29-07-2018 A

MEDICAL
Entrance Exams - 2019

TEST No. 1
(XII Studying Students)

(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Limited)

 Test No. 1

Electrostatics and Current Electricity

Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry

Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual reproduction in Flowering Plants,

Heredity and Variation, Human Reproduction and Reproductive Health
Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019

Time : 3 Hrs. T EST – 1 MM : 720

[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. If a dielectric material of dielectric constant r is 3. Four point charges each of magnitude Q and mass
completely filled between two point charges as m are moving on a circular path with uniform speed
shown in the figure, then the net electrostatic force under the influence of electrostatic force as shown in
on q1 is
figure. If AB = BC = CD = DA = 2R , then speed

⎛ ⎞
q1 q2 of either of them is ⎜ k  1 ⎟
⎝ 4  0 ⎠

1 q1q 2 1 q1q2
(1) 4  (2) 4  
0 r 2
0 r r2 B A
+ –
r q1q2
(3) (4) Zero
r

40 r2 O
– +
C D
2. Two identical electric dipoles of dipole moment p are
placed as shown in figure. The electrostatic force on
⎛ 1 ⎞
dipole placed along x axis is (d < < r) ⎜ k 
⎝
⎟
40 ⎠
(1)
2 
2  1 kQ ²

y 4mR

2 
2  1 kQ ²
+q
d d (2)
d 2 2 2mR
2
d
O + – x
q –q
2
–
–q
r
(3)
2 
2 – 1 kQ ²
4mR
6kp2 6kp2
(1) i (2) (– i )
r4 r4
2 
2 – 1 kQ ²
3kp2 3kp ˆ 2 (4)
(3) (– j ) (4) j 2mR
r4 r4
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 1 (Code-A)
4. Positive charge is uniformly distributed with volume 6. Two identical point charges are placed at A and B.
charge density  of sphere of radius R. A spherical
⎛ 1 ⎞
The potential difference VO – VC is ⎜ k  4 ⎟
cavity is created in the sphere as shown in figure.
The electric field intensity inside the cavity at point ⎝ 0⎠

R 2R
P is (where CP  , C0C  , radius of cavity is Y
5 3
R C
, C 0 & C are centre of sphere & cavity
4
respectively)
Q+ +Q X
R B O A
P R R
C0 C

(1) Zero

kQ
    (2)
R
(1) 3 C0 P (2) 3 PC
0 0
2kQ
  (3)
R
(3) 3 C0C (4) Zero
0
(2  2)kQ
5. A wire AMB is placed along y-axis having linear (4)
charge density  C/m. The electric field intensity at R
point P is (PM = 0.1 m) 7. The magnitude electric potential difference between
A and B for a given infinite line charge having uniform
B density  is approximately (Given log e 2 = 0.7,
 = 10–8 C/m)


37°
M 37°
P
A B

r0
2r0
A
(1) 1.08 × 1011  (V/m) (1) 126 V
(2) 1.08 × 1010 (V/m) (2) 63 V
(3) 1.54 × 1011  (V/m) (3) Zero
(4) 1.54 × 1010  (V/m) (4) 31.5 V
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Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
8. The uniform electric field is along positive y-axis and
R
positive x-axis are shown in figure. The signs of 10. A point charge q0 is placed at a distance from
potential difference V P – V Q and V B – V A 2
respectively are the centre O of an uncharged conducting spherical
shell of radius R as shown in the figure. Electric
potential at the centre of shell is

Q
P A B
O q0
R
(ii) R/2
(i)
(1) +, +
(2) –, +
q0 q0
(3) +, – (1) 2 R (2) 4 R
0 0
(4) –, –
 q0
9. A short electric dipole having dipole moment P is
(3)  R (4) Zero
placed along x-axis as shown in figure. The electric 0
potential at point A(–2, 3) is
11. Some equipotential surfaces are shown in the figure.
⎛ 1 ⎞ The electric field intensity at origin is
⎜k  and all quantities are in SI units ⎟
⎝ 4  0 ⎠
Y

A
(–2,3)

 X
P
kP
(1) 
133/2
2kP (1) Zero
(2) 
133/2
(2) 1000 j V/m
–2kP
(3)
132 (3) 10(– j ) V/m
2kP
(4) 1000(– j ) V/m
(4)
13 2
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 1 (Code-A)
12. There are three conducting concentric spherical 14. There are two concentric metallic shells of radii R
shells having charges Q, –Q, 2Q respectively as and 2R. If outer shell is given charge q1, then charge
shown in figure. The electric field intensity at point P on surface of inner shell will be
⎛ 1 ⎞ – q1
is (where OP = 2.5R) ⎜ k  ⎟ (1) (2) – q1
⎝ 40 ⎠ 2

2Q q1
(3) (4) Zero
–Q
2
2R 15. An uncharged metallic solid sphere of radius R is
Q
3R placed at a distance 2R from point charge Q as
O shown in figure. The electric field intensity due to
R
P induced charge at centre of sphere is

(1) Zero R
+ X
3 kQ Q O
2R
(2)
4 R²

4kQ
(3) (1) Zero
25R ²
Q
kQ (2) towards left
(4) 20R 2
4R ²
13. Which of the following statements is incorrect about Q
electrostatics of conductors? (3) towards right
160 R 2
(1) If you are inside a charged conducting box, you
can safely touch any point on the inside walls of Q
(4) towards left
the box without being electrocuted. 160 R 2
(2) Electric field intensity at the surface of a 16. There are two concentric conducting spherical shells
   of radii 10 cm and 20 cm. The outer shell is charged
charged conductor E = n , where  is to a potential of 50 esu while inner shell is earthed.
0
The charge on outer shell is
surface charge density and n is a unit vector (1) 1000 esu
normal to the surface in outward direction
(2) 2000 esu
(3) Inside a conductor electrostatic field is zero
(3) 5 esu
(4) The interior of a cavity free conductor can have
excess charge in the static situation (4) 1500 esu

