2010 ‫امتحان مزاولة المهنة ابريل‬

I. Fundamental Nursing

1. Which of the following is a OBJECTIVE data?

a. Dizziness
b. Chest pain
c. Anxiety
d. Blue nails

2. Among the following statements, which should be given the HIGHEST

priority?
a. Client is in extreme pain
b. Client’s blood pressure is 60/40
c. Client’s temperature is 40 degree Centigrade
d. Client is cyanotic.

3. Considered as the most accessible and convenient method for

temperature taking is:
a. Oral
b. Rectal
c. Tympanic
d. Axillary

4. In cleaning the thermometer after use, The direction of the cleaning to

follow Medical Asepsis is :
a. From bulb to stem
b. From stem to bulb
c. From stem to stem
d. From bulb to bulb.

5. Which is a preferable arm for BP taking?

a. An arm with the most contraptions
b. The left arm of the client with a CVA affecting the right brain
c. The right arm
d. The left arm.

6. In palpating the client’s breast, Which of the following position is

necessary for the patient to assume before the start of the procedure?
a. Supine
b. Dorsal recumbent
c. Sitting
d. Lithotomy.

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7. When is the best time to collect urine specimen for routine urinalysis
and culture and sensitivity?
a. Early morning
b. Later afternoon
c. Midnight
d. Before breakfast.

8. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores:

a. Sterilization
b. Autoclaving
c. Disinfection
d. Medical asepsis

9. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross

contamination and infection
a. Cleaning
b. Disinfecting
c. Sterilizing
d. Hand washing.

10. The best example of the nursing order is:

a. Encourage fluids.
b. Change patient position every 2 hours on even hours.
c. Provide oral fluid.
d. All of the above.

11. The term holism refers to:

a. Reactions that occur when equilibrium is disturbed.
b. How an organism responds to change.
c. A relatively stable state of physiologic equilibrium.
d. The sum of physiological, emotional, social, and spiritual health, and
determines how whole person feels.

12. When the nurse changes the client's dressing which nursing action is
correct:
a. The nurse removes the solid dressing with sterile gloves.
b. The nurse frees the tape by pulling it away from the incision.
c. The nurse encloses the solid dressing within a latex gloves.
d. The nurse clean the wound in circles toward the incision.

13. Which of the following IS NOT true about preparing medication:

a. Prepare medication under well-lighted area.
b. Work alone without interruptions.
c. Do not use medication with a missing label.
d. Check the label of the drug two times.

14. To ensure that the medications are prepared and administered

correctly, the nurse should:
a. Use the patient's right.
b. Use the five rights.
c. Give the medication only when requested.
d. Give the medication without question.

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15. The process of removing poisonous substance through gastric
intubation is called:
a. Gavage
b. Decompression
c. Tamponade.
d. Lavage.

16. Of the following, which position is especially helpful for patients with
dyspnea?
a. Semi-Fowler’s position.
b. Sim’s position.
c. Supin position.
d. Prone position.

17. The process that occur when a patient entering a hospital for nursing
care and medical care is called:
a. Transfer.
b. Admission
c. Discharge.
d. Referral.

18. How often should an inactive patient's positions be changed?

a. At least every 3 hours.
b. At least every 2 hours.
c. At least every 4 hours.
d. At least once a shift.

19. Hypertonic saline (fleet) enema works by:

a. Distending the rectum.
b. Irritating the rectum.
c. Lubricating and softening stool.
d. Moistening stool.

20. The physician orders dextrose 5% in water, 1,000 ml to be infused

over 8 hours. The I.V. tubing delivers 15 drops/ml. The nurse should run
the I.V. infusion at a rate of:
a. 15 drops/minute
b. 21 drops/minute.
c. 32 drops/minute.
d. 125 drops/minute

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II. Medical-Surgical Nursing
1. Following surgery, a patient complains of mild incisional pain while
performing deep- breathing and coughing exercises. The nurse’s best
response would be:
a. Pain will become less each day.
b. This is a normal reaction after surgery.
c. With a pillow, apply pressure against the incision.
d. I will give you the pain medication the physician ordered.

2. Ahmed'ss postoperative vital signs are a blood pressure of 80/50 mm

Hg, a pulse of 140, and respirations of 32. Suspecting shock, which of the
following orders would the nurse question?
a. Put the client in modified Trendelenberg's position.
b. Administer oxygen at 100%.
c. Monitor urine output every hour.
d. Administer Demerol 50mg IM q4h.

