JEE Advanced Print
JEE Advanced Print
AIR. 3541 Students from Long Term Classroom/ Integrated School Program & 4423
FIITJEE JEE (Advanced), 2017
FULL TEST – V
Paper 2
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
Enrolment No.
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
CHEMISTRY
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only ONE is correct.
1. A heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two fragments which fly off with velocities in the ratio of 8 : 1.
The ratio of the radii of the fragments (assumed spherical) is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 2 : 1
3. A particle free to move along the x-axis has potential energy given by
U(x) k[1 exp( x 2 )] for x
where k is a constant of appropriate dimension.
Then
(A) at points away from the origin, the particle is in unstable equilibrium
(B) for any finite nonzero value of x, there is a force directed away from the origin
(C) if its total mechanical energy is k/2, it has its minimum kinetic energy at the origin
(D) for small displacements from x = 0, the motion is simple harmonic
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4. Three rods of the same length are arranged to form an equilateral triangle. Two rods are made of
the same material of coefficient of linear expansion 1 and the third rod which forms the base of
the triangle has coefficient of expansion 2 . The altitude of the triangle will remain the same at
all temperatures if the 1 / 2 is nearly
(A) 1 (B) 1/2
(C) 1/4 (D) 4
6. A thin uniform annular disc (see figure) of mass M has outer radius P
4R and inner radius 3R. The work required to take a unit mass from 4R
point P on its axis to infinity is
2GM 2GM
(A)
7R
4 2 5 (B)
7R
4 2 5 3R 4R
GM 2GM
(C)
4R
(D)
5R
2 1
7. A bi-convex lens is formed with two thin planoconvex lenses as n = 1.5 n = 1.2
shown in the figure. Refractive index n of the first lens is 1.5 and that
of the second lens is 1.2. Both the curved surface are of the same
radius of curvature R = 14 cm, For this Bi-convex lens, for an object
distance of 40 cm, the image distance will be
(A) -280.0 cm (B) 40.0 cm R = 14 cm
(C) 21.5 cm (D) 13.3 cm
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131 131
8. The half-life of I is 8 days. Given a sample of I at time t = 0, we can conclude that
(A) no nucleus will decay before t = 4 days
(B) no nucleus will decay before t = 8 days
(C) all neclei will decay before t = 16 days
(D) a given nucleus may decay any time after t = 0
9. Which of cases have a non zero net torque activity on the rod about its centre?
F
30o
g
30o
(i)
F (ii
Force are applied on rod )
Rod sliding on smooth ground
F F
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Questions 11 & 12
12. The acceleration of mass m when the velocity of the rod is half the terminal velocity is
(A) g (B) g/2
(C) g/3 (D) g/4
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13. For light incident from air on a meta-material, the appropriate ray diagram is
1
1
Air
Air Meta-material
(A) Meta-material (B) 2
2
1 1
Air Air
(C) Meta-material (D) Meta-material
2
2
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3m
Hinge
A
15. What weight must be attached to the other end B so that 5 m of the rod is immersed in water?
7
(A) 7 kgf (B) kgf
3
7 7
(C) kgf (D) kgf
5 2
16. Find the magnitude and direction of the force exerted by the hinge on the rod:
17
(A) kgf in the downward direction (B) 8 kgf in the downward direction
3
(C) 4 kgf in the downward direction (D) 5 kgf in the downward direction
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17. Three wires of length l and linear charge density each is shaped into an equilateral triangle with
point O as centroid of this triangle. Now the wires are arranged in different shapes with point O
fixed as defined earlier. Math List – I having different shapes with List – II potential at point O:
List - I List - II
(P)
O
(1) 0
ln 2 3
O
(Q)
(2)
20
ln 2 7 3 3
3
(R) O (3) 20
ln 2 3
O
(S) (4)
20
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 4 2 1
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18. When ice melts completely, level of liquid in which ice is submerged:
List – I List – II
ice
steel
wood
Water
ice
Oil
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19. A sample of gas goes from state A to state B in four different manners, as shown by the graphs.
Let W be the work done by the gas and U be change in internal energy along the path AB.
Correctly match the graphs with the statements provided.
List – I List – II
V
(P) (1) Both W and U are positive
A B
P
B
A
T
T
A
A
(S) (4) W is negative whereas U is
positive
B
P
Specific heat of gas must be
(5)
positive
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 4 2,5 3 2,5
(B) 4 2,5 1 2,5
(C) 4,5 2,5 3 4,5
(D) 5 3,5 3,5 3
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20. Column shows O1 object and O2 image. The optical system responsible can be a spherical
mirror, plane mirror or a thin lens. In the case of the lens and spherical mirror, straight line shows
the principal axis. Match List-I and List-II:
List – I List – II
O2
h2
(R) x (3) Convex mirror between O1 and O2
h1
O1 h2 > h1
O2
h2
x
(S) (4) Converging lens between O1 and O2
h1
h1 > h2
O1
Inclined plane mirror somewhere between
(5)
O1 and O2
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 1,2,5 3,5 4,5 4,5
(B) 1,5 2,5 1,2,5 1,4,5
(C) 1,2,5 3,4,5 4,5 3,4,5
(D) 1,5 3,5 4,5 4,5
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only ONE is correct.
1. 11 moles N2 and 12 moles of H2 mixture reacted in 20 litre vessel at 800 K. After equilibrium was
reached, 6 mole of H2 was present. 3.58 litre of liquid water is injected in equilibrium mixture and
resultant gaseous mixture suddenly cooled to 300 K. What is the final pressure of gaseous
mixture? Neglect vapour pressure of liquid solution. Assume (i) all NH3 dissolved in water (ii) no
change in volume of liquid (iii) no reaction of N2 and H2 at 300 K :
N2 :11 moles T=800K N,H T = 300 K; P = ?
2 2
Initial condition
(A) 18.47 atm (B) 60 atm
(C) 22.5 atm (D) 45 atm
2. The following mechanism has been proposed for the exothermic catalyzed complex reaction:
A B
fast
k1
I AB
k2
AB I
P A
If k1 is much smaller than k2, the most suitable qualitative plot of potential energy (P.E.) versus
reaction coordinate for the above reaction.
(A) (B)
P.E.
AB+I A+P
P.E.
A+B A+B
IAB A+P IAB
AB+I
reaction coordinate reaction coordinate
(C) (D)
P.E.
P.E.
A+B A+B
AB+I IAB AB+I
IAB A+P A+P
reaction coordinate reaction coordinate
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4. Which of the following alkene is obtained as major product when the alcohol
(C) (D)
[Br - ]
5. At what does the following cell have its reaction at equilibrium?
[CO 32 ]
Ag(s) | Ag2CO3(s) | Na2CO3 (aq) || KBr(aq) | AgBr(s) | Ag(s)
6. Which of the following species do not have O O bond length longer than that in O2 molecule?
(A) H 2S2O8 (B) H2SO5
(C) H 2O 2
(D) O 2 BF4
Space for rough work
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(A) + H (B) + H
AICI3 AICI3
(C) + CH3COCI (D) + Me3C – COCI
9. How many gms of cyclopentane will be formed in the reaction given below (Consider the yield be
100% in each step)?
Monochlorination Mg HOCH 2CH2 C CH
A
Et 2 O
B
3.5gms
(70 gms)
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8
10. The number of vacant hybrid orbitals which participate in the formation of 3-centre 2 electron
bonds i.e., banana bonds in diborane structure are:
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Questions 11 & 12
11. If a sample of NaHCO3 (s) is brought to a temperature of 100°C in a closed container total gas
pressure at equilibrium is:
(A) 0.96 atm (B) 0.23 atm
(C) 0.48 atm (D) 0.46 atm
12. A mixture of 1.00 mol each of NaHCO3(s) and Na2CO3(s) is introduced into a 2.5 L flask in which
PCO2 = 2.10 atm and PH2 O = 0.94 atm.When equilibrium is established at 100°C, then partial
pressure of
(A) CO2(g) and H2O(g) will be greater than their initial pressure
(B) CO2(g) and H2O(g) will be less than their initial pressure
(C) CO2(g) will be larger and that of H2O(g) will be less than their initial pressure
(D) H2O(g) will be larger and that of CO2(g) will be less than their initial pressure
13. Kb of water 2K kg mole-1, when one mole of the above complex is added to 1kg water the rise in
B.Pt is 6K. Then the value of x is
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 6
14. One mole of the above complex gave 143.5g white ppt with excess AgNO3 solution. Then x is
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 3
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A white crystalline solid (A) on dehydration gave a poisonous pseudo halogen gas (B). Compound (A)
when filed with alkali gave a colourless gas (C), which forms white fumes with HCl. The fumes condenses
to white solid with HCl. The fumes condenses to white solid (D) on cooling. (B) dissolves in KOH solution
to gave two compounds (pseudo halides) (E) and (F). Compound (E) gave white ppt. (G) with AgNO3
solution, but ppt (G) dissolves on addition of excess (E). When (F) is heated together with (D) a well
known fertilizer (H) is obtained.
16. Which of the following dehydration agent can not be used for the conversion of (A) to (B)?
(A) P2O5 (B) conc.H 2SO4
(C) CaO (D) (B) and (C) both
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(Q)
N2g 3H2g
2NH3g (2) K p K c RT
2
(R)
2O3g
3O2g (3) Kp Kc
1 5
(S)
o
Br2g F2g note : T > 300 C
BrF5g (4) Kp Kc
2 2
K p K c RT
1
(5)
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 3 4 1, 5 1,2
(B) 4 5, 3 5, 1 1
(C) 5,1 2, 5 4, 2 3
(D) 1 2 3 4
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1. A triangle ABC has incentre I. Points X, Y are located on the line segment AB, AC respectively
so that BX. AB = IB2 and CY. AC = IC2. Given that X, I, Y are collinear. The possible values of
measure of angle A is
(A) 120o (B) 60o
o
(C) 30 (D) cannot be determined
2. An equilateral triangle of side length 2 units is inscribed in a circle. The length of a chord of this
circle which passes through the midpoints of two sides of this triangle is
5
(A) (B) 5
2
2 2
(C) (D)
3 3
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
1 1
4. Let a1,a2 ,............. be real constants and y x cos a1 x cos a2 x 2
2 2
1
cos a3 x ........... n1 cos an x . If x1x 2 are real & y x1 y x 2 0, then x 2 x1
2
n
(A) n,n I (B) ,n I
2
n n
(C) ,n I (D) ,n I
3 4
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a
then lim n =
n
5. Let an & bn are positive integers and an 2bn 2 2
n b n
(A) 2 (B) 2
(C) e 2
(D) e2
n
k n
k a
6. For any positive integer n, an tan2 & bn tan2 , then the value of n is equal
k 1 2n 1 k 1 2n 1 bn
to
n
(A) tan2 (B) n
n 1
2
n
(C) n (D)
n 1
2
8. In ABC, there is a interior point P such that PAB 10o , PBA 20o , PCA 30o
& PAC 40o , then ACB =
(A) 50o (B) 40o
(C) 20o (D) 10o
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Questions 11 & 12
A function of satisfies the equation f x.f ' x f x f ' x for all x and f(0) = 3.
51
dx
12. 3 f x
is equal to
51
(A) 17 (B) 34
(C) 102 (D) 0
13. Let a line passing through C and perpendicular to BC intersects the curve S at P and Q. It R is
the midpoint of BC then area of PQR is
18 8
(A) sq. units (B) sq. units
3 3
32 26
(C) sq. units (D) sq. units
3 3
14. The eccentricity of the hyperbola, whose transverse axis lies along the line through B, C and the
hyperbola passes through B, C & (0, 2)
19 17
(A) (B)
4 2
7 2
(C) (D)
3 3
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Let PQRS be a rectangle of size 9 3, if it is folded along QS such that plane PQS is perpendicular to
plane QRS & point R moves to point T.
17. Let a, b, c are roots of the equation x 3 3x 2 5x 1 0. A and B are two matrices given as
a b c bc a2 ca b2 ab c 2
A b c a B ca b2 ab c 2 bc a2 If , , are the roots of equation B xI 0 where
c a b ab c 2 bc a2 ca b2
I is identity matrix of order 3 then match List I with List II:
List I List II
(P) The value of det (A) det (B) is (1) 18
(Q) The value of is (2) (18)2
(R) The value of B is (3) (18)3
(S) The value of A is (4) 6
4
(5) (18)
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
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18. A straight line passing through O (0, 0) cuts the lines x , y & x y 8 at A, B, C resp such
y 3 6
that OA. OB . OC = 48 2 & f(, ) 0 where f x,y 3x 2y e x 2y e2 6 .
x 2
Match the List -I with List-II:
List-I List-II
(P) The value of 2 2 OA OB OC is (1) 50
(Q) The volume of OA.OB OB.OC O.C.OA is (2) 54
(R) The value of 25 is (3) 36
(S) The value of 18 is (4) 52
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 1 2
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e e(1 e)101 k
If I1 I2 , then K
101 101
(Q) ln x (2) 1
I(k)
0 x 2 kx k 2
dx(k 0)
& kI(x) I(1) ,k e
3
is equal to
(R) Let f(x) be a continuous function satisfying (3) 5
3 2
2
9f(3) (x f '(x) f(x) )dx k , then the least passible
0
value of k is
(S) a loga x (4) 2
The values of definite integral 1
xa dx where a > 1 &
e 1
[.] denotes the greatest integer is , then the value of
2
5[a] is
(5) 9
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 1 5 3
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 2 4 3 1
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In JEE Advanced 2016, FIITJEE Students bag 36 in Top 100 AIR, 75 in Top 200 AIR, 183 in Top 500 AIR. 3541 Students from Long Term Classroom/ Integrated School Program & 4423
FIITJEE JEE (Advanced), 2017
FULL TEST – V
Paper 1
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
(ii) Section-C (01 – 10) contains 10 Numerical based questions with answers as numerical value
from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative
marking.
Enrolment No.
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
CHEMISTRY
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 10. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.
1. Four point charges +q, +q, – q, and – q are placed respectively at corners A, B, C and D of a
square. Then
(A) the potential at the centre O of the square is zero
(B) the electric field at the centre O of the square is zero
(C) If E is the mid-point of side BC, the work done in carrying an electron from O to E is zero
(D) If F is the mid-point of side CD, the work done is carrying an electron from O to F is zero
B
2. In the circuit show in figure, if the galvanometer resistance is 6 ,
C1 = 10 F C2 = 20 F
then in the steady state
(A) no current flows through the galvanometer A C
G = 6
(B) the current through R2 is 4A
(C) the charge on C1 is 80 C. R1 = 16 R1 = 8
12V
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y
4. A fly crawls with constant speed v along the radial ê
spoke of a wheel which is rotating with constant angular
speed . Initially the fly starts from centre of the wheel
along x-axis. Then (where r v ) v êr
(A) The actual velocity of the fly in fixed frame is
Fixed frame
v veˆ r reˆ
(B) The actual velocity of the fly in fixed frame is
v veˆ r reˆ
v.
(C) The position of fly at any instant r eˆ r
vt
(D) The position of fly at any instant r eˆ r
5. A cubical region of side a has its centre at the origin. It encloses three fixed point charges, -q at
(0, -a/4, 0) + 3q at (0, 0, 0) and -q at (0 + a/4, 0) Choose the correct options(s)
z
a
-q
-q y
3q
3q
x
(A) The net electric flux crossing the plane x = +a/2 is equal to the net electric flux crossing the
plane x =-a/2
(B) The net electric flux crossing the plane y = +a/2 is more than the net electric flux crossing the
plane y =- a/2
(C) The net electric flux crossing the entire region is q/0
(D) The net electric flux crossing the plane z = +a/2 is equal to the net electric flux crossing the
plane x = +a/2
6. Let the energy, magnitude of linear momentum and angular frequency of an electron in hydrogen
atom be E,P and respectively. If n be the corresponding quantum number, then
(A) E/W varies as n (B) E P/W is independent of n
(C) P W varies as n1/2 (D) E P W is independent of n.
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14 6
7. A nitrogen nucleus N7 absorbs a neutron and can be transformed to lithium nucleus Li3 under
suitable condition, after emitting
(A) 4 proton and 3 neutrons
(B) 5 proton and 1 beta particle
(C) 2 alpha particles, 1 neutron and 2 gama photons
(D) 4 protons and 4 neutrons
9. A 100 W bulb B1, and two 60 W bulbs B2 and B3, are connected to a B1 B2
250 V source, as shown in figure. Now W 1, W 2 and W 3 are the output
powers of the bulbs B1, B2 and B3, respectively. Then
(A) W1 W2 W3 (B) W1 W2 W3
(C) W1 W2 W3 (D) W1 W2 W3 B3
250V
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 10 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to
9 (both inclusive).
1. Water flows vertically down ward out of a round nozzle of radius r0 with a
speed u0. Which is not quite large for some distance below nozzle the flow
in water laminar stream over this distance the stream radius ry as a
1/ u0 r0 y
function of the distance of belong the nozzle is ry r0 1 y .
Value of is take value of u20 / g 1 .
2. A 60 cm metal rod M1 is joined to another 100 cm metal rod M2 to form an L shaped single piece
This piece is hung on a ply at the joint. The two rods are observed to be equality inclined to the
vertical. The two rods are equally thick. If the ratio of density M1 to that of M2 is , then value of
18
is
25
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4. The velocity filter of a mass spectrometer uses a uniform E = 100 v/m and a magnetic field
B1 2 102 T below filter at the uniform magnetic filed of induction 8 102 used to deflect the
beam above filter. Both the beams are +e charged having mass numbers 20 and 22 pass through
o
the filter and make a 180 turn in the deflecting filed. If the distance between the points S1 & S2 is
d, then find the approximate (integer) value of 2d?
1amu
(Value of 108 SI unit ) (Note: spectrometer does not changes speed of ions)
e
S1 S2
d
P R
mR
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6 cm
3 cm
B
D
10. Value of electric field at centre of charged hemisphere is ……… N/C if it has uniform charged
density 8 o c / m2 at surface.
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 10. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.
1. A system is changed from an initial state to a final state by a manner such that if the same
change from the initial state to the final state were made by a different path, which of the following
statements are correct for H system?
(A) remain the same
(B) will depend upon the type of path
(C) Heat exchanged q will be same if the path is isobaric
(D) Heat exchanged q will be different if the path is not isobaric
2. Which of the following are correct regarding the products of the given reaction?
Products
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3. Which of the following pairs of nitrates give the same gaseous products on thermal
decomposition?
(A) KNO3 and Pb(NO3)2 (B) KNO3 and NaNO3
(C) Pb(NO3)2 and Cu(NO3)2 (D) NaNO3 and Ca(NO3)2
4. KO2 finds use in oxygen cylinders used for space and submarines. The fact(s) related to such
use of KO2 is/are:
(A) it produces O2 (B) It produces O3
(C) It absorbs CO2 (D) It absorbs both CO and CO2
H H
(B) O
C6H5C–OOH
CH2Cl2 H H
H H
O
(C)
KMnO 4
cold dilute solution
H H
H H
OH OH
(D) O O
KMnO 4
–
OH ,heat –O—CCH CH CH C—O–
2 2 2
H H
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9. Rotation around the bond (between the underlined atoms) is restricted in:
(A) C2H4 (B) H2O2
(C) C2H2 (D) C2H6
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 10 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to
9 (both inclusive).
SH
HO O
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3. How many monochloro compounds including stereoisomers will give propene on treatment with
Mg/ether followed by H2O ?
5. A polyhydric alcohol is acylated by using ethanoyl chloride in presence of alkali. It was observed
that molecular mass of alcohol is increased to 237% on acylation. If the molecular mass of
polyhydric alcohol is 92, then the number of –OH groups present in polyhydric alcohol are____
7. Calculate the change in pressure (in atm) when 2 mole of NO and 16 g O2 in a 6.25 litre originally
at 27°C react to produce the maximum quantity of NO2 possible according to the equation.
1
2NO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g) (Take R = ltr. Atm/mol K)
12
8. Electrons in a sample of H atoms make transitions from state n = x, to some lower excited state.
The emission spectrum from the sample is found to contain only the lines belonging to a particular
series. If one of the photons had an energy of 0.6375 eV. Then find the value of x.
3
[Take 0.6375 eV = × 0.85eV]
4
9. If the atomic number of the inert gas is XY in which the total number of d-electrons is equal to the
difference in the number of total p- and s- electrons. Find |X-Y|.
10. For the reaction 3A g 2B g 2C g , starting with pure A, pressure after 9 min was 387.5
mm of Hg and after a long time was 400mm of Hg. Calculate half life of A in min.
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1 1 x
1. If 2f x xf 2f 2 sin x 4cos2 x cos , x R 0 , then which of the
x
4
2 x
following statement(s) is/are true?
1
(A) f 2 f 1 (B) f 2 f 1 0
2
1 1
(C) f 2 f 1 f (D) f 1 f f 2 1
2 2
2. Let ABC be a non obtuse triangle such that AB > AC & B 45o . Let O and I denote the
circumcenter and incentre of ABC respectively. Suppose that 2OI AB AC, then the
possible values of sin BAC is/are
4 2 2
(A) 1/ 2 (B)
2
4 2 2
(C) (D) 1/2
2
x y z
3. 1 intersects the coordinate axis at points A, B and C resp. If PQR has midpoints A,
a b c
B, & C then
(A) centroid of ABC & PQR coincide
(B) foot of normal to ABC from O is circumcentre of PQR
(C) area PQR 2 a2 b2 b2c 2 c 2a2
(D) incentres of ABC and PQR coincide
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1
1
C7 x200 1 x dx is equal to
7
5. If the value of the definite integral 207
where k N , then k is
0
k
divisible by
(A) 13 (B) 16
(C) 9 (D) 52
(A) f x 4x (B) f x 2x
(C) f ' 0 4 (D) f ' 0 2
7.
A a ,B b ,C c are position vector of vertices of ABC such that
a.b a.c a.a b.c. Also b c a b 2 a c . Inradius of triangle is 1 unit, then which of
the following statement is/are correct?
(A) sin2 B sin2 C 1 where B = ABC & C = ACB
(B) Diameter of circumcircle of ABC is 5 units
(C) Area of ABC is 6 sq. units
Area of ABC
(D) 2
semi perimeter of ABC
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8. The curves y ax 3 4x a 0 & xy 1 touch each other at points P and Q, where P is in first
quadrant. A triangle is formed by drawing a tangent to y ax 3 4x at point Q and coordinate
axes. Then which of the following is/are correct?
(A) The value of a is – 4
(B) The area of the triangle formed is 2
(C) The value of a is – 2
(D) The area of the triangle formed is 1
1
1 1
9.
If the value of definite integral cot 1
cot
x dx 2 a b ,
2
1 x
1 x 2
x
c
1
0 a b
Let A & A I 50A then
50
10.
0 0 c d
(A) a + d =2 (B) a + b = 1
(C) b + c = 0 (D) a+ d = 1
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 10 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to
9 (both inclusive).
2. A triangle ABC has positive integer sides, A 2B and C 90o , then the minimum length of
the perimeter of ABC is 70 + K then K is equal to
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7 7C 14
C Cr is k . Then k is
k r 14 k 1
3. The value of
k 0
14
Ck r k
k
1
sin1 x 2 n
4. If the value of x dx is where n N , then the value of is
0
2
x 1 n 27
cos2 cos2 cos 2 cos3 cos3 ..... cosn cos n is n 1sin , then k is
6 k
6. A tourist takes a trip through a city in stages each stage consist of three segments of length 100
meters separated by right turns of 60o. Between the last segment of one stage and first segment
o
of the next stage, the tourist makes a left turn of 60 . The distance the tourist will be from his
initial position after 2017 stages is 100 k. Then k is
102
Tn
n1
1 (sum of all the element of An). Then the value of , where. represents the G.I.F,
n
520200
is
9. Let f x be a differentiable function such that f ' x is symmetrical about the line 2x = 5 and f(1) =
3
10. If the radius of circumcircle of the TPQ where PQ is the chord of contact corresponding to point
T with respect to circle x 2 y 2 2x 4y 11 0 is b units. Then the minimum distance of T from
director circle of the given circle is 12 4 x , then k is equal to
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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced), 2017
FULL TEST – IV
Paper 2
Yo u a r e n o t a ll o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha ll b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
Section-A (09 to 16) contains 4 paragraphs with each having 2 questions. Each question carries
+3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-A (17 – 20) contains 4 Matching Lists Type questions: Each question has four
statements in LIST I & 4 or 5 statements in LIST II. The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C),
(D) out of which only one is correct. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and
– 1 mark for wrong answer.
