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Practice Questions Reformat

1. The multiple choice questions for Exam 3 in Biology 214 will consist of 30 questions. The multiple choice key will be posted on Saturday. 2. The practice questions cover topics such as gene linkage, sex linkage, Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, molecular clocks, speciation mechanisms, and interpreting the fossil record. 3. Questions range from multiple choice to short answer and cover genetics, evolution, and dating of fossils using radioactive isotopes.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
131 views

Practice Questions Reformat

1. The multiple choice questions for Exam 3 in Biology 214 will consist of 30 questions. The multiple choice key will be posted on Saturday. 2. The practice questions cover topics such as gene linkage, sex linkage, Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, molecular clocks, speciation mechanisms, and interpreting the fossil record. 3. Questions range from multiple choice to short answer and cover genetics, evolution, and dating of fossils using radioactive isotopes.

Uploaded by

james adam
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Practice Questions Exam 3 Biol 214 Fall 2019

Note: Exam 3 will consist of 30 multiple choice questions and several short answer questions.

The multiple choice key will be posted on canvas on Saturday.

1. Suppose that in studies of genes on the same chromosome you find the following
recombination frequencies:

Why do the distances between a-c and c-b not add up to the distance between a-b?

A. a and b are not linked


B. the distances were calculated incorrectly
C. b is in between the a and c genes
D. double crossovers between a-b decrease recombinant frequency
E. all three genes encode the same trait

2. A butterfly of genotype CCdd is crossed to ccDD and the F1 testcrossed to ccdd. If the
genes are linked and 30cM apart, what fraction of the F2 offspring should be ccdd?

A. 15%
B. 30%
C. 70%
D. 85%
E. none of these

3. An autosome is

A. a chromosome that is part of a pair that is the same in both males and females.
B. a structure for transport of genetic material to the cytoplasm.
C. a chromosome with a group of genes involved in autoimmune disorders.
D. a region of the DNA that is self-replicating.
E. a cellular body involved in autoimmune disorders.
Practice Questions Exam 3 Biol 214 Fall 2019

4. In Drosophila melanogaster there is a sex-linked gene for eye color that is found only on
the X chromosome. The allele for red eye color (Xw+) is dominant over the allele for
white eye color (Xw). You examine a vial of 100 flies that are all offspring from a single
genetic cross. You see only red-eyed females present, but you see both red- eyed and
white-eyed males present. The genotypes of the parents were

A. Xw+Xw+;

B. XwXw; Xw+Y.

C. Xw+Xw; XwY.

D. Xw+Xw; Xw+Y.

E. XwXw; XwY.

5. The following is a map of four genes on a chromosome, with units in map units:

Between which two genes would you expect the highest amount of recombination?
A. A and W
B. W and E
C. E and G
D. A and E
E. A and G

6. Referring to the map in the previous question, the map units are shown between each
pair of genes. What recombination frequency would be experimentally observed between
W and G?

A. 15 %
B. A value slightly larger than 15%
C. A value slightly smaller than 15%
D. D. 30%
E. 8%
Practice Questions Exam 3 Biol 214 Fall 2019

7. Vermillion eyes is a sex-linked recessive characteristic in fruit flies. If a female having


vermilion eyes is crossed with a wild-type male, what percentage of the F1 males will
have vermillion eyes?

A 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100%

8) Consider a population of diploid organisms that have two alleles at locus Zip: Zip1 and Zip2.
The population is in Hardy-Weinburg Equilibrium, and the population is large enough to
discount genetic drift. Allele Zip1 has a frequency of 0.9, and allele Zip2 has a frequency of 0.1.
Under which scenario will Zip1 go to fixation (i.e., the frequency of Zip1 becomes 1.0, and the
frequency of Zip2 becomes 0.0) most quickly:
a) Zip1 is a deleterious, recessive allele.
b) Zip1 is a deleterious, dominant allele.
c) Zip1 is a beneficial, recessive allele.
d) Zip1 is a beneficial, dominant allele.

9) Which of the following statements about cladistics is correct?


a) Cladistics determines relationships by grouping together taxa that have the greatest
numbers of overall similarities in traits.
b) Cladistics determines relationships by grouping together taxa that share derived
character states.
c) Cladistics determines relationships by grouping together taxa that share ancestral
character states.
d) Cladistics identifies the phylogeny that is most likely to be correct as the phylogeny
that has the greatest number of changes in ancestral character states.
e) Cladistics identifies the phylogeny that is most likely to be correct as the phylogeny
that has the greatest number of changes in derived character states.

