DATE : 25/11/2018 PAPER CODE : B224

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 120 Minutes Answers & Solutions Marks : 240

for
NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION
IN BIOLOGY (NSEB) 2018-19

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES -

1. On the answer sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK CAPITALS
as well as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.

Incomplete/ incorrect/ carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.

2. On the answer sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries and filling the
bubbles.

3. Question paper has 80 multiple choice questions. Each question has four alternatives, out of which only
one is correct. Choose the correct alternative and fill the appropriate bubble, as shown.

Q. No. 22 a c d

4. A correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.

5. Any rough work should be done only in the space provided.

6. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.

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(ONLY ONE OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS IS CORRECT)

Choose the correct answer :

1. A proper illumination is necessary to observe details 3. Human circulatory system is made up of complex
of specimen mounted on a slide while using compound network formed by arteries, arterioles, capillaries,
light microscope. It is achieved with the help of mirror. venules and veins. The graph given below shows
The correct path of light during microscopic observation variation in parameter ‘P’ against different types of blood
is : vessels. ‘P’ represents :
(a) Light source  Mirror  Condenser lens  Iris
diaphragm  Objective lens  Specimen  Eye
piece lens  Eye
(b) Light source  Mirror  Iris diaphragm  P
Condenser lens  Specimen  Objective lens
 Eye piece lens  Eye
(c) Light source  Condenser lens  Mirror  Iris
diaphragm  Specimen  Objective lens  Eye
piece lens  Eye (a) Vessel diameter

(d) Light source  Mirror  Iris diaphragm  (b) Total cross sectional area of vessels
Specimen  Condenser lens  Objective lens (c) Average blood pressure
 Eye piece lens  Eye (d) Velocity of blood flow
Answer (b) Answer (c)
Sol. The correct path followed by ray of light in a Sol. We know that total cross-sectional area of the
compound light microscope is : vessels increases from nearly 4.5 cm2 in the aorta
Light source  Mirror  Iris diaphragm  to 4500 cm 2 in the capillaries which means
Condenser lens  Specimen  Objective lens  maximum (total) cross-sectional area in capillaries.
Eye piece lens  Eye Vessel diameter decreases from aorta to capillaries
but increases from capillaries to vena cava. Velocity
2. Rohit's teacher gave him a freshly prepared slide of a of blood flows decreases when blood reaches
vertical section of some unknown plant sample, to capillaries but then increases in vena cava. Average
observe. Rohit found some non-lignified cells which blood pressure in medium sized arteries falls very
were longitudinally elongated and tapering at both the slightly but falls rapidly in small arteries and
ends. These ends were overlapping with next cells. arterioles and further in vena cava.
The cells showed clustered perforations which were
4. During one study on rate of decomposition, litterbag
distributed uniformly over the cell surface. There were
experiment was carried out on three tree species P, Q
no chloroplasts in these cells. The specimen most
and R from same forest. In this experiment, 30 litterbags
likely represented : _______
were filled with 5.0 gms of senescent leaf litter for each
(a) Stem of Gymnosperm tree. These bags were made of fine mesh to allow
(b) Leaf of monocot decomposers to access litter but do not let the
decomposing material to fall out. These bags were
(c) Root of dicot buried in the litter layer of the forest. During a year, five
(d) Sporophyte of hornwort bags of each species were removed at 6 intervals and
their contents were dried and weighed. At the end of
Answer (a) the experiment, the percent of mass remaining was
Sol. Longitudinally elongated cells with tapering ends, found to be 75%, 50% and 45% respectively for given
overlapped with each other and with perforations are three species. The most appropriate reason for this
features of sieve cells. Since sieve cells are found difference is :
in gymnosperms thus given slide belong to stem of (a) The moisture content of leaves of ‘R’ species must
gymnosperms. be higher than others
Angiosperm root and stem both will have lignified (b) The lignin content in ‘P’ is maximum among all
cells. three species.
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(c) The difference in types of decomposers involved (c) Non-coding DNA may predispose individual to
in process leads to variation in rate of cancer
decomposition
(d) Non-coding DNA can be the causative agent of
(d) The mass of dead decomposers also added in Tuberculosis
case of species ‘P’.
Answer (d)
Answer (b)
Sol. Causative agent of Tuberculosis is Mycobacterium,
Sol. Chemical composition of detritus is a determining not the non-coding DNA.
factor for decomposition process.
7. While cloning a Eukaryotic gene in Prokaryotic
Detritus with high lignin or tannin (complex organic expression vector
compounds) content shows slow decomposition rate.
(a) Gene of interest is inserted in a cloning vector
Since remaining mass of P after decomposition is
with active prokaryotic promoter
highest i.e. 75% thus its lignin content is maximum.
(b) mRNA of gene of interest is inserted in a cloning
5. Southern flying squirrel ‘Glaucomys volans’ shows
vector with active prokaryotic promoter
variation in their daily activity period throughout the
year. As shown in the graph, the time of the day when (c) cDNA of gene of interest is inserted in a cloning
squirrel becomes active varies considerably. vector with active prokaryotic promoter

20:00 (d) Gene of interest is inserted in a cloning vector

with active prokaryotic enhancer sequence
19:30
Answer (c)
19:00
Time of day

Sol. cDNA also called complementary DNA is inserted

18:30
in expression vector as it lacks introns. Splicing is
18:00 not possible is prokaryotic expression vectors.
17:30 8. The number and types of vertebrae in a few
17:00 mammals are tabulated below:
16:30 Type of
vertebrae Number of vertebrae
16:00
J F M A M J J A S O N D J Animal I Animal II Animal III
Months
The reason is : Cervical 1 7 7

(a) The squirrel starts its daily activity with nightfall Thoracic 12 13
7 (abdominal)
(b) The delayed activity period in April-July Lumbar 5 6
corresponds to breeding season
Sacral 1 5 4
(c) Higher temperature during day time in spring
season leads to late beginning of activities Caudal 0 4 30
(d) The activity starts early at the beginning of the Animals I, II and III most likely are :
year due to more availability of food
(a) I : Human II : Frog III : Rat
Answer (c)
(b) I : Frog II : Human III : Rat
Sol. Graph shows that squirrel becomes active with
sunset, since time of sunset increases from winter (c) I : Human II : Rat III : Frog
to summer. Thus, higher temperature during day (d) I : Frog II : Rat III : Human
time in spring season leads to late beginning of
activities. Answer (b)
6. Following statements are made about Non-coding Sol. The vertebral formula in frog (Animal I) is
DNA. Mark the statement that is INCORRECT. C1Ab7S1Ca0
(a) Non-coding DNA can be transcribed into functional The vertebral formula in human (Animal II) is
non-coding RNA molecules. C1T12L5S5Ca4
(b) Non-coding DNA can contribute towards evolution The vertebral formula in rat (Animal III) is
of Genome C7T13L6S4Ca30-36

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C : Cervical, T : Thoracic, L : Lumbar ,  M, N and O could be

  
Ab: Abdo min al (a) DNAase; RNAase; Protease
 
S : Sacral, Ca : Caudal 
(b) Protease; DNAase; RNAase
The Atlas is the only cervical vertebrae in frog. The
next seven vertebrae are abdominal vertebrae, which (c) DNAase; Protease; Nuclease
is the large sacrum with two strong transverse (d) Lipase; DNAase; Protease
processes that join with ileum. The last vertebra is
Answer (c)
the long and highly modified urostyle.
Hence, Animal I, II and III are frog, human and rat Sol. Enzyme M should be DNase as treatment of heat
respectively. killed S strain with DNAase enzyme digests the
DNA and transformation stops and mouse remains
9. Taq DNA polymerase is routinely used in PCR, what
healthy.
is its unique property?
(a) Taq DNA polymerase can polymerize ss DNA in Enzyme N should be protease as it does not have
5  3 direction. any effect of DNA and transformation occurs.

