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FIITJEE Students From All Programs have bagged 34 in Top 100, 66 in Top 200 and 174 in Top 500 All India Ranks. FIITJEE Performance in JEE (Advanced), 2014:
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FULL TEST – IV
Yo u a r e n o t a ll o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha ll b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
Section-A (04 to 09 and 13 to 30) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong
answer.
Enrolment No.
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2
3 3
Density of water water = 10 kg/m
CHEMISTRY
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2. A ball is projected at an angle 60o with the horizontal with speed 30 m/s. After certain
time it makes an angle 45o with the horizontal. The speed of ball at that moment is
(A) 30 m/s (B) 15 2 m/s
15
(C) m/s (D) 30 2 m/s
2
4. A ball falls vertically on to a floor, with momentum p, and then bounces repeatedly, the
coefficient of restitution is e. The total momentum imparted by the ball to the floor is
p
(A) p 1 e (B)
1 e
(C) p
1 e 1
(D) p 1
1 e e
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5. A particle of mass 4m which is at rest explodes into three fragments. Two of the
fragments each of mass m are found to move with a speed v each in mutually
perpendicular directions along x and y axis. Calculate momentum of the fragment 2m
after explosion, the energy released in the process of explosion.
v v 3 v v 3
(A) 2m ˆi ˆj , mv 2 (B) 2m ˆi ˆj , mv 2
2 2 2 2 2 2
v v 3 v v 3
(C) 2m ˆi ˆj , mv 2 (D) 2m ˆi ˆj , mv 2
2 2 4 2 2 4
mg
(A) (B) mg
2
mg mg
(C) (D)
4 8
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k
8. In a certain region at space gravitational field is given by I . Taking the reference
r
point to be at r = r0 with V = V0, the potential V(r) is given by
r r
(A) V r K ln V0 (B) V r K ln V0
r0 r0
r r
(C) V r K ln 0 V0 (D) V r K ln 0 V0
r r
9. A planet of mass m moves along an ellipse around the sun so that its maximum and
minimum distances from the sun are equal to R and r respectively. The angular
momentum of this planet relative to the centre of the sun (mass M) is
GMmrR GMmR
(A) 2 (B) 2R
r R r R
GMrR 2GMrR
(C) 2m (D) m
r R r R
10. A piston of a syringe pushes a liquid with a speed of 1 cm/sec. The radii of the syringe
tube and the needle are R = 1 cm and r = 0.5 mm respectively. The velocity of the liquid
coming out of the needle is
r = 0.5 mm
R = 1 cm
11. Two cylinders A and B fitted with pistons contain equal amounts of an ideal diatomic gas
at 300 K. The piston A is free to move while that of B is held fixed. The same amount of
heat is given to the gas in each cylinder. If the rise in temperature of the gas in A is 30 K,
then the rise in temperature of the gas in B is
(A) 30 K (B) 18 K
(C) 50 K (D) 42 K
12. In a room where temperature is 30oC, a body cools from 61oC to 59oC in 4 minutes. The
time taken by the body to cool from 51oC to 49oC will be
(A) 4 min (B) 6 min
(C) 5 min (D) 8 min
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13. The motion of a particle varies with time according to the relation
y a sin t cos t
(A) the motion is oscillatory but not SHM
(B) the motion is SHM with amplitude a
(C) the motion is SHM with amplitude a 2
(D) the motion is SHM with amplitude 2a
14. If x, v and a denote the displacement, the velocity and the acceleration of a particle
executing SHM of time period T, then which of the following does not change with time?
aT
(A) 3a2 T2 42 v 2 (B)
x
aT
(C) aT 2v (D)
v
15. A sound wave of wavelength travels towards horizontally with a velocity v. It strikes
and reflects from a vertical plane surface, traveling at a speed v 0 towards the left. The
number of positive crests striking in a time interval of 3 sec. on the wall is
3 v v0 3 v v0
(A) (B)
(C)
v v0 (D)
v v0
3 3
16. A section of an infinite rod of charge having linear charge density which is constant for
all points on the line. Electric field E at a distance r from the line is
(A) (B)
0r 20r
2
(C) (D)
40r 0r
17.