10) One hypothesis for the origin of HIV was that humans were infected through polio vaccines
administered in the 1950s. Which of the following statements about this hypothesis are correct.
I. The polio vaccine hypothesis was rejected by molecular clock estimates that indicated
that HIV first infected humans prior to the 1950s.
Practice Questions Exam 3 Biol 214 Fall 2019

II. The polio vaccine hypothesis was rejected by molecular clock estimates that indicated
HIV first infected humans after the 1960s.
III. The polio vaccine hypothesis was supported by molecular clock estimates that
indicated HIV first infected humans during the 1950s.
IV. The polio vaccine hypothesis was supported by a phylogenetic analysis that found
HIV was most closely related to SIV from chimpanzees used in polio vaccine
production.
a) only I is correct
b) only II is correct
c) only III is correct
d) both III and IV are correct
e) both II and IV are correct

11) Consider two species of birds. Collared flycatchers are found mostly in Northern Europe and
pied flycatchers are found mostly in Southern Europe. Most of the geographic ranges of these
birds do not overlap (i.e., they have mostly allopatric distributions). However, they are found
together (i.e., in sympatry) in parts of central Europe. In the parts of central Europe where both
species occur together, the females recognize members of their own species and mate most of the
time with members of their own species. When they do hybridize, the hybrid offspring usually
die due to developmental problems as embryos. Which of the following statements about this
scenario are accurate?
a) These species maintain reproductive isolation through both prezygotic and
postzygotic mechanisms.
b) These species maintain reproductive isolation through only prezygotic mechanisms.
c) These species maintain reproductive isolation through only postzygotic mechanisms.
d) Neither prezygotic nor postzygotic isolating mechanisms are present in this example.

12) According to the biological species concept, two groups are considered different species
when they …
a) differ in whether they are diploid or tetrapoloid.
b) have clear morphological traits that distinguish each group.
c) are reproductively isolated from each other.
d) are geographically separated from one another.
e) can produce fertile offspring when mating with one another.

13) A key part of sympatric speciation is…


a) that two populations are geographically isolated.
b) the evolution of Dobzhansky-Muller genetic incompatibilities.
c) that it occurs without any type of geographic isolation.
d) that it never occurs through changes in ploidy.
e) that it only occurs in phytophagous insects specializing on different host plants.

14) Identify which of the following statements about the Dobzhansky-Muller model for the
genetic basis of speciation are correct:
Practice Questions Exam 3 Biol 214 Fall 2019

I. The model applies to allopatric speciation.


II. The model includes epistatic interactions between two different genes.
that results in hybrids having greater fitness than either parental species.
III. The model does not require an interaction between two genes.
a) None of these statements are correct.
b) Only statement I is correct.
c) Only statement II is correct.
d) Only statement III is correct.
e) Both statements I and III are correct.

15) Which of the following statements about allopolyploid speciation is not correct:
a. Allopolyploid speciation has frequently occurred in plants.
b. Allopolyploid speciation occurs when two species hybridize with one another.
c. Allopolyploid speciation is one type of sympatric speciation.
d. Allopolyploid speciation does not occur in vertebrates.

16) Consider a fossil fish that is found in sedimentary rock, between two layers of igneous rock.
A geologist dates the age of the igneous rock layers using an isotope that has a half-life of 10
million years. The geologist finds that the layer of rock above the fish has a ratio of
parent:daughter isotopes of 1:1. The layer of rock below the fish has a ratio of parent:daughter
isotopes of 25:75. What is the best estimate for the age of the fish fossil?
a) The fish fossil is less than 10 million years old
b) The fish fossil is between 5 million years old and 15 million years old
c) The fish fossil is between 10 million years old and 20 million years old
d) The fish fossil is between 15 million years old and 30 million years old
e) The fish fossil is greater than 30 million years old.

17) Which of the following is a correct statement about the data we get from the fossil record
about the evolutionary history of life on earth?
a. Fossils are equally common in volcanic and sedimentary rock.
b. The major clades of animals (but not plants and fungi) are all equally preserved
and thus equally represented in the fossil record.
c. Fossils provide data on when and where different species lived throughout the
history of life on earth.