Enrolment No.
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
CHEMISTRY
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.
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3. Consider the following conclusions regarding the components of an electric field at a certain point
in space given by Ex Ky, E y Kx, Ez 0 .
(A) The field is conservative (B) The field is non-conservative
(C) The field lines are straight (D) The field lines are circle
x
4. The equation of a wave is y 4 sin 2t , where y and x are in centimeters and t in
2 8
seconds.
(A) The amplitude, wavelength, velocity and frequency of wave are 4 cm, 16 cm, 32 cm/s and 1
Hz respectively
(B) The amplitude, wavelength, velocity and frequency of wave are 4 cm, 32 cm, 16 cm/s and 0.5
Hz respectively
(C) Two positions occupied by the particle at time interval of 0.45 s have a phase difference of
0.4 radian
(D) Two positions occupied by the particle at separation of 12 cm have phase difference of 135o
5. In YDSE two wavelengths of light are used simultaneously where 2 21 . In the fringe pattern
observed over the screen
(A) Maxima of wavelength 2 can coincide with minima of wavelength 1
(B) Fringe width of 2 will be double that of fringe width of 1 and nth order maxima of 2 will
coincide with 2nth order maxima of 1
(C) Minima of wavelength 2 may coincide with maxima of wavelength 1
(D) None of the above
6. When a point light source of power W emitting monochromatic light of wavelength is kept at
large distance a from a photosensitive surface of work function and area S. We will have
W S
(A) Number of photons striking the surface per unit time is
4hCa2
hC
(B) The maximum energy of striking photoelectron is
e hC
(C) Stopping potential is
hC
(D) Photo emission takes place only if lies in range 0
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o
7. When barium is irradiated by a light of 4000 A all the photoelectrons emitted are bent in
circles of maximum radius 50 cm by a magnetic field of flux density 5.26 x 10–6 T acting
perpendicular to plane of emission of photoelectrons. Then,
(A) Kinetic energy of fastest photoelectron is 0.6 eV
(B) Work function of metal is 2.5 eV
(C) Maximum velocity of photoelectron is 0.46 x 106 m/s
(D) Stopping potential for photoelectric effect is 0.6 V
Comprehension Type
This section contains 4 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct.
4=0
B
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A cylinder containing an ideal gas and closed by a movable piston is submerged in an ice water mixture.
The piston is quickly pushed down from position (1) to position (2) (process AB). The piston is held at
position (2) until the gas is again at 0oC (process BC). Then the piston is slowly raised back to position
(1) (process CA).
Position(1)
11. Which of the following P-V diagrams correctly represents the process AB, BC, CA and the cycle
ABCA?
(A) P (B)
A
A
C
B C B
V
V2 V1 V2
(C) (D)
B
A
C
B C
A
V V
V2 V1 V2 V1
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12. If 100 g of ice is melted during the cycle ABCA, how much work is done on the gas?
(A) 8 K cal (B) 5 K cal
(C) 2.1 K J (D) 4.2 K J
A glass sphere of radius 2R and refractive index n has a spherical cavity of radius R, concentric with it.
2R
O
R S1
13. When viewer is on left side of the hollow sphere, what will be shift in position of the object?
n 1 R n 1 R
(A) , right (B) , right
n 1 n 1
2n 1 R 2 n 1 R
(C) , left (D) , left
2n 1 n 1
14. When viewer is on the right side of the hollow sphere, what will be the apparent change in the
position of the object?
n 1 R n 1 R
(A) , towards left (B) , towards left
3n 1 3n 1
n 1 R n 1 R
(C) , towards right (D) , towards right
3n 1 3n 1
Space for rough work
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o
Consider a hypothetical hydrogen like atom. The wavelength in A , for spherical lines of transition from n
1500P2
= P to n = 1 are given by 2 , where P = 1, 2, 3, 4, ………
P 1
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17. A particle starts with velocity v 0 along negative direction of motion under the acceleration v/s time
curve as given:
a
ao
to
t
2v 0
If t 0 , then
a0
List – I List – II
t
(P) Velocity v/s time curve of the particle is (1)
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18. Two blocks A and B of masses m and 2m respectively are connected by a massless spring of
spring constant K. This system lies over a smooth horizontal surface. At t = 0, block A has
velocity u towards right as shown, while the speed of block B is zero and the length of spring is
natural. In each situation of List I, certain statements are given in List II. Match them.
B A
m 2m u
List – I List – II
(P) The velocity of block A (1) Can never be zero
(Q) The velocity of block B (2) May be zero at certain moment
Is maximum at maximum
(R) The kinetic energy of the system (3)
compression of spring
Is maximum at minimum
(S) The potential energy of spring (4)
extension of spring
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 2 1 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 2 1 3
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19. A cubical block having cross section of side 2 m and of mass M = 10 kg is resting over a platform
moving at constant acceleration a = 1 m/s2. Coefficient of friction between the block and platform
is 0.1 . A force F acts at the top of cube as shown in diagram. Now, match List I with List II.
F
2m. M
a=1m/s2
2m.
List – I List – II
Block neither slips nor topple
(P) F=0N (1)
over the platform
Block topples but does not slip
(Q) F = 45 N (2)
over the platform
Block slips but does not topple
(R) F = 15 N (3)
over the platform
Block slips as well as topples on
(S) F = 25 N (4)
the platform
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 4 1 3 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 1 4 1 3
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20. A white light ray is incident on a glass prism and it creates four refracted rays A, B, C and D.
Match the refracted rays with the colours given (1 and D are rays due to total internal reflection).
B
A
1
D
Incident ray
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.
2. PhNO 2 Zn
A
NH4 Cl
Tollen' sRe agent
B organic compound , which is/are incorrect?
(A) A gives Tollen’s test
(B) A is aldehyde
(C) A is aniline
(D) A forms complex with Tollen’s reagent but not gives silver mirror
Ags | AgBrs | Br 0.01M || Cl0.2M | AgCls | Ags If KSP of AgBr & AgCl at 25 C are 10
o -12
3. & 10-10
respectively find which is/are true for above cell at 25oC (log 2 =0.3)
(A) as E0Ag / Ag is not given so Ecell can not be determined
(B) Ecell is 0.041 Volt
(C) G 0
(D) E0cell can not be determined as data is insufficient
4. Which of the following will produce red colour when treated with NH4 Ce NO3 6
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5. Which will show geometrical isomerism and atleast one form is optically active (AB is
unsymmetrical bidentate ligand)?
(A) M(AB)3 (B) Mabcd (tetrahedral)
(C) Ma3b3 (D) Ma4b2
(C) O C2H5 I + OH
anhyd H I
i) OH-
(D)
ii) HCHO
iii) H2O
O CH2OH O
O
O
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(ii) A Cl - CH2OMe
C
8. OCOCD3
H2C *
CH AcOH
2 warm
Br
Which of the following will be obtained in the above reaction?
OCOCD3 OCOCD3
(A) H2C *
CH (B) H2C CH2
2
*
OAc OAc
CD3
(C) H2C CH (D) H2C CH2
OAc OAc
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 4 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Questions 09 & 10
(iv) D+
Cl
(A) (B)
OC2H5
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When glucose is heated with 12% HCl aromatic product A is obtained which on further reaction with HCl
produces mainly two acids B & C among which B has high molecular weight than C.
O
(C) (D)
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15. D-mannose & D-glucose differ in configuration only at C-2. Thus the pyranose form of D-
mannose is
CH2OH CH2OH
OH H H
H O O
H H
(A) (B) OH H
OH H
OH H OH OH
H OH H OH
CH2OH CH2OH
HO OH H H
O O
(C) H (D) H
OH H OH OH
H H OH OH
H OH H H
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OH O H H O OH OH O H
H H H
(A) (B)
H OH OH H H OH
CH3 O H H OMe
OH H H OH OH H
Me CH2OH
H O OH H O Me
OH H
(C) (D)
OH H H H
HO Me HO OMe
H OH OH OH
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N N
(P) (1) PEA
NH
H 2C
n
O
NH (CH2) 5 C
(Q) (2) Dacron
n
CH2 CH
(R) (3) Perlon
COOEt n
O O
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 1 4 2 3
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(S) Na PtBrCl NO2 NH3 (4) Can show geometrical isomerism
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 2,3,4 2,3,4 1 1,4
(B) 1,3,4 2,4 2,3 1,3,4
(C) 2,3 1,4 2 3,4
(D) 3,4 1,3 2,4 3
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3 f x
1. If f x 3x 2 f x x 3 0 , then dx is equal to
x
(A) f x c (B) f x c
(C) 2 f x c (D) xf ' x c
x
x
2. If f is continuous and one-one function for x 0 and f t dt 2 f 0 f x ,
0
then
0
and det 2 A 2 A 144 , then possible correct statement is (for real part)
2
3. If A
2
(A) tr A 6 (B) det A 9
(C) det A 4 (D) tr A 1
x2 , x0
4. If f x 2 and x 0 is point of maxima, then
a 2a b 2 x, x 0
2
(A) a 0, 2 for b 2, 2 (B) a 0, 2 for b R 2, 2
(C) a 0, 2 for b R 2, 2 (D) a R 0, 2 for b R 2, 2
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5. If Pn 1 cos 2n 1 sin2n1 and Qn 1 tan2n 1 such that P1Q0 P2 Q1 ......... Pn Qn 1 1 ,
then may be
(A) (B)
65 257
(C) (D)
33 31
6.
If u x xiˆ sin x ˆj 1 sin x kˆ , v x ˆi cos x ˆj kˆ and w x sin x ˆj kˆ , all are linearly
2
dependent vectors for x , then can be equal to
(A) 101 (B) 1001
(C) 2012 (D) 2011
7. If f(x) is a polynomial of degree three with leading coefficient as unity s.t f(1) = 1; f(3) = 9 & f’(1) =
2, then
(A) f’(x) = 2x has at least one between (1,3)
(B) f”(x) = 2 has at least one root between (1, 7/3)
d f(x) x 3
(C) at x = 1 is equal to 1
dx x 1 2
(D) sum of root of f(x) = 0 is 3
x 1 f 2 (x)
8. If f(x) = is an odd function where [.] denotes greatest integer part, then:
1 x2
(A) f(x) is invertible for [-1,1]
(B) f(x) = f-1(x) has no solution 1 x 1.
(C) |f(x)| = K has four solution for 0 < K < 1.
(D) f(x) is differentiable for all R
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 4 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Questions 09 & 10
AB iˆ ˆj kˆ
In ABC , and area of ABC .
AC iˆ ˆj kˆ
9. The greatest value of length of side BC , when AB and AC are minimum, is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 2 3
10. The least value of is
(A) 1 (B) 2
1
(C) 2 2 (D)
2
Paragraph for Questions 11 & 12
Consider two quadratic expressions p(x) & q(x) s.t p(o) = P(4) = q(1) = q(5) = 3 having leading coefficient
as unity & p(2) = q(3) = – 1 then
p( ) p()
11. If = k for & K>1 lim m; lim n;
q( ) q() k k
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12. If P( ) q( ) 0 P() q() for two distinct value of + ; then
(A) 5 (B) 5
1 1 11
(C) 3 (D)
10
x2 y 2
Consider 1 is given hyperbola or ellipse & a line y = mx + c intersect the hyperbola exactly at
9 7
one point , & touches it’s director circle, then-
14. The value of | | 7 3 | | , where [.] denotes greatest Integer part.
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7
If f(x) & g (x) are two real valued functions such that
8 2
3f ' x for x 1 3
f(sin x) f(cos x) 2x and F x = & g(x) F(x) .
2 4
0 for x 2 1
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x 3
16. The only one solution of f x sin for x is . Then
2 4 2 2
(A) 1 (B) 1
(C) 1 (D) 1
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2
19. Given y ax bx c is a quadratic expression for x [0, 2], y falls completely in [0, 1] and
b
(0, 2). Then, for a 0 , match the following:
2a
List I List II
(P) The value of c may be (1) 0
(Q) The value of 2a b may be (2) 1
(R) 2
(3) 1
If is a root of ax bx c 0 , then may be
a 2
(S) (4)
The sum of roots of ax bx c 0 is p p 3 4
2 2
3
for p R , then the value of a can’t be
(5) 2
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 1,2 3 1,3 2,4,5
(B) 1 1,3 2 2,4
(C) 1,2 3 3 2,4
(D) 1,3 3 1,3 4,5
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In JEE Advanced 2016, FIITJEE Students bag 36 in Top 100 AIR, 75 in Top 200 AIR, 183 in Top 500 AIR. 3541 Students from Long Term Classroom/ Integrated School Program & 4423
FIITJEE JEE (Advanced), 2017
FULL TEST – IV
Paper 1
Yo u a r e n o t a ll o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha ll b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
Section-A (11 to 15) contains 5 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong
answer.
(ii) Section-C (01 to 05) contains 5 Numerical based questions with answers as numerical value
and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
Enrolment No.
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AITS-FT-IV-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
Useful Data
PHYSICS
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
CHEMISTRY
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 10. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct.
1. A cylindrical block of radius R, height h and density is floating in liquid of density 2 contained
in a cylindrical container of radius 2R. Time period of small vertical oscillations of the block is
5h 3h
(A) 2 (B)
6g 2g
h h
(C) 2 (D)
2g 2g
K
3. In a certain region of space gravitational field is given by g . Taking potential at r = r0 to
r
be V0 the potential at any general point is given by
r r
(A) V K ln V0 (B) V K ln V0
r0 r0
r r
(C) V K ln 0 V0 (D) V K ln 0 V0
r r
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5. A cylinder of height h and radius R is made to move with constant velocity v at small angle with
its flat bottom or flat top. In a polluted atmosphere having uniform and stagnant dust density .
If dust particles stick to cylinder on striking them neglecting any change in size of cylinder, power
to be delivered to cylinder to maintain its velocity is
(A) 2v 2Rh (B) 2v 3Rh
(C) 2v 3Rhcos v 3 R 2 sin (D) None
6. Each of the pictures shows four objects tied together with rubber bands being pulled to right
across a horizontal smooth surface by a horizontal force F. All the objects have same mass, all
rubber bands are identical naturally and obey Hook’s law. Then which of the following possibility
of the arrangement is most correct?
x x
(A)
1 2 3
(B)
3 2 1
(C)
z z z
(D)
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8. When the string of a sonometer wire of length L between the bridges vibrate in the first overtone,
the amplitude of vibration is maximum at
L L 3L
(A) (B) and
2 4 4
L 3L 5L L 3L 5L 7L
(C) , and (D) , , ,
6 6 6 8 8 8 8
9. A cubical container is filled with a liquid whose refractive index increases linearly from top to
bottom. Which of the following represents the path of a ray of light inside the liquid?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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11. A uniformly charged non-conducting ring is rotating with angular velocity 1 about its axis in
gravity free space and a nearly horizontal but uniform magnetic field B is switched on, then after
some time
(A) Angular momentum of the ring must be parallel to its angular velocity
(B) Magnitude of angular momentum may be more than mR 2 1
(C) Magnitude of angular momentum must be equal to mR 2 1
(D) Angular momentum must be coplanar with angular velocity
12. A steel ball of mass 2m suffers one dimensional elastic collision with a row of three steel balls
each of mass m. If ball of mass 2m has velocity v initially and the three balls with small
separation were at rest. Then, after all possible collisions
2m m m m
v
1 2 3
(A) Ball 1 and ball of mass 2m would remain at rest
4v 0
(B) Ball 2 moves with velocity towards right
9
4v 0
(C) Ball 3 moves towards right with velocity
3
(D) Ball of mass 2m moves towards right with velocity one fourth that of ball 1
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14. A liquid is filled upto height h in a rectangular vessel as shown in figure. Then, find correct
option(s):
h
(A) Only if horizontal component of forces on left and right side of inclined faces will be
equal and opposite
(B) If horizontal component of forces on left and right side of inclined faces are not equal
(C) If still horizontal component of forces on the left and right inclined faces are equal and
opposite
(D) If base area is A, then force on bottom by liquid is more than ghA
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
2. A particle of charge q and mass m is projected with velocity 200 m/s at an angle of 60o with x-
axis. At the instant speed of projectile becomes minimum a uniform magnetic field B0 kˆ is
2
switched on. If time of flight of particle is T, then find . (Given: m = 1 kg, q = 0.1 C, B = 1 T)
T
3. Figure shows two conducting thin concentric shells of radii r and 3r. The outer shell carries a
charge q and the inner shell is neutral. The amount of charge that flows from inner shell to the
earth after key K is closed is equal to nth part of charge of outer shell. Then the value of n
is ………
4. A vessel contains helium, which expands at constant pressure when 15 KJ of heat is supplied to
it. What will be the variation in internal energy of gas in KJ?
5. Two identical sinusoidal waves travel in opposite direction in a 15 m long wire and produce a
standing wave in the wire with nodes at ends. If speed of wave is 12 m/s and there are 6 nodes
in standing wave, find the frequency (in Hz) of wave.
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 10. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct.
1. Which of the following process is used to remove temporary as well as permanent hardness of
water?
(A) only boiling (B) adding lime & boiling
(C) adding Ca(OH)2 (D) adding Na2CO3
2. When 10 gm mixture of KI and Fe2(SO4)3 is treated with 200 cc HCl, gives a solution which
N
consumes 40 ml Na2S2O3 solution. Then the correct statement is/are
10
M
(A) Equivalent weight of iodine in the reaction is
2
(B) Percentage of KI in the mixture is 66.4%
(C) Sodium thiosulphate is converted to Na4S4O6
(D) Percentage of Fe2(SO4)3 is 66.4%
3. Both AgCNS and AgBr are simultaneously dissolved in water. Ksp(AgBr) 5 × 10-13; Ksp(AgCNS) =
8.5 x 10-12. The concentration of Ag+ in final solution will be
(A) 4 × 10–7 M (B) 2 × 10–7 M
(C) 3 × 10–6 M (D) 6.2 × 10–7 M
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Na S O H O
5. AgNO3
2 2 3
A
2
B
White Black
PPt PPt
Black PPt is
(A) Na3 Ag(S2O3 )2 (B) Ag2S4 O6
(C) Ag2O (D) Ag2 S
4
7. IUPAC name of Fe O2 CN4 Cl is
(A) chloridortetracyanodioxoferrate (II) ion
(B) chloridortetracyanoperoxoferrate (II) ion
(C) chloridortetracyanosuperoxoferrate (II) ion
(D) tetracyanochloridosuperoxoferrate (II) ion
8. The acid ligand which uses its d-orbital during synergic bonding in its complex compound is
(A) CN (B) PR3
(C) NO (D) N2
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10.
DMSO _
C2H5 CH2 Cl
Py,
A B Cl
(has two C
atoms per N+
molecule)
H
Which is true?
(A) A gives Lucas test
(B) A does not give Schiff’s test
(C) B can be used in reductive ozonolysis of alkenes
(D) A gives smell of burning S on combustion
11. Me Me N2H4
C C Product
Me H H2O2
H H
(C) H H (D) OH OH
C C
H H
12. Which of the following crystal system does/do not have more than one Bravais lattice?
(A) Triclinic (B) Monoclinic
(C) Rhombohedral (D) hexagonal
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KCNS
red color
15. NaNO2 HCl converts an amino acid into hydroxyl acid with retention of configuration.
Estimation of N2 gas evolved in the reaction is the basis of van slyke estimation of amino acids,
which of the following can be analysed by this method?
(A) Cysteine (B) Proline
(C) Histidine (D) Valine
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
2. How many octahedral voids per unit cell of BCC are present?
1
4. If H2 (g) + O2 (g) H2O (l) (Let Cp = 32 J/K and H at 27oC = –28.58 KJ/mol) reaction
2
is carried out at 87oC in a fuel cell with 90% efficiency. The electrical energy produced is 3 x a
KJ/mol. Find a (to nearest integer). (Let Cp remains same in this temperature range)
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H C2H5
i) OsO4
(f)
ii) NaHSO3
H H
i) H2 / Ni2B
(g) H3C C C CH3
ii) cold dil. alk. KMnO4
Me Et
Br2
(h)
in CCl4
D Et
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4
I
1. If I f tan2x cos x dx and J
0
f cot 2x sin x dx , where f x f x , then
0 J
is equal to
1
(A) 2 (B)
2
1
(C) 2 2 (D)
2 2
2. If A aij
2 2
, B bij
2 2
such that aij f x 2i j 2
and b ij f x 2 i j 1 and
2 1 1
x f x f 1 1 x 4 f x 2 1x
A BT , then f t dt is always equal to
1 1 1 1 f 1 x
f 1 2 2 f
x x x x
(A) f 1 (B) f 1 1
(C) f 1 1 (D) None of these
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4.
If a1 aiˆ bjˆ , a2 a1 2iˆ 5 ˆj and a3 a1 2iˆ 5 ˆj , then
1 a1.a1 1 a1.a2 1 a1 .a3
1 a2 .a2 1 a2 .a2 1 a2 .a3 is equal to
1 a3 .a1 1 a3 .a2 1 a3 .a3
(A) 0 (B) 20
(C) 40 (D) 80
2
sin 3 x dx
5.
0 1 tan x
1 1 1 1
(A)
2 2 2
ln 2 1 (B)
2 2 2
ln
2 1
1 1
(C)
2
2
ln 2 1 (D) None of these
n n
7. If f x tan x tan2 x tan 2x and g n f 2n , then g 2013 tan 22014 is equal to
n0
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x 1
9. If f(x) x R & 1 & 1 is a self – inverse function such that
x
f(4) f(12) 1
f , then “” is equal to
4 12 1
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 16
h1(x) h1(1)
10. If f(x) x 1 & g1(x) x 3 x 1 , let gof(x) = h(x), then It
x 1 x 1
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 1 (D) 8
2
2 x 2 x 1 x p 2 1 1
11. If 1 1 x3 dx ln q 3 cos m 6 , p, q I , HCF (p, q) = 1, then
2 2
(A) p m 1 (B) p m
2
(C) q m 1 (D) pq 4m
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1 1
12. If a singular matrix A aij always commute with B , then
2 1
2 2
13. If logk a a and logk b b for exactly two distinct positive real numbers a and b, then k can’t be
equal to
1 2
(A) e 2e (B) e e
1 1
(C) e 2 (D) e 3
(A) x dx 4 (B) x dx 4
0 0
(C) x dx 4
2
(D) x dx 4
2
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1. If I
2
x 3 3x 2
3
dx and J
3 x 5 dx , then e I J equals ………..
1
ln x 1 2
ln x 2
1
another point B is piˆ qjˆ rkˆ and p
q 2 r 2 9 . Given AOB 2 cos 1 , where O is
2
5
origin. If AQ is perpendicular to angle bisector of AOB i.e. line OQD where D lies on AB, then
value of 25 QD = ?
3x2 1
3. If f x , where f x is a constant function in 0 x 2 , then minimum value of
x4 x 2
2
3x 2 1 dx
0 x4 x 2
is ………
4
4.
If adj adj adj A adj A , then number of entries in diagonal of A is ……..
5. If AB BA I such that A aij , B bij , aii bii , a12 b12 , a21 b21 and aij
2 2 2 2
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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced), 2017
FULL TEST – II
Paper 2
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong
results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
Enrolment No.
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
2 2
Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85 1012 C /N-m
CHEMISTRY
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
This section contains 08 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
1. A glass tube of 1.0 meter length is filled with water. The water can be drained out slowly at the
bottom of the tube. If a vibrating tuning fork of frequency 500Hz is brought at the upper end of the
tube and the velocity of sound is 330m/s then the total number of resonances
obtained will be
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1
2. A loudspeaker emits sound of frequency f. The sound waves are reflected from a wall. The
arrangement is shown below.
Loudspeaker d d
S W
P Q R
Wall
When a microphone is moved along the line SW, minimum loudness of sound is detected at
points P, Q and R. There are no other minima between these points. The separation of the
minima is d. The speed of the sound wave is :
1
(A) fd (B) 4fd
2
(C) fd (D) 2fd
Space for rough work
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3. Consider a uniformly charged wire that has the form of a circular loop with radius b. Consider two
points on the axis of the loop. P1 is at a distance b from the loop's center, and P2 is at a distance
2b from the loop's center. The potential V is zero, very far away from the loop. At P1 and P2 the
potentials are V1 and V2, respectively. What is V2 in terms of V1?