Potential in the x-y plane is given as V 5 x 2 xy volts. The electric field at the point
(1,-2) will be
(A) 3 ˆj V/m (B) -5 ˆj V/m
(C) 5 ˆj V/m (D) -3 ˆj V/m
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18. What is the mechanical work done in pulling the slab out of the capacitor after
disconnecting it from the battery?
1 2
(A) E2C r 1 (B) E C
2
(C) E2C r 1 (D) none of these
6V 2.8
20. In the secondary circuit of a potentiometer a cell of internal resistance 1.5 gives a
balancing length of 52 cm. To get a balancing length of 40 cm, how much resistance is to
be connected across the cell?
(A) 5 . (B) 6 .
(C) 7 . (D) 4 .
21. The mass of the three wire of copper are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5, and their lengths are in
ratio 5 : 3 : 1. The ratio of their electrical resistance is
(A) 1 : 3 : 5 (B) 5 : 3 : 1
(C) 1 : 15 : 125 (D) 125 : 15 : 1
22. A point P lies on the axis of a flat coil carrying a current. The magnetic moment of the coil
is . The distance of P from the coil is d, which is large compared to the radius of the
coil. The magnetic field at P has magnitude
(A) 0 3 (B) 0 3
2 d 4 d
(C) 0 2 (D) 0 2
6 d 8 d
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23. A winding wire which is used to frame a solenoid can bear a maximum 10 A current. If
–2
length of solenoid is 80 cm, then length of its winding wire is (B = 0.2 T, r = 3 10 m)
(A) 1.2 10 2 m (B) 4.8 102 m
3
(C) 2.4 10 m (D) 6 103 m
26. The focal length of a plano convex lens when curved surface is silvered and the object is
in front of plane surface is
R 2R
(A) (B)
2
R 2R
(C) - (D)
2
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27. At what distance from the objective should an object be placed to focus it properly so that
the final image is formed at the least distance of clear vision?
(A) 1.1 cm (B) 2.2 cm
(C) 3.3 cm (D) 4.4 cm
o
28. The wavelength of 10 keV electron beam is 0.1227 A . when these waves are diffracted
from a metal foil having d = 0.55 Ao the first maxima would occur at an angle where
sin is
(A) 0.1116 (B) 0.2218
(C) 0.4464 (D) 0.8928
29. The wavelength of the photoelectric threshold for silver is 0 . The energy of the electron
ejected from the surface of silver by an incident light of wavelength 0 will be
hc
(A) hc 0 (B)
0
h 1 1
(C) (D) hc 0
c 0 0
30. If resistivity of pure silicon is 3000m and the electron and hole mobilities are
0.12 m2 V 1s1 and 0.045 m2 V 1s1 respectively. The resistivity of a specimen of the
19 3
material when 10 atoms of phosphorous are added per m is
Given e = 1.6 10 19
c, =3000m, e 0.12 m2 V 1s1, h 0.045 m2 V 1s1
(A) 2.21 m (B) 3.21 m
(C) 4.21 m (D) 5.21 m
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) CH CH OH (B) O O
O
(C) O (D)
O
O
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– +
4. I2(s) | I (0.1M) half cell is connected to a H (aq) | H 2 (1 bar) | Pt half cell and e.m.f. is found
o
to be 0.7714V. If EI 0.535V , Then the pH of H+/H2 half cell is :
2 /I
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 7
OH
COOH
6. Equivalent mass of As2S3 and KMnO4 during the formation of H3AsO4, H2SO4 and Mn2+
ions are respectively :
(A) M/2, M/5 (B) M/6, M/5
(C) M/28, M/5 (D) M /14, M/3
7. What will be the maximum value of (n + + m) for all unpaired electrons of chlorine in its
second excited state ?