(b) Taq DNA polymerase can polymerize ss DNA in Enzyme O should be nuclease as its action on
3  5 direction. DNA stops the transformation and mice dies.
(c) Taq DNA polymerase does not denature at high 11. Oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve can be obtained
temperatures. by plotting the amount of oxyhemoglobin present at
(d) Rate of DNA replication is much higher in presence different partial pressures of oxygen. The dashed line
of Taq DNA polymerase. indicates the oxygen saturation curve obtained for a
healthy individual (body temperature 37°C and blood
Answer (c)
pH 7.4).
Sol. – Taq DNA polymerase is a specialised
thermostable enzyme isolated from the
100
Hemoglobin saturation%
thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus. It
has both 5’  3’ polymerase and exonuclease
activity which is not a unique feature as this P
property is also found in other DNA polymerases.
– Rate of DNA replication is much lower in
presence of Taq DNA polymerase w.r.t. DNA 50
polymerase III of prokaryotes.
– Taq DNA polymerase is routinely used in PCR
as it works in the range 90 – 94°C during
primer extension step.
20 40 60 80 100
10. In the famous experiments by Griffith, heat-killed
smooth (S) strain of Pneumococci were mixed with Oxygen pressure (mm of Hg)
the non-virulent rough (R) strain of Pneumococci and In which of the following conditions, will the curves P
then injected into healthy mice (Experiment 1). In further be obtained?
experiments, the filtrate obtained by homogenizing the
(a) pH 7.2 and temperature: 37°C
heat-killed smooth strain was treated with three different
enzymes and then mixed with the nonvirulent R strain. (b) pH 7.6 and temperature: 20°C
These mixtures were injected into healthy mice to study
(c) pH 7.2 and temperature: 40°C
the effect. (Experiments 2 – 4).
The results of these experiments are given in the table (d) pH 7.4 and temperature: 40°C
below. Answer (b)
Experiment Heat-killed S strain Effect on mice after injecting the Sol. – High pO2, low pCO2, less H+ concentration, high
treated with mixture of Heat-killed treated S
and the non virulent R strain pH and low temperature are the various factors
which favour formation of oxyhaemoglobin complex
1 No enzyme Mouse died
and shift the curve towards left side.
2 Enzyme M Mouse remained healthy
So, curve P will be obtained when the pH shifts
3 Enzyme N Mouse died
from 7.4 to 7.6 and temperature shifts from 37°C to
4 Enzyme O Mouse remained healthy 20°C.

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12. Which of the following is the property of a Stem cell? 14. Colorimetry has widest applications in biological
sciences. While measuring the growth (rate) of a
(a) They can differentiate into all possible types of
bacterial culture, which phenomenon is taken into
cells and are found only in embryonic tissue.
consideration?
(b) They can differentiate into other types of cells and i. Absorption of light by the bacterial media.
they are capable of dividing and renewing
ii. Absorption of a specific wavelength of light by the
themselves for long periods.
bacterial cells.
(c) Stem cells are unspecialized and they cannot be iii. Scattering of light by the bacterial cells.
grown in laboratory conditions.
Mark the correct option.
(d) All the above. (a) i and ii (b) ii and iii
Answer (b) (c) i only (d) iii only
Sol. Stem cells are not exclusively found in embryonic Answer (b)
tissues. Adult stem cells have been found in bone Sol. In spectrophotometer, cell growth is measured by
marrow, skin, liver etc. These cells can differentiate measuring the absorbance of cell suspensions. This
into other type of cells. Stem cells can be cultured principle is based on the fact that small molecules
in laboratory conditions in specialised nutrient scatter light proportionate to their concentration.
broths. Cells are composed of a variety of organic
compounds (DNA, proteins, lipids and
13. In an experiment to study the effect of a certain
carbohydrates). Light interacts with these
compound ‘X’, actively respiring plant cells were treated
molecules in different ways: reflection, absorption,
with ‘X’ after some time of the start of the experiment.
transmission and scattering. A bacterium absorbs
The pH gradient across the mitochondrial membrane
light at specific wavelength (600 nm).
was monitored throughout the experiment. Compound
X was known to specifically target mitochondrial ATP 15. Ananya wanted to isolate and study organelles involved
synthase and lead to complete inhibition of the in packaging and transporting of proteins to various
enzyme. Which of the following graphs would be the locations in a cell. Her colleague had carried out the
expected outcome of this experiment? The arrow in following experiment: she ground a piece of spinach
the graph indicates the time of addition of compound leaves and carried out differential centrifugation. A
‘X’. scheme of the protocol she followed along with the
centrifugation speed (in g) at every step is given below:
pH gradient across

pH gradient across

Leaf homogenate 800 g Fraction 1 1500 g Fraction 2

membrane

membrane

9000 g
(a) (b)

Time Time 50000 g

Fraction 4 Fraction 3
pH gradient across

pH gradient across

The fraction that would give Ananya the fraction of the

organelle of her interest would be:
(a) 1 (b) 2
membrane

membrane

(c) (d) (c) 3 (d) 4

Answer (d)
Time Time Sol. Golgi helps in packaging and sorting of materials.
Answer (c) At various speeds of centrifugation, it separates the
cell and their components. It separates as follows.
Sol. When ATP synthesis is blocked by compound X,
500 - 1000 g  Nuclear fraction which includes
protons cannot flow into the matrix through the F0-
nucleus, intact cells and tissue debris.
F1 complex. With no path for the return of protons
to the matrix and the continued extrusion of protons Upto 10,000 g  Mitochondrial fraction which
driven by the activity of the respiratory chain a large includes mitochondria, lysosomes and peroxisomes.
proton gradient, hence a large proton motive force Upto 10,0000 g  Microsomal fraction which
builds up. includes E.R, golgi and plasma membrane.
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16. Classification of a few animals is shown in the

cladogram. The characters M, N and O respectively
represent:

Primates Birds 1X 2X
Ray finned Amphibians Rodents Crocodilians
fish
Sharks
N O
1Y 2Y