P2
b
P1
2b
V1
(A) 2V1 (B)
2
5 2
(C) V1 (D) V1
2 5
4. Consider a uniformly charged hemispherical shell shown below. Indicate the directions (not
magnitude) of the electric field at the central point P1 and an off-centre point P2 on the drumhead
of the shell.
P2 P1
+ +
+ +
+ +
+
+ +
+ +
++ +
+
++ +
++ +
+ +++ +
A ; B ;
C ; D ;
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5. Two identical cylinders have a hole of radius a (a<<R) at its bottom. A ball of radius R is kept on
the hole and water is filled in the cylinder such that there is no water leakage from bottom. In
case-1 water is filled upto height h and in second case it is filled upto height 2h. If F1 is force by
liquid on sphere in case-1 and F2 is force by liquid on sphere in case-2 then.
2h
h R
R
a a
(A) F1 =F2 =0 (B) F1 >F2
(C) F2 >F1 (D) F1 =F2 0
6. The diagram below shows the path taken by a monochromatic light ray travelling through three
media. The symbols v1 , 1 and f 1 represent the speed, wavelength, and frequency of the light in
Medium 1, respectively. Which of the following relationships for the light in the three media is true.
Medium1
Medium 2
Medium 3
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7. Figure shows a thin metal sheet in the plane y = 0, for which the current of constant density flows
in the positive x-direction. It is in a constant homogeneous magnetic field of value = (0, 0, B0 ). As
a result of superposition of magnetic fields in region y > 0, the induction field B1 = (0, 0, B) and in
y < 0 is B2 = (0, 0, B2 ) where B1 > B2 . Specify the correct statement:
Z
B2
B1
Y
(A) B0
B1 B2 (B) B0
B1 B2
2 2
(C) B0 B1 B2 (D) B0 B1 B2
8. At ordinary temperature the molecules of an ideal gas have only translational and rotational
energy. At high temperature, they may also have vibrational energy. As a result of this at high
temperature.
3R 3R
(A) C V = for monoatomic gas (B) C V > for monoatomic gas
2 2
5R 5R
(C) C V < for Diatomic gas (D) C V > for Diatomic gas
2 2
Space for rough work
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This section contains 04 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
9. A long straight wire carries a steady current I1. Nearby is a rectangular loop that carries a steady
current I2. The directions of the two currents are shown in the figure.
I1
I2
10. Two concentric, coplanar, circular loop of wire, with different diameter carry current in the same
sense as shown in the figure. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?
(A) The magnetic force exerted by the outer loop on a short portion of the inner loop is radially
outward
(B) The magnetic force exerted by the outer loop on a short portion of the inner loop is radially
inward
(C) The net magnetic force exerted by the outer loop on a whole inner loop is non zero and is
radially outward
(D) The net magnetic force exerted by the outer loop on a whole inner loop is zero
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11. In the circuit shownR1 R2 10 and resistance per unit length of wire PQ 1 / cm and
length PQ 10cm . If R2 is made 20 the to get zero deflection in galvanometer. S is midpoint
of wire PQ ?
R
R1 R2
12V
P S Q
G
(A) The jockey at P can be moved towards right 2 cm.
(B) The jockey at Q can be moved towards right 2 cm.
(C) The jockey at S can be moved towards left a distance 5/3 cm.
(D) The jockey at all positions fixed and R1 should be made 20
12. A constant external torque acts for a very brief period t on a rotating system having moment of
inertia I.
(A) The angular momentum of the system will change by t
t
(B) The angular velocity of the system will change by
I
2
(C) If the system was initially at rest, it will acquire rotational kinetic energy
t
2I
2
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct
If the velocity of a charged particle moving through a uniform magnetic field has a component parallel to
that field the particle will move in a helical path as shown in figure 1. The net force F on the particle can
be described by the equation.
F qv B sin
Where q is the charge on the particle, v is the velocity of the charge, B is the magnetic field strength, and
is the angle between the velocity and the magnetic field. The pitch p of the helix is the distance
between adjacent turns. The radius r of the helix is determined by the component of velocity of the charge
perpendicular to the magnetic field and is independent of the component of the velocity parallel to the
magnetic field.
A nonuniform magnetic field that is stronger at its ends than at its middle can trap a charged particle by
reflecting it back and forth between ends. Such a situation is shown in figure 2. In a similar phenomenon
electrons and protons above the atmosphere are reflected back and forth between the north and south
poles of the earth's magnetic field forming the two Van Allen belts high above the atmosphere.
Occasionally a solar flare shoots additional electrons and protons into the Van Allen belts. This pushes
the electrons to a lesser height. The repulsion due to additional electrons drives the charged particles
along the earth's magnetic field lines into the atmosphere where they collide with the air molecules forcing
them to a higher energy level emitting photons. Oxygen atoms emit green light and nitrogen atoms emit
pink. This light forms the curtain of lights in the sky known in the northern hemisphere as the aurora
borealis
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13. If the magnetic field in figure-2 represents a portion of the Earth's magnetic field, at which labelled
point would you except to find the aurora borealis?
(A) W (B) X
(C) Y (D) Z
14. The electrons and protons caught in the Van Allen belt reflect from one pole to the other. Looking
up from the North pole, electrons rotate counterclockwise. Protons rotate.
(A) Counterclockwise both when looking up from the North Pole or when looking up from the
South Pole.
(B) Clockwise both when looking up from the North Pole of when looking up from the South Pole.
(C) Clockwise when looking up from the North Pole but counterclockwise when looking up from
the South Pole.
(D) Counterclockwise when looking up from the North Pole but clockwise when looking up from
the South Pole.
A piano creates sound by gently striking a taut wire with a soft hammer when a key on the piano is
pressed. All piano wires in a given piano are approximately the same length. However, each wire is tied
down at two points, the bridge and the agraffe. The length of the wire between the bridge and the agraffe
is called the speaking length. The speaking length is the part of the wire that resonates. The point of the
wire struck by the hammer is displaced perpendicularly to the wire's length. A standing wave is generated
by the hammer strike, where is the velocity T is the tension in the wire, and μ is the mass per unit
length of the wire.
T
v
Tuning a piano involves adjustment of the tension in the wires until just the right pitch is achieved. Correct
pitch is achieved by listening to the beat frequency between the piano and a precalibrated tuning fork.
15. A piano note is compared to a tuning fork vibrating at 440 Hz. Three beats per second are
discerned by the piano tuner. When the tension in the string is increased slightly, the beat
frequency increases. What was the initial frequency of the piano wire?
(A) 434 Hz (B) 437 Hz
(C) 443 Hz (D) 446 Hz
16. Sound waves move through air at approximately 340 m/s. A piano wire with a 90 cm speaking
length resonates at a frequency of 360 Hz. What is the wavelength of the resulting sound wave ?
(A) 0.94 m (B) 1.06 m
(C) 4m (D) 1.8 m
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The figure shows a cylindrical container, fitted with a piston. It contains two immiscible incompressible
liquids with densities ρ1 and ρ 2 . A block floats in equilibrium in the position shown.
17. Suppose the spring is initially in compressed state. Now, if the piston is moved downward slowly
then
(A) Spring will become more compressed.
(B) Spring will become less compressed.
(C) The compression in spring will remain same as before.
(D) The compression will depends on ρ1 and ρ 2 .
18. Suppose the spring is initially in compressed state. Now, if the whole system is moved with some
acceleration upward then
(A) Spring will become more compressed.
(B) Spring will become less compressed.
(C) The compression in spring will remain same as before.
(D) The compression will depend on ρ1 and ρ 2 .
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1. A uniform rod of length l = 1m is free to move and rotate in gravity-free space. When an impulse
is given to one end of the rod, perpendicular to its length, its centre of mass moves with velocity
v = 1 m/s. What will be its angular velocity (in rad/s) about its centre of mass?
2. A pulley system is attached to a massless board as shown below. The board pivots only at the
pivot point. A 10 kg mass M sits exactly in the middle of the board.
F
θ
M
Pivot point
If the angle is 60°. The force F (in N) necessary to hold the board in the position shown is
5 x , find x?
3. The peak emission from a black body at a certain temperature occurs at a wavelength of 6000 Å.
On increasing its temperature, the total radiation emitted is increased 16 times. These radiations
are allowed to fall on a metal surface. Photoelectrons emitted by the peak radiation at higher
temperature can be bought to rest by applying a potential equivalent to the excitation potential
corresponding to the transition for the level n = 4 to n = 2 in the Bohr's hydrogen atom. The work
function of the metal is given by eV where is the numerical constant. The value of is
100
found 53 x , find x?
[Take: he = 12420 eV- Å ]
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4. A positively charged particle starts at rest 25 cm from a second positively charged particle which
is held stationary throughout the experiment. The first particle is released and accelerates
directly always from the second particle. When the first particle has moved 25 cm, it has reached
a velocity of 10 2 m/s. The maximum velocity (in m/s) that the first particle will reach is 10 x ,
find x?
5. The ends of a chain lie in piles at A and C. When given an initial speed 10 m/s, the chain keeps
moving freely at that speed over the fixed pulley B. Neglecting friction, the required value of h is
x 5 , then find the value of x (in m). (Take g = 10 m/s2):
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
This section contains 08 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
1. The vapour pressure lowering of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of non – electrolyte at 75°C is
ΔH 0
v of water=9720 cal/mol and antilog 0.407=2.55
(A) 0.54 torr (B) 0.78 torr
(C) 0.02 torr (D) 0.22 torr
o
2. The C – C single bond distance is 1.54 A . The minimum distance between the terminal cartons
in propane is sin 5445 ' 0.8136
o o
(A) Greater than 3.08 A (B) Equal to 3.08 A
o
(C) 2.51A (D) Can’t be calculated
3. A sample of aqueous solution of acetic acid 0.5 mol CH 3COOH in10 mol of H 2O is mixed
with a sample of aqueous solution of NaOH 0.5 mol NaOH in10 mol of H 2O . The freezing
point of the solution is (Kf, H2O=1.86)
(A) -5°C (B) -5.16°C
(C) 0°C (D) 5.16°C
4. Hydrogen peroxide can be prepared by the successive reactions
2NH 4 HSO 4 NH 4 2 S2 O8
NH 4 2 S2 O8 +2H 2 O 2NH 4 HSO 4 +H 2 O 2
The first is an electrolytic reaction, and the second a steam distillation.
What current would have to be used in the first reaction to produce enough intermediate to yied
100 g pure H 2 O 2 per hour? Assume 50% current efficiency.
(A) 158 A (B) 315 A
(C) 102 A (D) 204 A
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8
5. Equilibrium constant for the dissociation of Ag NH 2 2 into Ag and NH3 is 6 10 . Calculate
E° for the following half reaction, Ag NH 3 2 e Ag s 2NH 3
E °
Ag + /Ag
0.799V, log 6 0.7781
(A) 0.37 (B) 0.799
(C) 0.7781 (D) 0.6
6. A student is analysing a salt in the laboratory. When he added dilute HCl to the salt solution, a
gas is evolved, when the gas is exposed to a filter paper moistened with potassium iodate and
starch solution, he observed blue colouration of the filter paper. Then he added BaCl2 solution to
the salt solution and observed white precipitate immediately. He found that the precipitate is
soluble in dilute mineral acids. The anion of the salt is
2 2
(A) S2 O 3 (B) SO3
2
(C) CO3 (D) HCO3
2+
8. For the reaction Cu 2e Cu
2+
log Cu vs.E red graph can be plotted as following (At NTP)
E red
x
0 log Cu 2+
2+
Where OX = 0.34 V then electrode potential of the half cell of Cu/Cu 0.1M will be:
(A) 0.3695 v (B) 0.3105 V
(C) 0.3991 V (D) 0.2809 V
Space for rough work
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This section contains 04 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
9. An ideal gas expanding isothermally against the external pressure equal to zero, shows
(A) ΔE 0 (B) W 0
(C) q 0 (D) ΔH ve
10. Electrolysis of molten MgCl2 is the final production step in the isolation of magnesium from sea
water by Dow’s process. Assuming that 35.6 g of Mg metal forms. Which of the following
statement (s) is/are correct?
(A) 2.96 moles of electrons are required
5
(B) 3.83 10 C charge is required
(C) 31.8 A of current is required for 2.5 hours
(D) 41.5 A of current is required for approximately 115 mins
11. A 10 mL mixture containing 0.2 g NaOH and 0.25g Na 2 CO3 was treated with xN HCl required
15 mL of it with phenolphthalein indicator. After end point a 0.5 g NaHCO3 was added and it was
again titrated with y N HCl required 25.5 mL of HCl with methyl orange. Which of the following
is/are correct?
(A) x is almost 1.5 times of y
(B) If in above titration x N HCl is replaced with y N HCl then for first end point it will require 23mL
of HCl.
(C) After first end point instead of 0.5 g if 2.5 g NaHCO3 is added and fitrated with x N HCl it will
require 65.5 mL.
(D) Only (A) and (B) are correct.
12. In which of the following pair the later species is not having higher vapour pressure at a given
temperature than former one?
(A) C 2 H 6 and C 4 H10 (B) CH 3CH 2 OH and CH 3CH 2 F
(C) Xe and I 2 (D) NH 3 and PH3
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct
A hydrated metallic salt A, light green in colour, on careful heating gives a white anhydrous residue B. B
is soluble in water and its aqueous solution reacts with NO to give a dark brown residue D and on heating
the mixture it gives two gases E and F.
13. The gaseous mixture (E + F) when passed through acidified permanganate solution, discharges
the pink colour and when passed through acidified BaCl2 solution gave a white precipitate Identify
the gasses E and F.
(A) CO2 and CO (B) NO 2 and N 2O
(C) NO and NO 2 (D) (D) SO 2 andSO3
14. A hydrated metallic salt A and its anhydrous form B respectively are:
(A) CuSO 4 .5H 2 O and CuSO 4 (B) FeSO 4 .7H 2 O and FeSO 4
(C) CaSO 4 .2H 2 O and CaSO4 (D) CaSO 4 .1/2H 2 O and CaSO4
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Strength of the sample of H 2 O 2 is generally expressed in terms of the volume strength. It means the
volume of oxygen liberated at N. T. P. by heating one volume of hydrogen peroxide. The concentration of
H 2O 2 in a solution can also be expressed as percentage of H 2O 2 in solution. Normality of this solution
can be calculated if the equivalent mass of H 2O 2 is known.
15. 25 ml of H 2O 2 solution was added to the excess of acidified KI solution. The iodine so liberated
required 40 ml of 0.1 N sodium thiosulphate solutions. Calculate the normality of H 2 O 2 solution.
(A) 0.08 (B) 0.16
(C) 0.02 (D) 0.20
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AITS-FT-II-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
H3 O
Q
KOH aq
2ClCH 2 CHO BrMgC CMgBr P other stereoisomers
Meso
Diepoxide
(having halogen) H 2 O OH
CaCO3
T
OsO
S
4
H 2 /Pd
R
Meso Meso
17. Compound S is?
CH 2OH CH2OH
H OH H OH
CH CH
(A) (B)
CH CH
HO H H OH
CH 2OH CH2OH
CH2 CH2OH
H O H OH
CH CH
(C) (D)
CH C
H OH H OH
CH2OH CH2OH
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AITS-FT-II-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
SECTION – C
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
2. Out of given chemical, number of chemicals which is/are related to Solvay process:
NH3 ,KCl,CO2 ,SO2 ,Ca OH 2 ,NaCl,H 2SO4 ,NaNO3:
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AITS-FT-II-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
4. 3d series ions:
Consider the following
Sc ,Ti ,V ,Cr ,Mn 3+ ,Fe3+ ,Co3+ ,Ni3+
3+ 3+ 3+ 3+
Find total number of ions for which all octahedral complexes are paramagnetic, irrespective of
ligand
5.
a H
x b H
y
OH
OH
OH
H
c
z d H
p
OH
Total number of products obtained in above reactions including minor products is (including
stereoisomer including stereoisomer)
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AITS-FT-II-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
SECTION – A
This section contains 08 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
n
n
3. If f n (1 2 k ) , then
k 0 k
(A) f n 2 3 f n 1 2 f n (B) f n2 3 f n 2 f n
(C) f n 2 5 f n 1 6 f n (D) f n 2 6 f n1 5 f n
4. A set contains 3n members. Let Pn be the probability that S is portioned into 3 disjoint subset
with n members in each subset such that the three largest numbers in S are in different subsets.
Then lim Pn is
n
2 1
(A) (B)
7 7
1 2
(C) (D)
9 9
Space for rough work
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AITS-FT-II-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
5. If a, b, c are in H.P. and p is the length of the perpendicular drawn from the origin to any member
of family of lines (a + c – 2ac) bx – 2acy + 7abc = 0 then p
1 9 7
(A) , (B) 0,
4 2 2
7 9
(C) (7, 9) (D) ,
2 2
6. The sides of a triangle are the roots of the cubic equation x 3 13 x 2 54 x 72 0 then the
area of the triangle in square units is
1 1
(A) 455 (B) 455
2 4
1 1
(C) 394 (D) 394
2 4
f(x) f (x)
7. f(x) is a polynomial function and (f( )2 (f ( ))2 0 then find lim where [.] denotes
x f (x) f(x)
greatest integer function.
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) –1 (D) none of these
8. f(x) and g(x) are quadratic polynomials and f(x) g(x) , x R. Also f(x)=0 have real roots.
2
Then number of distinct roots of equation h(x)h(x) (h(x)) 0 are (where h(x)=f(x)g(x)).
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
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AITS-FT-II-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
This section contains 04 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
dy dx
10. If y x and y (2) 1, then
dx dy
(A) 2 x y 3 0 (B) x3 8y 0
2
(C) x y 1 0 (D) x 4 y 0
11. If (1, 2, p ) , ( 2, 2 p , - 6) and ( 2 2, 1, 1) are the ordered triplets of form (x, y, z) which
satisfies all the equations.
x y z x y z x y z
1, 1 and 1 then can be
a b c b c a c a b
(A) 2 (B) – 2
(C) – 4 (D) 4
12. If f (x ) is a continuous and differentiable function such that f (t k ) 1 for k 1, 2, .....n, where
k
1
tk then
r 1 r ( r 1)(r 2)
1 1
(A) f 1 (B) f 1
4 2
1 1
(C) f 0 (D) f 0
2 4
Space for rough work
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct
a
Consider the function h( n) f ( x) g (nx) dx
o
1
13. Let f ( x) 2, g ( x ) | sin x |, and n , where N is natural number. If h( n ) / a is
N
independent of n for N 1, 2, 3, 4 then minimum value of a is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 12
h(1)
14. If f ( x) sin 2 x, g ( x) | cos x | then lim is equal to
a a
2 1
(A) (B)
3 3
1 1
(C) (D)
2
Paragraph for Questions 15 & 16
15. cot
1 25
(A (B)
5 4
25
(C) (D) 4
12
Space for rough work
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AITS-FT-II-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
Using three basic colours (Red, Blue, Green) different colour are made by mixing these two or more
colours in equal proportion. The n vertical stripes are painted by all colours available, such that no two
consecutive stripes have same colour.
17. The number of ways of painting n stripes such that only alternate stripes are painted by a basic
colour (n in odd) is
n 1 n 1 n 1
2 2 2
(A) 3 .4 (B) 7.12
n 1 n 1 n 1
2 2 2
(C) 3 .4 (D) 7.12
18. If n stripes are painted such that no two consecutive stripes have any basic colour common, then
number ways of pointing n stripes is
1 1
(A)
2
1 2
n 1
1 2 n 1
(B)
1 2
2
n 1
1 2 n 1
1 3
(C) 1 2
2
1 2
n n
(D)
1 2
2
1 2
n n
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1. Let L1 be the projection and L2 be the image of the z-axis in the plane 3 x 4 y z 1 0. The
distance of the point (1, 2, 3) from the plane containing the lines L1 and L2 is ……
5. Two rays begin at point A and form an angle of 43º with one another. Lines l1 , l 2 , l 3 (no two
being parallel) each form an isosceles triangle with the original rays. If º is the largest angle of
triangle formed by l1 , l 2 and l 3 then find value of 8 cos2 º 9º .
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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced), 2017
FULL TEST – II
Paper 1
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong
results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
Enrolment No.
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AITS-FT-II-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
Useful Data
PHYSICS
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
2 2
Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85 1012 C /N-m
CHEMISTRY
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AITS-FT-II-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
This section contains 08 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
1. A block of mass m is placed in contact with one end of a smooth tube of mass M (see figure). A
horizontal force F acts on the tube in each case (i) and (ii). Then mark incorrect option:
M
F m i
M
F m ii
F F
(A) a m 0 and a M in i (B) a m a M in i
M M+m
F mF
(C) a m a M in ii (D) Force on m is in ii
M+m Mm
2. Two springs, S1 and S2 , have negligible masses and the spring constant of
S1 is 1/3 that of S2 . When a block is being hanged from the springs as shown S1
above and the springs slowly come to equilibrium again, the ratio of the
potential energy stored in S1 to the S2 is: S2
(A) 1/9 (B) 1/3
(C) 1 (D) 3
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3. A trick cyclist rides his bike around a well of death in the form of a
vertical cylinder (see figure). The maximum frictional force parallel
to the surface of the cylinder is equal to a fraction µ of the normal θ
force exerted by the wall. At what minimum constant speed must Front view of
the cyclist go to avoid slipping down? (Assume that size of
Motorcycle
motorcycle is very small as compared to cylinder.
1/ 2 1/2 r
2gr cosθ gr sinθ
(A) (B)
μ 2μ
1/ 2 1/ 2
gr 2gr
(C) (D)
μ μ
6. A projectile is thrown with velocity U = 20m/s ± 5% at an angle 60°. If the projectile falls back on
the ground at the same level then which of following can not be a possible answer for range.
2
Consider g 10m/s .
(A) 39.0 m (B) 37.5 m
(C) 34.6 m (D) 32.0 m
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(A) i (B) i
t
t
(C) i (D) i
t t
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AITS-FT-II-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
This section contains 04 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
9. There is a fixed positive charge Q at O and A and B are points equidistant from O. A positive
charge + q is taken slowly by an external agent from A to B along the line AC and then along the
line CB.
Q
C
O
A B
(A) The total work done on the charge is zero
(B) The work done by the electrostatic force from A to C is negative
(C) The work done by the electrostatic force from C to B is positive
(D) The work done by electrostatic force in taking the charge from A to B is dependent on the
actual path followed.
10. In the diagram shown, a particle of charge +Q and mass M is projected making an angle β with
the vertical line. Which the possible path on which the charge will move. Above the dark line
magnetic field is B1 and below it is B2 . (Consider all possible cases for values of B1and B2 )
B1
V
β
O B2
v
(A) (B)
O
O
(C) O (D)
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11. Two particles of mass m1 and m2 are moving with velocity v1 and v1 respectively. Mark the correct
statement about a perfectly inelastic collision between m1 and m 2 .
m1m 2
(A) Impulse by m1 to m2 is v1 v 2
m1 + m 2
m1m 2
(B) Momentum transferred by m2 to m1 is v 2 v1
m1 + m 2
m1m 2
(C) Impulse by m1 on m 2 in CM frame is v 2 v1
m1 + m 2
(D) In CM frame both the particles come to rest after perfectly inelastic collision.
12. In figure, a block of mass m is released from rest when spring was in its Rod
natural length. The pulley also has mass m but it is frictionless. Suppose
the value of m is such that finally it is just able to lift the block M up after String
releasing it. m
M
(A) The weight of m required to just lift M is g
2
M
(B) The tension in the rod, when m is in has zero accelerationg
2
M
(C) The normal force acting on M when m has zero acceleration g
2
(D) The tension in the string when displacement of m is maximum possible is Mg
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct
13. What is the velocity of the cart after the first collision, in the center of mass frame?
m v0 M v0
(A) (B)
mM mM
Mm 0 2M 0
(C) v (D) v
Mm mM
14. The first collision takes place at time t1 and the second collision takes place at
t 0 till t t 2 if m M 0
2ML ML
(A) (B)
mM 2m M
2M ML
(C) L (D)
mM 2m M
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The Doppler flow meter is a particularly interesting medical application of the Doppler effect. This device
measures the speed of blood flow, using transmitting and receiving elements that are placed directly on
the skin, as in Figure. The transmitter emits a continuous sound whose frequency is typically about 5
MHz. When the sound is reflected from the red blood cells, its frequency is changed in a kind of Doppler
effect because the cells are moving with the same velocity as the blood. The receiving element detects
the reflected sound, and an electronic counter measures its frequency, which is Doppler-shifted relative to
the transmitter frequency. From the change in frequency the speed of the blood flow can be determined.
