50 to 60% D) 60 to 70%
7. Annual depreciation cost is calculated by [ ]
A) sinking fund method B) straight line method
C) both (a) and (b) D) none of the above
8. Depreciation charges are high in case of [ ]
A) thermal plant B) diesel plant C) hydroelectric plant D) None

9. Demand factor is defined as [ ]

A) average load/maximum load B) maximum demand/connected load
C) connected load/maximum demand D) average load x maximum load
10. High load factor indicates [ ]
A) cost of generation per unit power is increased
B) total plant capacity is utilised for most of the time
C) total plant capacity is not properly utilised for most of the time
D) none of the above
11. Annual depreciation as per straight line method, is calculated by [ ]
A) the capital cost divided by number of year of life
B) the capital cost minus the salvage value, is divided by thenumber of years of life
C) increasing a uniform sum of money per annum at stipulated rate of interest
D) none of the above

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12. A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges in [ ]

A) flat rate tariff B) two part tariff
C) maximum demand tariff D) any of the above
13. A power transformer is usually rated in [ ]
A) kW B) Kvar C) kWh D) Kva
14. Public sector undertaking is associated with erection and sometimes running of thermal
power plants [ ]
A) NTPC B) SAIL C) BEL D) BHEL
15. In India production and distribution of electrical energy is confined to [ ]
A) private sector B) public sector
C) government sectors D) none of the above

16.The primary reason for low power factor is supply system is due to installation of [ ]
A) induction motors B) synchronous motors
C) single phase motors D) d.c. motors
17. The effect of electric shock on human body depends on which of the following [ ]
A) current B) voltage
C) duration of contact D) all of the above
18. If an induction machine is run at above synchromous speed, it acts as [ ]

A) a synchronous motor B) an induction generator

C) an inductor motor D) none of the above
19. Relays can be designed to respond to changes in [ ]
A) resistance, reactance or impedance B) voltage and current
C) light intensity D) temperature
20. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? [ ]
A) Lightning arrestors are used before the switchgear
B) Shunt reactors are used as compensation reactors
C) The peak short current is (1.8 xV2) times the A.C. component
D) The MVA at fault is equal to base MVA divided by per unit
equivalent fault reactance
21. Net initial investment is divided by uniform increasing in future
cash flows to calculate [ ]
A) discounting period B) investment period
C) payback period D) earning period
22. Method which calculates time to recoup initial investment of project in form of
expected cash flows is classified as [ ]
A) net value cash flow method B) payback method
C) single cash flow metho D) lean cash flows methods
23.Annual operating cost of a generating plant consists of [ ]
A) Fixed charges B)Semi-fixed charges
C) operating or running charges D)All the above

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24.For a power plant the expenditure on which of the following items is expected to be almost
Negligible [ ]
A)Fixed charges B)Taxes C)Insurance D)Maintenance
25.In a steam power station which of the following is not a fixed cost [ ]
A)Interest on capital c cost of land and buildings B)Salaries of high officials
C)fuel and lubricating oil cost D)Insurance charges
26.In which of the following power plants the depreciation charges are high [ ]
A)Steam power plant B)Hydro power plant
C)Nuclear power plant D)diesel power plant
27.Salvage Value of a plant [ ]
A) is always positive B) is always zero
C) is always negative D)None
28.Annual installment towards depreciation increases with the decrease in
interest rate in case [ ]
A)straight line depreciation B)sinking fund depreciation
C)Reducing balance depreciation D)All the above
29.Annual depreciation of the plant is proportion to the earning capacity of the plant in case[ ]
A) straight line depreciation B)sinking fund depreciation

C) Reducing balance depreciation D) All the above

30.Annual estimated depreciation charges for a plant are heavy during early years in case [ ]
A) Diminishing value method B) sinking fund depreciation
C) straight line depreciation D) None
31.Company can raise funds through [ ]
A)Fixed deposits B)shares
C)Bonds D)Any of the above
32. Annual operating expenditure of a power plant consists of [ ]
A) fixed charges B) semi-fixed charges
C) running charges D) all of the above
33. In ______ fuel transportation cost is least. [ ]
A) nuclear power plants B) diesel generating plants
C) steam power stations D)None
34. is the reserved generating capacity available for service under emergency conditions
which is not kept in operation but in working order, [ ]
A) Hot reserve B) Cold reserve C) Spinning reserve D) Firm power
35._______ industry has the least power consumption per tonne of product. [ ]
A) Soap B) Sugar C) Vegetable oil D) Caustic soda
36 . With reference to a power station which of the following is not a fixed cost ? [ ]
A) Fuel cost B) Interest on capital
C) Insurance charges D) Depreciation
37._______ is invariably used as base load plant. [ ]
A) Diesel engine plant B) Nuclear power plant
C) Gas turbine plant D) Pumped storage plant

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38. Incase of ______ fuel transportation is the major problem. [ ]

A) diesel power plants B) nuclear power plants
C) hydro-electric power plants D) thermal power plants

39.Which of the following power plants need the least period for installation ? [ ]
A) Thermal power plant B) Diesel power plant
C) Nuclear power plant D) Hydro-electric power plant

40.In which of the following power plants the maintenance cost is usually high ? [ ]
A) Nuclear power plant B) Hydro-electric power plants
C) Thermal power plants D) Diesel engine power plants

Prepared by: K.GunaPrasad

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