3. After surgery, Nadia returns from the Post-anesthesia Care Unit

(Recovery Room) with a nasogastric tube in place following a gall bladder
surgery. She continues to complain of nausea. Which action would the
nurse take?
a. Call the physician immediately.
b. Administer the prescribed antiemetic.
c. Check the patency of the nasogastric tube for any obstruction.
d. Change the patient’s position.

4. A 56 year old construction worker is brought to the hospital unconscious

after falling from a 2-story building. When assessing the client, the nurse
would be most concerned if the assessment revealed:
a. Reactive pupils
b. A depressed fontanel
c. Bleeding from ears
d. An elevated temperature.

5. A student nurse is assigned to a client who has a diagnosis of

thrombophlebitis. Which action by this team member is most appropriate?
a. Apply a heating pad to the involved site.
b. Elevate the client's legs 90 degrees.
c. Instruct the client about the need for bed rest.
d. Provide active range-of-motion exercises to both legs at least twice every
shift.

6. A student nurse is assigned to a client who has a diagnosis of

thrombophlebitis. Which action by this team member is most appropriate?
a. Apply a heating pad to the involved site.
b. Elevate the client's legs 90 degrees.
c. Instruct the client about the need for bed rest.

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d. Provide active range-of-motion exercises to both legs at least twice every
shift.

7. The nurse is preparing her plan of care for her patient diagnosed with
pneumonia. Which is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this
patient?
a. Fluid volume deficit
b. Decreased tissue perfusion.
c. Impaired gas exchange.
d. Risk for infection.

8. During the first 24 hours after thyroid surgery, the nurse should include
in her care:
a. Checking the back and sides of the operative dressing
b. Supporting the head during mild range of motion exercise
c. Encouraging the client to ventilate her feelings about the surgery
d. Advising the client that she can resume her normal activities immediately.

9. Immediately after cholecystectomy, the nursing action that should

assume the highest priority is:
a. Encouraging the client to take adequate deep breaths by mouth
b. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe
c. Changing the dressing at least twice daily
d. Irrigate the T-tube frequently.

10. The client presents with severe rectal bleeding, 16 diarrheal stools a
day, severe abdominal pain, tenesmus and dehydration. Because of these
symptoms the nurse should be alert for other problems associated with
what disease?
a. Chrons disease
b. Ulcerative colitis
c. Diverticulitis
d. Peritonitis.

11. The client has a good understanding of the means to reduce the
chances of colon cancer when he states:
a. “I will exercise daily.”
b. “I will include more red meat in my diet.”
c. “I will have an annual chest x-ray.”
d. “I will include more fresh fruits and vegetables in my diet.”

12. Days after abdominal surgery, the client’s wound dehisces. The safest
nursing intervention when this occurs is to:
a. Cover the wound with sterile, moist saline dressing
b. Approximate the wound edges with tapes
c. Irrigate the wound with sterile saline
d. Hold the abdominal contents in place with a sterile gloved hand.

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13. Jasem is admitted to the hospital with a possible diagnosis of
appendicitis. On physical examination, the nurse should be looking for
tenderness on palpation at McBurney’s point, which is located in the:
a. Lleft lower quadrant
b. Left upper quadrant
c. Right lower quadrant
d. Right upper quadrant.
14. Mr. Valdez has undergone surgical repair of his inguinal hernia.
Discharge teaching should include:
a. Telling him to avoid heavy lifting for 4 to 6 weeks
b. Instructing him to have a soft bland diet for two weeks
c. Telling him to resume his previous daily activities without limitations
d. Recommending him to drink eight glasses of water daily.

15. A 30-year-old homemaker. She sustained severe burns of the face,

neck, anterior chest, and both arms and hands. Using the rule of nines,
which is the best estimate of total body-surface area burned?
a. 18%
b. 22%
c. 31%
d. 40%.

16. If a client has severe bums on the upper neck, which item would be a
primary concern?
a. Debriding and covering the wounds
b. Administering antibiotics
c. Frequently observing for hoarseness, stridor, and dyspnea
d. Establishing a patent IV line for fluid replacement.

17. An adult is receiving Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN). Which of the

following assessment is essential?
a. Evaluation of the peripheral IV site
b. Confirmation that the tube is in the stomach
c. Assess the bowel sound
d. Fluid and electrolyte monitoring.

18. Which drug would be least effective in lowering a client's serum

potassium level?
a. Glucose and insulin
b. Polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
c. Calcium glucomite
d. Aluminum hydroxide.