Typically, the change in frequency is around 600 Hz for flow speeds of about 0.1 m/s.
15. Assume that the red blood cell is directly moving away from the source and the receiver. What is
the (approx) speed of the sound wave in the blood?
(A) 1700 m/s (B) 330 m/s
(C) 5000 m/s (D) 3000 m/s
16. An abnormal segment of the artery is narrowed down by an arteriosclerotic plaque to one-fourth
the normal cross-sectional area. What will be the change in frequency due to reflection from the
red blood cell in that region?
(A) 150 Hz (B) 300 Hz
(C) 600 Hz (D) 2400 Hz
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B
R R
17. If A is an ideal ammeter, B an ideal Battery of voltage V, and C an ideal voltmeter, what will be
reading of C
the ?
reading of A
(A) R (B) 2R
R
(C) (D) 0
2
18. If A is a capacitor, B is an ideal ammeter and C is an ideal battery of voltage V, what is the
voltage across the capacitor ?
V
(A) V (B)
2
(C) 2V (D) 0
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1. In a slow reaction, heat is being evolved at a rate about 10mW in a liquid. If the heat were being
32
generated by the decay of P , a radioactive isotope of phosphorus that has half-life of 14 days
32
and emits only beta-particles with a mean energy of 700KeV. The number of P atoms in the
liquid is A×77 1015 find a:
[Take: ln 2 = 0.7]
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
This section contains 08 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
1. CH 3 HC CHCH 3 CH 2 P
cis triplet state
(A) P is a cis isomer (B) P is a trans isomer
(C) P is a mixture of cis and trans isomers (D) P is acyclic compound
2. BaTiO3 crystallizes in perovskite structure. This structure may be described as a cubic lattice,
with barium ions occupying the corners, oxide ions at the face centres and titanium ions in one of
the octahedral holes. Which of the following is correct about BaTiO3 crystal lattice?
4
(A) Ti must the body centred octahedral hole
4
(B) Ti must occupy the edge centred octahedral hole
4
(C) Ti must occupy any of the octahedral holes
(D) 1/4 th of the octahedral holes are occupied
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AITS-FT-II-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
5.
H3C2 CH3
i OsO4 /H2 O
(ii) NaHSO 4
P
H H
Which of the following is true about P ?
(A) P is optically inactive due to internal compensation
(B) P is optically inactive due to external compensation
(C) P is optically inactive
(D) P is optically inactive due the absence of chiral carbon.
6. O
COOD
Δ
CH2 CH3
H2O
P
1
(C) O (D) None of these
CH2CH3
OH
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AITS-FT-II-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
7. The salt having isoelectronic cation and anion among the following is
(A) NaCl (B) KF
(C) CaCl2 (D) KBr
This section contains 04 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
9. Which of the following special (s) is/ are isostructural with lF4 ?
2+
(A) Cu NH 3 4 (B) XeF4
2
(C) BF4 (D) Ni CN 4
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11. In which of the following reactions, the stiochiometric ratio of H 2SO 4 to H 2 gas is the same?
(A Zn s and H 2SO 4 (B) Na s and H 2SO 4
(C) Al s and H 2SO 4 (D) Ni s and H 2SO 4
12. Which of the following compound (s) will not dissolve in an alkali solution after it has undergone
reaction with Hinsberg’s reagent?
(A) Diethyl amine (B) Isopropyl amine
(C) N – methyl ethanamine (D) N, N – dimethyl aniline
Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct
14. The concentrations of Ag and NO3 In the right hand side compartment are.
(A) 0.08 M and 0.09 M (B) 0.75 M and 0.08M
(C) 0.01M and 0.09 M (D) 0.75 M and 0.09 M
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CH3
- + CH2 O3 /Zn
OH
+ CHCl3 Ag /
A C6 H 7 Cl B C10 H13OCl C C10 H13O3Cl
15. Compound A is
(A) (B)
Cl
Cl
(C) (D) None of these
Cl
CH3 CH3
Cl
COO- COO-
(C) CHO (D) CHO O
-
COO
CH3
Cl
COO- COO-
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Potassium dichromate is used as lab reagent and dichromate ion can be used as a primary standard in
volumetric analysis.
1 Cr 3 3 1 H 2 O;E° 1.33V
Cr2 O72 7H 3e
2 2
When H 2 O 2 is added to an acidified solution of dichromate, a complicated reaction occurs. The formation
of product depends on the pH value and concentration of dichromate ions. A deep-blue violet peroxo
compound X is formed which decomposes rapidly in aqueous solution. This compound can be extracted
in ether, where it reacts with pyridine fanning the adduct PyCro O 2 2 .
In alkaline solution K 2 Cr2 O 7 with 30% H 2 O 2 , a read – brown compound Y K 3CrO 8 is formed. In
alkaline solution the dark red – brown compound Z NH 3 3 CrO 4 is formed. In alkaline solution
dichromate ion changes to chromate ion which is also used as reagent in quantitative analysis of cations.
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AITS-FT-II-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
SECTION – C
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1. The molar heat capacity of the ideal monoatomic gas undergoing the process shown in the figure
is ‘x’. The value of ‘2x’ will be
P atm
45
2 V in L
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3. Ice crystallizes is an hexagonal lattice. At the low temperatures at which the structure was
determined, the lattice constants were a 4.53 Å and b 7.41 Å as shown in the figure. How
many H molecules are contained in a unit cell? (Given that density of ice 0.92 g / cm3 )?
90
120
4. A weak acid type indicator was found to be 60% dissociated at pH = 9.18. If the degree of
dissociation at pH = 9.0 is ‘ ’? Then the value of ‘10 ' will be log 2 0.3, log 3 0.48
5. O
CH O
4 moles of PCC
A
CH O
O
Maximum number of moles of Ac 2 O consumed by reactant A is?
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AITS-FT-II-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
SECTION – A
This section contains 08 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
1. Conditions so that equation (a1x 2 b1x c1 )(a2 x 2 b2 x c 2 ) 0, (a1a2>0) have fours real roots if
(i) c1c2>0 (ii) a1c2<0 (iii) a2c1<0
(A) only (i) is sufficient
(B) either of two statements are sufficient
(C) either of two statements are necessary and sufficient
(D) all the three statements are sufficient
2. In a ABC, the incircle touches the sides BC, CA and AB at D, E, F respectively. If radius of
incircle is 4 units and BD, CE and AF are in A.P. with common difference 1, then area of ABC is
(A) 84 sq. units (B) 42 sq. units
(C) 168 sq. units (D) data insufficient
3. Let A be the area between co-ordinate axis, y2=x–1, x2=y–1 and the line which makes the
shortest distance between two parabolas and A be the area between x=0, x 2=y–1, x=y and the
shortest distance between y2=x–1 and x2=y–1, then
1
(A) A=A (B) A (A ) 2
a b c
4. a,b,c are in G.P. and the equation (a+di)x 2+2(b+ei)x+(c+if)=0 have one real root then , , are
d e f
in, (a,b,c,d,e,fR)
(A) AP (B) GP
(C) HP (D) none of these
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p /3
5. sec x cos ec q / 3 xdx (p,q I and p+q=12)
p p p
1 1 3
tan 3 x tan 3 x tan 3 x
(A) c (B) c+ c
p p p
1 1 3
3 3 3
p
3
tan 3 x
(C) c (D) none of these
p
3
3
6. A square ABCD of a diagonal 2a is folded along the diagonal AC, so that the planes DAC, BAC
are at right angle. The shortest distance between DC and AB is
2 2a
(A) a (B)
3 3
2a
(C) (D) none of these
3
x2 dx xdx dx
7. If P 4
,Q 4
and R , then which of the following is false.
0 1 x 0 1 x 0 1 x4
(A) Q (B) P=R
4
(C) P 2Q R (D) none of these
2 2
x y
dy
8. If
3-2sin2 tdt cos tdt 0, then at x and y= is
/2 0
dx
(A) 3 (B) – 2
(C) – 3 (D) none of these
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This section contains 04 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
11. If f ( x) ax 2 bx c 0 have real roots and its coefficients are odd the integers then
(A) f ( x ) 0 always have irrational roots
p 1
(B) f 2 where p, q I
q q
(C) If a.c. 1, then equation must have atleast are root such that [] = –1, where [.] is GIF
(D) Equation have rational roots
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9x 2 4 2 1
12. The curve y (| x | 1) sgn( x 1) divides y in two parts having area A1 and
64 25
A2 (where A1 A2 ), then
A 7 A1 3
(A) 1 (B)
A2 13 A2 7
7 13
(C) A1 (D) A2
3 7
Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct
If a circle Co, with radius 1 unit touches both the axes and as well as line (L1) through P(0,4), cut the
x-axis at ( x1 , 0) . Again a circle C1 is drawn touching x-axis, line L1 and another line L2 through point
P. L2 intersects x-axis at x 2 , 0 and this process is repeated n times.
(A) 4 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) 2
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AITS-FT-II-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
f(x), g(x), h(x) all are continuous and differentiable functions in [a, b] also a<c<b and f(a)=g(a)=h(a). Point
of intersection of the tangent at x=c with chord joining x=a & x=b is on the left of c in y=f(x) and on the
right in y=h(x). And tangent at x=c is parallel to the chord in case of y=g(x).
ab
16. If c for each b, then
2
2
(A) g(x)=Ax +Bx+C (B) g(x)=log x
(C) g(x)=sin x (D) g(x)=ex
Let f: R R be a function satisfying condition f(x + y3) = f(x) + (f(y))3 x, y R and f(0) = k.
tan x
17. If |k| > 0, then lim (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function) is
x 0 f x
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) – 2 (D) none of these
3 1
18. If |k| < 0 then value of f is/are
2 5
3 1
(A) (B) 0
2 5
3 1
(C) (D) 1
2 5
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AITS-FT-II-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
SECTION – C
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1. Let M be the midpoint of sides QR of a rectangle PQRS respectively. A line through M, intersect
4
RS and PS extended at T and L respectively such that PL PS . Find the value of
3
area of MRT
20 .
area of PQRS
3 2 3
2. If the equations x 5 x px q 0 and x 7 x 2 px r 0 have two roots in common,
then find the difference of two uncommon roots.
r
3. When 2323 is divided by 53, the remainder is r. Find
10
4. The number of pairs (x, y) satisfying the equation sin x sin y sin( x y ) and | x | | y | 1
is
16 4n 4
5. The value of 33 2 is ……… (where {.} represents fractional part function)
n1 4n 1
Space for rough work
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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced)-2017
In JEE Advanced 2016, FIITJEE Students bag 36 in Top 100 AIR, 75 in Top 200 AIR, 183 in Top 500 AIR. 3541 Students from Long Term Classroom/ Integrated School
FULL TEST – I
Paper 2
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into three sections: Section-A, Section-B & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
Enrolment No.
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AITS-FT-I-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
Useful Data
PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2
Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s
Charge of electron e = 1.6 1019 C
Mass of electron me = 9.1 1031 kg
2 2
Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85 1012 C /N-m
3 3
Density of water water = 10 kg/m
Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2
Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
CHEMISTRY
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct
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AITS-FT-I-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
S R
0.01 m
5. A flywheel can rotate in order to store kinetic energy. The flywheel is a uniform disk made of a
material with a density and tensile strength (measured in Pascal’s), a radius r and a thickness
h. The flywheel is rotating at the maximum possible angular velocity so that it does not break.
Which of the following expression correctly gives the maximum kinetic energy per kilogram that
can be stored in the flywheel? (Assume that is a dimensionless constant).
(A) (B) h
r r
2
h
(C) (D)
r
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8. The figure shows a graph of the current in a RC circuit. The value of the resistance is 10. Then
R C
V
500
(A) The initial potential difference across the capacitor is volt.
n2
1
(B) The capacitance of the capacitor is F
10 n 2
100
(C) The total heat produced in the circuit will be joules
n2
1
(D) The thermal power in the resistor will decrease with a time constant second.
2 n 2
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9. Assume that there are tiny charged packets each of mass ‘m’ u q
and charge ‘q’ and they are accelerated from rest in a gravity m
R/2
free region with potential difference ‘V’ volt and then allowed to
strike a neutral fixed conducting sphere (kept at very large
distance). Packets initially move on a straight line parallel to a
line passing through the centre of the spherical conductor at a
height R/2. Then (after collision charges spreads on the
surface of the sphere)
V
(A) final potential at the sphere will be
4
3
(B) final potential of the sphere will be V
4
(C) when the potential of the sphere becomes constant after
that the total change in momentum of the charge packets
6
will be 2qVm
5
(D) self energy of the sphere once its potential becomes
9 V 2R 3
constant is
32 40 3
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of paragraph 2 multiple choice questions and based
on the other paragraphs 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has
four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct
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The following figure shows a long rough vertical wall against which a uniform rope y
with mass per unit length m and charge per unit length is held at rest by a uniform
horizontal electric field that is limited to the region y = 0 to y , where is the
2
length of the rope. The co-efficient of friction between the rope and the wall is x
12. The minimum electric field required to keep the rope in equilibrium is
mg 2mg mg 4mg
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2
13. Suppose the electric field applied extends from y = 0 to y , and has the value obtained in the
previous question. At the moment t = 0, the field starts decreasing in magnitude exponentially
with a decay constant at the moment t = 0. The time after which the rope starts slipping
1 ln2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
ln2
14. Which of the following graph represents the variation of acceleration of the rope with time for the
situation described in the above situation?
(A) (B)
a a
g g
t t
(C) (D)
a a
g g
t t
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SECTION – B
(Matrix-Match Type)
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t
in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
A p q r s t
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r,
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with B p q r s t
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as C p q r s t
illustrated in the following example:
D p q r s t
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1. Two inductors L1 (inductance 1 mH, internal resistance 3) and L2 (inductance 2 mH, internal
resistance 4) and a resistor R (resistance 12) all are connected in parallel across 5V battery.
The circuit is switched on at time t = 0. The ratio of maximum & the minimum current (Imax/Imin)
drawn from the battery is ….
2. The isotope 125 B having a mass 12.014 U undergoes -decay to 126 C . 126 C has an excited state of
the nucleus 12
6 C at 4.041 MeV above its ground state. If 12
5 B decay to 12
6 C , the maximum
V
kinetic energy of the -particle in units of MeV is (1 U = 931.5 Me , where C is sped of light in
C2
vacuum).
3
3. Two identical glass g equiconvex lenses of radius of curvature 12 cm are kept in contact.
2
4
The space between the two lenses is filled with water . Find the focal length (in cm) of
3
the combination.
4. The end of a capillary tube (glass) with radius r is immersed into water. What amount of heat in
joule will be evolved when the water rises in the tube? Take surface tension, T where is
density of water.
5. A source emitting sound of frequency f 0 is moving B
along a circle of radius 3R. An observer is fixed at a
distance 4R from the centre as shown in the figure.
The source is moving with uniform angular velocity
0. The ratio of frequencies corresponding to point A (3R)
13x (O)
and B as observed by the observer is . The
24 4R
value of x is (V = 300 m/s, R = 1 m and 0 = 5 rad/s)
A
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct
2.
For the reversible reaction: A 1
K -1 -1
; K1 = 0.02 min and K2 = 0.03 min . The reaction is started
K 2
with A only, the half life of such reaction is defined as the time in which half of the equilibrium
amount of B is formed. What is half life of reaction? n2 0.693
(A) (B) 34.65 min (C) 0.693 min (D) 13.86 min
3. O
NH2OH
HCl
The major product of following reaction is
(A) Cl (B) OH
N
(C) O (D) OH
+
N
N
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4. During extraction of Fe
(A) carbon is ultimately converted to CO2 in combustion zone in blast furnace
(B) CO2 is one of the by-products of reduction zone of blast furnace
(C) cast iron is obtained from blast furnace
(D) uppermost zone of blast furnace is slag formation zone.
5. An element crystallizes in FCC lattice having edge length 500 pm. Calculate the maximum
diameter which can be placed in interstitial sites without disturbing the structure.
(A) 126 pm (B) 146.35 pm (C) 138.45 pm (D) 117.1 pm
6. Photons having energy equivalent to binding energy of 4th state He+ ion is used to the metal
surface of work function 1.4 eV. If electrons are further accelerated through the potential
difference of 4 volt than the minimum value of de – Broglie wavelength associated with the
electron is
0 0 0 0
(A) 5 A (B) 9.15 A (C) 1.1A (D) 11A
O NH2 NH2
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9. A solution of colourless salt (X) on boiling with excess NaOH produces a non-flammable gas. The
gas evolution ceases after sometime. Upon addition of Zn dust to the same solution, the gas
evolution restarts. The colourless salt(s) is/are
(A) NH4NO3 (B) NH4NO2 (C) NH4Cl (D) (NH4)2SO4
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of paragraph 2 multiple choice questions and based
on the other paragraphs 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has
four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct
The total pressure exerted in ideal binary solution is given by P PA0 XA PB0 XB where PA0 and PB0 are the
respective vapour pressure of pure components and XA and XB are their mole fraction in liquid phase. The
composition of the vapour phase is determined with the help of Dalton’s law of partial pressure:
P0 X
YA = A A .
P
5400
If total pressure exerted in an ideal binary solution is given by P mm of Hg then
60 30YA
The reaction of a phosphorus ylide with an aldehyde/ketone introduces a carbon-carbon double bond in
place of the carbonyl bond. This type of reaction is called wittig reaction.
R R A
- A
C O C + B
C C Ph3 P O +
R' R' B
+ PPh3
12. CH2
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13. O
Ph - Li
H3C C (CH2)4 PPh3 (A). Major product (A) is
(B) CH2
(A)
(C) (D)
SECTION – B
(Matrix-Match Type)
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t
in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
A p q r s t
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r,
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with B p q r s t
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as C p q r s t
illustrated in the following example:
D p q r s t
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
Z1
(t)
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AITS-FT-I-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
2. Match the reactions given in column I with the intermediates involved given in column II
Column – I Column – II
N2Cl Cl
Br2/CCl4
(B) H3C CH CH2 H3C CH CH2Br (q) Carbanion intermediate
Br
Cl
CHCl3 + KOH
(C) (r) Free radical intermediate
N N
Cl OH
NO2 NO2
1. NaOH, , 300 atm
(D) (s) Carbene intermediate
+
2. H
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
x
1. Total number of stereoisomers of a complex of the type [MABCDEF] is x then the value of is
5
-1 2 -1
2. The molar conductance of 0.001M CH3COOH is 50 ohm cm mol . The maximum value of
molar conductance of CH3COOH is 250 ohm-1 cm2 mol-1. If value of ionization constant (Ka) of
CH3COOH is x 10 y then x – y = ……………..
3. Malonic acid (X) when heated with P4O10 undergoes dehydration to produce compound (A) which
o
is a bad smelling gas. (A) when heated at 200 C decomposes into gas (B) leaving behind a black
residue (C). Hydrolysis of compound (A) reproduces (X). The completely neutralized salt of (X)
with NaOH when subjected to dry distillation with soda lime produce a gas (Y). What is the sum
of total number of atoms in each of one molecule of gas (B) & (Y).
4. How many of the following salts are white and soluble in dilute HNO3?
BaCrO4, Hg2CrO4, ZnS, BaSO4, BaS2O3, CH3COOAg, AgNO2
5. How many of the following give white precipitate with aqueous AgNO3 solution?
Cl Cl Cl
Cl
Cl Cl HO Cl Cl
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bc ca ab
1. Let a, b, c be the side of a triangle such that S where S is the semi
bc ca ab
perimeter of the triangle. Then triangle is
(A) equilateral (B) scalene
(C) isosceles (D) right angled isosceles
2 x 2 4 x 4 2 x3 4 x 5
2. If a 1 ... and b x .... where is non real cube root of unity,
2! 4! 3! 5!
then
2
ex e x 1 1 3
(A) a2 b2 2 1 0 (B) a (C) a2 b2 2 1 0 (D) a 3 b 3
2
3. Which of the following correctly represents the number of ways of choosing triplet (x, y, z) such
that z > max {x, y} and x, y, z {1, 2, …., n + 1}
(i) n 1C3 n 2 C3 (ii) n 1 C2 2 n 1C3
(iii) 12 + 22 + … + n2 (iv) 2 n 2 C3 n 1C2
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
99
aiai 1
4. If a1, a2, …, a100 are in HP then value of aa
i 1
is
1 100
(A) 96 (B) 97 (C) 99 (D) 101
1 x x x2
5. Let x 1 x x 2 ax 5 bx 4 cx 3 dx 2 ex f then
x2 x 1 x
(A) f = 1, e = 3 (B) f = 3, e = - 3 (C) f = 3, e = - 1 (D) f = - 3, e = - 1
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6. In a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD, if AB2 + CD2 = 4R2, R is the radius of the circumcircle, then the
diagonals of the quadrilaterals are
(A) equal (B) perpendicular (C) bisecting (D) none of these
7.
If the composite function f1 f2 f3 ..... fn x is an increasing function and if r of fi s are
decreasing function while rest are increasing, then maximum value of r(n – r) is
n2 1 n2
(A) when n is an even number (B) when n is an odd number
4 4
n2 1 n2
(C) when n is odd number (D) when n is even number
4 4
8. If two concentric ellipse be such that the focus of one be on the other and their major axes be
equal. Let e1 and e2 be their eccentricities, then
(A) the quadrilateral formed by joining the foci of the two ellipse is a parallelogram
1 1 1
(B) then angle between their axis is given by cos 2
2 2 2
e1 e2 e1 e2
(C) if e12 e22 1 then angle between the axes of the two ellipse is 90o
(D) the area of quadrilateral = a 2 e12 e22 e12 e22 1
2
9. If Un cosn x cosnx dx then
0
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of paragraph 2 multiple choice questions and based
on the other paragraphs 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has
four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct
Cauchy mean value theorem states that if two functions f and g are
(i) continuous in [a, b]
(ii) differentiable in (a, b)
(iii) g x 0 for any x (a, b)
f b f a f c
then there exists at least one point c (a, b) such that
g b g a g c
sin sin
10. Suppose , and are angles satisfying 0 then
2 cos cos
(A) tan (B) tan (C) cot (D) cot
f b f a
11. If f(x) is continuous in [a, b] differentiable in (a, b) and c a,b , then equals
b3 a3
f c
(A) 3c 2 .f c (B) (C) f c .f c (D) 3c 2 f c .f c
3c 2
There are two friends Ranchod and Chatur in the fourth year of their study. They promised each other to
meet at a particular place after some year on a fixed date between 5 PM & 6 PM. Any of the two who
reaches the decided place first, waits for another ten minutes for the other to come. Based on the above
passage, answer the following:
12. What is the probability the meeting happens if both reach the place between 5 PM & 6 PM?
1 11 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) none
6 18 3
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13. Chatur has got a very good job offer in the college, while Ranchod doesn’t get any job offer in the
college. Ranchod agrees to meet only if he gets a job before the meeting time. It is given that
‘Ranchod would get a job’ and ‘Ranchod would not get a job’ are equally likely. What is the
probability that they meet, if other conditions remains the same?
11 11 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36 72 6 12
14. If Ranchod reaches the decided place after 5:10 PM and it is known that meeting happens, what
is the probability that the meeting happens before 5:30 PM, if the remaining conditions remain the
same?
1 1 8
(A) (B) (C) (D) none
9 3 19
SECTION – B
(Matrix-Match Type)
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t
in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
A p q r s t
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r,
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with B p q r s t
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as C p q r s t
illustrated in the following example:
D p q r s t
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1 2 2
1. If 3A 2 1 2 and A is an orthogonal matrix then the product of a and b is equal to ..
a 2 b
sin3 d
2. 2 tan1 f c then the least value of f() for allowable values of
cos cos3 cos 2 cos
2
is equal to …
3. Tangent at P1(2, 3) on the curve 3y = x 3 + 1 meets the curve again at P2. The tangent at P2 meet
the curve at P3 and so on. If the sum of the ordinates for P1, P2, …, + P60 be S then
2183 8
S
27 is equal
5
4. The sum of infinite terms of the GP a + ar + …. + …, where a is the value of x for which the
x t 2 dt
function 7 2x ln25 5x 1 52 x has the greatest value and r lim 2 is equal to
x 0 0 x tan x
5. The number of values of x such that x, [x], {x} are in HP where [.] denotes greatest integer
function and { } denotes fractional part function is equal to
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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced)-2017
In JEE Advanced 2016, FIITJEE Students bag 36 in Top 100 AIR, 75 in Top 200 AIR, 183 in Top 500 AIR. 3541 Students from Long Term Classroom/ Integrated School
FULL TEST – I
Paper 1
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into three sections: Section-A, Section-B & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
Enrolment No.