18) Consider a group of species distributed in Africa, South America and Australia. Which of
the following statements is consistent with this group’s distribution being the product of
Gondwanan vicariance?
a) The Australian and African species are more closely related to each other than either is to
the South American species
b) The South American and Australian species are more closely related to each other than
either is to the African species.
Practice Questions Exam 3 Biol 214 Fall 2019

c) The African and South American species are more closely related to each other than
either is to the Australian species
d) The most recent common ancestor of the African and Australian groups lived 65 million
years ago.
e) The most recent common ancestor of the African, South American, and Australian groups
lived 25 million years ago.
Practice Questions Exam 3 Biol 214 Fall 2019

19) Which statement about vicariance and dispersal hypotheses for the distribution of organisms
is correct?
a) Vicariance is when the distribution of organisms can be explained by the creation of
physical barriers to movement, such as the separation of continents for terrestrial
organisms.
b) Organisms found in Asia, Europe and North America are considered to have a
Gondwanan distribution.
c) Molecular clocks cannot be used to test vicariance hypotheses.
d) Fossils cannot be used to test vicariance hypotheses.

20) Which of the following statements about the KT extinction is correct?


I. A layer of iridium in the earth’s crust dated at 25 million years ago is evidence that
a meteor caused the KT extinction.
II. Dinosaurs went extinct during the KT extinction, but birds and crocodiles
survived.
III. Mammal diversification rate increased after the KT extinction.

a) only I is correct
b) only II is correct
c) only III is correct
d) both II and III are correct
e) I, II, and III are correct

21) Most dinosaurs became extinct


a) 10,000 years ago.
b) 1 million years ago.
c) 500 million years ago.
d) 65 million years ago.
e) 1 billion years ago.

22) Which of the following is required for allopatric speciation:


a) Natural selection that favors new mutations.
b) Small population size that allows genetic drift to occur.
c) Geographic barriers that prevent gene flow.
d) A change in ploidy from diploid to tetraploid.

23) Which type of new mutation will increase in frequency most quickly:
a) The mutant allele is neutral and dominant.
b) The mutant allele is neutral and recessive.
c) The mutant allele is beneficial and dominant.
d) The mutant allele is beneficial and recessive.
Practice Questions Exam 3 Biol 214 Fall 2019

24) Australia and North America both have species of mammals that exhibit similar
characteristics. For example, in Australia there is a small, tree-dwelling mammal that can glide
to escape predators. Similarly, in North America there is a different species of small, tree-
dwelling, gliding mammal. What is the correct explanation for the similar forms found on both
continents?
a) Each unique form of mammals evolved once, and then vicariance and dispersal caused
these forms to be found on multiple continents.
b) The Australian forms were introduced from North America with agricultural material.
c) On both continents, marsupial mammals have evolved into gliding forms, while placental
mammals have evolved into burrowing forms.
d) Natural selection has favored similar morphologies and adaptations to evolve separately
on both continents.

25) Postzygotic isolating mechanisms occur when the offspring


a) do not survive.
b) have poor health.
c) exhibit reduced fitness
d) are sterile
e) all of these

26) Which of the following statements about endosymbiosis is false?


a) There have been at least two endosymbiosis events, one of which gave rise to
mitochondria and one of which gave rise to chloroplasts.
b) Endosymbiosis occurred when a protist was engulfed by a eukaryotic cell; the protist
eventually gave rise to the mitochondria.
c) The genes that code for ribosomes in mitochondria and chloroplasts are more like those
in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.
d) Mitochondria and chloroplasts divide on their own through binary fission.
e) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are surrounded by membranes that have a similar
chemical composition to bacterial plasma membranes

27) On the phylogeny to the right, indicate


which evolutionary event occurred on each
of the numbered branches.

a) 1=evolution of chloroplasts, 2=evolution of seeds, 3=evolution of flowers


b) 1=evolution of vascular tissues, 2=evolution of seeds, 3=evolution of flowers.
c) 1=evolution of seeds, 2=evolution of vascular tissue, 3 = evolution of flowers
d) 1=evolution of chloroplasts, 2=evolution of vascular tissue, 3=evolution of flowers
e) 1=evolution of vascular tissues, 2=evolution of flowers, 3=evolution of seeds
Practice Questions Exam 3 Biol 214 Fall 2019

28) Using the phylogeny to the


right, indicate the correct order of
evolutionary transitions within the
animals. Porifera include sponges,
Radiata include jellyfish,
Lophotrochozoa include squid and
cuttlefish, Ecdysozoa include
arthropods, and Deuterstomia
include turtles.

a) 4- bilateral symmetry, 5 – blastopore develops into mouth, 6- spiral cleavage at 8-cell


embryo stage.
b) 4- bilateral symmetry, 5 – blastopore develops into mouth, 6- no symmetry in body
plan.
c) 4- bilateral symmetry, 5 – spiral cleavage at 8-cell embryo, 6- blastopore develops
into anus.
d) 4- bilateral symmetry, 5 – spiral cleavage at 8-cell embryo, 6- vertebral column.
e) 2-radial symmetry; 1-bilateral symmetry, 5-blastopore develops into anus.

