INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Mobile and Wireless Technologies , System Development Methodology, Introduction to RDBMS

Candidate should read the following instructions before attempting the question paper.

1. DO NOT CLOSE THE BROWSER ANYTIME DURING THE EXAM.

2. Candidate should check his/her name and extended enrollment Number (enrollment
number prefixed with 20) being displayed on the screen. In case of any discrepancy, it
should be reported to Invigilator immediately.

3. Candidate should ensure that he/she has marked attendance on the attendance sheet and
also ensure that session id has also been recorded. Any other session id which has not been
mentioned in the attendance sheet would not be considered and all responses on that
session id would be treated as null and void.

4. Do not start the exam (do not click Next button) before instructed to do so by the
Invigilator.

5. Every Section has 40 objective-type questions. Each objective-type question has four
choices of which only one is correct. Candidate should select the radio button, given below
the question, corresponding to his/her correct choice.

6. Marking scheme of CCEE is as follows:

a. +1 (plus one) marks for each correct answer.

b. 0 (zero) mark for each un-attempted/ wrong question.

7. Duration of each Section is One hour. No candidate will be allowed to leave the
examination hall before the completion of exam duration.

8. On clicking the Next button given at the bottom of the Instructions page, candidate will
be directed to the question display screen.

9. Candidate should note down the Session ID that is displayed on the question screen after
clicking on Next button.
10. Once the exam is started:-

a. Candidate should not close the browser. In case the browser is closed accidentally,
it SHOULD BE reported to the Invigilator immediately.
b. Candidate should not open any other software application on the computer system.
c. Candidate should neither shut down the machine nor fiddle with allocated hardware
or software.
d. In case of any problem it should be reported to Invigilator.

11. Candidate can navigate through questions using scroll bar or directly through the question
number grid.

12. CCEE screen contains the following buttons with the below specified functionality:

Button Functionality

Examination This link will open the instructions for the exam. After reading the
Instruction instructions candidate has to click on Back button to move back to the
questions interface.

Mark for In case a candidate is not sure about the answer, then he/she can use this
Review Button to mark the question for a visit later. It will be shown with
a ? against the question (in the question number grid) if the question has
not been answered but has marked it for review. In case candidate has
answered the question and marked it for review, then √? will be displayed
against the question in the question number grid.

Clear Answer This button will clear the option marked and the question will be shown
as un-answered.

13. Each candidate will be provided one A4 size sheet for rough work. Candidates have to
record their Name, hall ticket number and session ID on the rough sheet. They have to
return the rough sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the exam hall.
14. Calculators, mobile phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be
used in the Exam Hall.

15. Candidate will be disqualified if found indulging in any kind of malpractice.

1. An advantage of the database management approach is

A. Data is dependent on programs.

B. Data redundancy increases.
C. Data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs.
D. None of the above.

2. Data independence means

A. Data is defined separately and not included in programs.

B. Programs are not dependent on the physical attributes of data.
C. Programs are not dependent on the logical attributes of data.
D. Both (B) and (C)

3. Consider the join of a relation R with relation S. If R has m tuples and S has n tuples,
then the maximum size of join is:
A. mn
B. m+n
C. (m+n)/2
D. 2(m+n)

4. A good database design

(i) Caters primarily to current needs
(ii) Caters to current and future needs as organizations grow
(iii) Has to be modified when hardware is upgraded
(iv) Ensures data security

A. i, ii
B. i, ii, iii
C. ii, iv
D. iii, iv
5. Normalization of database is essential to
(i) Avoid accidental deletion of required data when some data is deleted
(ii) Eliminate inconsistencies when a data item is modified in the database
(iii) Allows storage of data in a computer’s disk
(iv) Use a database management system
A. i and iii
B. i and ii
C. ii and iii
D. ii and iv

6. Data integrity is ensured by

A. good data editing
B. propagating data changes to all data items
C. preventing unauthorized access
D. preventing data duplication

7. Conceptual data model is converted to a ------------ using a Relational Data Base

Management System.
A. logical data model
B. external data model
C. internal data model
D. an entity-relation data model

8. Access right to a database is controlled by

A. top management
B. system designer
C. system analyst
D. database administrator

9. A 3 NF relation is converted to BCNF by

A. removing composite keys
B. removing multivalued dependencies
C. dependent attributes of overlapping composite keys are put in a separate relation
D. dependent non-key attributes are put in a separate table

10. The hierarchical database model depicts a set of ____ relationships.

A. M:1
B. 1:1
C. 1:M
D. M:N
11. In a SELECT statement that includes a WHERE clause, where is the GROUP BY clause
placed statement?