(A) 25 (B) 20
(C) 28 (D) 27
8. A gaseous compound A reacts by three independent first order processes with rate
constant
–3 –3 –3 –1
2×10 , 3×10 and 1.93×10 sec for products B, C and D respectively. If initial pressure
of pure A was 8 atm taken in the closed container. Then the partial pressure of B (in atm)
after 100 sec from starting:
(A) 0.288 (B) 0.577
(C) 1.154 (D) 2.15
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9. Which of the following statements for crystals having frenkel defect is not correct?
(A) Frenkel defects are observed where the difference in sizes of cations and anions is
large
(B) The density of crystals having frenkel defect is lesser than that of a pure perfect crystal
(C) In an ionic crystal having frenkel defect may also contain schottky defect
(D) Usually alkali halides do not have frenkel defect
11. 0.1 M NaCl and 0.05 M BaCl2 solutions are separated by a semi-permeable membrane in a
container. For this system, choose the correct answer :
(A) There is no movement of any solution across the membrane
(B) Water flows from BaCl2 solution toward NaCl solution
(C) Water flows from NaCl solution towards BaCl2 solution
(D) Osmotic pressure of 0.1M NaCl is lower than the osmotic pressure of BaCl2
15. Which of the following ores is best concentrated by froth floatation process:
(A) Malachite (B) Cassiterite
(C) Galena (D) Magnetite
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O
LiAlH4
17. O C NH2
OH
(A) (B) HO NH2
HO NH2
O
(C) O NH2 (D)
HO NH2
OH OH
COOH COOCH3
19. and can be differentiated by :
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21. In the reaction, 4A + 2B + 3C A4B2C3, what will be the number of moles of product
formed, starting from 1 mol of A, 0.6 mol of B and 0.72 mol of C?
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.3
(C) 0.24 (D) 2.32
25. 0.56 litre each of three samples of H2O2 labelled as 10 vol, 15 vol and 20 vol are mixed.
The resultant normality of H2O2 solution is :
(A) 1.68 (B) 2.68
(C) 4.5 (D) 8.0
26. Calculate the vapour pressure of water at 300K if its heat of vaporisation is 540 cal/gm
(A) 3.162 mm (B) 0.3192 mm
(C) 31.92 mm (D) 319.2 mm
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29. How many of the following addition reactions are syn addition reaction:
(a) H3C CH3 (b) H3C CH3
Br H2
C C
2
C C
CCl4 Ni
H H D D
(c) H2 ,Pd
CH3 — C C — CH3 (d) Na, liq.NH3
CH3 — C C — CH3
BaSO 4
CH3
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 4
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SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A and B throw a pair of dice alternately till one of them wins. If A wins by throwing 7 while
B wins by throwing 5 as a sum respectively, then the probability that one of the dice
shows 3 on the last throw if A starts the game is
11 11
(A) (B)
36 28
7
(C) (D) none of these
22
8
2. The sum of rational term(s) in 33245 is equal to
(A) 3150 (B) 336
(C) 3486 (D) 3592
sin x sin x
3. e e 4a 0 will have exactly four different solutions in [0, 2] if
e 1
(A) a , (B) a R
4 4
1 e2
(C) a , (D) none of these
4e
2
1 1
4. If 2 sin x 2 a 2 2 sin x 8a 0 for at least one real x, then
1
(A) a , 2, (B) a R – {2}
8
1
(C) a < 2 (D) a2
8
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5.