19. A patient is hemorrhaging from multiple trauma sites. The nurse

expects that compensatory mechanisms associated with hypovolemia
would cause all of the following symptoms EXCEPT:
a. Hypertension
b. Oliguria

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c. Tachycardia
d. Tachypnea.

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20. A post-operative complication of mastectomy is lymphedema. This can
be prevented by
a. Ensuring patency of wound drainage tube
b. Placing the arm on the affected side in a dependent position
c. Restricting movement of the affected arm
d. Frequently elevating the arm of the affected side above the level
of the heart.

21. Intervention for a pt. who has swallowed a Muriatic Acid includes all of
the following Except:
a. Administering an irritant that will stimulate vomiting
b. Aspirating secretions from the pharynx if respirations are affected
c. Neutralizing the chemical
d. Washing the esophagus with large volumes of water via gastric lavage.

22. Which initial nursing assessment finding would best indicate that a
client has been successfully resuscitated after a cardio-respiratory arrest?
a. Skin warm and dry
b. Pupils equal and react to light
c. Palpable carotid pulse
d. Positive Babinski's reflex.

23. An emergency treatment for an acute asthmatic attack is Adrenaline

1:1000 given hypodermically. This is given to:
a. Increase BP
b. Decrease mucosal swelling
c. Relax the bronchial smooth muscle
d. Decrease bronchial secretions.

24. Which is irrelevant in the pharmacologic management of a client with

CVA?
a. Osmotic diuretics and corticosteroids are given to decrease cerebral edema
b. Anticonvulsants are given to prevent seizures
c. Thrombolytics are most useful within three hours of an occlusive CVA
d. Aspirin is used in the acute management of a completed stroke.

25. The nurse is assisting in planning care for a client with a diagnosis of
immune deficiency. The nurse would incorporate which of the following. as
a priority in the plan of care?
a. Providing emotional support to decrease fear
b. Protecting the client from infection
c. Encouraging discussion about lifestyle changes
d. Identifying factors that decreased the immune function.

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26. Mr. Yassine is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Left-sided
congestive heart failure (CHF). In the assessment, the nurse should expect
to find:
a. Crushing chest pain
b. Dyspnea on exertion
c. Extensive peripheral edema
d. Jugular vein distention.

27. After the acute phase of congestive heart failure, the nurse should
expect the dietary management of the client to include the restriction of:
a. Magnesium
b. Sodium
c. Potassium
d. Calcium.

28. When a post-thyroidectomy client returns from surgery the nurse

assesses client for unilateral injury of the laryngeal nerve every 30 to 60
minutes by:
A. Observing for signs of tetany
B. Checking throat for swelling
C. Asking client to state his name out loud
D. Palpating the side of her neck for blood seepage.

29. You have to observe for increase intracranial pressure. Which of the
following is not a sign of increased intracranial pressure?
a. Headache
b. Vomiting
c. Vertigo
d. Changes on the level of consciousness

30. When a patient falls from bed, which of the following is your
immediate action?
a. Report to the head nurse and calls someone to help
b. Determine any injury or harm
c. Refer to the resident on duty
d. Put back patient to bed

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III. Pediatric Nursing

1. All the following interventions may be performed by you for a child with
productive cough Except?
a. Encourage fluid intake
b. Administering antitussive
c. Postural drainage
d. Giving mucolytics

2. Bronchiolitis is a viral disease mostly affects --------- age children?

a. Six months and less
b. One year and more
c. Two years
d. Adolescent

3. The respiratory disease which is not caused by microorganism infection

is?
a. Tonsillitis
b. Laryngitis
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Croup

4. Nursing care for the child with cystic fibrosis should include all of the
following Except?
a. Provision of oxygen
b. Postural drainage immediately after meals
c. Respiratory exercise
d. Administration of pancreatic enzymes

5. The respiratory disease which characterized by drooling and

endangering life is?
a. Asthma
b. Pneumonia
c. Respiratory distress syndrome
d. Epiglottitis

6. Fallot tetraology includes which of the following defects?

a. Pulmonary stenosis
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Ventricular septal defect
d. All of the above

7. The nursing care for cardiac disease child should include?

a. Bed rest
b. Provision of oxygen as needed
c. Passive stimulation
d. All of the above

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8. Treatment of rheumatic fever include all the following except?
a. Bed rest
b. Giving Aspirin
c. Giving long acting penicillin
d. Mobility in the first 24 hours of rheumatic arthritis joints

9. Hyperbilirubinemia in newborn usually occurs due to?

a. Immature liver function
b. Rh incompatibility
c. ABO incompatibility
d. Hepatitis disease