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Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
17. A parallel plate capacitor (not connected with battery) 20. A parallel plate capacitor charged to potential
having charge Q0, separation between plates d0 and difference V0. The variation of potential V from x = 0
area A0 is being pulled by external agent to increase to x = d is best described by
the separation by 100%, then (symbols have their
usual meanings)
+ –
(1) E = Constant, V = Constant and Q = Constant
(2) E = Constant, V increases and Q = Constant
(3) E decreases, V decreases and Q decreases
(4) E = Constant V decreases and Q = Constant V0
18. An arrangement of five identical capacitors is shown
in given circuit, the potential at X and Y are V=0
respectively
x=0 x=d

30 V V V
C C C C C
O V0 V0
A X Y B
(1) (2)

0 d
x 0 d
x
(1) 12 V and – 6 V V
(2) 18 V and – 12 V V
V0
(3) 6 V and 24 V 2
V0
(4) 24 V and 6 V d
(3) (4) 0 x
19. Two capacitors of capacitance 10 F and d
2
20 F are charged to potential 20 V and 10 V 0 d
x V0
respectively. If they are connected to share charges, –
2
then loss of energy is 21. The area of cross-section of a uniform cylindrical
conducting wire is decreased by 20% due to
1 stretching it. The percentage change in its resistance
(1) × 103 J
3 is (approximately)

(2) 3 × 103 J (1) 56% decreases

(2) 20% increases
(3) 500 J
(3) 56% increases
(4) Either (1) or (2)
(4) 20% decreases
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 1 (Code-A)
22. Which one of the following relations is incorrect? 26. The equivalent resistance between X and Y of
(Symbols have their usual meanings) network shown below, when switch S is closed
R 3R
 ne2  
(1) I = neAVd (2) J  E S
m
X Y
2
ne 
(3) V = IR (4)   3R R
m
3R
23. If two conducting wires A and B of same dimensions (1) 2R (2)
have electron density ratio 1 : 3. If their relaxation 4
time is same then the ratio of resistance of A to
3
resistance of B is (3) R (4) 4R
2
(1) 1 : 1
27. During an experiment with a meter bridge, the
(2) 3 : 1 galvanometer shows a null point when the jockey is
(3) 1 : 3 pressed at 40 cm from end A. The unknown
(4) 9 : 1 resistance R is

24. A current carrying conductor is connected with a cell, R
20
after some time temperature of conductor is
increased by 1 unit. The percentage change in its R
resistivity is (Here  is temperature coefficient of
resistivity)
G
(1) 100% (2) %
A B
  C
(3) % (4) % 40 cm 60 cm
100 10
(1) 30  (2) 60 
25. The voltmeter shown in the figure reads 10 V across (3) 20  (4) 40 
40 . The resistance of voltmeter is
28. There are ten identical cells each of emf 10 V and
20 V
internal resistance 0.25  are short circuited as
shown in figure. The value of potential difference
(VX – VY) is
V 40

20 X Y

(1) 10 
A R=0 B
(2) 20 
(3) 40  (1) Zero (2) 10 V
(4) Infinite (3) 20 V (4) Cannot be determined

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Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
29. The equivalent resistance between X and Y in circuit 32. In the given arrangement, the galvanometer shows
given below is null deflection. The value of X is
R R
R 40 
Y X 20
R 10 V
R G
50
X
5
R R

10R 17R 50
(1) (2) (1) 200  (2) 
17 10 9

6R 25
(3) (4) 7R (3) 25  (4) 
17 2
30. The electric current through 10  resistor in circuit 33. A carbon resistor has coloured strips as shown in
given below is figure. What is its resistance?
10 V, 1 Violet

10 V, 1
Red Blue Gold
(1) 26 × 107  ± 5% (2) 20 × 107  ± 5%
(3) 21 × 107 ± 5% (4) 26 × 107 ± 10%
10 34. There are some identical bulbs of 50 W, 200 V are
connected in parallel across 200 V source using
20
(1) 1 A (2) A 5 A fuse. How many maximum bulbs can be
21 operated safely among the following options?
21 (1) 19 (2) 21
(3) A (4) 20 A
20 (3) 40 (4) 15
31. A potentiometer wire has length 5 m and resistance 35. Two cities are 100 km apart. Electric power is sent
100 . A rheostat of range (100  – 1 k) and from one city to another city through copper wire.
accumulator of emf 20 V is connected with The fall of potential per km is 10 V and resistance
potentiometer wire. The maximum potential gradient per km is 1 . The power loss in the wire is
possible in the wire is (1) 1 kW
4 40 (2) 10 kW
(1) V/m (2) V/m
11 11 (3) 100 W
(3) 4 V/m (4) 2 V/m (4) 100 kW

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 1 (Code-A)
36. Which of the following statements is correct? (1) B3 < B2 < B1 (2) B1 < B2 < B3
(1) The drift velocity of electron in a conductor is in (3) B1 = B2 < B3 (4) B2 < B3 < B1
the direction of electric field 40. A battery of emf 10 V is connected with a load
(2) In series combination of resistor the equivalent resistance of 50 , the total power delivered by the
resistance is not greater than the greatest battery is 2 W. If load resistance is replaced by R
resistance present in the combination then power delivered is 4 W, the value of R is
(3) The terminal potential difference of a discharging (1) 10  (2) 15 
cell is more than emf of given cell (3) 30  (4) 25 
(4) The terminal potential difference of a charging 41. Two resistors with temperature coefficient of
cell cannot be less than emf of given cell resistances 4 × 10 –3/ºC and 2 × 10 –3/ºC have
37. The emf of a cell having internal resistance is resistances 20  and 10  respectively at 0ºC. If
they are connected in series, then equivalent
(1) Work done by cell in moving a unit positive temperature coefficient of resistor combination is
charge from positive terminal to negative terminal
inside the cell 8
(1) ×10–3/ºC (2) 6 × 10–3/ºC
(2) Work done by cell in moving a unit positive 3
charge from negative terminal to positive terminal 4 10
inside the cell (3) × 10–3/ºC (4) × 10–3/ºC
3 3
(3) Potential difference across external resistance 42. In which branch of the circuit shown in figure a
(4) Work done by cell for moving a unit positive 20 V ideal battery be inserted so that it delivers
charge against gravitational force. minimum power?
38. The potential gradient for a potentiometer depends on
(1) Resistivity of potentiometer wire
(2) Length of potentiometer wire 5 10 15 20