Tube 1 Tube 2
Radioactive 32P and 35S are expected to be found
M
maximally in which of the following parts of the tubes?
(a) 1X and 2X (b) 1Y and 2X
(a) Vertebrae, sweat glands, amniotic egg.
(c) 1Y and 2Y (d) 1X and 2Y
(b) Bony skeleton, hair, eggs with shell.
Answer (b)
(c) Vertebrae, amniotic egg, feathers. Sol. Radioactive P32 will incorporate in DNA of virus so
(d) Notochord, four legs, amniotic eggs. it will be found in pellet (1 Y) i.e. at the bottom of
test tube in experiment 1.
Answer (b)
While radioactive S35 will incorporate in protein of
Sol. virus so it will be found in supernatant (2x) because
protein capsid remain outside the host.
Primates Birds 18. Pure water seems to be colorless in visible region of
Ray finned Amphibians Rodents Crocodile
fish Hair the electromagnetic spectrum. This is because
Shark
N (a) When a beam of visible light falls on it, the energy
O Two post orbital
fenestrae spectrum does not cause any change in the
Amniotic eggs molecule.
M Four limbs (b) No energy is absorbed.
Bony fishes (skeleton) (c) Water molecules lack chromophore.
Vertebrate (d) All of the above.
Answer (b)
M, N and O are bony skeleton, hair and eggs with
shell respectively. Sol. Water molecules are unable to absorb too much
energy. Therefore, when visible light pass through
17. In an experiment to test the component of a the water, it is unable to absorb too much of visible
bacteriophage that might be the hereditary material light energy. Therefore difference between the
that enters a bacterial cell to direct the assembly of energies of the two quantum states of water is very
new viruses, the following two experiments were less, and thus water seems to be colourless.
performed:
19. A living, colorless, unstained organism can be best
Experiment 1: Virus were labeled with radioactive viewed using :
phosphorus (32P)  labeled virus were allowed to infect
(a) Brightfield light microscope
unlabeled bacteria  mixture was agitated to detach
viruses from bacterial cells  centrifugation was (b) Darkfield light microscope
carried out to form bacterial pellet while viruses (c) Fluorescent microscope
remained in the supernatant as indicated in tube 1.
(d) Scanning electron microscope
Experiment 2: Virus were labeled with radioactive
Answer (a)
sulfur (35S)  labeled virus were allowed to infect
unlabeled bacteria  mixture was agitated to detach Sol. Brightfield light microscope is a multipurpose
viruses from bacterial cells  centrifugation was instrument and can be used for live unstained
carried out to form bacterial pellet while viruses materials as well as preserved and stained
remained in the supernatant as indicated by tube 2. materials.
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Dark field microscope - to detect mainly cellular 22. Green world hypothesis suggests that despite many
organelles such as nuclei, vacuoles, mitochondria primary consumers feeding on plants, the terrestrial
etc. ecosystems maintain their greenery. The herbivores
Fluorescent microscope - for antibodies are able to consume only a small part of plant biomass
Scanning electron microscope - for study of dried because of several inhibiting factors. Some of the
specimens coated with metals. factors are listed below:

20. The graph depicts the relationship between alveolar 1. Plants have defences against herbivores
ventilation and partial pressure of carbon dioxide in 2. Abiotic factors limit herbivore feeding
alveolar air. Regions AB and AC respectively represent
3. Disturbances in breeding cycle limit herbivore
feeding
20 B 4. Intraspecific competition limits herbivore feeding
Which of the following is true?
PA CO2 (a) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are the inhibiting factors
(kPa)
(b) Statements 1, 2 and 4 are the inhibiting factors
A
(c) Statements 1, 3 and 4 are the inhibiting factors
5 C
(d) Statements 2, 3 and 4 are the inhibiting factors

5 VA (L/min) 20 Answer (b)

(a) Acidosis and alkalosis Sol. According to 'Green World hypothesis' herbivores
(b) Acidosis and hypoventilation are able to consume only a small part of plant
biomass because Intra & inter specific competition
(c) Alkalosis and hyperventilation limit herbivore feeding.
(d) Alkalosis and hypoventilation Abiotic & biotic factors limit herbivore feeding.
Answer (a)
Plants have defences against herbivores.
Sol. Region A to B represents increasing pCO2 which
23. Match the alphabets (A, B, C and D) with the events
increases H+ concentration and decrease in pH
(i, ii, iii and iv) seen during action potential.
causing acidosis. Region A to C represents
hyperventilation, decreasing pCO 2 so causing +35 Repolarization
respiratory alkalosis due to decrease in H + C
concentration. This results in increased pH because 0
Depolarization
H2CO3 dissociates to H2O & CO2.
mv B
21. Some bacteria form a slimy, viscous layer covering Hyperpolarization
the cell wall. This layer is known as capsule. These
A D
capsules are beneficial to the bacteria because –65
–90
(i) They attract other bacteria to form colonies
RMP
(ii) They enable bacteria to stick to the surface. Time (ms)
0 3 (1 - 4 ms)
(iii) Capsules contain water which protects the bacteria (i) Voltage gated K+ channels remain open after the
against dessication potential reaches resting level.
(a) (i) and (ii) only (ii) Closure of Na+ and opening of K+, voltage gated
(b) (ii) and (iii) only channels.
(c) (iii) only (iii) Local potential change, depolarization to threshold.
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) (iv) Opening of voltage gated Na+ channels.
Answer (b) (a) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (ii)
Sol. Capsule enable bacteria to attach to the surface (b) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (i)
and as it contains water, it protects the bacteria
(c) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
against dessication. Capsule does not attract
bacteria to form colonies. (d) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii)

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Answer (b) Answer (c)