10. The most dangerous complication of hyperbilirubinemia in newborn is?

a. Lethargy
b. poor feeding
c. Kernicterus
d. Jaundice in the eyes

11. All the following nursing measures may be done for anemic child
except?
a. Bed rest
b. Elevate head of bed
c. Large meals
d. Administration of blood

12. Which of the following interventions may be done for iron deficiency
anemia child?
a. Bed rest
b. High iron diet
c. Brushing teeth after iron administration
d. All of the above

13. Thalassemic child care may include all of the following except?
a. Administration of blood every 3-4 weeks
b. Administration of iron chelating agent (desferal)
c. Increase physical activity
d. Possible splenectomy

14. Child with Hemophilia should be encouraged to?

a. Increase his weight
b. Avoid contact sport
c. Use protective measures
d. Take Aspirin for joint pain

15. Screening should be done for newborns in Gaza to early detect?

a. Hypothyroidism
b. CDH

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 c. PKU
d. All of the above

IV. Maternity Nursing

1. Which of the following is true about conception and fertilization:

a. Under ideal conditions, sperms can reach the ovum in 1 to 5
minutes.
b. In a healthy male, sperm usually remain viable for 24 hours.
c. The ovum contains 21 pairs of chromosomes after fertilization.
d. To avoid pregnancy, avoid intercourse during the last 14 days of menstrual
cycle.

2. Ovum fertilized in the:

a. Vagina.
b. Uterus.
c. Cervix.
d. Fallopian tube.

3. Which of the following measures can help mother cope with early
morning nausea and vomiting:
a. Drink fluids only during meal time.
b. Drink only warm liquid for breakfast.
c. Eat dry, unsalted crackers before arising in the morning.
d. Eat heavy meal at meal time.

4. During pregnancy, which of the following is true about weight gain:

a. A maximum weight gain of about 9 Kg is normal.
b. The total amount of weight gain is more important than the pattern of
weight gain.
c. A weight gain is about 5.5 Kg each trimester.
d. Weight gain varies but a range of 11- 16 Kg is usually normal.

5. The purpose to perform fundal height assessment is to:

a. Determine uterine activity.
b. Identify the need for an amniocentesis.
c. Assess the location of the placenta.
d. Estimated the gestational age.

6.Which of the following is a sign of placental separation:

a. The abdominal wall relaxes noticeably.
b. The cord lengthens outside the vagina.
c. There's decrease vaginal bleeding.
d. The uterus can't be palpated.

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7. The mother you take care of her, cervix 5 cm dilated, presenting part at
0 station, she has amniotic membrane rupture spontaneously, you should
first:
a. Perform a vaginal examination to determine dilatation.
b. Auscultate the mother's blood pressure.
c. Note the color, amount, and odor of the amniotic fluid.
d. Prepare the mother for imminent delivery.

8. When you determine that there's a variable deceleration pattern on the

fetal heart rate, you should first:
a. Notify the anesthesiologist.
b. Change the mother's position.
c. Administer oxygen at 2 liters by mask.
d. Prepare the client for cesarean section.

9. After rupture the membranes, you observe meconium-stained amniotic

fluid. You should plan to:
a. Increase rate of the oxytocin infusion.
b. Turn the client to supine position.
c. Assess fetal position and presentation.
d. Monitor the fetal heart rate continuously.

10. 24 hours after delivery, the fundal level will be:

a. Slightly below the level of the umbilicus.
b. Midway between the umbilicus and the symphesis pubis.
c. Barely above the upper margin of the symphysis pubis.
d. Slightly above the level of the umbilicus.

11. While assessing a post-term neonate, you anticipate that the neonate
will have:
a. A flattened nose.
b. Small hands and feet.
c. A red rash on the abdomen.
d. Wrinkled, peeling skin.

12. Vit. K is injected to prevent:

a. Hypoglycemia.
b. Hyperbilirubinemia.
c. Bleeding problems.
d. Polycythemia

13. A primigravida is admitted to hospital at 12 weeks gestation. She has

abdominal pain, and bright red vaginal spotting, her cervix is not dilated.
Based on the client's symptoms, she most likely experiencing an abortion
termed:
a. Missed.
b. Threatened.
c. Inevitable.
d. Complete.

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14. During an assessment at 32 weeks gestation, which of the following
indicates mild PIH:
a. Blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg on two separated occasions.
b. Proteinuria, more than 5 g in 24 hours.
c. Elevated serum creatinin.
d. Swelling of fingers and ankles.