(3) The emf of driving cell

(4) All of these
39. There are three bulbs B 1 , B 2 and B3 rated as (1) 5  branch (2) 10  branch
100 W, 60 W and 60 W respectively. These can be (3) 15  branch (4) 20  branch
operated upto 200 V. Increasing order of their
brightness for given arrangement is 43. The equivalent emf between A and B in the given
figure is
B1 B2 1
10 V
A 0.5 B
B3
15 V
20 V 1
(1) 15 V (2) 10 V
100 V
(3) 25 V (4) 5 V

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Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019

44. Two resistances R 1 and R2 each of 100  are 45. The electric current drawn from cell is
connected with potential source of 40 V between A
and B. If resistance of voltmeter is 200 , then 20 V, 3
reading of voltmeter is
A B

12 10 10 10

30

C
R1 R2 D

2 4
(1) A (2) A
3 9
V
(1) 20 V (2) 40 V 4
(3) A (4) Zero
(3) 16 V (4) 24 V 15

[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. The number of carbon atoms present at lattice points
⎛ 1⎞
49. The slope of line plotted between In k versus ⎜ ⎟
and voids per unit cell of diamond respectively are
⎝T⎠
(1) 4, 4
for Arrhenius equation is given by
(2) 4, 2
Ea
(3) 1, 3 (1) 2.303R
(4) 2, 4
Ea
47. For an aqueous solution of K 4[Fe(CN) 6] (strong (2)  R
electrolyte) the van’t Hoff factor (i) will be
(1) 4 2.303Ea
(2) 1 (3)
R
(3) 3
R
(4) 5 (4) E
a
48. Which among the following is a best conductor of
electricity? 50. Smoke is a colloidal solution of
(1) 0.1 M aq. NH4OH (1) Solid in solid
(2) 0.1 M aq. urea (2) Solid in gas
(3) 0.1 M aq. CH3COOH (3) Gas in gas
(4) 0.1 M aq. NaCl (4) Gas in solid

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 1 (Code-A)
51. Select the correct statement regarding enzyme 0 0 0
(1) eq CH3COONa  eqNaCl  eqHCl
catalysis
0 0 0
(1) Enzymes are least reactive at optimum (2) eqNaCl  eqHCl  eq CH3COONa 
temperature 0 0 0
(3) eq CH3COONa  eqHCl  eqNaCl
(2) The optimum pH range for enzyme catalytic
0 0 0
activity is 7-10 (4) eq CH3COONa  eqHCl  eqNaCl
(3) Enzymes are simple nitrogenous compounds
57. The incorrect assumption regarding the Langmuir
having low molecular mass
adsorption isotherm of a gas on solid surface is
(4) Enzymes form colloidal solution in water (1) The adsorption sites are equivalent in their ability
52. The incorrect statement regarding defects in to adsorb the particles
crystalline solid is (2) It is unimolecular layer in nature
(1) Schottky defect decreases the density of ionic (3) It involves two opposite processes i.e.,
solid condensation of gas molecules and evaporation
(2) Frenkel defect does not affect the stability of of these molecules
ionic solid (4) The rate of condensation of a gas is independent
(3) Schottky defect increases electrical conductivity to the unoccupied surface of adsorbent
of ionic solid. 58. The property/properties, which depend(s) on the
(4) Frenkel defect is a dislocation defect. charge present on the colloidal particles is
(1) Electrophoresis (2) Coagulation
53. Upon mixing of acetone and ethanol, which of the
following is not observed? (3) Electro-osmosis (4) All of these
59. The specific rate (in mol L –1 s–1) of a first order
(1)  Hmix  0 (2)  Smix  0
reaction having half life of 6.93 seconds is
(3)  Gmix  0 (4)  Vmix  0 (1) 0.1 (2) 1

54. Which of the following change will increase the (3) 0.693 (4) 6.93
vapour pressure of one molal aq. KI solution? 60. If the half life period of a reaction becomes halved
when initial concentration of reactant is doubled, then
(1) Adding HgI2
the order of the reaction is
(2) Adding one molal aq. KI
(1) Zero (2) 2
(3) Adding I2 (3) 1 (4) 1.5
(4) Adding NaI 61. Dimerisation of NO2 is an exothermic reaction. If
55. In pure water at 298 K, the electrode potential of enthalpy of reaction is H, then the minimum value
H-electrode will be (Given PH2 = 10–14 atm) of activation energy for forward reaction (Ea) will be
(1) Equal to H
(1) 0 volt (2) 0.0591 volt
(2) Equal to zero
(3) – 0.0591 volt (4) – 0.1182 volt
(3) Greater than H
56. The equivalent conductance of CH3COOH at infinite
dilution is given by (4) Greater than Threshold energy

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Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
62. Which of the following forms anionic micelles above 67. The lowering in freezing point of 0.75 molal aqueous
a certain concentration? solution NaCl (80% dissociated) is [Given, Kf for
water = 1.86 K kg mol–1]
(1) Sodium dodecyl sulphate
(1) 2.51 K (2) –3.35 K
(2) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(3) 1.11 K (4) –2.51 K
(3) Dodecyltrimethyl ammonium chloride
68. The mole fraction of urea in its 2 molal aqueous
(4) Pyridinium chloride solution is
63. The correct order of coagulation values (in mmol L–1) (1) 0.0177 (2) 0.0215
of given electrolytes for the coagulation of As2S3 (3) 0.0347 (4) 0.0415
sol is
69. Which of the following expression represents the
(1) NaCl > MgCl2 > AlCl3 correct rate of given reaction?
(2) NaCl < Na2SO4 < Na3PO4 A  2B  3C  4D  5E
(3) Al2(SO4)3 > MgSO4 > NaCl
1 d[A] 1 d[D]
(4) AlCl3 > MgCl2 > NaCl (1) (2) 
2 dt 4 dt
64. The simplest formula of a compound whose cubic 1 d[B] 1 d[E]
unit cell contains A atoms on all corners, B atoms (3)  (4)
3 dt 5 dt
on alternate face centre and C atoms on one third
of edge centre, is 70. For the reaction, 3A  2B  C  Products, the
(1) ABC2 (2) AB3C3 following kinetic data was obtained