29) Which statement about the life cycles of fungi is correct:


a) Dikaryotic cells will give rise to haploid cells through karyogamy.
b) Dikaryotic cells each contain two haploid nuclei.
c) Dikaryotic cells each contain a single nucleus with a haploid genome.
d) Dikaryotic cells contain a single nucleus with a diploid genome.
e) Dikaryotic cells will give rise to diploid cells through meiosis.

30) Which statement about the life cycles of plants is correct:


a) In early plant evolution, the dikaryotic stage was relatively small in size and short in
duration, but over time, the dikaryotic stage became increasingly large in growth form
and duration.
b) In early plant evolution, the haploid stage was relatively small in size and short in
duration, but over time, the haploid stage became increasingly large in growth form and
duration.
c) In early plant evolution, the diploid stage was relatively small in size and short in
duration, but over time, the diploid stage become increasingly large in growth form and
duration.
d) The earliest plants had a two stage life cycle (diploid and haploid stages), but later
evolved a third life stage (dikaryotic).
e) The two life stages of plants are the diploid stage and the dikaryotic stage.
Practice Questions Exam 3 Biol 214 Fall 2019

31) Consider two genes in a single population. Gene A is fixed for alleles A1 (i.e., all individuals
in the population are A1A1 homozygotes). Gene B is fixed for allele B1 (i.e., all individuals in
the population are B1B1 homozygotes). A geographic barrier separates these organisms into two
separate populations with no gene flow. Over time, mutations arise in each population, and are
fixed by genetic drift. One population now consists entirely of individuals with A1A1B2B2
genotypes. The other population now consists entirely of individuals with A2A2B1B1 genotypes.
A biologist breeds individuals from these two populations, and compare the fitness of three
genotypes. Which of the following possibilities is consistent with Dobzhansky-Muller
incompatabilities:
Fitness of Genotypes
answer A1A1B2B2 A1A2B1B2 A2A2B1B1
a) 1 1 1
b) 1 0.1 1
c) 0.1 1 1
d) 0.1 1 0.1

For Questions 31 & 32, use the


phylogeny to the right. The phylogeny
has six taxa, indicated by the letters A, B,
C, D, E, and F.

31) Which would be an example of a paraphyletic group?


a. A, B
b. A, B, & C
c. D, E, & F
d. D & E
e. E & F

32) Which would be an example of a synapomorphy?


a) A derived trait found only in taxa A
b) A derived trait found only in taxa C
c) A derived trait found only in taxa D and E
d) A derived trait found only in taxa D and F
Practice Questions Exam 3 Biol 214 Fall 2019

Short Answer Practice Questions

SA1:
In Drosophila melanogaster the allele for red eyes is dominant over the allele for purple
eyes, and the allele for a gray body is dominant over the allele for a black body. A
testcross was done to check for genetic linkage between the genes for these traits, with
the following results for the offspring:

27 flies with red eyes and a black body

478 flies with red eyes and a gray body

33 flies with purple eyes and a gray body

462 flies with purple eyes and a black body

A. What are the genotypes and phenotypes of the parents in the testcross?

B. Which of the phenotypes are recombinant?

C. What is the recombination frequency between the eye color and body color genes?
Practice Questions Exam 3 Biol 214 Fall 2019

SA2: A previously unknown disease has gone through a major outbreak in river trout, an
ecologically important fish. You want to identify whether specific genes are associated with
susceptibility to the disease. You examine the gene X, which has two alleles, X1 and X2. You
are able to examine the X genotypes in 100 river trout collected before the disease outbreak, and
100 river trout collected after the disease outbreak. All samples are taken one month apart from
the same river. Trout have a generation time of several years. The data is provided in the table
below.

genotype for number of individuals in sample number of individuals in sample


gene X taken before disease outbreak taken before disease outbreak
X1X1 25 50
X1X2 50 40
X2X2 25 10