15. If the mother begins to convulse due to eclampsia, your first action is
to:
a. Pad the side rails with pillows.
b. Place a pillow under the left buttock.
c. Insert a padded tongue blade into the mouth.
d. Suction the mouth and nasopharynx to keep the airway open.

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V. Psychiatric Nursing
1. The following statements describe somatoform disorders:
a. Physical symptoms are explained by organic causes
b. It is a voluntary expression of psychological conflicts
c. Expression of conflicts through bodily symptoms
d. Management entails a specific medical treatment.

2. A disturb client starts to repeat phrase that others have just said. This
type of speech is known as:
a. Autism
b. Echolalia
c. Neologism
d. Echopraxia

3. A 35 year old male has intense fear of riding an elevator. He claims “ As

if I will die inside.” This has affected his studies. The client is suffering
from:
a. Agoraphobia
b. Social phobia
c. Claustrophobia
d. Xenophobia.

4. A young woman is brought to the emergency room appearing

depressed. The nurse learned that her child died a year ago due to an
accident. The initial nursing diagnosis is dysfunctional grieving. The
statement of the woman that supports this diagnosis is:
a. “I feel envious of mothers who have toddlers”
b. “I haven’t been able to open the door and go into my baby’s room
“
c. “I watch other toddlers and think about their play activities and I cry.”
d. “I often find myself thinking of how I could have prevented the death.

5. Which is the highest priority in the post ECT care?

a. Observe for confusion
b. Monitor respiratory status
c. Reorient to time, place and person
d. Document the client’s response to the treatment.

6. The nurse notice that the client have death wishes this may signs which
of the following:
a. Anxiety
b. Suicidal ideation
c. Major depression
d. Hopelessness

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7. A 22-years-old women, living in Gaza, she wittiness on the destruction
of her house and killing of all her family members through the last war on
Gaza, she can not stop crying, having nightmares, and flashbacks. Analysis
of these signs and symptoms, would lead the nurse to suspect which of the
following?
a. Acute stress disorder.
b. Post traumatic stress disorder
c. Generalized anxiety disorder.
d. Obsessive compulsive disorder

8. The most nursing diagnosis in the patient with delusional disorder is:
a. Altered thought process.
b. Sensory perceptual alternation.
c. Impaired skin integrity.
d. High risk for injury.

9. A client who has been hospitalized with schizophrenia tells the

psychiatric , “My heart has stopped and my veins have turned to glass!”
the nurse is aware that this is an example of:
a. Depersonalization
b. Hypochondriasis
c. Somatic delusions
d. Echolalia.

10. Patient who refuse to eat stating that the food is poisoned, is am
example of:
a. Delusion .
b. Suicidal ideation.
c. Hallucination
d. Anxiety.

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VI. Community Health Nursing
1. Immunization of a child to prevent measles belongs to what level of
prevention?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Intermediate
d. Tertiary.

2. For prevention of hepatitis A, you decided to conduct health education

activities. Which of the following is not RELEVANT?
a. Use of sterile syringes and needles
b. Safe food preparation and food handling by vendors
c. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal hygiene
d. Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and illegal water connections.

3. Providing more intensive chlorination of water known to be

contaminated with fecal coliform bacteria is an example of:
a. Primary prevention.
b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
d. All of the above.

4. The most common home accidents in the home setting among toddlers
in Gaza Strip are:
a. Suffocation
b. Drowning
c. Poisoning
d. Scalding and burns.

5. All of the following are modified risk factors Except:

a. Smoking.
b. Genetic factors.
c. Overweight.
d. Inactivity.

6. A major goal of community health nursing practice is:

a. To identify economic situation of the client.
b. To assist in developing a negative health practices.
c. To provide health programs for populations at risk.
d. To promote the health of aggregates of people.

7. On the first home visit it is most important for community health

nursing to:
a. Conduct complete assessment of the family and client.
b. Perform several nursing care measures to convince the family that he
knows what he is doing.

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c. Begin building a trust relationship.
d. Arrange for several more visits.

8. In describing a family as nuclear or extended one is describing the:

a. Boundaries of the family.
b. Structure of the family.
c. Function of the family.
d. Role of the family.

9. Which of the following nursing intervention reflects primary prevention

in the school setting?
a. Providing immunization against common infectious diseases.
b. Giving basic care for minor injuries and complaints.
c. Performing vision screening program.
d. Promoting dietary compliance in a student with diabetes.

10. Which of the following would not included under the primary health
care?
a. Safe water and clean air.
b. Adequate public housing.
c. An immunization program for preschoolers.
d. Cardiac transplant surgery.

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