(3) ABC (4) A4B4C3 Initial concentration

Initial rate
–1 –1 –1 –1 –1
65. If the density of a unit cell of a salt AB (rock salt A(mol L ) B(mol L ) C(mol L ) (mol L s )
type structure) is 4 g/cm 3, then the distance of
closest approach between A+ and B– will be (Molar
0.01 0.005 0.01 5 × 10
–5

mass of AB = 75 g mol–1 and NA= 6 × 1023)

(1) 1.82 Å (2) 3.7Å 0.02 0.005 0.01 5 × 10
–5

(3) 2.5 Å (4) 4.8 Å

0.01 0.010 0.01 2.5 × 10
–5
66. Identify the incorrect match w.r.t. coordination number
of cation and anion in the given ionic solids.
Ionic solids Coordination Coordination 0.01 0.005 0.02 20 × 10
–5

no. of cation no. of anion

(1) NaCl 6 6 Hence, the rate of reaction is given by
(1) Rate = k [A] [B] [C]
(2) CaF2 4 8
(2) Rate = k [A]0 [B]–1 [C]2
(3) CsCl 8 8
(3) Rate = k [A] [B] [C]–2
(4) ZnS 4 4
(4) Rate = k [A] [B] [C]2

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 1 (Code-A)
71. One litre of 1 M aqueous NaCl solution is electrolysed 77. The decay constant () for radioactive decay is
by using 20 amp current (50% efficiency) for 96.5 independent of
seconds. The pH of solution after the electrolysis will (1) Amount of radioactive substance
be
(2) Temperature
(1) 12 (2) 14
(3) Pressure
(3) 13.5 (4) 7
(4) All of these
72. The value of EoA 3  / A 2  (in volt) will be
78. Which of the following is not an application of
[Given, Eo 3   x V and EoA 2  / A   y V ] adsorption?
A /A
(1) –3x – 3y (2) 3x + 2y (1) Removal of moisture using anhydrous CaCl2
(3) –3x + 2y (4) 3x – 2y (2) Use of gas masks to purify the air for breathing
73. The equilibrium constant for the cell (3) Concentration of low grade sulphide ores using
pine oil and frothing agent
Cu  s   2Ag  aq  Cu2   aq   2Ag  s  , at 298K (4) Chromatographic technique is used in purification
of organic compounds
is [Given, EoAg / Ag  0.8 V and EoCu2  /Cu  0.34 V ]
79. Select the incorrect statement among the following.
(1) 1038.57 (2) 1015.57 (1) Metals having conductivities in the order of
(3) 1020.25 (4) 1041.23 107 –1m–1 are good conductors
74. If two liquids A (boiling point = t1°C) and B (boiling (2) Solids having conductivities range 10 –6 to
point = t2°C) on mixing forms azeotropic solution 104 –1m–1 are termed as semiconductors
which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law, then
(3) Solids having conductivities range 10 –10 to
boiling point of azeotropic solution will be [Given,
10–20 –1m–1 are termed as insulators
t1 > t2)
(4) Conductivity of TiO3 is independent of temperature
(1) > t1 (2) > (t1 + t2)
(3) = t1 (4) < t2 80. Among the seven crystal systems, how many
systems have body-centred unit cell as a possible
75. A solution of 18% (mass/vol) glucose is isotonic with
variation?
x% (mass/vol) KCl solution. If KCl is 90%
dissociated, then value of x is (Mol. mass of KCl = (1) 3 (2) 4
74.5 g mol–1) (3) 5 (4) 6
(1) 2.67 (2) 4.35
81. When temperature of a reaction is raised from 17°C
(3) 3.92 (4) 3.12 to 27°C, the rate of reaction becomes double, then
76. Let gas(A) present in air is dissolved in 20 moles of energy of activation of the reaction will be
water at 298 K and 20 atm pressure. The mole approximately
fraction of gas (A) in air is 0.2 and the Henry’s law
constant for solubility of gas(A) in water at 298 K is (1) 18 kcal mol–1
1×105 atm. The number of mole of gas (A) dissolved (2) 50 kJ mol–1
in water will be
(3) 42 kcal mol–1
(1) 8 × 10–5 (2) 4 × 10–4
(4) 38 kJ mol–1
(3) 8 × 10–4 (4) 6 × 10–5
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Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
82. Identify the process in which heterogeneous catalysis 87. If G° value of fuel cell using C 4H10 and O 2 is
is involved –2.6 × 106 J, then E° value of cell is
(1) Formation of SO3 in lead chamber process (1) 2.05 V
(2) Hydrolysis of methyl acetate in acidic medium (2) 1.04 V
(3) Formation of NO in Ostwald’s process (3) 1.85 V
(4) Hydrolysis of sucrose in acidic medium (4) 2.68 V
83. During the electrolysis of water, if 11.2 litre H2 is 88. Select the incorrect statement among the following
obtained at S.T.P at cathode, then mass of O2 (1) For hygroscopic substance, vapour pressure of
obtained at anode is
water in their solution state is lower than vapour
(1) 8 g (2) 16 g pressure of water in air
(3) 32 g (4) 4 g (2) Efflorescent crystals release water vapours
84. On diluting aqueous solution of weak electrolyte to (3) Hygroscopic and deliquescent salts absorb
100 times moisture
(1) Specific conductance increases but equivalent (4) Moist air is heavier than dry air
conductance decreases
89. The resistance and specific conductance of 0.1 M
(2) Molar conductance decreases but equivalent solution of an electrolyte is 40  and 0.014 S cm–1
conductance increases respectively. For the 0.2 M solution of same
(3) Specific conductance increases but molar electrolyte if resistance is 210 , then the molar
conductance decreases conductivity( in S cm² mol–1) will be
(4) Specific conductance decreases but molar (1) 13.33
conductance increases.
(2) 5.55
85. Which among the following has the highest melting
point? (3) 6.28