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
2 2
Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85 1012 C /N-m
CHEMISTRY
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct
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4. The activity of a radioactive sample goes down to about 6% in a time of 2 hours. The half life of
sample in minutes is about
(A) 30 (B) 15 (C) 60 (D) 120
5. A particle of charge q and mass m starts moving from the origin under the action of an electric
field E E0 ˆi and magnetic field B B0 kˆ its velocity at (x, 3, 0) is 4iˆ 3ˆj . The value of x is
36E0B 0 25m 10m 25E 0B 0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
qm 2qE0 qE0 m
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7. In a resonance tube experiment to determine speed of sound , air column in the pipe is made to
resosnate with a given fork of frequency 480 Hz. At room temperature T using a resonance tube
a student finds two resonance position 16.0 cm and 51.0 cm, length of the air column for the first
and the second resonance respectively .It is known that speed of the sound at 273K is equal to
330 m/s.Then,
4
(A) percentage error in the measurement of speed of sound is %
7
(B) diameter of the tube is 5 cm
(C) temperature of the room T is nearly 283 K
8
(D) percentage error in the determination of T is %
7
9. A net non-zero external force acts on a system of particles. At an instant t, the velocity and the
acceleration of CM are found to be u0 and a0, it is possible that
(A) u0 = 0, a0 = 0 (B) u0 0, a0 0
(C) u0 0, a0 = 0 (D) u0 = 0, a0 0
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of paragraph 2 multiple choice questions and based
on the other paragraphs 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has
four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct
A disc of mass m and radius R is attached with a spring of force constant K at its centre as shown in
figure. At x = 0 spring is unstretched. The disc is moved to x = A and then released. There is no slipping
between disc and ground. Let f be the force of friction on the disc from the ground.
A
k
x=0 x=A
t t
(C) f (D) f
t t
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11. In the problem if k = 10 N/m, m = 2 kg, R = 1 m and A = 2 m. Find linear speed of the disc at
mean position.
40 10 50
(A) m/sec (B) 20 m/sec (C) m/sec (D) m/sec
3 3 3
A standing wave y 2 A sin kx cos t set up in a wire AB fixed at both ends by two vertical wall
contains a constant magnetic field B. Now answer the following questions.
B
A x
12. The wire is found to vibrate in 3rd harmonic the maximum e.m.f induced is
4AB 3AB 2AB AB
(A) (B) (C) (D)
k k k k
13. In above question the time when the e.m.f becomes maximum for first time is
2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4
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SECTION – B
(Matrix-Match Type)
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t
in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
A p q r s t
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r,
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with B p q r s t
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as C p q r s t
illustrated in the following example:
D p q r s t
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
1. A car is taking a turn on a rough horizontal road without slipping as shown in figure. Let F is
centripetal force, f the force of friction, N1 and N2 are two normal reactions. As the speed of car is
increased match the following two columns
N1 N2
turn
Column – I Column – II
(A) N1 (p) Will increase
(B) N2 (q) Will decrease
(C) F/f (r) Will remains unchanged
(D) F (s) Cannot say anything
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2. In the circuit shown in figure, switch remains closed for long time. It is opened at time t = 0. Match
the following columns at t = ln2 sec
a b
9H
9 Volt
d c
Column – I Column – II
(A) Potential difference across inductor (p) 9V
4.5 V
6V
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
2. An particle and proton are accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 100 V. After this
their de-Broglie wavelengths are and p respectively. The ratio p to the nearest integer is
4. A sphere of mass M and radius r rolls without slipping on a rough concave surface of large radius
k 1 R r
R. It makes small oscillation about lowest point. Find the value of k if time period is
5g
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct
2. Sea water is found to contain 5.85% NaCl and 9.50% MgCl2 by weight of solution. Calculate its
normal boiling point assuming 80% ionization for NaCl and 50% ionization of MgCl2.
K 0.51 kg mol1 K
b H2 O
(A) 102.29oC (B) 102.92 oC
o
(C) 101.59 C (D) 101 oC
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AITS-FT-I-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
crystallisation
t s
Mg anhydrous MgCl 2 r
Which of the following option describes the correct reactant, products and reaction conditions?
p q r s t
Heating in
Milk of Reduction by
(A) HCl (aq) MgCl2.2H2O limited supply of
magnesia coke
air
Electrolytic
Heating in
(B) Lime water HCl (aq) MgCl2 reduction in
absence of air
molten state
Heating in Electrolytic
(C) Milk of lime HCl (aq) MgCl2.6H2O presence of dry reduction in
HCl molten state
Heating in the Electrolysis of
(D) Milk of lime HCl (aq) MgCl2.6H2O presence of dry aqueous
HCl solution
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7. Pick out the correct statements among the following from inspection of standard reduction
potentials
Cl2 aq 2e
2Cl aq E
o
1.36 Volt
Cl2 /Cl
Br2 aq 2e
2Br
aq EoBr 1.09 Volt
2 /Br
I2 aq 2e o
2I aq EI /I 0.54 Volt
2
S 2 O82 aq 2e 2 o
2SO 4 aq ES O2 /SO2 2.00 Volt
2 8 4
8. Which of the following statement(s) are true about Z Vs P graph for a real gas at a particular
temperature
behaviour of most
Z real gases
P
x
dZ
0
dP
(A) Z 1 as P 0 for most real gases
dz
(B) is –ve as P 0 for most real gases
dp
dz
(C) 0 at a pressure where replusive and attractive forces are comparable
dp
(D) at point x, intermolecular attractive forces dominating over repulsive forces
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9. Saturated solution of SO2 is heated at 150oC in a closed container. The product obtained is
treated with BaCl2 solution. What is/are the observation(s)?
(A) no ppt. (B) white turbidity (C) evolution of SO2 (D) white ppt.
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of paragraph 2 multiple choice questions and based
on the other paragraphs 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has
four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct
Paragraph for Question Nos. 10 and 11
In the presence of excess base and excess halogen a methyl ketone is converted first into a trihalo
substituted ketone and then into a carboxylic acid. After the trihalo substituted ketone is formed hydroxide
ion attacks the carboxyl carbon because the trihalomethyl ion is the group more easily expelled from the
tetrahedral intermediate. The conversion of a methyl ketone to a carboxylic acid is called a haloform
reaction because one of the product is haloform CHCl3 or CHI3 or CHBr3.
-
-
O O
-
OH (excess) OH
R C CH3 R C CI 3 R C CI 3
I2 (excess)
O OH
-
R C O + HCI 3 R C OH + CI 3
O O
10. Et
(I) I2/OH-
Ph C C C CH3 Product is
(II) H+
O Me O (III)
(A) Me (B) Ph C CH Me
Ph C C COOH O Et
O Et
(C) Ph C O CH Et (D) Ph C CH OEt
O Me O Me
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11. OH
NaOI
X + CHI 3
(yellow)
OH
X is
(A) O (B) O
ONa ONa
COONa COONa
(C) O (D) O
ONa COCH3
COCH3 COCH3
K2
2C
K1 1
Where , initially only 2 moles of A are present
K2 2
12. The total number of moles of A, B & C at the end of 50% reaction are
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
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SECTION – B
(Matrix-Match Type)
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t
in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
A p q r s t
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r,
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with B p q r s t
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as C p q r s t
illustrated in the following example:
D p q r s t
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
Column – I Column–II
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
(A) C2H5 OH/ (p) SN1
H3C C C C Cl H3C C C C CH2
+
CH3 CH3 CH3
H3C C C C OC 2H5
CH3 CH3 CH3
H Cl Reflux
H H
(D) NaOH/ (s) E2
Ph C CH2 CH CH3 Ph C CH CH CH3
O OH O
(t) SN2
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Column – I Column - II
(A) Reversible adiabatic compression (p) Ssystem > 0
(B) Reversible vaporization (q) Ssystem < 0
(C) Adiabatic free expansion of ideal gas in vaccum (r) Ssurrounding < 0
(D) Dissociation of (s)
Ssurrounding = 0
CaCO3 s CaO s CO2 g
(t) Ssystem = 0
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
2. 4 g isolated Ca atom in gaseous state is provided a total energy of 50 kJ. The molar ratio of
Ca+/Ca+2 ions produced is x/y then x + y = …….
IE1 of Ca = 400 kJ/mole and IE2 of Ca = 700 kJ/mole
3. The oxidation state of metal in Fehling solution, on the reaction with benzaldehyde changes by
……. units.
4. A decapeptide (Mol. wt. 796) on complete hydrolysis gives glycine (mol. wt. 75), alanine and
phenylalanine. Glycine contributes 47% to the total weight of the hydrolysed products. The
number of glycine units present in the decapeptide is
5. PDI (poly dispersity index) for natural polymers is generally close to …..
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1. P1 is a parabola y2 = 4ax, and P2 is a parabola given by y2 = 4b(x + a). P2 passes through A and
B which are points of intersection of P1 and line x = a. If T is the point of intersection of tangents
to P1 at A and B, and R is the point of intersection of normal at A and B to P2 the area of
quadrilateral TARB is
(A) 5 a2 (B) 2 5 a2 (C) 3a2 (D) 6a2
dy y sin x y xy cos x y x 2 y 2
2. The solution of the differential equation .
dx x sin x y xy cos x y x 2 y 2
(A) xy sin x y c1 (B) xy sin x y c1 c 2 ; c1,c 2 are related
2 2
(C) x y sin x y c1 (D) x 2 y 2 sin x y c 1 c 2 ; c 1,c 2 are related
4. In a matrix A 4 4 , an ant starts moving from a11 in such a way that it can move from aij to either
ai 1 j or ai j1 in one step. If it reaches a44, the probability that it passes through a23 is
5. 2
If K R, 10K. xlog10 x K log10 x 1 1 . The maximum number of solutions of the equation for ‘x’ is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4
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7. A square is inscribed in a circle. If is the probability that a randomly chosen point of the circle
lies within the square and is the probability that the point lies outside the square, then
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of paragraph 2 multiple choice questions and based
on the other paragraphs 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has
four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct
Paragraph for Question Nos. 10 and 11
2 2 2 4 2
A circle C1 touches the circle x + y – a = 0 at A internally and the parabolas y – 16x = 0 at B and C
externally.
Let 1, 2 ,...., n be the roots of the equation f x xn p1xn1 ..... pn 1x pn 0
f x n f x
x i
x n 1 i p1 x n 2 2i ip1 p2 x n 3 ... Then x
i 1
f x is an identity where
i
df x
f x
dx
5
12. If f(x) = x 5 px 3 qx t 0, i3
i1
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3 2
13. If f(x) = x – 2x + x – 1 and i , i = 1, 2, 3 are three roots of f(x) = 0 then 3i is equal to
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
SECTION – B
(Matrix-Match Type)
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given p q r s t
in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are
A p q r s t
labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r,
s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with B p q r s t
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as C p q r s t
illustrated in the following example:
D p q r s t
If the correct matches are A – p, s and t; B – q and r; C – p and q; and D – s
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
Kx, x0
f x x x , x 0,4 has local minima at x = 0 and x = 4, then
(D) K 8 (s) 6
2
x 4 , x 4
2
possible value of |K|, which are integer
(t) 8
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1. If the number of ordered triplets (a, b, c) such that L.C.M (a, b) = 1000, L.C.M (b, c) = 2000 and
L.C.M (c, a) = 2000 be N then sum of digits of N is/are _______________
2.
If arg z2n n2 1 zn 1 knarg z , |z| = 1, n N then k equal …
e x e x , x0
3. If f x then the number of solution of the equation
log10 100 x , x 0,100
1 2
f x e x
e e
4. The equation of a plane which passes through the line of intersection of the planes x + y + z – 1 =
0 and x – y + z – 3 = 0 and which is at maximum distance from the point (3, 4, 5) is ax + by + cz –
abc
d = 0, the value of is
d
2 p
5. The quadratic equation 2x - 5x + p = 0 has roots equal to 2sin1 and 3 sin1 , then
equals, [ . ] denotes greatest integer function.
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CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST - IV
Paper 2
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.
(i) Section-A (01 to 06) contains 6 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-A (07 to 14) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 2 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-A (15 – 18) contains 4 Paragraph Type questions: Each question has FOUR options
(A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct. Each question carries +3
marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
Enrolment No.
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2
CHEMISTRY
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
1. A particle is projected from a point O with velocity u in a direction making an angle with the
horizontal. At P, it is moving at right angles to its initial direction of projection. Its speed at P is
(A) u tan (B) u cot
(C) u cosec (D) u sec
mv 2 mv 2
(A) (B)
2k k
mv 2
(C) (D) none of these
3k
3. A block of mass 20 kg and volume 103 cm3 is suspended vertically from a ceiling by a wire. The
linear mass density of the wire is 5 10–3 kg/m and its length is 50 cm. The wire is vibrating in its
fundamental mode and producing beats with a tuning fork of frequency 190 Hz. When the block
is just completely immersed in a liquid and vibrated in its fundamental mode, it produces the
same number of beats with tuning fork as earlier. Density of the liquid is (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 3.8 gm/cm3 (B) 7.6 gm/ cm3
3
(C) 1.9 gm/ cm (D) 5.0 gm/ cm 3
4. A vertical cylinder with a massless piston filled with one mole of an ideal gas. The piston can
move freely without friction. The piston is slowly raised so that the gas expands isothermally at
temperature 300 K. The amount of work done in increasing the volume by two times is
25
(R J/mol/K , loge 2 =0.7)
3
(A) 1750 J (B) 2500 J
(C) 750 J (D) 4250 J
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5. In Young’s double slit experiment, double slit of separation 0.1 cm is illuminated by white light. A
coloured interference pattern is formed on a screen 100 cm away. If a pin hole is located on this
screen at a distance of 2 mm from the central fringe, the wavelength in the visible spectrum which
will be absent in the light transmitted through the pin-hole are
(A) 5714 Å and 4444 Å (B) 6000 Å and 5000 Å
(C) 5500 Å and 4500 Å (D) 5200 Å and 4200 Å
6. The figure shows the variation of photo current with anode Photo current
potential for a photo-sensitive surface for three different
radiations. Let Ia, Ib and Ic be the intensities and fa, fb and fc c
be the frequencies for the curves a, b and c respectively; b a
(A) fa fb and I a I b
(B) fa fc and Ia IC
O Anode potential
(C) fa fb and I a Ib
(D) f b f c and Ib Ic
7. A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude which is always perpendicular to the
velocity of the particle. The motion of the particle takes place in a plane. It follows that
(A) its velocity is constant (B) its acceleration is constant
(C) its kinetic energy is constant (D) it moves in a circular path
8. A rod of mass ' M m' carries an insect of mass ‘m’ at its bottom end
and its top end is connected with a string which passes over a smooth
pulley and the other end of the string is connected to a counter mass M.
Initially the insect is at rest. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) As insect starts moving up relative to rod, the acceleration of centre of M
mass of the system (insect + rod + counter mass) becomes non-zero M m
(B) As insect starts moving up relative to rod, tension in the string remains
constant and is equal to Mg. m
(C) As insect starts moving up relative to rod, the tension in the string becomes more than Mg.
(D) Acceleration of centre of mass of the system (insect + rod +counter mass) is zero when insect
moves with constant velocity.
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9. A particle of mass m moves in a straight line. If v is the velocity at a distance x from a fixed point
2 2
on the line and v a bx , where a and b are constant, then
(A) The motion continues along the positive x-direction only
(B) The motion is simple harmonic
b
(C) The particle oscillates with a frequency equal to
2
(D) The total energy of the particle is ma
10. 10 gms of ice at 00C is mixed with 5 gms of steam at 1000C. If latent heat of fusion of ice is 80
cal/gm and latent heat of vaporization is 540 cal/gm. Then at thermal equilibrium
(A) temperature of mixture is 00C
(B) temperature of mixture is 1000C
(C) mixture contains 13.33 gms of water and 1.67 gms of steam
(D) mixture contains 5.3 gms of ice and 9.7 gms of water
11. In the given circuit the value of m is varying. The correct statements x
about the circuit are +
(A) The condition for maximum current flowing from x is m =2.
V mr
(B) The maximum current is . mr
2r V
(C) The condition for maximum current flowing from x is m = 2.
(r/m)
3V
(D) The maximum current is . y
2r –
12. Two straight conducting rails form a right angle where their ends are
joined. A conducting bar in contact with the rails start at the vertex at
t 0 and moves with a constant velocity v along them as shown. A
magnetic field B is directed into the page. The induced emf in the v
circuit at any time t is proportional to
(A) t 0 (B) t
(C) v (D) v 2
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13. The value of d for which the final image coinside with the object is/are:
f 15 cm R 20cm
O
30cm d
(A) 10 cm (B) 20cm
(C) 30 cm (D) 40cm
14. Hydrogen gas absorbs radiations of wavelength 0 and consequently emit radiations of 6 different
wavelengths of which two wavelengths are shorter than 0. Choose the correct statement(s).
(A) The final excited state of the atom is n = 4
(B) The initial state of the atom may be n = 2
(C) The initial state of the atom may be n = 3
(D) There are three transitions belonging to Lyman series.
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct
Two capacitors of capacity 6 F and 3F are charged to 100V and 50V separately and connected as
shown in figure. Now all the three switches S1, S2 and S3 are closed.
6F 3F
1 +– 2 3 +– 4
+ –– + ––
+ S2 +
100V 50V
S1
S3
200V
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16. Suppose q1, q2 and q3 be the magnitudes of charges flown from switches S1, S2 and S3 after they
are closed. Then
q2
(A) q1 q 3 and q2 = 0 (B) q 1 q 3
2
(C) q1 q 3 2q 2 (D) q1 q 2 q 3
In physics laboratory, Peter is trying to calculate the focal lengths of a convex lens. He measures the
distance between a screen and a light source lined up on the optical bench to be 120 cm. When Peter
shifts the convex lens along the axis of optical bench, sharp images of the source is obtained at two lens
positions. He also measures the ratio of these two magnifications to be 1 : 9.
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
+ NaHCO3 + CO H O
2 2
NO2 NO2
(C)
+ NH4
+ + NH3
N N
N H N
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4. The stopping potentials in an experiment of photoelectric effect are V1 and V2 , with incident light
of wavelength and respectively. The correct relation between V1 and V2 may be:
2
(A) V2 2V1 V1 (B) V1 V2 2V1
(C) V2 2V1 (D) V2 2V1
5. Cl Cl
Cl Cl
The dipole moment of is 1.5 D . The dipole moment of is :
Cl Cl Cl
Cl
(A) zero (B) 1.5 D
(C) 2.6 D (D) 2.12 D
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
7. Which of the following relation is/are correct about NaCl structure ( a is the edge length and r is
the radius of atom)?
(A) a 2 rCl
(B)
2 a 4 rCl
(C) a 2 rCl rNa
(D) Cl ions have expended fcc arrangement
Space for rough work
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Et Me Me Et
H3C (D) HO N
(C)
C NOH N OH
H3C
CH3
H (B) C C C C
NO2
O2N
(C) H3C CH3
(D)
CH3
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct
Assume that water vapour behaves as an ideal gas and the volume occupied by the liquid water is
negligible compared to the volume of the container. A sample of liquid water of mass 3 g is injected into
an evacuated 76 L flask maintained at 320 K. At this temperature the vapour pressure of water is 32 mm
of Hg:
Now give the answers to following questions:
15. What % of the water will be vaporised, when the system comes to equilibrium:
(A) 18% (B) 73%
(C) 30% (D) 64%
16. What should be the minimum volume of the flask if no liquid water is to be present at equilibrium?
(A) 174L (B) 150L
(C) 104L (D) 126L
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White phosphorus is a tetra atomic solid P4 s at room temperature and on strong heating in absence
of oxygen, it polymerizes into red phosphorus as:
P P P
P P P P P P H=-104KJ/mol of P4
P P P
White g red g
The enthalpy of sublimation P4 s
P4 g white is 59 KJ/mol and enthalpy of atomization is
316.25 KJ/mol of P g .
Now give the answers of following questions:
18. The P P bond enthalpy in red phosphorus joining the two tetrahedral is:
(A) 201KJ (B) 104 KJ
(C) 305 KJ (D) 80 KJ
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SECTION – A
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
1. If z0 =
1 i
2
2
n
, then the value of the product 1 z 0 1 z 02 1 z 20 ..........1 z 20 must be
2 n 1 1
(A) 2 (B) 1 i 1 n , if n 1
22
5
(C) 1 i , if n 1 (D) 0
4
N
2. Let N be any four digit number say x 1 x2 x3 x4. Then maximum value of is equal
x1 x 2 x3 x 4
to
1111
(A) 1000 (B)
4
(C) 800 (D) None of these
e cot x
3. sin2 x [2 ln cosec x + sin 2x] dx is equal to
4. Let P be any moving point on the circle x 2 + y2 2x = 1. AB be the chord of contact of this point
w.r.t the circle x 2 + y2 2x = 0. The locus of the circumcentre of the triangle CAB, (C being centre
of the circles) is
(A) 2x2 + 2y2 4x + 1 = 0 (B) x2 + y2 4x + 2 = 0
(C) x2 + y2 4x + 1 = 0 (D) 2x2 + 2y2 4x + 3 = 0
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sin 1 x tan 1 x
6. lim is equal to
x 0 x3
1 1
(A) (B)
6 2
1
(C) 2 (D)
2
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
7. Consider the equation tan (5 cos ) = cot (5 sin ) for (0, 2), then
(A) number of real solution is 28 (B) number of real solution is 14
2n 1 2n 1
(C) sin + cos = (D) sin – cos =
10 10
8. Three straight lines are drawn through a point ‘P’ lying in the interior of the ABC and parallel to
its sides. The areas of the three resulting triangles with P as the vertex are s1, s2 and s3 then area
of ABC =
2
(A) s1 s2 s3 (B) (s1 + s2 + s3)
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1 0
10. The square roots of the matrix are
0 1
1 0 1 0
(A) (B)
0 1 0 1
1 0 1 1
(C) (D)
0 1 1 1
1 | x |
11. Range of the function f ( x ) contains
2 | x |
(A) [0,1) (B) [1, 2)
(C) (1, 2) (D) (2, )
13. Equation of plane through A(1,0, 0), B (0,1, 0) and making an angle with the plane x y 3
4
can be
(A) x y 2 z 1 (B) x y 2 z 1
(C) x y 2 z 1 (D) x y 2 z 1
9
14. If the area bounded by the curve y x x 2 and the line y = mx equals . Then the value of
2
m is:
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 2 (D) 4
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct
16. Locus of focus of variable ellipse(E) when major axis is parallel to x–axis, is
3
(A) x, y /
2
| x 1 | 3 and y 2 (B) x, y / 0 | x | 3 and y 2
(C) x , y / 0 | x 1 | 3 and y 2 (D) x , y / 0 | x 1 | 3 and y 2
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Let S = {1, 2, 3,…..n} be a set and two numbers x and y are drawn with replacement from S. Let Pk be the
probability that x2 – y2 is divisible by k & [x] denotes greatest integer less than or equal to x.
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In JEE Advanced 2016, FIITJEE Students bag 36 in Top 100 AIR, 75 in Top 200 AIR, 183 in Top 500 AIR. 3541 Students from Long Term Classroom/ Integrated School Program & 4423
FIITJEE JEE (Advanced), 2017
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST - IV
Paper 1
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-C.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
Section-A (06 to 13) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 2 mark for wrong
answer.
(ii) Section-C (01 to 05) contains 5 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer,
ranging from 0 to 9. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative
marking.
Enrolment No.
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
CHEMISTRY
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 5. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
1. Two trains A and B are moving on same track in opposite direction with velocity 25 m/s and
15m/s respectively. When separation between them becomes 225 m, drivers of both the trains
apply brakes producing uniform retardation in train A while retardation of train B increases linearly
3
with time at the rate of 0.3 m/s . The minimum retardation of train A to avoid collision will be
2
(A) 2 m/s (B) 2.5 m/s2
2
(C) 2.25 m/s (D) 2.75 m/s2
3. An artificial satellite of mass m is moving in a circular orbit at a height equal to the radius R of the
earth. Suddenly due to internal explosion the satellite breaks into two parts of equal masses. One
part of the satellite stops just after the explosion. The increase in the mechanical energy of the
system (satellite + earth) due to explosion will be
(Given: acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g)
mgR
(A) mgR (B)
2
mgR 3mgR
(C) (D)
4 4
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4. The equation of a particle executing SHM is given by x 3 cos t cm, where t is in second.