Sol. A represents local potential change depolarisation to Sol. Keratin is a structural protein found in hair, wool,
threshold value. skin, nails etc. It is a component of keratinised
B represents depolarisation during which opening of squamous layer of vertebrate skin.
voltage gated Na+ channels occurs. Keratin is not a globular protein, it is a fibrous
C represents repolarisation during which closure of protein, so statement (c) is incorrect.
Na+ and opening of K+ voltage gated channel occurs 27. Spina bifida is a congenital defect of the vertebral
D represents hyperpolarisation, during which voltage column. An increased risk of this defect is primarily
gated K+ channels remain open after the potential associated with low level of-
reaches resting level. (a) Vitamin A
24. The first groups of animals to develop a lung adequate
(b) Vitamin B
to support their respiratory requirements without use
of supplementary organ for gaseous exchange were (c) Vitamin C
(a) Amphibians (b) Reptiles (d) Vitamin E
(c) Mammals (d) Aves Answer (b)
Answer (b) Sol. Vitamin B i.e. folic acid or folate deficiency
Sol. Amphibians can breathe through gills, skin and lungs increases the risk of spina bifida, a congenital
based on stage of life and habitat. Reptiles were the defect of the vertebral column deficiency of vitamin
first animals to develop lungs to support respiratory C causes scurvy.
requirements without supplementary organs. Birds 28. With respect to mitochondria and chloroplast which of
require air sacs and mammals evolved later. the following statements is NOT true?
25. An angiosperm 'A' and a gymnosperm 'G' have 100 (a) They possess a circular chromosome
chromosomes in the cells of their meristem. What
would be the correct number of chromosomes in the (b) They reproduce within the cell
endosperms of the seeds of A and G? (c) They divide at the same time as the cells in which
(a) A = 300; G = 300 (b) A = 200; G = 200 they are situated divide
(c) A = 100; G = 300 (d) A = 300; G = 100 (d) They employ chemiosmotic energy transduction
Answer (*) to fuel the biochemical reactions that take place
within their structures.
Sol. In angiosperms endosperm is 3n, whereas in
gymnosperms endosperm is n. Answer (c)
A meristematic cell of angiosperm or gymnosperm Sol. Mitochondria & chloroplast divide in G 2 phase
is diploid (2n) whereas the cells in which they are present divide
in M phase.
2n = 100 (given)
n = 50 29. The presence of homologous structure in two different
organisms, such as radius and ulna in forelimb of a
Angiosperm = 3n =
3×50=150 human and a bat, indicates that
Ploidy of endosperm in
(a) Humans and bats are polyphyletic species
Gymnosperm = n = 50
Ploidy of endosperm in angiosperm & gymnosperm (b) The evolution of human and bat is convergent
is 150 & 50 respectively. (c) Humans and bats form a monophyletic clade
* All options are incorrect. (d) Humans and bats did not evolve from a common
26. With respect to keratin, which of the following is NOT ancestor
a correct statement? Answer (c)
(a) It is the structural protein of hair, wool, nails, claws,
Sol. Monophyletic clade is a group of organisms that
beaks and feathers
consists of all the descendants of a common
(b) It is a component of vertebrate skin ancestor.
(c) It is a globular protein that protects animal body The evolution of homologous structures in human
from external injuries and bats represent divergent evolution as they share
(d) Its hardness vary with the degree of cross linking common ancestor, thus they exemplify a
by disulphide bridges between neighbouring chains monophyletic clade.

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30. Tattooing is a permanent coloration of the skin in which Answer (a)
a foreign pigment is deposited with a needle into
the__________. Sol. The given diagram shows adaptation for acquiring
maximum dim light such as in nocturnal animal like
(a) Epidermis (b) Dermis owl. Greater curvature of cornea converges more
(c) Hypodermis (d) Connective tissue light rays on lens for vision in dark (dim light).
Answer (b) 33. A bone scan is a diagnostic tool where small amount
Sol. Tattooing is performed by using needle, through of a radioactive tracer compound is injected
which ink is inserted into the dermis. If the ink intravenously and the degree of uptake of the tracer is
would be injected in epidermis a layer prone to cast measured by a scanning device. Normal bone tissue
off shedding (ecdysis) and the ink of the tattoo is identified by a consistent grey colour. Darker or
fades away. So for permanent coloration, tattooing lighter areas also known as “Hot spots” and “Cold
should be performed in dermis. spots” respectively may indicate bone abnormalities.
31. White coat color in guinea pigs is recessive (b) to By considering this fact, which of the following
black (B). Ovary from black homozygous guinea pig conditions would produce hot spots on X ray sheet?
is transplanted into a white ovarectomized female. If (a) Decalcified bone.
this white female is mated with a white male, the
offspring will be, (b) Paget's disease (disease that disrupts
displacement of old bone tissue with new).
(a) Black with the genotype BB.
(b) White with the genotype bb. (c) Bone cancer.
(c) Black or white with genotype Bb OR bb. (d) Degenerative bone diseases.
(d) Black with the genotype Bb.
Answer (c)
Answer (d)
Sol. Hot spots are darker areas representing the
Sol. White skin coat over ectomized female is
abnormality in bone tissue.
transplanted with the ovary from black homozygous
guinea pig. Condition like tumor/cancer (abnormal proliferation
Female Male (White skin coated guinea pig) of bone tissue) may produce hot spots on X-ray
BB bb sheet.
B B Cancerous regions show enhanced blood supply
b Bb Bb and angiogenesis. Rapid uptake of radioactive tracer
can be observed in region of cellular proliferation.
b Bb Bb

All progenies = Bb (Heterozygous black with Bb 34. There are two forms of UV radiation, UVA (315-400 nm)
genotype) & UVB (280-315 nm) that have different effects on
health. Which of the following statements is true?
32. Schematic eye is represented in the figure. Which of
the following statement is true? (a) UVA is not absorbed by the ozone layer and is
responsible for tanning.

(b) UVB is not absorbed by the ozone layer and is

germicidal in action.

(c) UVA is most absorbed by ozone layer and is

responsible for cataract formation.

(d) UVA is not absorbed by ozone layer and is

responsible for sun burn and skin cancer.
(a) It shows adaptation for acquiring maximum dim Answer (a)
light.
Sol. UV-A is not absorbed by the ozone layer but
(b) It peculiarly shows high resolution power of retina.
UV-B is absorbed by this layer. UV-A is responsible
(c) It represents a typical diurnal animal. for tanning of skin while UV-B damages DNA and
(d) Small distance between the retina and lens mutation may occur that causes various types of
permits projection of larger and clearer image. skin cancers.

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35. The products of hydrolysis of chitin which is a major Cells P and Q are:
component of exoskeleton of insects is (a) P-xylem parenchyma; Q-xylem trachieds
(a) Galactosamine which is an amino sugar.
(b) P-companion cells; Q-phloem fibres
(b) Glucosamine which is an amino sugar.
(c) P-companion cells; Q-sieve tube elements
(c) Deoxyribose sugar which is a pentose sugar.
(d) P-companion cells; Q-xylem parenchyma
(d) Fatty acids and glycerol.
Answer (c)
Answer (b)
Sol. Companion cells are specialised parenchymatous
Sol. In chitin, the basic unit is a nitrogen containing
cells. They retain a nucleus throughout their life.
glucose derivative known as N-acetyl glucosamine
They contain a lot of mitochondria. A mature sieve
(NAG). Glucosamine is an amino sugar. (1,4)
tube element possesses a peripheral cytoplasm
glycosidic bonds are formed in chitin which is a
and a large central vacuole but lacks a nucleus. It
polymer of NAG found in exoskeleton of arthropods
does not have ribosomes and Golgi bodies.
and fungal cell wall.
38. Kangaroo rat is a xeric vertebrate which has higher
36. Select the correct match for items in part A to that in
metabolic rate than lizards. It usually does not drink
part B among the following:
water. Which of the following features is NOT shown
PART A PART B by this mammal?
P. Receptor mediated (i) Entry of maternal (a) It produces highly concentrated urine.
endocytosis antibodies across
(b) It shows lower basal metabolic rate than a non-
placenta
desert mammal.
Q. Phagocytosis (ii) Entry of HiV in helper
T cell (c) It utilises metabolic water and spends the day in
burrows which have temperature of 25°C.
R. Bulk phase (iii) Vital defence
endocytosis/ mechanism (d) It has cutaneous permeability to absorb moisture
Pinocytosis from the damp burrows during day and from cold
sand at night.
S. Transcytosis (iv) Absorptive cells of
kidneys & intestine Answer (d)
(a) P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(iv) Sol. In mammals like Kangaroo rat skin is lined by
keratinized stratified squamous epithelium which is
(b) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(iii)
water proof and can not absorb water from damp
(c) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(i) burrows.
(d) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i) 39. In the context of the following figure, which of the
Answer (c) statements below is true?
Sol. P. Receptor mediated endocytosis occurs during
the entry of HIV in TH cells as TH cells bear
CD4 receptor.
Q. In phagocytosis, cell engulfs foreign particles,
waste material to provide defence to our body.
R. Bulk phase endocytosis/pinocytosis/cell
drinking occurs by the absorptive cells of
kidneys and intestine.
S. Entry of maternal antibodies IgG across
placenta occurs through transcytosis.
37. Structural features of two types of cells; P and Q of
vascular tissue of a dicot plant are given below:
P: Presence of nucleus, membrane bound organelles
and large number ot mitochondria. (a) Mass specific metabolic rate decreases with
increased activity.
Q: No nucleus, cytoplasm is in the form of thin layer,
few small mitochondria, no ribosomes, no Golgi (b) Mass specific metabolic rate increases with
bodies. decreasing body mass.