(1) SiC (2) NaCl (4) 15.35

(3) Dry ice (4) Copper 90. Among the given properties of solution, how many
are colligative properties?
86. Identify the incorrect match with respect to the
products obtained during the electrolysis of given aq.
Osmotic pressure, Relative lowering in
solution of electrolytes in presence of Pt-electrodes.
vapour pressure, Boiling point, Elevation in
Electrolytes Cathode Anode boiling point, Vapour pressure
(1) Na2SO4 H2(g) O2(g)
(1) 3
(2) KCl H2(g) Cl2(g)
(2) 4
(3) Cu(NO3)2 Cu(s) O2(g) (3) 1
(4) H2SO4 H2(g) SO3(g) (4) 2

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 1 (Code-A)

[ BIOLOGY ]
91. How many of the following plants, flower only once 96. Mark the incorrect statement for water hyacinth.
in their life?
(1) Was introduced in Bengal due to its beautiful
Rice, Carrot, Mango, Apple, Jackfruit,
flowers and shape of leaves
Neelakurinji, China rose, Bamboo species,
Wheat (2) Produces its clones in short period of time at a
(1) 6 (2) 5 phenomenal rate
(3) 4 (4) 3 (3) An invasive weed of standing water bodies
92. Select the odd one w.r.t plant groups that use water (4) Releases some toxins which lead to death of
as a medium for male gamete transfer. fishes
(1) Algae (2) Bryophytes
97. Examine the figures (A-D) given below showing
(3) Pteridophytes (4) Gymnosperms different structures of reproduction
93. Match the columns and select the correct option
Column I Column II
a. Penicillium (i) Rhizome
b. Water hyacinth (ii) Bulbils
c. Agave (iii) Conidia
d. Ginger (iv) Offset A. B.
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
94. How many of the following features are true for Chara?
a. Mostly dioecious.
b. Female sex organ at lower position than male.
c. Nucule occupies upper position than the globule.
C. D.
d. Globule matures later than nucule.
e. Produces both motile male and female gametes.
f. Male gametes are produced inside the globule. Choose the correct structure/figure which produces
new genetic combinations
(1) Three (2) Four
(1) B
(3) Two (4) One
(2) A
95. An alga which produces motile homogametes is
(3) D
(1) Fucus (2) Spirogyra
(4) C
(3) Cladophora (4) Volvox
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Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
98. Which statement is not true for an anther? 103. Cleistogamy does not impose high cost on plants
(1) Outer three layers of anther wall perform for pollination but still it is restricted to few plant
protection and help in dehiscence of anther species only, because

(2) Developing pollen grains are nourished by the (1) It shows low yield of plants
layer having dense cytoplasm and generally (2) It restricts genetic variability in plants
more than one nucleus (3) Absence of beautiful flowers
(3) Hygroscopic fibrous bands are present on inner (4) Absence of pollinators
tangential wall of endothecium
104. Read the given features of a plant ‘A’.
(4) Pollen grains are dispersed in the form of
tetrads a. Non-sticky pollen grains.
99. A structure which represents the male gametophyte b. Well exposed stamens.
of angiosperms has c. Nectar absent.
(1) The most resistant organic material in its inner d. Flowers are packed into inflorescence.
layer
On the basis of above features, identify the type of
(2) Two male gametes in majority of angiosperms at pollinating agent preferred by the plant ‘A’ for
the time of dispersal pollination.
(3) Dependency on surrounding temperature and (1) Water (2) Insect
humidity to remain viable
(3) Wind (4) Bat
(4) Germ pores for release of male gametes directly
105. Identify the odd one w.r.t. ploidy level
into ovule
(1) Egg (2) Antipodals
100. Microspore mother cell is similar to megaspore
mother cell in all, except (3) Synergids (4) Secondary nucleus
(1) Being diploid (2) Producing gametes 106. Apomictic seeds are not found in
(3) Undergoing meiosis (4) Having callose layer (1) Citrus (2) Mango
101. Choose the incorrect feature regarding transmission (3) Grasses (4) Brassica
tissue 107. Parthenocarpy and apomixis are similar in
(1) Cells have deposition of pectin (1) Absence of fertilization
(2) Found in solid style (2) Absence of embryo formation
(3) Thick walled cells (3) Absence of fruit formation
(4) Pollen tube cannot grow through them (4) Absence of seeds
102. Which of the following pairs is not correctly 108. Read the following statements and mark them as
matched? True (T) or False (F).
(1) Ovule – Megasporangium a. Coconut water from tender coconut has
(2) Filiform apparatus – Synergids thousands of free nuclei.
(3) Apocarpus, multicarpellary gynoecium – Papaver b. Both endosperm and perisperm are similar in
(4) Largest cell of the embryo sac – Central cell ploidy level and their origin.

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 1 (Code-A)
c. Coleoptile is a hollow foliar structure that (1) A. Butterflies B. Aquilegia
encloses leaf primordia in embryo. C. Hydrilla D. Pollen robbers
d. Single, large shield shaped cotyledon of wheat (2) A. Bees B. Yucca
embryo is known as epiblast.
C. Amorphophallus D. Pollen robbers
a b c d
(3) A. Beetles B. Yucca
(1) T F F F
C. Amorphophallus D. Pollen robbers
(2) T F T F
(4) A. Bees B. Aquilegia
(3) T F F T
C. Pronuba D. Pollen robbers
(4) T T F F
112. Phenomenon unique to angiosperms is/are
109. Find the correct match w.r.t. seed.
(1) Syngamy (2) Triple fusion
(1) Seed coat – Represents integument of
ovary (3) Double fertilization (4) Both (2) & (3)
(2) Micropyle – Represents pore of ovary 113. In Citrus plants, many embryos are found in each
through which pollen tube seed. These embryos are clones of each other
enters except the one which is formed by
(3) Hilum – Represents the point at (1) Nucellus
which body of ovule was (2) Integument
attached with funicle
(3) Zygote
(4) Endosperm – Represents product of
(4) Both (1) & (2)
syngamy
114. Genetically different pollen grains and stigma of the
110. Choose the odd statement for pollen grains
same species participate in
(1) Pollen grains of some species cause severe
(1) Autogamy
allergies
(2) Can be used as food supplement (2) Geitonogamy