2
The distance travelled by the particle in the first 8.5 s is
3 3
(A) 24 cm (B) 27 cm
2 2
3 3
(C) 24 cm (D) 27 cm
2 2
5. n identical charged particles are placed on the vertices of a regular polygon of n sides of side
length a. One of the charge particle is released from polygon. When this particle reaches a far of
distance, another particle adjacent to the first particle is released. The difference of kinetic
energies of both the particles at infinity is k. Magnitude of charge is
k
(A) 40 ak (B)
40a
k
(C) (D) ka
a
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
7. A body moving towards a finite body at rest collides with it. It is possible that
(A) both the bodies come to rest
(B) both the bodies move after collision
(C) the moving body comes to rest and the stationary body starts moving
(D) the stationary body remains stationary; the moving body changes its velocity
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8. An object is floating in a liquid, kept in a container. The container is placed in a lift. Choose the
correct option(s)
(A) Buoyant force increases as lift accelerates up
(B) Buoyant force decreases as lift accelerates up
(C) Buoyant force remains constant as lift accelerates
(D) The fraction of solid submerged into liquid does not change
9. A standing wave of time period T is set up in a string clamped between two rigid supports. At t = 0
antinode is at its maximum displacement 2A.
(A) The energy of a node is equal to energy of an antinode for the first time at t = T/8.
(B) The energy of node and antinode becomes equal after every T/2 second.
T
(C) The displacement of the particle of antinode at t is 2A .
8
(D) The displacement of the particle of node is zero.
10. Charges Q1 and Q2 lie inside and outside respectively of a closed Gaussian surface S. Let E be
the field at any point on S and be the flux of E over S:
(A) If Q1 changes, both E and will change
(B) If Q2 changes E will change
(C) If Q1 0 and Q2 0 then E 0 but 0
(D) If Q1 0 and Q2 0 then E 0 but 0
11. Two circular coils of radii 5 cm and 10 cm carry equal currents of 2A. The coils have 50 and 100
turns respectively and are placed in such a way that their planes as well as their centres
coincide. Magnitude of magnetic field at the common centre of coils is
(A) 8 10–4 T if current in the coil are in same sense
(B) 4 10–4 T if current in the coil are in opposite sense
(C) zero if currents in the coils are in opposite sense
(D) 8 10–4 T if current in the coil are in opposite sense
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13. When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of a metal A, the ejected photoelectrons have
maximum kinetic energy TA eV and de Broglie wavelength A. The maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectrons liberated from another metal B by photons of energy 4.70 eV is TB = (TA–1.50)eV.
If the de Broglie wavelength of these photoelectrons is B = 2A , then
(A) The work function of A is 1.25 eV (B) the work function of B is 4.20 eV
(C) TA = 3.00 eV (D) TB = 1.5 eV
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1. A rigid ring is made to roll along the ceiling of a room, where exists
a uniform horizontal magnetic field of induction B perpendicular to B
the plane of the ring. The velocity of the centre of the ring is
v
constant and its modulus is v . A charge particle P of mass m is
kmg
fixed on the ring. The charge q on the particle is so that
Bv P
there is no force of interaction between the ring and the particle,
then find the value of k ?
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2. Figure shows a charge array known as an “electric quadrupole”. For a point on the axis of the
r 1
quadruple, the dependence of potential on r 1 is n . Find n ?
a r
a a
P
q q q q
r
3. A non conducting ring having uniform charge distribution q is
E
having a small cut of length b b R is released from rest with
its plane parallel to the field as shown in the figure. If the maximum R
90
C qEb
angular velocity of the ring is , then find the value of C ?
22mR 2
4. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. However, wire 1 has
cross-sectional area A and wire-2 has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1 increases
by x on applying force 1 newton, how much force (in Newton) is needed to stretch wire 2 by the
same amount?
5. Two pendulums of lengths 1.44 and 1 metre length start swinging together. After how many
oscillation of first pendulum they will again start swing together?
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 5. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
(C) (D)
I II
(A) Identical (B) conformational isomers
(C) geometrical isomers (D) structural isomers
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This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
6. Which of the following compound have larger C O bond length than C O bond length of
O
H3C C CH3?
(A) O (B) O
(C) O (D) O
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10. An optically active alcohol A C8 H 16O on oxidation gives B . A on acidic heating gives
C C8 H 14 as major product. C on ozonolysis produces D C5 H 8O and
(C) (D)
C is D is O
11. A mixture of three proteins, (A) (pepsin), (B) (haemoglobin) and (C) (Lysozyme) was separated by
electrophoresis method at pH=7 . The pH at isoelectric point pI of the proteins are pI of
12. Which of the following order for basic strength is/are correct?
(A) N (B) O
NH2 NH2
N N N
H H
(C) (D)
N NH
NH N N
N
H H H
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SECTION – C
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1. If four atoms of same radius are placed at the alternate corner of a cube touching each other,
than the length of body diagonal of the cube is equal to x R , where R is the radius of atom.
Find the value of x?
4. Co forms dinuclear complex with a sigma bond within two Co atoms. Consider that metal
carbonyls follows EAN rule. The complex can be written as CO 2 CO x . Find the value of x ?
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SECTION – A
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 5. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
1. Suppose f and g are functions having second derivatives f" and g" everywhere, if f(x) g(x) = 1 for
f " ( x ) g" ( x )
all x and f ' (x) and g' are never zero, then equals
f ' (x) g' (x)
f ' (x ) f ' (x )
(A) (B) 2
f (x) f (x )
2g' ( x ) 2f ' ( x )
(C) (D)
g(x ) f (x)
2. Let a real valued differentiable function f(x) be strictly monotonic on [a, b], then
b f (b)
xb f x
2
f (x) f a
2 1
(C) dx dx
a f (a )
(D) None of these
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1 2
3. Let A be the point of intersection of the curve y log 1 x log 3 9x 6 x 1 and the
3
3
circle x2 + y2 = 17. B is also a point on the curve but lies inside the given circle such that its
abscissa is an integer, then max {AB} is
(A) 2 units (B) 3 units
(C) 4 units (D) none of these
2n
S 3n a
4. If Sn denotes the sum of first n terms of an AP and a n , then Lt r is equal to
S2n Sn n
r 1 n
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
5. The possible value of a for which e2x – (a – 2) ex + a < 0 holds for at least one positive x is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 7
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
7. For a given parabola y2 = 4ax, two variable chords PQ and RS at right angles are drawn through
the fixed point A(x1, y1) inside the parabola, making variable angles and with x–axis. If r1, r2,
1 1
r3, r4 are distances of P, Q, R and S from A, then the value of
r1 r2 r3 r4
(A) independent of (B) independent of
(C) depends upon both and (D) is a constant
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2 3
8. From (1, 2), tangents are drawn to the curve y – 2x – 4y + 8 = 0. Then
(A) sum of x–coordinates of points of contact is zero
(B) sum of x–coordinates of points of contact is 4
(C) sum of y–coordinates of points of contact is zero
(D) sum of y–coordinates of points of contact is 4
b b x
9. If f x dx f x dx a b also f(x) 0 for any x (a, b) and g x f xdx , then
a a 0
b
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12. If a complex number satisfies the equation |z| – log2(z + 2) = 0 (Re z > 0), then
(A) z = z (B) |z| = 2
(C) arg(z) = (D) arg(z) = 0
2
13. If the equation x3 + 2x2 + x + k = 0 has three real roots in which two roots are equal, then value of
k is/are
27
(A) 0 (B) k =
4
4
(C) k = (D) none of these
27
SECTION – C
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1 y 3
1. Find number of positive integral solution of equation tan x cos 1 sin 1
1 y2 10
2. Tangent are drawn from any point on the hyperbola x 2 / 9 y 2 / 4 1 to the circle
x 2 y 2 9 If the locus of the mid-point of the chord of contact is a
2
a x 2 y 2 bx 2 cy 2 , then the value of
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1 2 2
3. If A 2 1 2 and A2 4A 5I = O where I and O are the unit matrix and the null matrix of
2 2 1
3 2 2
1
order 3 respectively. If 15A 2 3 2 then the find the value of .
2 2 3
4. The plane 2 x 2 y z 3 is rotated about the line where it cuts the xy plane by an acute angle
. If the new position of plane contains the point (3, 1, 1) then 9cos equal to …….
2
5. If 0 < , < 2, then the number of ordered pairs (, ) satisfying sin ( + ) – 2 sin sin( + ) +
sin2 + cos2 = 0 is
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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced), 2017
In JEE Advanced 2016, FIITJEE Students bag 36 in Top 100 AIR, 75 in Top 200 AIR, 183 in Top 500 AIR. 3541 Students from Long Term Classroom/ Integrated School
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST - III
Paper 2
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-B
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
Enrolment No.
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2
CHEMISTRY
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only ONE is correct.
1. A tube of length and radius R carries a steady flow of fluid whose density is and viscosity .
The fluid flow velocity depends on the distance r from the axis of the tube as
r3
v v0 1 3 .
R
The pressure difference at the ends of the tube:
2v 0 4v 0
(A) 2
(B)
R R2
6v 0 8v 0
(C) (D)
R2 R2
2. A particle moving in x – y plane such that its x and y co – ordinates varies with time as
x 3t 2 and
y 4t 2t 2 6
Where x and y are in m and t in second. The minimum radius of curvature of the trajectory of the
particle is:
4 3
(A) m (B) m
3 2
2 9
(C) m (D) m
3 4
3. One mole of mono-atomic ideal gas follows a thermodynamic process such that the slope of
dT T
T – V curve i.e .
dV 2V
The temperature of the gas is changes from T0 to 2T0. The work done by the gas in this process
3
(A) 2RT0 (B) RT0
2
R
(C) RT0 (D) T0
2
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4. A spaceship is sent to investigate a planet of mass M and radius R. While hanging motionless in
space at a distance 5R from the center of the planet, the spaceship fires an instrument package
with speed 0 as shown in the figure. The package has mass m, which is much smaller than the
mass of the spaceship for what angle will the package just graze the surface of the planet.
GM 5
Given 2
V0 R 8
v0
R
m 5R M
2 3
(A) sin1 (B) sin1
5 5
2 3
(C) sin1 (D) sin1
5 5
5. A short dipole having dipole moment P is placed at A nearby the surface
of a non – conducting sheet of surface charge density such that area x
x
vector of sheet is parallel to dipole moment. It is found that equipotential x x
spherical surface centered at the location of dipole having radius R exist x
in the space. Then of the sheet is x x A
x
P P x P
(A) (B) x
8R3 4R3 x
x
2 P
(C) (D)
R3 2R3
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8. A plane longitudinal wave of angular frequency 1000 sec-1 is travelling along positive x – direction
in a homogeneous gaseous medium of density 1 kg / m3 . Intensity of the wave is I = 10-10
w/m2 and maximum pressure change P m 2 104 N / m 2 . Assuming at t = 0, initial phase of
medium particle to be zero. Then maximum velocity the medium particle is
(A) 10 6 m / s (B) 10 5 m / s
(C) 2 106 m / s (D) 2 105 m / s
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Questions 11 & 12
2R
11. The speed of the particle as a function of time represented by the curve as
(A) V (B) V
O t O t
V (D) V
(C)
O t O t
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The wavelength of radiation emitted by a hydrogen like atom when de – excited from n1 = n to n2 = 1 is
given as
Kn2
2
n 1
14. The ionization potential of the atom is 54. 4ev, Then the value of K is
0 0
(A) 12400 A (B) 3100 A
0 0
(C) 228 A (D) 1377 A
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15. What is the average current I flowing between the bottom of the cloud and the ground during
lightning
(A) 20 KA (B) 40 KA
(C) 50 KA (D) 60 KA
16. Imagine that the energy of all storms of one year is collected and equally shared among all
people for how long could you continuously light up a 100 watt light bulb for your share.
(A) 4 hr (B) 6 hr
(C) 8 hr (D) 10 hr
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SECTION – B
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 4 questions. Each question contains p q r s
statements given in two columns which have to be matched. The p q r s
A
statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the
statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, and s. Any given B p q r s
statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
C p q r s
MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be D p q r s
darkened as illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are A-p and s; B-q and r; C-p and q; and D-s;
then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
1. Acceleration ‘a’ versus x and potential energy ‘U’ versus x graph of the particle moving along
x – axis is an shown in fig. mass of the particle is 1 kg and velocity at x = 0 is 4m/s. At x = 8m:-
U(J)
a(m/s2)
120
20
8
4 x (m)
4 8 x (m)
-120
Column – I Column – II
(A) Kinetic energy (p) 120 J
(B) Work done by conservative forces (q) 128 J
(C) Total work done (r) -120 J
(D) Work done by external forces (s) 240 J
2. An ideal mono-atomic gas undergoes different types of process which are described in column– I.
Match the corresponding effect in column II.
The letters have usual meaning.
Column – I Column – II
If volume increases then temperature will
(A) C = Cv – 2R (p)
also increase
If volume increases then temperature will
(B) PV 3 const. (q)
decrease
C Cv 2R For expansion, heat will have to be supplied
(C) (r)
to the gas
If temperature increases then work done by
(D) P 2V 5 (s)
the gas is positive
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Column – I Column – II
If the refractive index of the lens is doubled (that is,
(A) made 2 ) then (p) Final image is real
If the radius of curvature is doubled (that is, made
(B) (q) Final image is virtual
2R) then
If a glass slab of refractive index 1.5 is introduced
between the object and lens as shown, then
R R Final image becomes
smaller in size in
(C) O (r) comparison to size of
image before the
change was made
slab
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only ONE is correct.
3
1. M CN where M is Cr+3, Mn+3, Fe+3, Co+3
6
2. The change in molar internal energy when CaCO3(s) as calcite converts to another form,
aragonite is + 0.21 kJmol-1. The molar enthalpy changes & internal energy changes are related
by: (Given: pressure P = 1 bar; densities of polymorphs are (calcite) = 2.71 gcm -3 & (aragonite)
= 2.93 gcm-3)
(A) H > U (B) H < U
(C) H = U (D) can’t be compared
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(v) (vi)
(ix) (x) H H
+
C C C C C
+
H H
(xi) -
-
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) 8
4. The compressibility factor of a real gas varies with pressure, P according to the curve shown
below:
Z
1.06
1.04
1.02
1
P
0.98 D
0.96
C
A
0.94
0.92
B
Choose the correct option with reference to the points in the curve shown
(A) at A, the gas is less compressible (since z < 1) than at D
(B) at B, attractive forces balance the repulsive forces between the gas molecules.
(C) at C, repulsive forces are dominating the attractive forces between the gas molecules.
(D) at D, repulsive forces are just sufficient to balance the attractive forces.
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5. Compound PdCl4.6H2O is a hydrated complex, 1 molar aqueous solution of it has freezing point
269.28 K. Assuming 100% ionization of complex, calculate the molecular formula of the complex
(Kf for water = 1.86 K kgmol-1, freezing point of water = 273 K)
(A) [Pd(H2O)6]Cl4 (B) [Pd(H2O)4]Cl2.2H2O
(C) [Pd(H2O)3]Cl.3H2O (D) [Pd(H2O)2Cl4].4H2O
-
In O O all C – C bonds are of equal length
(C) Na s NH3 liq. Solution
x cc y mL z mL
then z < x + y
(D) none of these
(D)
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9. The curve which doesn’t correspond to the respective curve for the 2s orbital is
(A) (B)
(r) (r)
r (nm) r (nm)
(C) 2 (D)
r (r) (r)
r (nm) r (nm)
10.
2K
P (Product)
H2SO 4
Q (Product)
The correct statement is
(A) P & Q are aromatic compound and Q has sp3 hybridized carbon atom
(B) P is aromatic with 10 e- & Q is aromatic with 2 e-
(C) P is aromatic and Q is anti-aromatic
(D) P is aromatic and Q is non-aromatic
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Questions 11 & 12
Solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt is the product of its ionic concentration raised to proper
exponents present in its saturated solution.
e.g Ca3 PO4 2 s 2 3
3Ca aq 2PO4 aq
3 2
K sp Ca 2 PO43
The common ions present in the solution decreases the solubility of a given compound.
11. The solubility of AgCN in a buffer solution of pH = 3 is [Ksp (AgCN(s) = 1.2 10-17 & Ka(HCN) =
4.8 10-10]
(A) 5 10-6 M (B) 5 10-5 M
-4
(C) 5 10 M (D) 2.5 10-6 M
12. Two sparingly soluble salts AX and BY2 have same solubility at a given temperature, so
AX s 1 1
A aq X aq
BY2 s 2 1
B aq 2Y aq
(A) Ksp (AX) = Ksp (BY2)
(B) Ksp (AX) > Ksp (BY2)
(C) Ksp (AX) < Ksp (BY2)
(D) Ksp (AX) can be greater, equal or less than Ksp (BY2) depending upon the value of solubility
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The formation of enamines by the reaction of aldehyde and ketones with secondary amines are reversible
in nature.
O R'' R'' R'' R''
N N
R + H2O +
R' H R
R'
Aldehyde or ketone Secondary amine Enamine
Enamines resemble enols in that electron pair donation makes their double bond electron rich and
nucleophilic.
R'' R'' R'' + R''
N N
R R
R' R'
-
Reaction of enamines with electrophiles (E+) leads to carbon-carbon bond formation. Subsequent
hydrolysis gives an -substituted derivative of original aldehyde or ketone.
Pyrrolidine is the secondary amine used most often for making enamines from aldehydes and ketones.
O + Benzene
N
N
H
Pyrrolidine
13. O
CH3
H 2C CH C N H3O+
+ Benzene ethanol
Major Product
N
H
The major product is
(A) O (B) CH3 O
CH3 CH3 CH3
C
C N
N
cis + trans
(C) O (D) O
CH3
CH3
C C
N N cis + trans
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14. (+)-2-Allylcyclohexanone has been prepared in 82% enantiomeric excess by alkylation of optically
active enamine prepared from cyclohexanone and an enantiomerically pure pyrrolidine derivative
of the following. Which one is the best pyrrolidine derivative to use in this enantioselective
synthesis?
(A) CH3 (B) H3C CH3
N CH3
H N
H
(C) (D)
H3C CH3 H3C CH3
N N
H H
The concentration of negative charge above and below the plane of the ring-carbon atoms is benzene’s
most accessible feature.
The concentration of charge shields the ring carbon atoms from the attack of nucleophilic reagents &
promotes attack by cations X+, or electron deficient species i.e. by electrophilic reagents:
15. For the electrophilic substitution reaction involving (i) nitration & (ii) sulphonation which of the
following sequence regarding rate of reaction is true?
(A) (i) kC6H6 k C6D6 k C6T6 (B) (i) kC6H6 k C6D6 k C6T6
(ii) kC6H6 k C6D6 k C6T6 (ii) kC6H6 k C6D6 k C6T6
(C) (i) kC6H6 k C6D6 k C6T6 (D) (i) kC6H6 k C6D6 k C6T6
(ii) kC6H6 k C6D6 k C6T6 (ii) kC6H6 k C6D6 k C6T6
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(A) O (B) O
Br
Br
(C) (D) O
Br
Br
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SECTION – B
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 4 questions. Each question contains p q r s
statements given in two columns which have to be matched. The p q r s
A
statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the
statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, and s. Any given B p q r s
statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
C p q r s
MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be D p q r s
darkened as illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are A-p and s; B-q and r; C-p and q; and D-s;
then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
Energy R
Reaction Coordinate
P1 (g)
R(s)
P2 (g)
P2
P1
Reaction Coordinate
P 1(g)
R(s)
P 2(g)
R P1
Reaction Coordinate
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P1(g)
R(s)
P 2(g)
Energy
R
P2
Reaction Coordinate
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Column – I Column – II
Gibbs energy G
r Go 0
(A) (p)
At point A, rG = 0
A
Gibbs energy, G
r Go 0
(B) (q)
At point A, rG = 0
(R) = 1 A (R) = 0
P) = 0 (P) = 1
Gibbs energy, G
rG o = 0
(C) (r)
At point A, rG > 0
R) 1 A R) 0
P) 0 P) 1
Gibbs energy, G
rG o = 0
(D) (s)
At point A, rG < 0
(R) = 1 A (R) = 0
(P) = 0 (P) = 1
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Column – I Column – II
COOH
(A) (p) Diastereomers
COOH
Br2
CH3
H CH3
Pt
(D) C C + H2 (s) Meso compound
H3C C2H5
Column – I Column – II
EtO /EtOD
(A) Ph CH2 CH2 Br (p) Ph CH CH2 Ph CD CH2
E2
EtO /EtOD
(B) Ph CH2 CH2 Br (q) CH3 CH2 CH CH2
E1cB
EtO /EtOH
(C) CH3 CH2 CH
|
CH3 (r) CH3 CH CHCH3
Br
EtO /EtOH
CH3 CH2 CH CH3
(D) | (s) PhCH CH2
NMe3
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AITS-CRT-III-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/17
.
..
5.
55
1. 55 200 times 5 . What is the remainder when it is divided by 12.
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 9 (D) 11
2. Let A1, A2, …., An be interior angles of an n-sided convex polygon. Then the value of
cos A1 A 2 ... A k k
where cos A i 0 for k = 1, 2, 3, …., n – 1
cos Ak 1 Ak 2 ... An
i1
(A) Is independent of both k and n (B) Is independent of k but depends on n
(C) Is independent of n but depends on k (D) depends on both k and n
1 1 1
3. Let rK > 0 and zK rK cos K isin K for K = 1, 2, 3 be such that 0
z1 z 2 z 3
cos 2K isin2K
Let AK be point in the complex plane given by K for K =1, 2, 3. The origin
2
O is the
(A) Incentre of A1A 2 A 3 (B) Orthocentre of A1A 2 A 3
(C) Circumcentre of A 1A 2 A 3 (D) Centroid of A1A 2 A 3
n n zj
4. If z1, z2, ……………..,zn lie on z r and Re 0
j 1 K 1 zK
n n n
1
(i) zj1
j 0 (ii) z
j1
j 0 (iii) z
j1
0
j
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6. A circle touches the parabola y2 = 4x at the point (1, 2) and also the directrix. The Y-coordiante of
the point of contact of the circle and the directrix is
(A) 2 (B) 2
(C) 2 2 (D) 4
7. Point O is the centre of an ellipse with major axis AB and minor axis CD. Point F is one of the
foci. If OF = 6 and the diameter of the inscribed circle of OCF is 2, then AB.CD = ____.
(A) 35 (B) 45
(C) 55 (D) 65
n n n
9. Sum of the coefficient of the terms of degree m in the expansion of 1 x 1 y 1 z is
3
(A) n
Cm (B) 3 n
Cm (C) n C3m (D) 3n
Cm
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2
10. f x sin x sin x t cos x f t dt. Pick the correct alternatives.
2
5 5
(i) maximum value of f(x) is (ii) minimum value of f(x) is
3 3
5 5
(iii) maximum value of f(x) is (iv) minimum value of f(x) is
2 2
Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Questions 11 & 12
If f is continuous on closed [a, b], differentiable on (a, b) and f(a) = f(b), then there exists c (a, b) such
that f’(c) = 0
a0 a a a
12. If 1 2 ... n1 an 0 where a0, a1 ……., an are real, then
n 1 n n 1 2
the equation a0 x n a1x n1 a2 x n2 ... an 0 has a root in
(A) , 1 (B) 1,0 (C) 0,1 (D) 1,
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2
a2 3
Let y = f(x) be quadratic polynomial such that f
a2 3
x f
a2 3
x , f
a2 3 and
a a a a
x
the parabola y 2 is an equal parabola to that of y = f(x) then.
a
(C) real and distinct only if a > 0 (D) non real if a < 0
14. If exactly one root of the equation lies in the interval (0, 1) then the values of a is/are
1 1
(A) a R (B) [0, 1] (C) 0, (D) 0,
2 2
In a second degree curve, a line which touches the curve can’t meet the curve again but in cubic and
other non algebraic curves, the tangent can meet the curve again. If we solve the equation of tangent and
cubic curve, we will get, in general, three roots two of which are equal.