Let f(x) = sin x cos x cos2 x cos2 , where ‘’ is a given constant, then maximum
value of f(x) is
(A) 1 cos2 (B) |cos |
(C) |sin | (D) 1 sin2
6. The number of integral values of K for which the equation 7 cos x + 5 sin x = 2k + 1 has a
solution
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8
7. If sin–1 x + sin–1 y + sin–1 z = , then x4 + y4 + z4 + 4x 2y2z2 = k(x 2y2 + y2z2 + z2x2), where k
is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) none of these
9. Let a relation R in the set N of natural numbers be defined as (x, y) x2 – 8xy + 7y2 = 0
x,
y N. The relation R is
(A) reflexive (B) symmetric
(C) transitive (D) none of these
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x2 y2
11. A line intersects the ellipse 2
2 1 at A and B and the parabola y2 = 4a(x + 2a) at C
4a a
and D. The line segment AB subtends a right angle at the centre of the ellipse. Then, the
locus of the point of intersection of tangents to the parabola of C and D is
5 2
(A) y2 – a2 = x 4a (B) y2 – 2a2 = 10(x – 4a)2
4
5 2
(C) y2 + a2 = x 4a (D) y2 + 4a2 = 5(x + 4a)2
2
9x 1 2 3 4029
12. If f x , then f f f ..... f is equal to
9x 9 2015 2015 2015 2015
4029
(A) 1007 (B)
2
(C) 2014 (D) 2015
x ai
13. If pi , (where i = 1, 2, 3, ….., p) and a1 > a2 > a3 ….. ap, then lim p1p2 ..... pp , 1
x ai x aq
q p is equal to
(A) (–1)q + 1 (B) (–1)q – 1
q
(C) (–1) (D) does not exist
tan x 3 sin 2x
15. If x , , then the value of tan1 tan1 is
2 2 4 5 3cos 2x
(A) 2x (B) 3x
x
(C) (D) x
2
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16. P is any point on the circum-circle of ABC other than the vertices. H is the orthocentre of
ABC, M is the mid-point of PH and D is the mid-point of BC. Then,
(A) DM is parallel to AP (B) DM is perpendicular to AP
(C) AP is opposite side of DM (D) none of these
1 1
18. If a function y = f(x) is defined as y 2
and t , t R. Then, f(x) is
t t6 x2
discontinuous at
2 7 3 7
(A) 2, , (B) 2, ,
3 3 2 3
3 5
(C) 2, , (D) none of these
2 3
1
1 x x e
1 x x
19. dx is equal to
1 1
(A) x e x x (B) x e x x c
1 1
(C) x 1 e x x c (D) x 1 e x x c
20. The co-ordinates of four vertices of a quadrilateral are (–2, 4), (–1, 2), (1, 2) and (2, 4)
taken in order. The equation of the line passing through the vertex (–1, 2) and dividing
the quadrilateral in two equal areas is
(A) x + 1 = 0 (B) x + y = 1
(C) x – y + 3 = 0 (D) none of these
n
r n 1 r loge 10
21. 1 Cr r
equals
r 0
1 loge 10n
(A) 1 (B) –1
(C) n (D) none of these
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23. PSQ is a focal chord of a parabola whose focus is S and vertex is A. PA, QA are
produced to meet the directrix in R and T. Then angel RST is equal to
(A) 90º (B) 60º
(C) 45º (D) 30º
25. If four points be taken on a rectangular hyperbola such that the chord joining any two is
perpendicular to the chord joining the other two, and if , , , be the inclinations to
either asymptote of the straight line joining these points to the centre, then tan tan tan
tan is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) –2 (D) –1
26. The sum of squares of the perpendiculars drawn from the points (0, 1) and (0, –1) to any
tangent to a curve is 2. Then, the equation of the curve is
(A) 2y = c(x + 2) (B) y = c(x 1)
(C) y = c(x + 2) (D) y = c(x 2)
2 2
27. The area of the region bounded by the curves y = x , y = |2 – x | and y = 2 which lies to
the right of the line x = 1, is
12 20 3 20 2
(A) sq. units (B) sq. units
2 3
20 12 2 12 20 2
(C) sq. units (D) sq. units
3 3
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29. Two persons who are 500 m apart, observe the direction and the angle of elevation of a
balloon at the same instant. One finds the elevation to be and direction being South-
3
West, while the other finds the elevation to be and direction being west. Height of the
4
balloon is
3 3
(A) 500 m (B) 250 m
4 6 4 6
3 3
(C) 250 m (D) 500 m
4 6 4 6
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