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(c) Mass specific metabolic rate increases with iii. mRNA migrates from the nucleus to the
decreased area/volume. cytoplasm.
(d) Mass specific metabolic rate decreases with iv. An aminoacyl tRNA binds to its specific codon
increase in food consumption rate. on mRNA.
Answer (b) v. mRNA is transcribed from its DNA template.
Sol. Body size of an individual is inversely proportional Identify the correct sequence from the following
to the basal metabolic rate. options.
40. In comparison to the mountain goats adapted to (a) v - iii - i - iv - ii (b) v - ii - i - iii - iv
climbing rather than running similar-sized pronghorns
(c) v - iii - iv - ii - i (d) v - iii - ii - iv - i
that are adapted to run fast, have a 5 times greater
rate of oxygen consumption. This is possible due to Answer (a)
the following adaptations with an exception of: Sol. The first step during protein synthesis begins when
(a) Larger surface area in the lungs. mRNA is available. So, first mRNA is transcribed from
(b) Greater cardiac output. its DNA template in the nucleus and then it is
transported to the cytoplasm from it.
(c) Larger and more abundant erythrocytes.
43. Porpoise (Phocaena spp.) is a group of small toothed
(d) Higher volume and density of mitochondria. whales found in Polar regions. The mammals is
Answer (c) adapted to low temperature conditions. Following four
schematic diagrams show possible arrangement of
Sol. In pronghorns, lungs have larger surface area, more
blood vessels in longitudinal section of their flippers.
cardiac output, higher volume and density of
Which one of them is the most appropriate for
mitochondria because all are helpful to increase
maintaining optimum body temperature?
oxygen consumption there by explaining high BMR,
but increase in size of RBCs decreases total
SKIN SURFACE
surface area for gaseous exchange which is not
CORE
possible.
(a) (b)
41. Which of the following insects have 2 pairs of
functional wings, shearing mouthparts and incomplete
metamorphosis?
(a) Butterfly (b) Mosquito
(c) Cockroach (d) Dragonfly (c) (d)
Answer (d)
Sol.  Butterfly has 2 pairs of functional wings, siphoning
Answer (c)
type of mouth parts and shows complete
metamorphosis (Holometabolous condition). Sol. Porpoises found in polar regions are adapted for low
temperature by preserving body heat causing peripheral
 Mosquito has 1 pair of functional wings, piercing
vasoconstriction. Figure (c) is correct as it has
and sucking type of mouth parts and shows
functional central blood vessel and peripheral capillaries
complete metamorphosis (Holometabolous
on flippers in spherical arrangement. Since sphere
metamorphosis).
has minimum surface area, it minimises heat loss.
 Cockroach has 1 pair of functional wings, biting &
44. Birds like Albatross, spend months at sea drinking
chewing type of mouth parts and shows gradual
sea water. Their osmoregulation strategy includes:
metamorphosis (Paurometabolus metamorphosis).
i. Excreting salts through nasal glands.
 Dragon fly has 2 pairs of functional wings, shearing
(cutting) mouth parts and shows incomplete ii. Having uric acid as excretory material.
metamorphosis (Hemimetabolous metamorphosis).
iii. Having an active ornithine cycle.
42. The following is a list of events in synthesis of protein
(a) i & ii
from a DNA template.
(b) i & iii
i. mRNA attaches to the ribosome.
(c) iii & iv
ii. The amino acid is attached to the growing
polypeptide by a peptide bond. (d) ii & iv

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Answer (a) (a) Population I is related to poorly developed country

while II is from highly developed country.
Sol. Marine birds such as albatross possess salt secreting
nasal glands, which produce hypertonic solutions of (b) Population I shows that more births occurred during
NaCl in response to osmotic loads such as ingestion 1945 to 1964.
of sea water. The concentration of the secreted fluid
is always high, several times as high as maximum (c) Population I has substantially higher percent
urine concentration in birds. The presence of this gland population in age group 30-34 as compared to
must be considered a necessary adaptations to marine population II.
life in animals whose kidney cannot excrete high salt
(d) Population II shows that female to male ratio is
concentration. Birds are uricotelic in nature.
substantially reduces as the age increases.
45. If a plant is made to grow in a solution of biogenic
Answer (c)
nutrients supplemented with cytokinins it will:
(a) become stunted (b) become etiolated Sol. Population I is a declining type of population while
population II is growing type. The graph clearly shows
(c) senescence faster (d) become bushy that population I has substantially higher percent of
Answer (d) population in age group 30 - 34 as compared to
population - II.
Sol. Cytokinin is a growth hormone that reduces apical
dominance and promotes growth of lateral branches. 48. Lichens are known to be very sensitive to air pollution
because they :
This makes the plant bushy.
(a) Fail to photosynthesise in high concentration of
46. To initiate the inflammatory response, histamine that
CO2
trigger dilation and increased permeability of nearby
capillaries, is released by the injured cells in (b) Do not produce mucilage buffer against toxic gases
connective tissue called:
(c) Are unable to excrete toxic substances they absorb
(a) Macrophage (b) Fibroblasts
(d) Cannot reproduce in air polluted with suspended
(c) Chondrioblasts (d) Mast cells particulate matter
Answer (d)
Answer (c)
Sol. Mast cells are found in tissues and synthesize heparin,
histamine and serotonin. Histamine is a potent Sol. Lichens are sensitive to air pollution because they are
vasodilators which increases permeability of blood unable to excrete toxic substances they absorb during
capillaries that facilitates diapedesis of WBCs for the air pollution.
inflammatory reaction. Macrophages are phagocytic 49. Study of Gonyaulax polyedra, dinogragellate showed
cells derived from monocytes. 3 peculiar diurnal cycle X, Y and Z. They respectively
Fibroblasts are responsible for formation of m a t r i x most likely represent:
and connective tissue fibres. Chondroblasts are
Note that dark line in the graph indicates night
cartilage forming cells, derived from fibroblasts.
47. The two graphs given below explain percent of human
population present in each age group for two different
countries. The population survey has been carried out
in year 1990. Which statement/s correctly describe/
s the graphs? Activity

hours
(a) Photosynthesis, respiration and luminescence.