16. The tangent P(t) of the curve y = 8t3 – 1, x = 4t2 + 3 meets the curve again at Q(t’) and is normal
to the curve at that point, then value of t must be
1 1
(A) (B)
3 2
2
(C) (D) none of these
3
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SECTION – B
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 4 questions. Each question contains p q r s
statements given in two columns which have to be matched. The p q r s
A
statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the
statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, and s. Any given B p q r s
statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
C p q r s
MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be D p q r s
darkened as illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are A-p and s; B-q and r; C-p and q; and D-s;
then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
1. Match the sequence a1, a2,…………whose nth term is given on the left with properties on the
sequence on the right
Column – I Column - II
2
1 cos 2nx
(A) an dx (p) a1,a2……..are in AP
0 1 cos2x
2
1
(B) In tan2 xdx and an (q) a1,a2……..are in GP
0 In 1 In 3
2
sin2 nx
(C) In 0 sin x dx and an In In1,n 1 (r) a1,a2……..are in HP
2
sin2 nx
(D) an 2
dx (s) a1,a2……..are in AGP
0 sin x
2. If tangents drawn from a point P to the ellipse make angle and with the major axis, then the
locus of P
Column – I Column - II
(A) If (p) Ellipse
2
(B) If tan .tan 1 (q) Hyperbola
(C) If tan tan 5 (r) Pair of straight line
(D) If cot cot 8 (s) Circle
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Column – I Column - II
The roots of the equation x 2 2 a 3 x 9 0 lie in (-6, 1) and 2,h1, h2,
(A) (p) 1
……..,h10, [a] are in HP. Where [ ] denotes GIF, then h2 h9 is equal to
If cosec ,cosec,cosec are in AP, , , then the 3
(B) 2 2 (q)
number of values of is
If the equation ax 2 b x c 0 two distinct real roots, then the value of
(C) c (r) 12
could be
a
The number of ordered pair (x, y) such that x 2 2y 2 1 is,
(D) (s) -3
where x and y are prime numbers
k
4. Let A and B be two non singular matrices such that AB A k Bk for there consecutive positive
integral values of k.
Column – I Column - II
(A) ABA-1 (p) A2
(B) BAB-1 (q) B
(C) AB2A-1 (r) A
(D) BA2B-1 (s) B2
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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced), 2017
In JEE Advanced 2016, FIITJEE Students bag 36 in Top 100 AIR, 75 in Top 200 AIR, 183 in Top 500 AIR. 3541 Students from Long Term Classroom/ Integrated School
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST - III
Paper 1
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
Program & 4423 Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
(ii) Section-C (01 – 10) contains 10 Numerical based questions with answers as numerical value
from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative
marking.
Enrolment No.
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2
CHEMISTRY
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 10. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.
2. Two tunnels are dug through the earth as shown in figure. O is the
centre of earth. A particle B is released from rest from position
shown and travels through the tunnel. At the same time particle B
from A is projected toward the centre O with velocity V such that
both A and B collide before they could change their direction of 3R/4
motion. Then the velocity V given to A is
O
3 GM 5 GM
(A) (B)
4 R 12 R
4 GM 4 GM
(C) (D)
9 R 5 R A
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3. Figure shows block B partially immersed in liquid and block A sunk completely and settled at
bottom of the container. Area of the cross section of the container is always constant and equal
to a. Assume that dA > dL > dB and represent the coefficient of linear and volume expansion
respectively. Choose correct statement.
B
A
(A) if 0 and A = L = 0 then on increasing the temp of the system level of liquid H will
increase
(B) if 0 A = L = 0 then increasing the temp of system buoyant force on B increase
(C) if 3 L then on decreasing the temp of the system the fraction of volume of B immersed
will increase
(D) if A 0 = L = 0 then on increasing the temp of the system buoyant force on A will
increase
4. A long thin wooden cylindrical shell of radius R carries uniform surface charge density . It is
rotating about its axis with angular velocity . Which increases slowly with time t as = kt where
k is constant. Which of the following statement is/are correct
x
(A) both the magnetic and the electric field are uniform and constant
(B) the magnetic field is uniform but not constant and the electric field is constant but not uniform
(C) the magnetic field is constant but not uniform electric field is uniform but not constant
(D) total energy U stored in both types of field varies with time as U = a + bt2 where and b are
positive constant
5. A metal plate when exposed to light of wavelength photoelectrons are ejected when a retarding
electric field of intensity E is applied none of the photoelectrons can move away from the plate
farther than a certain distance d. Which of the following correct expression for the threshold
wavelength .
hc hc
(A) th (B) th
eEd eEd
1
1 eEd
(C) th (D) none of these
hc
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6. In the circuit are shown two parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C and 2C consisting of plates
of identical dimensions having separation between two plates 2d & d respectively has shown in
figure. They are connected with an ideal battery of terminal voltage as shown in figure – I. Now
capacitor smaller in volume is completely inserted into the other capacitor larger in volume and
kept in symmetric position and then connection polarities of the plates are reversed as shown in
figure – II. Identify correct statements.
d/2
d 2d
d
d/2
Figure - I
Figure - II
(A) charge flows through battery is 10 CV and battery absorbed energy
(B) charge flows through battery is 10 CV and battery delivers energy
(C) charge flows through battery is 7 CV and battery absorbs energy
(D) charge flows through battery is 7 CV and battery delivers energy
7. Two mirrors M1 and M2 make an angle with line AB. A point source S is kept at a distance r from
the point of intersection of mirror along line AB. A small hemispherical annular mask is kept close
to S so that no ray emanating from S directly reaches the screen kept at distance b from the
source. Interference pattern of rays reflected from M1 and M2 is observed on screen. Find the
fringe width of this interference pattern = wavelength of light being emitted by source.
(A)
b 2r sin2 (B)
b 2r cos 2
2r sin2 2r sin2
b r cos b 2r cos 2
(C) (D)
2r sin2 r sin 2
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3J2L
(A) velocity of conductor is half of initial velocity after displacement of conductor d
4B2 2m
3J2L
(B) velocity of conductor is half of initial velocity after displacement of the conductor d
B2L2m
3J2
(C) current flowing through the inductor at the instant where velocity is half of initial is I
4Lm
(D) current flowing through the inductor at the instant when velocity of the conductor is half of the
3J2
initial velocity is I
mL
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 10 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to
9 (both inclusive).
1. A uniform disk rotating about its vertical axis is placed on a horizontal floor divided in two halves.
The co-efficient of friction are 1 = 0.78 and 2 = 0.67 between the disk and right and left halves
respectively. Consider the line dividing two half as y-axis and point where centre of disk lies on
origin of co-ordinate system. Acceleration of the centre of disk immediately after it is placed on
K 22
floor is ms2 . g = 10 ms-2, .
20 7
V TV = constnat
T
T 2T 4T
3. In a thin vertical U tube of very long arms is m 1 mass of mercury. Period of small amplitude
oscillation of mercury is T1 = 2S. If in one arm m2 = 100 g of water is poured the period of small
oscillation becomes T2 = 3S then mass m1 = 16 K gm. Find K …
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7. In the given Y.D.S.E the distance between the slits = 1 cm and the distance between slits and
screen is D1 = 1 m. If the source of the light S is placed at distance below 5 mm below the line
OO at distance D2 = 50 cm from slits. Find distance of central maxima from O (in cm)?
5 mm O O'
S
D2 = 50 cm
D1 = 1 m
Slits Screen
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8. A gas of hydrogen like atoms can absorb radiation of 68 eV in first excited state. Consequently
the gas emit radiations of only three different wavelengths. All the wavelengths are equal or
smaller than that of the absorbed photon. The atomic number of gas atom is …
9. A conducting rod of mass m and length ℓ is suspended horizontal with help of two identical non-
conducting springs each of stiffness K in presence of uniform horizontal magnetic field of
induction B. The rod can slid between two fixed frictionless vertical conducting guides as shown
in figure. The rod is pulled slightly downward and then released. Neglect resistance and
inductance in circuit. Acceleration due to gravity is g. The time period of oscillation is T = k.. If m
= 7B2ℓ2C and m = k. Find k ?
10. You have m = 1 kg of super cooled water at temperature – 10oC kept in a container and crushed
at temp = - 20oC kept in another container. How much ice you should add to the water so that
whole water freezes S 4.2 103 J kg 1 K 1 , SI 2.1 103 J Kg 1K 1 . Latent of heat of ice
L 336 103 J Kg 1 and meeting point of ice is = 0oC. Heat capacity of the vessel and heat
less to surrounding is negligible.
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 10. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.
3. The order of first ionization energies are given below. Find the incorrect order(s).
(A) F N O C B Be (B) C Si Ge Pb Sn
(C) B Al Ga In Tl (D) O Cl Br I S
4. In antifluorite structure
(A) oxide ions have face centred cubic arrangement
(B) cations are present in all the tetrahedral voids
3a
(C) rNa rO2
4
(D) cations are face centred and anions are present in all the tetrahedral voids
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Radius
Radius
(C) (D)
2p
Radial wave function
Radial wave function
1s 3p
3d
Radius
Radius
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NO
8. CH3 CH2 CH2 NH2 2 3
The product(s) formed is/are
(A) H3C CH CH3 (B) CH3 CH2 CH 2 OH
OH
(C) CH3 CH CH2 (D) CH3 CH2 C N
9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for crossed cannizzaro reaction?
CHO CHO
OH-
+
NO 2
NO 2
(A) (B)
(A) OH- attacks at the carbonyl C – atom of (A)
(B) OH- attacks at the carbonyl C – atom of (B)
H
-
O
OH
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I , NaOH
10. C8H8 O A
2
yellow ppt.
-
HCN, OH
B
A 1) LDA
C
2) EtBr
Ph - CHO
D
NaOH
CH2 CHO
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 10 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to
9 (both inclusive).
1. CH3
Reagent
H3C CH CH CH2 Alcohol
Following are the possibilities of products on applying specific reagents:
Reagent Possible product
CH3
1. B2H6 / H2O2 , NaOH
H3C CH CH2 CH2 OH
CH3 HO
2. PdCl 2 , H2O, O2 / LAH
H3C CH CH CH3
OH
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(I) + KH
(II) + 2K
NaNH2
(III)
NaNH2
(IV)
NaNH2
(V)
NaNH2
(VI)
3. The formation constant is x 105 for the reaction of a tripositive metal ion with thiocyanate ion to
form the mono complex. If the total metal concentration in the solution is 2.0 10-3 M, the total
SCN- concentration is 1.50 10-3 M, and the free SCN- concentration is 1.0 10-5 M. Find the
value of x.
4. One of the most stable nuclei is 55Mn . Its nuclidic mass is 54.9244 u. Determine its average
binding energy per nucleon in MeV if mass of proton and neutron are 1.00783 u and 1.00867 u
respectively.
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6. Ka for the acid ionization of Fe3+ to Fe(OH)2+ and H+ is 5.26 10-7. What is the maximum pOH
value which could be used so that at least 95% of the total Iron(III) in a dilute solution exists as
Fe3+?
7. How many of the following chemical reagents impart brick red colouration to the flame during
flame test? Dolomite, bleaching powder, rock salt, nitrolim, lime-stone, carnallite, alum, gypsum.
HO H
Kiliani - Fischer Synthesis
H OH
H OH
OH
D-Arabinose
I I
CH3 CH C C CH C2 H5 , CH3 CH C C C CH C2H5 , cis-cyclooctene, trans-
cyclooctene, (2R, 3S) 2, 3-dihydroxybutane-1, 4-dioic acid.
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2n 2
K n n CK n
2
1. Let f n where n 2 then
K n1
n3 131n 150 2n 2
(A) f n n2 2n Cn 2n (B) f n Cn 1
30
625 48! 625 50!
(C) f 25 (D) f 25 50
24!2 25!2
2. The probability that a zoo has exactly n tiger is Pn, n 1. All sex distribution of n tiger in that zoo
have the same probability then the probability that the zoo contain exactly K male tiger (where K
1) is
K 1 K
1 P 2 P
(A) (B)
1 P 1 P 1 P 1 P
K 1
2 P
(C) (D) none of these
2 P 1 P
4. The equation of the straight line which meets the circle x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y – p2 = 0 at points which
are at a distance ‘d’ from a point A(1 + , 2 + ) on the circle is
(A) 2x 2 y 2 2 2 p 2 5 d2 (B) 2x 2 y 2 2 2 p 2 5 d2
(C) 2x 2 y 2 2 2 p 2 5 d2 (D) 2x 2 y 2 2 d2 2 p2 5
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2 2
5. Let S & S be the foci of an ellipse b2 x 2 a2 y 1 a2b2 whose eccentricity is e and P is
a variable point on the ellipse then
(A) locus of incentre of PSS is hyperbola
(B) locus of incentre of PSS is ellipse
2e
(C) eccentricity of the locus of incentre of PSS is
e 1
2e
(D) eccentricity of the locus of incentre of PSS is
e 1
ex
6. Let f be a function satisfying fe x and g x f4 x
ex e
1996
r
(A) f2 x f2 1 x 1 (B) g 1997 1996
r 1
2n 1
r
(C) 2f 2n 2n 1 (D) all of the above
r 1
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n x n
a a
9. lim x c n 1 is equal to
x x x
n! an e a
(A) n a (B)
a e n!
n! an ea
(C) n a (D)
ae n!
10. Suppose we uniformly and randomly select a permutation from the 20! Permutation of 1, 2, 3 ….
20. What is the probability that 2 appears at an earlier position than any other even number in the
selected permutation.
1 1
(A) (B)
2 10
9!
(C) (D) none of these
20!
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 10 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to
9 (both inclusive).
1. A quadrilateral ABCD in which side AB, BC, CD, DA are in GP such that circle can be inscribed in
n
it and another circle is circumscribed about it, then angle A is equal to where n & q are
q
coprime then (n + q) equal to
3. In ABC, ADB, ADC median AD, AE, AF respectively is drawn and BC is equal to 4, then the
value of AE2 + AF2 – 2AD2 is
4. The volume of the reel – shaped solid formed by the revolution about the y-axis of the part of the
20
parabola y2 = 2x cut off by the latus rectum is P then value of P is
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cos n 1 x cosnx n
7. If dx then value of n is
0 cos x 1 2
8. Assuming x – y + 2z = 0 to be the horizontal plane then equation of line of greatest slope through
the point (2, 2, 1) in the plane 2x + y – 6z = 0 is L having cosine ratio a : b : c then value of
2a b
is ..
c
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CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – II
Paper 2
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has two sections: Section-A & Section-C.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
Enrolment No.
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
CHEMISTRY
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.
2L
(D) Ball hits the top of container at end Q after a time t =
3g
2. A non-conducting ring of mass m and radius R has a charge Q uniformly distributed over
its circumference. The ring is placed on a rough horizontal surface such that plane of the
ring is parallel to the surface. A vertical magnetic field B = B0t2 tesla is switched on. After
2s from switching on the magnetic field the ring is just about to rotate about vertical axis
through its centre:
2B0RQ
(A) Friction coefficient between the ring and the surface is .
mg
B RQ
(B) Friction coefficient between the ring and the surface is 0 .
2mg
(C) If magnetic field is switched off after 4s, then the angle rotated by the ring before
2B0Q
coming to stop after switching off magnetic field is .
m
(D) If magnetic field is switched off after 4s, then the angle rotated by the ring before
BQ
coming to stop after switching off magnetic field is 0 .
m
Space for rough work
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100F
6. In the given circuit, the AC source has = 100 rad/s. 100
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Paragraph type
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there will be TWO
questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE
of these four option(s) is(are) correct.
1
Y sec 1
30
Z
(stable)
Initially the sample contains nucleus of X only and its population is N0 = 1020. Further,
the population of Y as a function of time is given by
N t
Ny t 0 x e y e x t
x y
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.
1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the structure of XeF4?
(A) The hybridization of Xe is sp3d2
(B) The lone pairs occupy the axial positions of a tetrahedron
(C) Two types of bond angles are observed in the molecule
(D) The bond pair dipole moments cancel the lone pair dipole moments
HI
2. CH3OC2H5 Pr oduct s
Which of the following product(s) is/are formed in the above reaction?
(A) CH3OH (B) CH3I
(C) C2H5OH (D) C2H5I
3. Which of the following reaction(s) take(s) place during rusting of the surface of iron?
(A) Fe s Fe 2 aq 2e
(B) O 2 g 4 H 4 e 2H2O l
(C) 4Fe2 aq O2 g 4 H2O l
2Fe2O3 s 8H
(D) Fe2O3 s xH2O l Fe2O3 .xH2O
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4. O
O
Choose correct statement about the above compound?
(A) It reacts with CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis to form a tertiary diol.
(B) It exhibits tautomerism.
(C) Oxidation of it with acidified permanganate solution followed by heating forms
cyclohexan-1, 4-dione
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8.
CaCO3(s)
CaO(s) + CO2 (g) Kp = 2 atm at 300 K
20 gram CaCO3(solid) is heated in a closed container of volume 1 litre at 300 K. Which
is/are the correct option(s)?
(A) On addition of small amount of CaCO3, pressure of CO2 will increase
(B) On increasing temperature, the decomposition of CaCO3 becomes faster
(C) Amount of CaO should decrease on addition of CaCO3.
(D) Equilibrium constant depends on temperature.
Paragraph type
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there will be TWO
questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE
of these four option(s) is(are) correct.
The rate of chemical reactions are strongly affected by temperature. The rate of certain
reactions increases by 2 or 3 times by 10oC rise in temperature. The relation between rate
constant and temperature is given by Arrhenius equation.
k Ae Ea /RT
The constant ‘A’ is called Arrhenius constant or pre- exponential factor. Taking logarithm of the
equation, we have
Ea
logk log A
2.303RT
The rate constant of a reaction is given as:
1.25 10 4 K
logk sec 1 14
T
Answer the following questions on the basis of the above write up.
9. The pre-exponential factor or frequency factor(A) of the reaction under consideration is:
(A) 10-14sec-1 (B) 1014 sec-1
(C) 14 sec-1 (D) ln14 sec-1
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10. At what temperature, the rate constant of the reaction is equal to the pre-exponential
factor?
1.25 10 4
(A) T = 0 K (B) T K
14
14
(C) T = K (D) T K
1.25 10 4
11. The tertiary alcohol in the above question is formed by the reaction of
O
(A)
PhCH2MgBr
Ph H
O
(B) PhMgBr
Ph CH3
O
(C) PhCH2MgBr
Ph CH3
O
(D) PhMgBr
Ph H
CH2Ph
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
7. SiO2
HF
A H2O
HF
B
How many total number of atom(s) or species is/are present in one molecule of (B)?
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SECTION – A
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
1. Let S = {1, 2, 3, 4,……..,n} and f n be the number of those subsets of S which do not
contain consecutive elements of S, then
n n 1 n 2
(A) fn (B) fn 2fn 1
6
(C) fn fn 1 fn 2 (D) f4 8
8 3
3. Let f x x x tan x , where 0 x , then
9 6
(A) f ' x 0 (B) f " x 0
(C) f "' x 0 (D) f x 0
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6. Given that x1, x 3 are roots of the equation ax 2 4x 1 0 and x 2 , x 4 are roots of the
equation bx 2 6x 1 0 . If x1, x 2 , x3 , x 4 are in harmonic progression, then
(A) 3a b 1 (B) a 2 b2 73
1 1
(C) 2a 3b (D)
a b
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Paragraph type
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there will be TWO
questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE
of these four option(s) is(are) correct.
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In a triangle if the sum of two sides is x and their product is y x 2 y such that
x z x z y , where z is the third side of the triangle.
11. Greatest angle of the triangle is
(A) 105o (B) 120o
(C) 135o (D) 150o
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
1. An urn contain 3 red balls and n white balls. Mr. A draws two balls together from the urn.
The probability that they have the same colour is 1/2. Mr. B draws one ball from the urn,
notes its colour and replaces it. He then draws a second ball from the urn and finds that
5
both balls have the same colour is . The possible value of n is_________
8
ˆ 1, r (iˆ 2ajˆ k)
ˆ 2 and r (a ˆi a 2 ˆj k)
3. If planes r (iˆ ˆj k) ˆ 3 intersect in a line,
then find the number of real values of a.
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4. The 20th term of an arithmetic sequence is log10 20 and the 32nd term is log10 32 . If
exactly one term of the arithmetic sequence is a rational number which in lowest form is
p
; p,q N then (p + q) = _____
q
1 1
1 2
6. If f : 0,1 R is a continuous function satisfying f x dx
0
f x2
3 0
dx , then the
1
reciprocal of f is __________
4
7. Any chord of conic x 2 y 2 xy 1 passing through origin is bisected at point (p, q), then
p q equals __________
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CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – II
Paper 1
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into three sections: Section-A, Section-B & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
(ii). Section – B (01 – 02) contains 2 Match the following Type questions. Each question having 4
statements in Column I & 5 statements in Column II with any given statement in Column I having
correct matching with 1 or more statement (s) given in Column II. Each statement carries +2
marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
(iii). Section-C (01 – 08) contains 8 Numerical based questions with answers as numerical value
from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative
marking.
Enrolment No.
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2
CHEMISTRY
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice type questions. Each question has four choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE are correct.
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3. If the dimensions of length are expressed as Gx cy hz; where G, c and h are the universal
gravitational constant, speed of light and Planck’s constant respectively, then
1 1 1 1
(A) x , y (B) x ,z
2 2 2 2
1 3 3 1
(C) y = , z (D) y ,z
2 2 2 2
4R 2
(A) The particle reaches the same point A on the ring after time .
v
mv
(B) Magnitude of impulse transformed during first collision is .
2
mv
(C) Magnitude of impulse transformed during second collision is .
2
2R
(D) Particle reaches diametrically opposite point on the ring in time .
v
5. Two projectile are thrown at the same time from two different points. The projectile
thrown from the origin has initial velocity 3iˆ 3ˆj with respect to earth. The projectile has
initial velocity a ˆi bjˆ with respect to earth thrown from the point (10, 5). ( î is a unit
vector along horizontal, ĵ along vertical). If the projectile collides after two second, then
the
1
(A) value of a is -2 (B) value of a is
2
1
(C) value of b is (D) value of b is –2
2
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3E 1
(C) Current through the capacitor after one time constant is .
11R e
5E 1
(D) Current through the capacitor after one time constant is .
11R e
10. For the circuit shown in the figure, which of the following 6 2H
statements is/are correct
12 4
(A) Its time constant is 0.25 second
(B) In steady sate, current through inductance will be equal to 6V
zero.
(C) in steady state, current through the battery will be equal to
0.75 amp.
(D) none of these
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SECTION – B
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains p q r s t
statements given in two columns which have to be matched. The p q r s t
A
statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the
statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given B p q r s t
statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
C p q r s t
MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be D p q r s t
darkened as illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are A-p, s and t; B-q and r; C-p and q; and
D-s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the
following.
I1
I1
1
(D) (s) Magnetic field at point P due to
P wires 1 and 2 are perpendicular to
each other.
I1 Wires 1 and 2
are in same
plane without
touching each
other
(t) Magnetic field at point P due to
wires 1 and 2 are in same
direction.
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E a E
A2 A1
R3
R2
Column - I Column - II
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
1. A point source of power 4W is placed 1m below the free surface of liquid whose
2
refractive index is ' ' . Find the rate of transfer of energy (in watt) from the liquid
3
surface to air. Ignore any absorption or scattering of light energy.
2. A double convex lens forms a real image of an object on a screen which is fixed. Now
the lens is given a constant velocity v0 along its axis and away from the screen. For the
purpose of forming the image always on the screen, the object is also required to be
given an appropriate velocity. Find the velocity of the object at the instant its size is n
times the size of image. (Take n = 1/2 and v0 = 1 m/s)
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4. A thin uniform rod of mass ‘m’, length ‘’ rotates uniformly about a vertical axis , form a
conical pendulum, the upper end of the rod is hinged and is angle between rod and
vertical.
m2 2
If the change of angular momentum of the rod about hinge is sin 2 then the
x
value of ‘x’ will be
7. A ring of mass 3 kg is rolling without slipping with linear velocity 1 m/sec on a smooth
horizontal surface. A rod of same mass is fitted along its one diameter. Find total kinetic
energy of the system (in J).
x 3 9x 2
8. Potential energy of a particle moving along x-axis is given by U = 20x . Find
3 2
out position of stable equilibrium state.