Expected number of X1X1 genotypes before the outbreak: ______________


Expected number of X1X2 genotypes before the outbreak: ______________
Expected number of X2X2 genotypes before the outbreak: ______________
Was gene X at Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium before the outbreak: ___________

Expected number of X1X1 genotypes after the outbreak: ______________


Expected number of X1X2 genotypes after the outbreak: ______________
Expected number of X2X2 genotypes after the outbreak: ______________
Was gene X at Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium after the outbreak: ___________

Based on the information above and your analysis of the data, circle which of the following
hypotheses to explain this pattern is most likely to be correct:

H1: The population is geographically subdivided so that there is limited gene flow
between the upstream and downstream areas.

H2: The X1 allele confers survival advantage to the disease.

H3: The X2 allele confers survival advantage to the disease.

H4: There is assortative mating, in which X1 homozygotes prefer to mate with other X1
homozygotes, and X2 homozygotes prefer to mate with other X2 homozygotes.
Practice Questions Exam 3 Biol 214 Fall 2019

SA3:
The plot to the right shows data comparing the size
of galls to their survival. Based on this plot, answer
the following questions.

What form of natural selection is this:

__________________________________

If gall size is a heritable trait, in what direction


would we expect gall size to evolve based on the
form of selection shown on the plot:

____________________________________

SA4: Use the information below to answer questions about divergence between three species of
bird. One bird lives in Madagascar, one bird lives in India, and one bird lives in Africa.
Indian African
Bird Bird
Madagascar Bird 0.10 0.20
Indian Bird 0.20
A biologist compares the divergence (substitutions
per nucleotide site) for a single nuclear gene for
each of these birds. The data is shown in the table
above.

You have a fossil that is reliably dated to 130 MYA. This fossil has synapomorphies that place it
as an ancestor of the bird from Africa, but not any of the other birds. Using this information and
the equation R=(D/2*T), indicate when the bird from Madagascar and the bird from India last
shared a common ancestor:

Based on the age of the most recent common ancestor of the bird from Madagascar and the bird
from India, explain whether you can reject Gondwanan vicariance. In your answer, include the
date at which India and Madagascar separated from one another through continental drift.
Practice Questions Exam 3 Biol 214 Fall 2019

SA5:
Use the information below to answer questions about divergence between three species of bird.
One bird lives in Madagascar, one bird lives in India, and one bird lives in Africa.
Indian African
Bird Bird
Madagascar Bird 0.2 0.25
Indian Bird 0.25
A biologist compares the divergence (substitutions
per nucleotide site) for a single nuclear gene for
each of these birds. The data is shown in the table
above.

You have a fossil that is reliably dated to 15 MYA. This fossil has synapomorphies that place it
as an ancestor of the bird from Madagascar, but not any of the other birds. Using this
information and the equation R=(D/(2*T)), indicate when the bird from Africa and the bird from
India last shared a common ancestor:
Practice Questions Exam 3 Biol 214 Fall 2019

SA6:

Phylogeny Construction: You are interested in determining the evolutionary relationships of


five taxa: Two taxa are strains of swine flu (Swine-1 and Swine-2), two taxa are strains of Avian
Flu (Avian-1 and Avian-2), and one is the 1918 Flu. The table below gives data on 7 characters
for these taxa, as well as your outgroup (“Outgroup”). The characters are nucleotides at 7 sites
(n1 to n7) in a single nuclear gene.

Characters
Taxa n1 n2 n3 n4 n5 n6 n7
Swine - 1 a t a a g a t
Swine - 2 a t g a c a t
Avian - 1 a a g a c a g
Avian – 2 t a g t c a g
1918 Flu t a g t c a g
Outgroup a t a a c t t

Using cladistic methods draw a phylogeny of these taxa, including the outgroup. On your
phylogeny, draw where each character changes from the ancestral to the derived state. When
drawing characters on your phylogeny, include all 7 characters, even if they are not useful for
cladistics analysis.

Based on your phylogeny, did the 1918 flu emerge from an avian source or a swine source?
Answer: ____________________
Practice Questions Exam 3 Biol 214 Fall 2019

SA7: In the panels below, draw a histogram to show the distribution of phenotypes in a population, and
then shade the histogram to indicate which phenotypes would experience mortality under the three
different conditions described below.

Directional Selection that will cause an


evolutionary decrease in Gall Size

Stabilizing Selection

Disruptive Selection

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