(b) Cell division, photosynthesis and luminescence.

(c) Migration, respiration and luminescence.

(d) Reproduction, respiration and cell division.

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 NSEB 2018-19
Answer (b) 52. On an average a climax ecosystem has more organic
matter in the form of
Sol. Gonyaulax a dinoflagellate shows photosynthesis in
daytime, while it shows bioluminescence in night. (a) Primary producers
so curve Y = Photosynthesis (b) Consumers
Z = Bioluminescence (c) Decomposers
and X = Cellular activity that can occur in day or
(d) Dead organic biomass of all the above
night i.e, cell division/ reproduction
Answer (a)
So correct option that matches correct possibilities is
(b) Sol. Climax community is characterised by
50. An inverted pyramid of biomass is expected for High diversity
(a) Tropical rain forest
High organic matter
(b) Grassland
High humus
(c) Open ocean
But organic matter is not in the form of dead biomass.
(d) Desert As Biomass is measured as fresh weight or dry weight
Answer (c) of living matter.

Sol. For aquatic ecosystems pyramid of biomass shows Since organic matter and humus is high in climax
inverted pattern. community the primary producer will also be high.

Biomass of large fishes 53. Carbon dioxide is a by-product of aerobic respiration.

End Tidal CO2 (EtCO2) is maximal concentration of
Biomass of small fishes
CO2 at the end of exhaled breath. Normal wave of
Biomass of zooplanktons
exhalation is shown below.
Biomass of phytoplanktons
EtCO2 mmHg

So correct answer is (c) because open ocean is the 50

only aquatic ecosystem given in the options. 30
51. Assume that weight of fruit is being influenced by 10
alleles occupying different loci and that the minimum
Time
weight of fruit is 20 g with 2 g being added by each
dominant allele. If maximum weight is 36 g, how The following types of waves P and Q respectively
many gene loci must be involved? indicate:

(a) 3 (b) 4 P Q
(c) 6 (d) 8 45 45

Answer (d) 0 0

Sol. Phenotype minimum weight = 20 gm (due to all (a) Hypoventilation and bronchospasm
recessive allele),
(b) Hyperventilation and asthama
Maximum weight = 36 gm (due to dominant allele at
(c) Bronchospasm and hyperventilation
each loci)
Contribution of each dominant allele at each loci (d) Bronchospasm and hypoventilation
= 2 gm. Answer (c)
No. of dominant loci involved =
Sol. Bronchospasms obstruct air ways so that CO2 starts
max imum weight  minimum weight to accumulate in the body fluids causing increase in
contribution of each dominant allele pCO2 results in condition known as hypercapnoea,
which is represented by waves of P type.
36  20 16
  8 Hyperventilation is responsible for removal of
2 2 increased CO2 from body fluids causing decrease
Total dominant loci involved is 8. in H+ concentration as sure by Q wave.

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54. Endocrine glands play major role in working of ovarian 56. Mechanism involved in volatilization of ammonia by
cycle. Following events have to occur in specific land snail Halix is shown, P, Q and R respectively
sequence in female mammals, especially humans. indicate:
The correct sequence of given events must be: Hornocyonin

P : FSH stimulates granulosa cells to convert Body Tissues

Shell
Mantle
androgen to estrogen by aromatase action.
and Lungs
Q : LH stimulates theca cells of ovarian follicle to Metabolism
secrete androgen.

R : Estrogen promotes growth of endometrium.

P Co2 + H2 O R
S : GnRH stimulates secretion of FSH and LH from
anterior pituitary cells. Arginine Ca+ CaCO3

(a) P  Q  R  S H+
NH+4
(b) S  Q  P R Q
NH 4
(c) R  P  Q  S

(d) S  R  P  Q (a) Urea, uric acid and bicarbonate

(b) Carbonic acid, urea and carbonate
Answer (b)
(c) ATP, arginase and bicarbonate
Sol. First event in ovarian cycle is release of GnRH from
(d) CO2, urea and carbonic acid
hypothalamus(S) which triggers release of FSH and
LH from adenohypophysis (Q). Now LH acts on Answer (d)
granulosa cells of ovarian follicles and promotes them Sol. During metabolism, production of CO2 occurs which
to secrete androgens (P). Androgens are transformed combines with water to produce carbonic acid. During
into estrogen with the help of enzyme aromatase. Now urea cycle, urea is produced from arginine and further
estrogen acts on endometrium of uterus and is urea is broken down into NH4+ and CO2.
responsible for proliferation of its growth (R).
Hence,
S  Q  P R P = CO2
55. A toad was offered bumble bees as food. The toad Q = Urea
got stung by the bees, subsequently the toad avoids R = Arginine
feeding on insects with black and yellow colouration.
57. Glyoxysomes are single membrane-bound
This is an example of :
cytoplasmic organelles in eukaryotes. Which of the
(a) Habituation following statements is NOT true for glyoxisomes?

(b) Sensitization (a) Glyoxysomes are specialised type of

peroxisomes.
(c) Associative learning
(b) They play a major role in the mobilisation and
(d) Innate behaviour utilisation of stored nutrients in germinating seeds.
(c) They are found in vertebrates liver and play a major
Answer (c)
role in converting glucose to glycogen.
Sol. Habituation and sensitization are opposite effects (d) They play a major role in the conversion of fatty
Sensititation is a non-associative learning process in acids in to carbohydrates.
which repeated administration of a stimulus results in
Answer (c)
progressive amplification of response. Frog will exhibit
associative learning where toad avoids feeding on Sol. In Glyoxysomes glyoxylate cycle occurs which helps
insects. It's an animal behaviour in which any learning in fat coversion into carbohydrates.
process a new response becomes associated with a Glyoxysomes are absent in animals. Hence cannot
particular stimulus (in this case bee sting). find in vertebrates liver.