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
1. Which of the following compound produce any gas when reacts with water?
(A) KO2 (B) CaC2
(C) Mg3N2 (D) Ba(NO3)2
2. Which of the following compound does exhibit mesomeric effect?
CH 2OH
OH
(A) (B)
OH
OH
(C) (D)
3. Which of the following compound of carbon forms acidic solution when reacts with water
at room temperature?
(A) CO (B) COCl2
(C) CCl4 (D) CH4
5. The boiling point of which of the following aqueous solution(s) is/are greater than 100oC?
(A) 0.2 M NaCl (B) 0.1 M AlCl3
(C) 1 M KNO3 (D) 2 M BeSO4
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7. Which of the following two compound(s) form different number of gases on heating?
(A) LiNO3 and NaNO3 (B) MgCl2.6H2O and Na2SO4.10 H2O
(C) FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 (D) CaCO3 and BeCO3
9. The hcp and ccp structure for a given element would be expected to have
(A) the same coordination number (B) the same density
(C) the same packing fraction (D) the same edge length
10. In which of the following pair, the dipole moment of first compound is greater than that of
the second compound?
(A) NH3, NF3 (B) CHCl3, CCl4
(C) CO2, SO2 (D) BF3, NF3
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SECTION – B
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains p q r s t
statements given in two columns which have to be matched. The p q r s t
A
statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the
statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given B p q r s t
statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
C p q r s t
MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be D p q r s t
darkened as illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are A-p, s and t; B-q and r; C-p and q; and
D-s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the
following.
1. Match the radicals mentioned in Column-I with their reactions mentioned in Column-II.
Column – I Column – II
(A) Fe2+ (p) Forms precipitate with KCN, which is
soluble in excess of the reagent.
(B) Hg2+ (q) Forms precipitate with NaOH and
NH4OH, which is insoluble in both
excess of reagent.
(C) Pb2+ (r) forms coloured precipitate with KI,
which is soluble in excess of reagent.
(D) Ag+ (s) forms black precipitate with H2S which
is soluble in hot and dilute HNO3.
2. Match the aqueous solutions of acids, bases and salts mentioned in Column-I with their
pH and nature mentioned in Column-II.
Column – I Column – II
(A) HCOOH ( p a = 3.74, 0.1 M) + (p) Acidic buffer at its maximum capacity
K
HCOONa (0.1 M)
(B) CH3COOH (0.1 M) + HCl (0.1 M) (q) behaves as a buffer
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
1. 4.48 litre of an ideal gas at STP requires 12 calorie to raise the temperature by 15oC at
constant volume. What is the value of CP of the gas in calorie unit?
2. How many maximum number of nitro product(s) is/are formed when CH3CH2CH3 reacts
with fuming HNO3?
3. The half-life of a zero order reaction is 4 sec. How much seconds is needed for 75%
completion of the reaction?
4. What is the sum of the number of equivalents of glucose and the number of equivalents
of phenylhydrazine required to form one equivalent of glucosazone?
5.
Compound X dissociates according to the reaction 2X g
2Y g Z g , with
degree of dissociation which is small compared with unity, if expression for in terms
1/n
2K p
of equilibrium constant Kp and total pressure P is given as . The value of n is
P
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6. In the present graphs, the area of circle A and B are 25 unit and 20
unit respectively. Work done will be ____ unit. P
A B
2B
k1
A k1 1
7. For a hypothetical elementary reaction, Where initially only 2
k2 2
k2
2C
moles of A are present. Total number of moles of A,B and C at the end of 75% reaction
are X. What will be the value of 2X
8. A vessel of 250 litres was filled with 0.01 mole of Sb2S3 and 0.01mole of H2 to attain the
equilibrium at 4400C as Sb2S3 s 3H2 g
2Sb s 2H2S g . After equilibrium,
the H2S formed was analysed by dissolved it in H2O and treating with excess of Pb2 to
give 1.19g of PbS MPb 207 as precipitate. The value of Kc at 4400C is _____.
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SECTION – A
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
1. Let a,b and c be three vectors having magnitudes 1, 1 and 2 respectively. If
a a c b 0, then
(A) b is in the plane of a and c (B) b is parallel to a c
(C) angle between a and c is 30 o (D) angle between a and c is 150o
3 1
2. The number of solutions of equation 8 sin x
cos x sin x
(A) 6 if x 0, 2 (B) 4 if x 0,
3
(C) 5, if x 0, (D) There does not exist any solution
2
3. If A and B are two orthogonal matrices of order n and det A det B 0, then which of
the following must be correct
(A) det A B det A det B (B) det A B 0
(C) A + B = 0 (D) None of above are always correct
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2 2
x sin x 1 sin , x 0,1 then
4. Consider the function g defined by g x x x 1
0, if x 0,1
which of the following statement (s) is/are correct?
(A) g x is differentiable x R
(B) g ' x is discontinuous at x 0 but continuous at x = 1
(C) g ' x is discontinuous at both x 0 and x 1
(D) Rolle’s theorem is applicable for g x in [0, 1]
A(t) B(t)
O X O X
M (t, 0)
M(t, 0)
A(t) is the area under the curve , y sin x 2 from 0 to t and B (t) is the area of the triangle
A t
with vertices O, P and M (t, 0).Then Lim equals
t 0 Bt
2 3
(A) (B)
3 2
1
(C) (D) 1
2
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10
8. In the expansion of 2x 3y z , then which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct?
(A) The expansion will contain 66 terms
(B) Sum of all the coefficients is 0.
10! 9
(C) The coefficient of x 2 y 3 z5 equals
5!
(D) None of these
100
100 k
9. The coefficient of x 50 in the expansion of 100
Ck x 2 3k is also equal to
k 0
(A) number of ways in which 50 identical books can be distributed in 100 students, if
each student can get atmost one book.
(B) number of ways in which 100 different white balls and 50 identical red balls can be
arranged in a circle, if no two red balls are together.
51
(C) numbers of dissimilar terms in x1 x 2 x 3 ..... x 50 .
2.6.10.14......198
(D)
50!
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SECTION – B
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains p q r s t
statements given in two columns which have to be matched. The p q r s t
A
statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the
statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given B p q r s t
statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
C p q r s t
MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be D p q r s t
darkened as illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are A-p, s and t; B-q and r; C-p and q; and
D-s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the
following.
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2. A plane passes through the point (1,1, 1) and is parallel to the vectors a = (–1, 1, 0)
and b 1,0, 1 meets the axis in A, B and C forming the tetrahedron OABC where O
is origin.
Column - I Column - II
(A) Volume of the tetrahedron OABC in cubic units (p) 9
2
(B) Area of the faces of the tetrahedron in square units (q) 9 3
2
(C) Distance of the points 3 3 / 2, 3 3,3 form the plane (r)
3
in units
(D) Distance of the faces of the tetrahedron from the (s) 3
opposite vertex
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
1. The roots of the equation z4 az3 12 9i z2 bz 0 are the vertices of a square then
area of square is __________
1
2 3x 4x 2
2. Let dx then find the value of 2 .
2
0 2 x x 1
3. The triangle ABC, right angled at C, has median AD, BE and CF. AD lies along the line
y x 3, BE lies along the line y 2x 4 . If the length of the hypotenuse is 60 and area
2
of ABC 100 k then k is ______________
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4. Water is drained from a vertical cylindrical tank by opening a valve at the base of the
tank. It is known that the rate at which the water level drops is proportional to the square
root of water depth y, where the constant of proportionality k > 0 depends on the
acceleration due to gravity and the geometry of the hole. If time to empty the tank be T
T
minutes, then
10
1
2n 2 2n 2 1 2
5. If tan 2
tan k then find the value of k
2
n 1 2 n 1
6. If x, y, z are positive real numbers and x y z 1, then find the minimum value of
4 9 16 1
. is ___________
x y z 27
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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced), 2017
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – I
Paper 2
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
Section-A (07 to 14) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 2 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-A (15 – 18) contains 4 Paragraph Type questions: Each question has FOUR options
(A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct. Each question carries +3
marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
Enrolment No.
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
3
1. A glass slab of thickness t = 3 cm, R.I. is placed
2 Object
between the object O and the concave mirror of focal O
length f = 4.5 cm. It is observed that the image is formed
at the object. If we withdraw the slab, the image will be
formed at a distance of
x
(A) 10 cm/11 (B) 30 cm/11
(C) 80 cm/11 (D) 90 cm/11
2. Two tuning forks when sounded together give 8 beats/s. When A is sounded with air
column of length 37.5 cm closed at one end resonance occurs in its fundamental mode.
B gives resonance with air column of length 38.5 cm and closed at one end in its
fundamental mode. The frequencies of tuning forks are
(A) 300 Hz, 300 Hz (B) 300 Hz, 308 Hz
(C) 308 Hz, 308 Hz (D) 308 Hz, 300 Hz
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4. The height at which the acceleration due to gravity decreases by 36% of its value on the
surface of the earth. (The radius of the earth is R)
R R
(A) (B)
6 4
R 2
(C) (D) R
2 3
6. A ray of light enters into the prism normally with the face-1 and
comes out normally with the face-3. The minimum R.I. of the
prism is
(A) cosec (B) tan
2 1
(C) sec (D) cosec 2
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based
on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which
only ONE is correct
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18. The greatest positive value of electric potential for points of the x-axis for which
0 x 6m is :
(A) 10 V (B) 20 V
(C) 30 V (D) 40 V
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
4. Which of the following compound can decrease the freezing point of water by maximum
extent if equal moles are added?
(A) CH3CH2Cl (B) CH3CH2OH
(C) CH3CHO (D) CH3CH = CH2
5. Zn(s)|Zn2+(aq)||Cu2+(aq)|Cu(s)
Which of the following activity can increase the cell potential of the above
electrochemical cell?
(A) Addition of water to the anode half-cell
(B) Addition of water to the cathode half-cell
(C) Increasing temperature
(D) Addition of same amount of water to both half-cells
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6. FeSO4 X Y Z
The products of above reaction are:
(A) FeO, SO2 and SO3 (B) Fe2O3, SO2 and SO3
(C) FeO, SO2 and O2 (D) Fe2O3, SO2 and O2
8. Which of the following are the common metallurgical processes which are used for the
extraction of zinc from ZnS and ZnCO3?
(A) Calcination (B) Roasting
(C) Carbon reduction (D) Distillation
9. NH4 2 Cr2O7
Cr2O3 N2 4 H2O
The correct statement(s) regarding the above reaction is/are
(A) It is an intramolecular redox reaction
(B) It is a disproportionation reaction
(C) Chromium is reduced
(D) The reaction leaves a green residue
10. In which of the following the value of a (van der Waal’s) constant of the left side gas is
greater than that of the right side gas?
(A) SO2, CH4 (B) H2, NH3
(C) CO, N2 (D) He, SO2
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11. In which of the following option(s) the left side compound is more soluble in water than
the right side compound?
(A) Mg(OH)2, Ba(OH)2 (B) MgSO4, BaSO4
(C) NaOH, Mg(OH)2 (D) BeCO3, CaCO3
14. A plot of ln [A]t vs t (where, [A]t is the concentration of the reactant at time t) for a first
order reaction is linear with a negative slope of 0.0231 sec-1. Then
(A) The initial concentration of the reactant will reduce to half in 30 seconds.
(B) A plot of t1/2 vs concentration of reactant will give a straight line passing through
origin.
(C) The reaction will be 90% complete in 100 seconds.
(D) The line in ln[A]t vs t plot will be steeper at higher temperature.
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based
on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which
only ONE is correct
When CuSO4 solution is electrolysed in a copper voltameter for 30 sec, then ‘m’ gram of copper
was deposited. The time-current graph for the electrolysis is:
300
200
Current (mA)
100
10 20 30
Time (in sec)
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Halogens combine with each other to form interhalogen compounds. Halide ions often react with
molecules of halogens or interhalogens to form polyhalide ions consisting either of the same
halogen or of two or three different halogens. Besides these, a few other anions are known,
which do not contain any of the halogen atoms but behave like halide ions. These anions are
called pseudohalides and consist of two or more atoms of which one is always a nitrogen atom.
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SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
n 1 n n
n 1 r . Cr Cr 1
1. The value of
r 0 n
r 2 is
2n 1 2n
(A) Cn1 (B) Cn1
2n 1 2n
(C) Cn1 (D) Cn2
2. An infinite geometric progression has a positive common ratio and third term equal to 8.
The smallest possible value of its sum is
(A) 54 (B) 56
(C) 64 (D) 72
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5. A variable circle is drawn to pass through (1, 0) and to touch the line x y 0 . Let S = 0
represent the locus of the centre of the circle, then S = 0 represents
(A) pair of parallel straight lines (B) circle
(C) parabola (D) none of these
6. The sum of solution(s) of the equation 2 x x 6 x (where [.] denotes the greatest
integer function and {.} denotes fractional part function) is
5
(A) 0 (B)
3
3 8
(C) (D)
5 5
7. The equation
1 sin x
2 k 1 sin x 2
, x R has real solution. Then the
2
sin x cos x sin x sin x cos 2x k 2
range of k is
1
(A) (–2, –1) (B) 1,
2
(C) 0, 1 (D) 1,
8. If the function f x ax e bx has a local maximum at the point (2, 10) then
(A) a = 5e (B) a = 5
(C) b = 1 (D) b = 1/2
9.
2 tan tan1 x tan1 x 3 , where x R 1, 1 is equal to
2x
(A)
1 x2
(B) tan 2 tan1 x
(C) tan cot 1 x cot 1 x (D) tan 2cot x 1
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10. The volume of the parallelepiped whose coterminous edges are represented by the
vectors 2b c, 3c a and 4a b, where a 1 sin ˆi cos ˆj sin 2k,
ˆ
2 ˆ 2 ˆ 4 ˆ
bˆ sin i cos j sin 2 k,
3 3 3
2 ˆ 2 ˆ 4 ˆ
c sin
3 i cos 3 j sin 2 3 k is 18 cubic units, then the value of ,
in the interval 0, , is are
2
2
(A) (B)
9 9
4
(C) (D)
3 3
11. A player tosses a coin. He sets one point for head and two points for tail. He plays till he
gets sum of points equal to n. If pn be the probability that his score becomes n, then
1 1 1
(A) p3 (B) pn Pn1 Pn2
2 2 4
11 1
(C) p4 (D) pn pn1 pn 2
16 2
12. In ABC, on the side BC, D and E are points such that BD = DE = EC. Also
ADE AED , then
(A) 3 tanB tan C 2 tan (B) tanB tan C 3 tan
6 tan 6 tan
(C) tan A (D) tan A
9 tan2 tan2 9
Space for Rough work
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13. Vectors a,b,c are three unit vectors and c is equally inclined to both a and b . Let
a b c b c a 4 x 2 b 4x cos2 a , then
( a and b are non – collinear vectors, x 0 )
(A) x 2 (B) 0o
(C) (D) none of these
14. If x cos 39o sin57o , y cos 40o sin58o and z cos 41o sin59o then
(A) x y (B) y z
(C) z x (D) x z y
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based
on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which
only ONE is correct
A parabola touches the bisectors of the angle obtained by the lines x 2y 3 0 and
2x y 0 at the point M (1, 1) and N (0, –2) .
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17. The set of all values of b for which the equation blog x x 0 has exactly one real roots
is equal to
1
(A) 0, (B) (0, 1)
e
(C) , 0 (D) none of these
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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced), 2017
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – I
Paper 1
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-C.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
Section-A (06 to 13) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 2 mark for wrong
answer.
(ii) Section-C (01 to 05) contains 5 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer,
ranging from 0 to 9. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative
marking.
Enrolment No.
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 5. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
2. An object moves with velocity V ( ˆj) towards the inclined plane Y( ˆj)
V
mirror as shown in figure. The velocity of the image is
3 ˆ Vˆ
(A) V ˆj (B) V ( i) j
2 2
3 ˆ Vˆ V 3 ˆ 30°
(C) V i j (D) ( ˆi) V ( j) ˆ
X(i)
2 2 2 2
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r
4. The electric potential between a proton and an electron is given by V = V 0 ln
, where r0
r0
is a constant. Assuming Bohr’s model to be applicable, write variation of rn with n, n
being the principal quantum number.
(A) rn n (B) rn 1/n
(C) rn n2 (D) rn 1/n2
5. A string of mass m is fixed at both ends. The fundamental tone oscillation are excited in
the string with angular frequency and maximum displacement amplitude A. Find the
total energy contained in the string.
1 1
(A) m2 A 2 (B) m2 A 2
2 4
1 1
(C) m 2 A 2 (D) m2 A 2
6 8
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7. A point moves with deceleration along the circle of radius R so that at any time its
tangential and normal acceleration are equal in magnitude. At the initial moment t =0,
the velocity of the point is v 0 . The velocity of the point will be
v0
(A) v at t second (B) v v 0 eS / R after displacements
v0t
1
R
v0
(C) v v 0 eSR after displacements (D) v at t second
v t
1 0
R
8. A block of mass 1 kg moves under the influence of external forces on a rough horizontal
surface. At some instant, it has a speed of 1 m/s due east and an acceleration of 1 m/s 2
due north. The force of friction acting on it is F
(A) F acts due west
(B) F acts due south
(C) F acts in the south west direction
(D) the magnitude of F cannot be found from the given data
9. A particle is taken from point A to point B under the influence of a force field. Now it is
taken back from B to A and it is observed that the work done in taking the particle from A
to B is not equal to the work done in taking it from B to A. If W nc and W c is the work done
by non conservative forces and conservative forces present in the system respectively,
U is the change in potential energy, k is the change is kinetic energy, then
(A) Wnc U k (B) Wc U
(C) Wnc Wc k (D) Wnc U k
10. A horizontal disc rotates freely about a vertical axis through its centre. A ring, having the
same mass and radius as the disc, is now gently placed on the disc. After some time,
they rotate with a common angular speed.
(A) some friction exists between the disc and the ring.
(B) the angular momentum of the disc plus ring is conserved.
2
(C) the final common angular speed is rd of the initial angular velocity of the disc.
3
2
(D) rd of the initial kinetic energy changes to heat.
3
Space for Rough work
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11. If electron of the hydrogen atom is replaced by another particle of same charge but of
double the mass, then:
(A) Bohr radius will increase
(B) ionisation energy of the atom will be doubled
(C) speed of the new particle in a given state will be lesser than the electron’s speed in
same orbit
(D) gap between energy levels will now be doubled
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
2. An ideal gas is expanding such that PT2 = constant. The coefficient of volume expansion
of the gas is A/T where T is temperature in kelvin. Find the value of A.
+ +
5V - 5V -
b
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 5. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
1. 100 mL of a sample of hard water requires 25.1 mL of 0.02 N H2SO4 for complete
reaction. The hardness of the sample is:
[Density of the sample = 1 g/mL]
(A) 200 ppm (B) 250 ppm
(C) 251 ppm (D) 258 ppm
4. Four separate solutions (each of 0.1 M) of four sodium salts NaW, NaX, NaY and NaZ
has pH 7.0, 9.0, 10.0 and 11.0 respectively. The acid with the lowest pKa value is
(A) HW (B) HX
(C) HY (D) HZ
5. What would be the formula of an ionic solid which crystals contains b.c.c unit cell in
which X2+ ions are present at the body centre of Y2– ions at the corners?
(A) X2Y (B) XY
(C) XY2 (D) X2Y3
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6. In which of the following option(s) the dipole moment of the left side molecule is greater
than that of the right side molecule?
(A) NH3, NF3 (B) SCl2, BeCl2
(C) SF4, CF4 (D) PF5, IF5
7.
KC for the reaction 2A (g) + B(g) -2 o -1
A2B(g) is 2 10 at 25 C and it is 2 10 at
50oC. Choose the incorrect statement (s) from the following
(A) Decomposition of A2B is favoured at low temperature
(B) Formation of A2B is favoured at low pressure.
(C) Formation of A2B is favoured by introducing an inert gas at constant pressure.
(D) Decomposition of A2B is favoured by removing B(g) from the reaction mixture
Pressure (atmosphere)
reached by either of the two paths shown in figure. Which
of the following choice (s) is (are) correct? [Take S as
x y
change is entropy H change is enthalpy and W as work
done]
(A) S x z S x y S y z
(B) Wx z Wx y W z
y z
(C) Wx y z Wx y
Volume (litre)
(D) Hx y z Hx z
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10. Which of the following ion(s) form(s) precipitate with aqueous ammonia solution in
presence of ammonium chloride?
(A) Ca2+ (B) Fe3+
(C) Cr3+ (D) Al3+
11. Which of the following ion(s) maintain an identical d-orbital configuration while forming
octahedral complexes with strong field as well as weak field ligands according to crystal
field theory?
(A) Fe2+ (B) Co2+
(C) Ni2+ (D) Zn2+
12. Which of the following pair has same net dipole moment
F
F
(A) (B)
, ,
F
F F
F ,
(C) (D)
,
F F
H H N
H
(A) iv > v > ii > iii > i (B) v > iv > ii > iii > i
(C) i > ii > iii > iv > v (D) v > iv > iii > ii > i
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
1. What is the sum of azimuthal quantum number of all the valence electrons of aluminum?
[At. No. of Al = 13]
3. The formula of a spinel is MgAl2O4. How many effective no. of anionic vacancy for unit
cell will be created if the oxide ions of the spinel are replaced by X-8/3 ions?
4. The radiator of a car contains 50.5 g water. If 6.2 g of glycol (HOCH2CH2OH) is added to
it, the solution freezes at –4oC. How many gram of ice will be separated in the process?
[Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1]
5. How many maximum gram of aluminium will be deposited by passing 96500 ampere
current for one second through molten aluminium nitrate?
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SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 5. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct
1. If A and B are orthogonal square matrices of same order and A B 0 , then the matrix
A B is always
(A) Invertible (B) Singular
(C) Non – Null matrix (D) None of these
2. 3 Tangents are drawn at random to a given circle in a plane. The probability that the
circle is inscribed in the triangle formed by them is
1 1
(A) (B)
2 3
1 1
(C) (D)
4 8
3. The number of 6 digit numbers which are divisible by 3 and do not contain the digit 3 is
(A) 23 36 (B) 23 39
(C) 243 6 (D) 2439
4.
A monic quadratic trinomial P (x) is such that P x 0 and P P P x 0 have a
common root, then
(A) P 0 .P 1 0 (B) P 0 P 1 0
(C) P 0 P 1 0 (D) Data insufficient
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x2
dt
7. Let F : 1, R be a function defined as F x n t . Which of the following
x
statements are correct?
(A) F x is strictly decreasing (B) Range of F x is 0,
(C) Range of F x is n 2, (D) F x is one – one function
8. The sequence 1, 3, 4, 9, 10, 12, 13,……consists of all those positive integers which are
powers of 3 or sums of distinct powers of 3. The hundredth term of this sequence is less
than
(A) 982 (B) 983
(C) 981 (D) 980
9. A chord of negative slope from the point P 264, 0 is drawn to the ellipse
x 2 4y 2 16 . This chord intersects the ellipse at A and B (O is the origin).
(A) The maximum area of AOB is 4
(B) The maximum area of AOB is 8
1
(C) If the area of AOB is maximum, then the slope of line AB is
2 2
1
(D) If the area of AOB is maximum, then the slope of line AB is
8 2
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10. A parallelogram is constructed with its sides parallel to the asymptotes of the hyperbola
x 2 2y 2 4x 4y 2 0 and one of its diagonals is a chord of the same hyperbola. If
the other diagonal passes through a fixed point (a, b) a,b R then
(A) a b 3 (B) a b 3
ab a b
(C) r 6
r 1
(D) r 6
r 1
11. If m,n N such that m < n and the last three digits of 2978m and 2978n are same then
(A) the least value of m is 1 (B) the least value of m is 3
(C) the least value of n is 100 (D) the least value of n is 103
12. If the sum of squares of 3 real numbers a, b, c is equal to 1, then the value of expression
2 2 2
4a 3b 5b 4c 3c 5a is always less than
(A) 50 (B) 51
(C) 52 (D) 53
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
xm f 1 h x 1 2
1. If g x lim m
is continuous at x = 1 and g 1 lim n ex n x then
2x 3x 3
m x 1
3. A coin of radius 1 cm is thrown at random onto an infinite chessboard with a side length
of each square as 4 cm. If the probability that the coin intersects at most one side of a
p
square is (where p and q are coprime) then find the value of p q 2
q
4. Consider a parabola touching x – axis at A (2, 0) and y – axis at B (0, 1). If , be the
focus then 2 is equal to
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