(3) Can be stored at –196°C in liquid N2 (3) Cleistogamy

(4) Have fascinating array of patterns and designs of (4) Xenogamy

pectocellulose on outer wall. 115. The monosporic embryo sac is
111. Complete the given statements by choosing the a. The most common embryo sac of angiosperms.
correct option for A, B, C and D.
b. Formed by single megaspore.
a. Among the insects, A are the dominant c. Formed by one meiosis in MMC and only two
biotic pollinators. sequential mitosis in functional megaspore.
b. B and C provide safe places for (1) Both a and c are true
egg laying as the floral rewards. (2) Only c is false
c. Insects which consume pollen or nectar without (3) All a, b and c are true
bringing about pollination are called D . (4) Only a is true

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Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
116. All of the following statements are true for the 120. A heterozygous round and yellow seeded pea plant
hybridisation experiments conducted by Mendel, was crossed with wrinkled and green seeded pea
except plant. Considering that the genes for seed shape and
(1) Experimented on 14 true breeding pea plant seed colour are completely linked, calculate the
varieties percentage of plants with round and green seeds.
(2) Also worked with hawkweed (1) 25%
(3) Experiments were conducted from 1854 to 1861 (2) 50%
(4) Statistical analysis and mathematical logic were (3) 0%
used for the first time in biology (4) 12.5%
117. Study the given pedigree chart of a family and select 121. Match the columns and select the correct option
the correct set of statements which can be drawn
for the character. Column I Column II

(I) 1 2
a. Co-dominance (i) Starch synthesis in
garden pea seeds
b. Incomplete dominance (ii) Phenylketonuria
(II) 1 2 3 4
c. Pleiotropy (iii) AB blood group
(III) (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
1 2 3 4 5
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
a. The trait under study is colour blindness.
b. The genotype of II-2 cannot be AA. (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

c. Pedigree is showing the inheritance of cystic (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)

fibrosis. 122. Two red eyed and brown bodied fruit flies were
d. The genotype of III-4 can be AA. crossed together and they produced male and
female offsprings in the following proportions
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(3) a and c (4) b, c and d
Features Male Female
118. Which of the given is not a test cross?
(1) Tt × tt
Red eyed 25% 100%
(2) RrYy × rryy Brown body
(3) Pure inflated pod pea plant × constricted pod
pea plant Red eyed 25% –
yellow body
(4) Red eyed hybrid female Drosophila × white eyed
male Drosophila White eyed
25% –
119. Select the correct match Brown body
(1) Linkage term – A.H. Sturtevant
White eyed –
(2) Chromosomal theory of Inheritance – Tschermak yellow body 25%
(3) Punett square – Reginald C. Punnett
Find out the genotype of the parental flies.
(4) Y-chromosome – Henking
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w+ y+ w+ y+ 127. Identify the chromosomal disorder on the basis of

(1) × given features of a male
w+ y+
a. Gynaecomastia
w+ y+ w+ y+
(2) × b. Small testes
w y
c. Taller than average height
w+ y w+ y+ (1) Turner syndrome
(3) ×
w+ y (2) Down’s syndrome

w y+ w+ y+ (3) Klinefelter’s syndrome

(4) × (4) Myotonic dystrophy
w y+
123. Find out the feature which does not hold true for 128. Mark the incorrect pair
multiple alleles. (1) Beard in man – Sex limited trait
(1) All the alleles occur on same locus of same
(2) Porcupine skin – Holandric trait
chromosome or its homologous chromosome.
(3) Pattern baldness – Sex influenced trait
(2) A gamete receives only one allele of the group
(3) Controls multiple characters in an individual (4) Thalassemia – Crisscross inheritance
(4) All the alleles can be detected in a population 129. Free ear lobe in humans is an autosomal dominant
only trait. The recessive individuals show fused ear lobes.
A child with fused ear lobes is born to a couple who
124. Choose the odd one w.r.t. characters of pea plants
have free ear lobes. What is the probability of their
used by Mendel for his experiments
next child to be with free ear lobes?
(1) Flower position (2) Seed shape
1 3
(3) Pod colour (4) Flower symmetry (1) (2)
4 4
125. A gene which masks the action of another non-
allelic gene is
1 1
(3) (4)
(1) Epistatic gene (2) Duplicate gene 2 8
(3) Complementary gene (4) Polymeric gene 130. Drosophila melanogaster was found to be suitable for
126. Sickle cell anaemia experiments by T.H. Morgan due to some of its
specific features. These features are all, except
a. Is an example of point mutation.
b. Is caused by transversion mutation in gene (1) Easy growth on simple synthetic media in the
controlling  chain of haemoglobin. laboratory

c. Involves replacement of amino acid valine by (2) Clear differentiation of sexes

glutamic acid. (3) Absence of linkage
(1) All a, b & c (2) a & c (4) Single mating produces large number of progeny
(3) a & b (4) b & c flies
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131. A woman with normal vision and albinism marries a 136. “The sizes of crows and parrots are not very different
man who is colour blind but have normal skin yet their life spans show wide difference”. This
pigmentation. If their son is with normal skin suggests that
pigmentation and normal vision then what will be the (1) Death of every individual organism is certain
chances of their daughter being colour blind and
albinic. [Albinism is recessive autosomal disorder] (2) Life spans of organisms are not necessarily
correlated with their sizes
(1) 100% or 12.5% (2) 0% or 25%
(3) No individual is mortal except single celled
(3) 75% or 25% (4) 0% or 12.5% organisms
132. In grasshopper, the male sex in progeny is decided (4) Life spans of all other organisms fall between the
by two extremes set by life span of above two
(1) Ova with (A + X) genotype organisms
(2) Sperm with (A + X) genotype 137. Death of a single cell represents death of an
organism. This holds true for
(3) Sperm with (A + O) genotype
(1) Apis (2) Aphis
(4) Sperm with (A + Z) genotype
(3) Amoeba (4) Aptenodytes
133. Which of the given characters is controlled by two
pairs of genes? 138. Poikilothermic animal with epidermal scales, lacking
cutaneous glands and with approximate life span
(1) Human skin colour
around 140 years is
(2) Flower colour in Snapdragon
(1) Parrot (2) Crocodile
(3) Kernel colour in wheat
(3) Tortoise (4) Elephant
(4) Flower colour in garden pea
139. Chromosome number in a gamete of Drosophila is
134. Select the set of parents who can never have a child 4. What is the chromosome number in meiocytes of
with ‘O’ blood group Musca?
a. B × AB b. A × AB (1) 8
c. AB × O d. A × B (2) 12
(1) c & d (3) 6