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58. If photosynthesizing algal cells are provided with CO2 Answer (a)
with heavy isotope of oxygen (18O2); which of the Sol. Peroxisome has enzyme catalase which is known to
following, produced by the algae will NOT contain detoxify H2O2 into H2O and O2.
18O ?
2
When liver is dropped in H2O2 solution, H2O2 will enter
(a) PGA (b) PGAL in hepatic cells where it get detoxified by catalase of
(c) Glucose (d) O2 peroxisomes. Oxygen will be released in the form of
bubbles. Thus option (b) is correct.
Answer (d)
61. Function of non-kinetochore microtubules is,
Sol. Oxygen released during oxygen comes from H2O and
not from CO2. (i) To help the chromosomes to get arranged at the
equator.
59. The diagram below represents the digestive system
from __________ group of animals. (ii) To elongate the cell during anaphase.
(iii) To help the separation of chromatids during
anaphase.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) i only (b) ii only
(c) iii only (d) i and iii
Answer (b)
Sol. Microtubules attached to kinetochore, help in
separation of chromatids.
(a) Ruminant herbivore
While those which are not attached to kinetochore
(b) Non-ruminant herbivore help to elongate the cell during anaphase.
(c) Bird 62. The diagram below represents pattern of expansion
(d) Carnivore animal and reduction of major terrestrial plant groups identified
as P, Q, R and S during the 400 million years of plant
Answer (b) evolution. If S represents Angiosperms, P, Q and R
Sol. The diagram given represents the digestive system respectively represent :
from a non ruminant herbivore such as tadpole of frog Devonian Permian Jurassic Tertiary
as it has spirally coiled intestine. Also, the stomach Silurian Carboniferous Triassic Cretaceous
given in figure is not compound type i.e. a simple
stomach is shown. Compound stomach is a character
of ruminant herbivores. Carnivores have smaller 700
intestines as compared to herbivores.
600
Number of species

60. When a small piece of fresh liver is dropped into a

500 S
beaker of hydrogen peroxide solution, it results in
rapid generation of gas bubbles. This can be attributed 400 R
to: 300 Q
1. Action of an enzyme catalase that breaks down 200 P
H2O2 into H2O and O2.
100
2. Action of peroxisomes in hepatocytes, whose
enzymes break down H2O2 to release oxygen. 0
400 300 200 100 0
3. Increased H2O2 production by superoxide Millions of years ago
dismutase activity in peroxisomes. (a) P – Pteridophytes, Q – Psilopsids, R –
Gymnosperms
4. H2O2 acting on glycogen from liver cells
releasing CO2. (b) P – Gymnosperms, Q – Psilopsids, R –
Pteridophytes
(a) 1 and 2
(c) P – Pteridophytes, Q – Gymnosperms, R –
(b) 4 only
Psilopsids
(c) 3 only (d) P – Psilopsids, Q – Pteridophytes, R –
(d) 2 and 3 Gymnosperms
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Answer (d) Answer (a)

Sol. In devonian period (~ 408 mya) – expansion of Sol. Self pollinating flowers do not need–
Psilopsids occured. 1. Attractive, large flowers (found usually in insect
In carboniferous period (~ 360 mya) – expansion of pollinated flowers)
Pteridophytes occured. 2. Versatile anthers (found in air pollinated flowers)
In triassic period (~ 245 mya) – Gymnosperms were 3. Long style (found in air pollinated flowers)
dominant.
Thus features in option ‘a’ ,i.e, inconspicuous flowers,
63. Which of the following statements about allosterically absence of fragrance and short style are found in self
regulated enzymes is correct? pollinated flowers.
(a) Activator binds to the active site of an enzyme. 66. Apoptosis can be induced in a plant organ or the whole
(b) Inhibitor binds to the active site of an enzyme. plant by a burst of :
(c) Activator binds to the active sites and stabilise (a) Gibberellins (b) Ethylene
the active form of an enzyme. (c) Cytokinins (d) Auxin
(d) Activator binds to the regulatory site of an enzyme
Answer (b)
and stabilizes the active form.
Sol. Apoptosis is programmed cell death (PCD) ethylene
Answer (d)
induces apoptotic cell death in plants.
Sol. In allosteric regulation, the activator or inhibitor binds
67. A man with haemophilia has a daughter of normal
to the regulatory/modulatory site thereby increasing
phenotype. She marries a man who is not haemophilic.
or decreasing the enzyme activity respectively.
If the couple has four sons, what is the possibility that
64. The following four sites (a – d) were being considered all four will be born haemophilic?
for the construction of an international airport. The
1 1
species composition of the four sites are given below. (a) (b)
4 32
Construction on which of the sites (a, b, c and d) will
1 1
not take a huge toll on biodiversity? (c) (d)
16 8
Number of species in various categories Answer (c)
Site
Least Uncertain Rare Endangered Endemic Sol. The man (xC y) will produce normal daughter with
concern status phenotype xCx. She is marrying to a normal male
i.e. xy
a 58 11 02 00 05
O
b 103 20 01 00 01 O
c 49 00 02 02 14 xx
C
xy
d 126 09 04 07 08
Answer (b)
Sol. In all the given sites a, b, c and d, the effect of habitat xy
C
xx xy C
xx
destruction will be less in that site where least concern
species are high but rare, endangered and endemic 1
Haemophilic son = 50% =
species are least. 2
Thus correct answer should be ‘b’ Thus probability of four haemophilic son is
65. Which of the following features are mostly observed in 1 1 1 1 1
self pollinating flowers?    
=
2 2 2 2 16
(i) Inconspicuous flowers. 68. If unabsorbed by plants, nitrates may leach through
(ii) Presence of nectaries. soil into water bodies like river but ammonium ions
are less likely to reach water bodies through soil
(iii) No fragrance.
because,
(iv) Short style.
(a) ammonium being a cation gets adsorbed by soil
(v) Versatile anthers. clay particles that are negatively charged.
(a) i, iii and iv (b) only iii (b) ammonium ions react with water to form ammonia
(c) ii and iv (d) iv and v and escape.

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 NSEB 2018-19
(c) ammonium ions are more readily absorbed by 71. The distribution of four types of bacteria grown in four
plants. different undisturbed tubes containing culture media
(d) ammonium nitrates are formed which do not is shown below. P, Q, R and R respective indicate:
dissolve in water and get precipitated.
Answer (a)
Sol. NH4+ being a cation is absorbed by negatively charged
soil clay particles. They are not leached through soil.
69. From a culture of mammalian cells, a cell in M phase
is made to fuse with a second cell in G1 phase. The
second cell will go into:
(a) S phase instantly.
(a) Aerobes, anaerobes, facultative aerobes and
(b) M phase skipping S phase. microaerophilic organisms.
(c) M phase after quickly completing S phase.
(b) Anaerobes, aerobes, facultative aerobes and
(d) G2 phase after quickly completing S phase. microaerophilic organisms.
Answer (d) (c) Microaerophilic organisms, aerobes, anaerobes
Sol. Initiation of DNA synthesis is induced by inducers and facultative aerobes.
produced in G1 phase. When a G1 phase cell comes
(d) Anaerobes, aerobes, microaerophilic organisms
in contact with cell in either G2 or M phase latter
and facultative aerobes.
induces DNA synthesis prematurely in G1 nucleus.
So when G1 Phase of cell get fused with M phase cell Answer (b)
then G1 nuclei quickly completes S phase and would Sol. P = Bacteria at the bottom of growth medium is
enter in G2 phase. surviving in unavailability of oxygen i.e. Anaerobic
So correct answer should be (d). bacteria.
70. In corn plants, a dominant allele ‘I’ inhibits kernel Q = Bacteria growing near the surface of medium is
colour, while the recessive allele ‘I’ permits colour. At surviving in the abundance of oxygen i.e.
a different locus, the dominant allele ‘P’ makes kernel Anaerobic bacteria.
purple while ‘pp’ makes kernels red. If plants
R = Bacteria being dispersed throughout the medium
heterozygous at both loci are crossed, what will be
are aerobes surviving in different possible
the phenotypic ratio of purple : red : colourless?
concentration of oxygen i.e. microaerophilic
(a) 3 : 1 : 12 (b) 12 : 4 : 0 organisms.
(c) 9 : 4 : 3 (d) 3 : 4 : 9 S = Bacteria surviving in less abundance of oxygen
Answer (a) i.e. facultative aerobes.
Sol. Heterozygous IiPp plant selfed to produce progenies- 72. A cross between a pea plant (Pisum sativum) with
IiPp × IiPp long stem and axial flower with short stem and terminal
flowers produce twenty-one seeds. From these seeds,
IP Ip iP ip 11 plants grew into plants with long stem and axial
flowers while 10 grew into short stem with axial flowers.
IP IIPP IIPp IiPP IiPp The genotype of the parents must be.