E. before the WHERE clause

F. before the FROM clause
G. after the ORDER BY clause
H. after the WHERE clause

12. Which of the following is one of the codd’s rules?

A. The comprehensive data sub language rule
B. The non-subversion rule
C. High-level insert, update, and delete
D. All of the above

13. Which of the following queries can you use to search for employees with the pattern 'A_B' in
their names?
A. SELECT last_name FROM employees WHERE last_name LIKE '%A\_B%' ESCAPE '\\';
B. SELECT last_name FROM employees WHERE last_name LIKE '%A_B%' ESCAPE;
C. SELECT last_name FROM employees WHERE last_name LIKE 'A_B%' ESCAPE '%';
D. SELECT last_name FROM employees WHERE last_name LIKE '%A\_B%' ESCAPE '\';

14. To write a query that performs an outer join of tables A and B and returns all rows from B,
You need to write
A. Any outer join
B. A left outer join
C. A right outer join
D. A cross join

15. Which of the following has been achieved by the following SQL codes?
SELECT employee_id FROM employees WHERE commission_pct = .5 OR salary > 23000;

A. it returns employees who have a 50% of a salary greater than $23,000

B. it returns employees who have a 50% commission rate or a salary greater than $23,000
C. runtime error
D. it returns employees who have a 50% of a salary less than $23,000

16. You need to calculate the total of all salaries in the accounting department. Which group
function should you use?

A. MAX
B. MIN
C. SUM
D. COUNT
17. You own a table called EMPLOYEES with this table structure:
EMPLOYEE_ID NUMBER Primary Key
FIRST_NAME VARCHAR2 (25)
LAST_NAME VARCHAR2 (25)
HIRE_DATE DATE
What happens when you execute this DELETE statement?
DELETE employees;

A. You get an error because of a primary key violation.

B. The data and structure of the EMPLOYEES table are deleted.
C. The data in the EMPLOYEES table is deleted but not the structure.
D. You get an error because the statement is not syntactically correct.

18. Which SQL statement would you use to remove a view called EMP_DEPT_VU from your
schema?
A. DROP emp_dept_vu;
B. DELETE emp_dept_vu;
C. REMOVE emp_dept_vu;
D. DROP VIEW emp_dept_vu;

19. What defines how and where data are organized in physical data storage?

A. Internal schema
B. External schema
C. Conceptual schema
D. None of the above

20. Consider a relational schema R= (A, B,C,D,E,F,G,H) on which of the following functional
dependencies hold: { A->B, BC->D, E->C, D->A} . What are the candidates keys for R

A. AE,BE
B. AE,BE,DE
C. AEH,BEH,DEH
D. AEH,BEH,BCH

21. The most important feature of spiral model is

A. requirement analysis.

B. risk management.

C. quality management.

D. configuration management.
22. Changes made to an information system to add the desired but not necessarily the required
features is called

A. Preventative maintenance.

B. Adaptive maintenance.

C. Corrective maintenance.

D. Perfective maintenance.

23. The model in which the requirements are implemented by category is

A. Evolutionary Development Model

B. Waterfall Model

C. Prototyping

D. Iterative Enhancement Model

24. Each time a defect gets detected and fixed, the reliability of a software product

A. increases.

B. decreases

C. remains constant.

D. cannot say anything.

25. Alpha and Beta Testing are forms of

A. Acceptance testing

B. Integration testing

C. System Testing

D. Unit testing

26. Requirements can be refined using

A. The waterfall model

B. prototyping model

C. the evolutionary model

D. the spiral model

27. The model that assumes that effort and development time are functions of product size
alone is

A. Basic COCOMO model

B. Intermediate COCOMO model

C. Detailed COCOMO model

D. All the three COCOMO models

28. The testing that focuses on the variables is called

A. black box testing

B. white box testing

C. data variable testing

D. data flow testing

29.Site for Alpha Testing is

A. Software Company

B. Installation place

C. Any where

D. None of the above

30. For a well understood data processing application it is best to use

A. The waterfall model

B. prototyping model

C. the evolutionary model

D. the spiral model

31. IEEE802.11 the wireless LAN uses

A.CSMA/CA
B.CSMA/CD
C.(a) and (b)
D.none of the above
32. The process of transferring an active call from one cell to another as the mobile unit
moves from the first cell to the other cell without disconnecting the call.

A. frequency reuse
B. handoff
C. cell splitting
D. cell geometry

33. Which of the following statement is true about spread spectrum:

A. It uses a narrow band frequency

B. Spread Spectrum allocates disjoint resources (frequency or time slots depending on the
access system) to each user.

C. Spread Spectrum signals can be picked up by simple receivers

D. Spread spectrum signals are hard to jam and identify

34. The capacity of a cellular system is directly proportional to

A. number of times a cluster is replicated in a fixed service area

B. number of cells in the cluster
C. Number of channels in the cell
D. none of the above

35. The two 3G systems developed are

A. GSM, CDMA
B. AMPS, CDMA
C. UMTS, IMT-2000
D. CDMAone, UMTS

36. What is the formula for reuse factor?

A. D/R=(N)^1/2

B. D/R=3(N)^1/2

C. D/R=(3N)^1/2

D. D/R=(2N)^1/2
37. What is the speed of 802.11a standard?

A. 5.5 Mb/sec

B. 6 - 54 Mb/sec

C. 5.5 – 11 Mb/sec

D. 44 Mb/sec

38. What is the frequency range for second-generation technologies?

A. 450 – 900 MHz

B. 900 – 1100 MHz

C. 900 – 1800 MHz

D. None of these

39. What are the functions comes under MAC Management layer?

A. Synchronization

B. Roaming

C. Power management

D. All of these

40. A wireless LAN found in a train or bus station is an example of a (n):

A. Public wireless LAN

B. Ad-hoc wireless LAN.
C. Infrastructure wireless LAN.
D. None Of The Above