(2) a & b (4) 24

140. Select the statement/feature that is incorrect w.r.t
(3) a & d
external fertilisation?
(4) All except d (1) Gamete formation and fusion occur in external
135. Choose the genotype which does not represent a medium, i.e., water
true breeding/pure line. (2) Organisms involved in external syngamy are
(1) AABB generally anamniotes
(2) aabb (3) Simultaneous release of gametes by male and
female increases chances of zygote formation
(3) AAbb
(4) Disadvantage involved is susceptibility of
(4) AABb gametes to predators and natural calamities
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141. Select the correct match between column I and Choose the correct option.
column II. All data given is in context of animals. (1) a & b are correct
Column I Column II (2) c & d are correct
(1) Cell differentiation – Involves differential (3) a, b and d are incorrect
expression of genes (4) Only d is incorrect
that give rise to
different cell types 143. Metestrous and diestrous phases observed in
though all cells in an estrous cycle of dogs is comparable to luteal phase
animal contain the of primates. Which hormone is responsible for heat
same DNA period prior to these phases in animals such as
dogs?
(2) Drones – Males in honey bee
(1) LH (2) FSH
produce sperms
meiotically (3) Estrogen (4) Progesterone
(3) Zygote – Vital connecting link 144. Physical stimulus of mating triggers pituitary for LH
between members of surge resulting in ovulation. This is observed in
two generations (1) Dog (2) Cow
resulting from both
(3) Wolf (4) Rabbit
asexual and sexual
reproduction 145. Sexual reproduction in animals

(4) Gemmule formation – Method of reproduction (1) Can be uniparental or biparental

in Spongilla where (2) Ensures rapid multiplication as it’s a faster process
each archaeocyte of a (3) Occurs only under favourable conditions
gemmule can give rise
to a new sponge upon (4) Requires formation of gametes but never gamete
return of favourable fusion
conditions 146. Among the following, multiple fission is seen in all
except
142. Read the statements given below.
(1) Amoeba
a. Clonal members of a population exhibit low
adaptability (2) Paramoecium
(3) Monocystis
b. After initial supply of yolk has been exhausted,
growing individuals such as amphibian tadpole (4) Plasmodium
must seek its food from surrounding water 147. In majority of sexually reproducing organisms, the
c. All mammals retain the developing young one gametes produced are of morphologically two distinct
in their body for a much longer time period for types. They don’t differ generally on the basis of
protection and nourishment (1) Motility
d. Life expectancy, a characteristic feature of a (2) Size
species is nearly 67 for humans according to (3) Chromosome number
recent survey conducted in India
(4) Amount of cytoplasm
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148. If the zona pellucida around human zygote formed 153. The test tube baby program does not include which
in vitro is intact and zygote has undergone one of the following techniques?
maximum of three cleavage divisions, then it should
be transferred into which part of female reproductive (1) GIFT
tract? (2) ZIFT
(1) Cervix
(3) ICSI
(2) Vagina
(4) IUT
(3) Uterus
154. Technique called tubal ligation/cauterisation in a
(4) Fallopian tube
female
149. How many among the following can be classified as
sexually transmitted diseases? (1) Results in decline in estrogen levels

Encephalitis, Vitiligo, Psoriasis, (2) Prevents ovulation

Trichomoniasis, Rheumatoid arthritis, (3) Involves surgical removal of uterus
Trichinosis, AIDS
(4) Is a terminal method of contraception
(1) One (2) Two
155. Select the correct statement regarding the pill
(3) Four (4) Five
marketed by name ‘SAHELI’.
150. When did the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act
in India come into existence? (1) Its constituents promote formation of conceptus
(1) 1984 (2) 2002 during fertile period
(3) 1951 (4) 1971 (2) Ormeloxifene present in it is effective as
151. Voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term in selective estrogen receptor modulator(SERM)
humans (3) It is often called once a day pill during initial
(1) Can be considered extremely safe upto first three months of consumption
week of third trimester
(4) It was developed by Indian Council of Medical
(2) Is legal in early part of second trimester Research, Lucknow
depending on health of mother and foetus
156. Steroidal contraceptives differ from non-steroidal
(3) Is leading to altered sex ratio such that number
contraceptive drugs as
of females per 1000 males has exceeded 1005
in India (1) No menstruation occurs on consumption of
(4) Cannot involve the use of drugs like progesterone only pills
mifepristone but compounds like thalidomide (2) Hypothalamic-pituitary hormone axis is
are recommended
suppressed
152. Causative agent for which disease cannot be
cultured on artificial medium under laboratory (3) Endometrial receptivity for implantation is
conditions? increased
(1) Gonorrhea (2) Syphilis (4) Positive feedback of progesterone inhibits
(3) Chlamydiasis (4) Both (1) & (2) release of GnRH

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157. Match the disease given in Column I with the (3) Is most widely accepted method of contraception
principal causal organism or a feature in Column II in the world
and select the correct option given below. (4) Is a hormonal IUD that makes uterus unsuitable
Column I Column II for implantation
a. Trichomoniasis (i) Haemophilus ducrei 161. Read the statements given below and choose the
correct option.
b. Chancroid (ii) Human papilloma
(1) Permissible use of the technique amniocentesis
virus
in India is for detecting sex of the unborn foetus
c. Genital warts (iii) Venereal caused by a (2) Artificial insemination implies transfer of sperms
protozoan of a healthy donor to a test tube containing
d. Hepatitis B (iv) Inflammation of liver many ova
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (3) Use of ‘Nirodh’ prevents sperms from reaching
cervix
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) Generally chances of conception are nil as long
158. Read the statements given below. as mother breast feeds the young one
A. Secondary infertility is applicable to a nulliparous 162. Select the correct sequence of reproductive events
couple as no progeny is produced despite two in humans.
years of unprotected sexual cohabitation. (1) Fertilization  Insemination  Gestation 
B. ICSI involves artificial insemination of semen Parturition
sample of either husband or donor into ova. (2) Insemination  Gestation  Implantation 
Choose the correct option. Parturition