Ip IIPp IIpp IiPp (a) TTAA* ttaa (b) TtAA* ttaa

Iipp
(c) TTAa* ttAa (d) TtAA* ttAA
iP IiPP IiPp iiPP iiPp Answer (b)
Sol. long stem - axial flower × short stem - terminal flower
iP IiPp Iipp iiPp iipp
(TtAA)  (ttaa)
So, phenotype with I – P = colourless
phenotype with I – pp = colourless ta
ii – P = purple – 3
TA TtAa long stem - axial
ii – pp = red – 1 flower
Phenotypic ratio should be = 3 : 1 : 12
tA ttAa Short stem - axial
(Purple : red : colourless) flower
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 NSEB 2018-19

So, long stem - axial flower and short stem with axial Answer (b)
flower progenies in  1 : 1 ratio which according to
Sol. Alternate splicing leads to formation of different
question are produced in 11 and 10 respectively.
polypeptides from the same genes.
So, parental genotype was TtAA × ttaa
Post translational modification can also make the
73. Rejection of transplant is an immune response of the different proteins from the same genes.
type:-
76. A wind type fruit fly(heterozygous for grey body
(a) B-lymphocyte mediated humoral. colour and normal wings) is mated with a black fly
(b) Humoral, helper T lymphocytes mediated. with vestigial wings. The offspring have the following
phenotypic distribution : wild type = 998; black
(c) Cell medicated involving cytotoxic lymphocytes. vestigial = 994; grey vestigial = 208; black
(d) Cell mediated involving memory T lymphocytes. normal = 200
Answer (c) What is recombination frequency between the two
given alleles?
Sol. Graft rejection is function of T-lymphocytes, cytotoxic
killer T-cells(Tc) damage foreign tissue by perforin (a) 17%
action. (b) 15%
74. The percentage composition by volume of gases at (c) 20%
various stages of respiration in humans is tabulated
below. (d) 25%
Answer (a)
P Q R
Oxygen 16.4 20.95 13.8 Sol. Among the obtained progenies
Caron dioxide 4.0
Nitrogen 79.6
0.04
79.01
5.5
80.7
Wild type = 998
Black vestigial = 994
Parental
combinations  1992

Recombination
P, Q and R respectively represent: Grey vestigial = 208 or
(a) Expired air, alveolar air and inspired air Black normal = 200 New combinations  408

(b) Alveolar air, inspired air and expired air Total progeny = 1992 + 408 = 2400.
(c) Inspired air, alveolar air and expired air Recombination between two given genes alleles
(d) Expired air, inspired air and alveolar air New combination
=  100
Answer (d) Total progeny
Sol. The percentage of O2, CO2 and N2 in inhaled/inspired 408
=  17%
air is 21%, 0.04% and 79% as represented in Q column. 2400
Expired air is a mixture of air being exhaled that mixes 77. In an enzyme catalyzed reaction, it is possible to
with trapped air in conducting path of respiratory reverse the inhibition of a reaction by increasing the
system (dead space volume) as shown in column (P). substrate concentration in which of the following case/
Mixing of inhaled air with residual alveolar air leads to cases?
change in partial pressures of gases.
(a) Competitive inhibition
75. According to finding from the Human Genome
Project, there are about 25000 genes but there are (b) Non-competitive inhibition.
many more different polypeptides. Which of the (c) Uncompetitive inhibition
following processes might explain the discrepancy
between number of genes and polypeptides. (d) Allosteric inhibition

1. Mutations Answer (a)

2. Post-translational modifications Sol. In competitive inhibition, the effect of a competitive

inhibitor is reversed by increasing substrate
3. Crossing over during meiosis. concentration. At a sufficiently high substrate
4. Alternating splicing of RNA transcripts. concentration, the reaction velocity reaches the Vmax
observed in the absence of inhibitor. Km value increases
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 4
in case of overcoming competitive inhibition but Vmax
(c) 1, 3 & 4 (d) 3 & 4 remains same.
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 NSEB 2018-19
78. Anita was studying flower morphology in her school (a) Myelin sheath and nuclei.
lab. She collected one flower from her school garden
(b) Synaptic vesicles and golgi bodies.
and dissected it. She took cross section of ovary and
found that ovules were arranged inside the ovary as (c) Mitochondria and myelin sheath.
shown below:
(d) Mitochondria and synaptic vesicles.
Answer (b)
Sol. Synaptic vesicles rupture to release acetyl choline
which is degraded in synaptic cleft with the help of
enzyme acetyl choline esterase. Enzyme succinate
dehydrogenase is synthesized from nuclear genome
She could correlate the seed arrangement in _____ within ribosome so it is found in golgi body for
fruit with the collected specimen. processing.
(a) Tomato (b) Green pea 80. During embryo sec development in angiosperms,
(c) Cucumber (d) Bell pepper haploid megaspore continues to divide to form mature
female gametophyte. It has 7-celled structure with 8
Answer (c)
nuclei, where 6 nuclei are haploid and other two polar
Sol. In given section placenta is parietal and such condition nuclei fuse to form diploid structure.
is found in pepo type of succulent fruit.
In Lilium, one of the two polar nuclei is triploid.
Tomato, bell pepper — axile placentation Therefore, primary endosperm nucleus formed will be:
Green pea — marginal placentation (a) 3n (b) 4n
Cucumber — parietal placentation and pepo fruit. (c) 5n (d) 2n
79. In an experiment, extract of brain tissue was
Answer (c)
subjected to differential centrifugation. It resulted in
5 different zones of separation, 1-5. Zone 3 was found Sol. If one of the polar nuclei is triploid then fusion of two
to be rich in acetyl cholinesterase activity while zone polar nuclei will result into formation of (4n) nucleus
5 was rich in succinate dehydrogenase activity. These and when 4n nucleus will fuse with (n) sperm it will
zone most likely respectively represent. lead to formation of 5n endosperm.

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