(1) Statement A is correct (3) Gametogenesis  Fertilization  Implantation 

Parturition
(2) Statement B is correct
(4) Gametogenesis  Implantation  Insemination
(3) Both Statements A & B are correct  gestation
(4) Both Statements A and B are incorrect 163. Which is incorrect regarding human testes?
159. If the age distribution(percent individuals of a given (1) They are primary reproductive organs
age) is plotted for the Indian population, the resultant (2) They are involved in formation of gametes and
structure would be shaped like which type of hormones
pyramid? (3) They are composite or exclusively exocrine
(1) Triangular (2) Urn glands as sperms are released through a well
developed duct system
(3) Bell (4) Rhombus
(4) They are extra abdominal in position
160. Multiload 375
164. Low temperature is essential for spermatogenesis in
(1) Is effective for nearly 300 days after insertion mammals. Intra abdominal testes are a feature of all
and placement in vagina except
(2) Works by suppressing sperm motility and (1) Balaenoptera (2) Ornithorhyncus
fertilising capacity of sperms (3) Camelus (4) Elephas
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165. Germinal epithelium located in walls of ______ 171. Hormones released exclusively in a pregnant female
undergoes constant divisions to produce include
spermatogonia.
(1) Estrogen, Progesterone, hCS, hPL
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.
(2) hCG, hCS / hPL, Relaxin
(1) Rete testis (2) Seminiferous tubules
(3) Thyroxine, Cortisol, Oxytocin, hCG
(3) Epididymis (4) Vasa efferentia
(4) Inhibin, hCG, hPL, Prolactin
166. Select the mismatch between the type of cell given
in Column I and its corresponding character/function 172. Which of the following sets has structures with
in Column II. similar size?
Column I Column II (1) Zygote and morula
(1) Interstitial cells – Source of testosterone (2) Ootid and sperm
(2) Sertoli cells – Secrete androgen binding (3) Ova and blastocyst
protein
(4) Secondary oocyte and polar body
(3) Spermatids – Haploid
173. Calcium plays an important role in motility of sperm.
(4) First polar body – Formed prior to birth of Calcium channels are inserted in sperm membrane
baby
(1) During their storage in ampulla of vas deferens
167. Changes in ovary leading to ovarian cycle in
primates result from hormones primarily secreted by (2) During capacitation
(1) Neurohypophysis (2) Placenta (3) When they are temporarily stored in epididymis
(3) Posterior pituitary (4) Anterior pituitary (4) After acrosomal reaction
168. Site where release of second polar body in humans 174. Decline in level of mainly which hormone triggers
occurs is shedding of stratum functionale in uterus of a non
(1) Body cavity (2) Uterine cavity pregnant female?
(3) Fallopian tube (4) Ovary (1) Luteinizing hormone
169. Which extra embryonic membrane acts as shock (2) Progesterone
absorber and prevents desiccation of human embryo?
(3) Estrogen
(1) Chorion
(4) Gonadotrophins
(2) Amnion
175. Select a feature / function not performed/applicable to
(3) Trophoblast
placenta or umbilical cord.
(4) Allantois
(1) Placenta acts as ultra filter and foetal lung
170. The yolk sac of mammalian embryo is derived from
(2) Permits movement of antibodies such as IgG
(1) Endoderm and mesoderm from foetal to maternal circulation
(2) Endoderm and ectoderm (3) All the blood vessels in umbilical cord carry
(3) Ectoderm and mesoderm 100% foetal blood only
(4) Mesoderm and trophoblast (4) Placenta acts as temporary endocrine gland
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176. Choose the incorrect statement. 179. Which of the following is not true for hCG in a
(1) Increasing frequencies of contraction during pregnant female?
parturition are controlled by release of stored (1) It is a proteinaceous gonadotrophin but not
oxytocin from maternal neurohypophysis released from adenohypophysis
(2) Autocrine activity of milk inhibitory peptide during (2) Maximum levels of hCG are observed during first
lactation post-partum can decrease milk trimester
secretions from mammary glands (3) ‘Prega news’ a home pregnancy kit developed by
(3) Colostrum can be described as first milk from Mankind pharmaceuticals relies on detection of
breasts that is yellowish in colour and rich in hCG in urine
minerals, lactose, fats and iron (4) High levels of hCG directly exert negative
(4) Cortisol released during pregnancy readies the feedback on hypothalamus leading to amenorrhea
foetal lungs for outside world during pregnancy
177. Event not associated with follicular phase of ovary is 180. Read the given statements and choose the option
(1) Rise in level of gonadotrophin FSH which assign them as true/false correctly.
(2) Repair of endometrial lining in uterus a. Cleavage in human is slow, asychronous,
rotational, indeterminate and holoblastic.
(3) Positive feedback by estrogen in later part of this
phase to increase LH levels b. Day of ovulation is 24th in a woman whose
menstrual cycle is of 48 days.
(4) Release of inhibin by granulosa cells
c. Layer of theca cells makes its earliest
178. Read the characters given below. appearance at secondary stage oocyte.
a. Allantochorionic b. Haemochorial d. Mammary glands are apocrine, endocrine glands,
c. Deciduous d. Metadiscoidal whose alveoli synthesize milk under increased
levels of progesterone during pregnancy.
e. Decidua parietalis f. Diffuse
a b c d
Select the option that correctly describes the
human placenta at 26 weeks of pregnancy and at (1) T T F F
birth. (2) T F T F
(1) a, b, c & d (2) b, c & d only (3) F F F T
(3) c, d, e & f (4) a, d, c & f (4) F T T F

  

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