Test Booklet Code

HLAAC *0LL*
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LL
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2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question
carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
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HLAAC/LL/Page 1 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

1. The correct order of N-compounds in its 7. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
decreasing order of oxidation states is
following sequence of reactions :
(1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
(2) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2
(3) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
(4) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2

2. Which one of the following elements is unable to

3–
form MF6 ion ?

(1) Ga
(2) Al
(3) In
(4) B

3. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the

following metals can be used to reduce alumina ?
(1) Fe
(2) Zn
(3) Cu
(4) Mg

4. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13

elements is
(1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
(2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(3) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
(4) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In

5. Which of the following statements is not true for

halogens ?
(1) All form monobasic oxyacids.
(2) All are oxidizing agents.
(3) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
enthalpy.
(4) All but fluorine show positive oxidation 8. Which of the following compounds can form a
states. zwitterion ?
6. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone pairs
(1) Aniline
of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is
(1) one (2) Acetanilide
(2) two
(3) Glycine
(3) three
(4) four (4) Benzoic acid

HLAAC/LL/Page 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

9. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, 14. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common
which of the following statements is incorrect ?
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
(1) They contain covalent bonds between
due to natural and human activity ?
various linear polymer chains.
(2) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional (1) N2O5
monomers.
(2) NO2
(3) They contain strong covalent bonds in their
polymer chains. (3) NO
(4) Examples are bakelite and melamine. (4) N2O
10. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also
gives m-nitroaniline because 15. The compound A on treatment with Na gives B,
(1) In spite of substituents nitro group always and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to
goes to only m-position.
give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order
(2) In electrophilic substitution reactions
amino group is meta directive. (1) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
(3) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present
as anilinium ion. (2) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
(4) In absence of substituents nitro group
(3) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
always goes to m-position.
11. The difference between amylose and amylopectin (4) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
is
(1) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and 16. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following
1  6 -linkage reactions :
(2) Amylose have 14 -linkage and
1  6 -linkage
(3) Amylose is made up of glucose and The product ‘C’ is
galactose
(1) m-bromotoluene
(4) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
1  6 -linkage (2) o-bromotoluene

12. A mixture of 2·3 g formic acid and 4·5 g oxalic (3) p-bromotoluene
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
(4) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets.
Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP
17. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by
will be
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
(1) 1·4
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
(2) 3·0
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
(3) 4·4
atoms. (A) is
(4) 2·8
(1) CH  CH
13. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
nature ? (2) CH2 = CH2
(1) MgO
(2) BeO (3) CH4
(3) CaO
(4) CH3 – CH3
(4) BaO
HLAAC/LL/Page 3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English
18. Which of the following molecules represents the 21. In the reaction
2 2
order of hybridisation sp , sp , sp, sp from left to
right atoms ?

(1) HC  C – C  CH

(2) CH2 = CH – C  CH
the electrophile involved is
(3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 
(1) dichloromethyl cation ( CHCl 2 )
(4) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2

(2) formyl cation ( CHO )

19. Which of the following carbocations is expected to (3) dichlorocarbene (:CCl2)

be most stable ?
(4) dichloromethyl anion ( )

22. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than

aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
(1) formation of intramolecular H-bonding
(2) formation of carboxylate ion
(3) formation of intermolecular H-bonding
(4) more extensive association of carboxylic
acid via van der Waals force of attraction

23. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with

NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
smell.
A and Y are respectively

20. Which of the following is correct with respect to

– I effect of the substituents ? (R = alkyl)
(1) – NH2 < – OR < – F

(2) – NR2 < – OR < – F

(3) – NR2 > – OR > – F

(4) – NH2 > – OR > – F

HLAAC/LL/Page 4 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

24. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the 29. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
spin magnetic moments of the ions given in different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different
Column II and assign the correct code : concentrations :
Column I Column II M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
3+ 10 10
a. Co i. 8 B.M.
M M
b. Cr
3+
ii. 35 B.M. b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
10 10
3+ M M
c. Fe iii. 3 B.M. c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
2+ 5 5
d. Ni iv. 24 B.M.
M M
v. 15 B.M. d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10
a b c d pH of which one of them will be equal to 1 ?
(1) b
(1) iv v ii i
(2) a
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) c
(3) iii v i ii (4) d
(4) iv i ii iii
30. On which of the following properties does the
25. Which one of the following ions exhibits coagulating power of an ion depend ?
d-d transition and paramagnetism as well ? (1) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
2– alone
(1) CrO 4
(2) Size of the ion alone
2–
(2) Cr2O7 (3) The sign of charge on the ion alone
(3)
2–
MnO 4 (4) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on
the ion
–
(4) MnO 4
31. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2
26. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is and CO2 are respectively 4·17, 0·244, 1·36 and
(1) tetranuclear 3·59, which one of the following gases is most
(2) mononuclear easily liquefied ?
(3) dinuclear (1) NH3
(4) trinuclear (2) H2

27. The type of isomerism shown by the complex (3) CO2

[CoCl2(en)2] is (4) O2
(1) Geometrical isomerism 32. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is
(2) Coordination isomerism –3 –1
2·42  10 gL at 298 K. The value of its
(3) Linkage isomerism solubility product (Ksp) will be
(4) Ionization isomerism (Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol )
–1

28. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the (1) 1·08  10

–10
mol L
2 –2
complex [Ni(CO)4] are
–12 2 –2
(1) square planar geometry and diamagnetic (2) 1·08  10 mol L
(2) tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic –8 2 –2
(3) 1·08  10 mol L
(3) tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic –14 2 –2
(4) 1·08  10 mol L
(4) square planar geometry and paramagnetic
HLAAC/LL/Page 5 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English
33. In which case is the number of molecules of water 37. For the redox reaction
maximum ? – + 2+
Mn O 4– + C2 O42 + H  Mn + CO2 + H2O
(1) 18 mL of water
(2) 0·18 g of water the correct coefficients of the reactants for the
–3 balanced equation are
(3) 10 mol of water
+
(4) 0·00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and Mn O 4– C 2O 2 – H
4
273 K (1) 16 5 2
34. The correct difference between first- and (2) 2 5 16
second-order reactions is that (3) 5 16 2
(1) the rate of a first-order reaction does not (4) 2 16 5
depend on reactant concentrations; the rate
of a second-order reaction does depend on 38. Which one of the following conditions will favour
reactant concentrations maximum formation of the product in the
reaction,
(2) the half-life of a first-order reaction does not
depend on [A]0; the half-life of a A2 (g) + B2 (g) 
X2 (g) rH = – X kJ ?
second-order reaction does depend on [A]0 (1) Low temperature and high pressure
(3) the rate of a first-order reaction does (2) Low temperature and low pressure
depend on reactant concentrations; the rate (3) High temperature and low pressure
of a second-order reaction does not depend (4) High temperature and high pressure
on reactant concentrations
(4) a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a 39. When initial concentration of the reactant is
second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
reaction
35. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic (1) is halved
character is (2) is doubled
(1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2 (3) remains unchanged
(2) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2 (4) is tripled
(3) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
40. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY
(4) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2 are in the ratio of 1 : 0·5 : 1. H for the formation
–1
of XY is – 200 kJ mol . The bond dissociation
36. Consider the change in oxidation state of
energy of X2 will be
Bromine corresponding to different emf values as
–1
shown in the diagram below : (1) 200 kJ mol
–1
(2) 100 kJ mol
–1
(3) 400 kJ mol
–1
(4) 800 kJ mol

41. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation

Then the species undergoing disproportionation corresponds to
is
(1) density of the gas molecules
(1) Br O 3– (2) volume of the gas molecules
(2) Br O 4– (3) forces of attraction between the gas
molecules
(3) HBrO
(4) electric field present between the gas
(4) Br2 molecules

HLAAC/LL/Page 6 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

42. Which one is a wrong statement ? 46. In a growing population of a country,
(1) Total orbital angular momentum of electron (1) pre-reproductive individuals are more than
in ‘s’ orbital is equal to zero. the reproductive individuals.
(2) An orbital is designated by three quantum (2) reproductive individuals are less than the
numbers while an electron in an atom is post-reproductive individuals.
designated by four quantum numbers.
(3) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
(3) The value of m for d z 2 is zero. the reproductive individuals.

(4) The electronic configuration of N atom is (4) reproductive and pre-reproductive

individuals are equal in number.

47. Match the items given in Column I with those in

Column II and select the correct option given
below :
43. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an
Column I Column II
ionic compound. If the ground state electronic
2 2 3 a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
configuration of (X) is 1s 2s 2p , the simplest
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
formula for this compound is
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
(1) Mg2X3
enrichment
(2) MgX2
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
(3) Mg3X2 a b c d
(4) Mg2X (1) ii i iii iv
(2) i iii iv ii
44. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature.
Above 900C, it transforms to fcc structure. The (3) i ii iv iii
ratio of density of iron at room temperature to (4) iii iv i ii
that at 900C (assuming molar mass and atomic
radii of iron remains constant with temperature) 48. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the
is drug ‘‘Smack’’ ?
(1) Flowers
3
(1) (2) Latex
2
(3) Leaves
4 3 (4) Roots
(2)
3 2
49. Which one of the following population
1 interactions is widely used in medical science for
(3)
2 the production of antibiotics ?
3 3 (1) Commensalism
(4)
4 2 (2) Mutualism

45. Consider the following species : (3) Amensalism

+ – (4) Parasitism
CN , CN , NO and CN
Which one of these will have the highest bond 50. All of the following are included in ‘Ex-situ
order ? conservation’ except
(1) NO (1) Wildlife safari parks
– (2) Sacred groves
(2) CN
(3) CN (3) Seed banks
(4) CN
+ (4) Botanical gardens

HLAAC/LL/Page 7 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

51. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding 56. Which of the following options correctly
strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding represents the lung conditions in asthma and
emphysema, respectively ?
sequence of the transcribed mRNA ?
(1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU
respiratory surface
(2) UGGTUTCGCAT (2) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased
(3) UCCAUAGCGUA respiratory surface
(4) ACCUAUGCGAU (3) Decreased respiratory surface;
Inflammation of bronchioles
52. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of
(4) Increased respiratory surface;
evolution is
Inflammation of bronchioles
(1) Multiple step mutations
57. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(2) Saltation Column II and select the correct option given
(3) Minor mutations below :
(4) Phenotypic variations Column I Column II
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
53. Match the items given in Column I with those in
and left ventricle
Column II and select the correct option given
below : b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
ventricle and
Column I Column II
pulmonary artery
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right
endometrial atrium and right
lining ventricle
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase a b c
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase (1) iii i ii
a b c (2) i iii ii
(3) ii i iii
(1) iii ii i
(4) i ii iii
(2) i iii ii
58. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(3) iii i ii
Column II and select the correct option given
(4) ii iii i below :
Column I Column II
54. All of the following are part of an operon except
(1) an operator a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL

(2) structural genes b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL

volume
(3) a promoter
c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL
(4) an enhancer
volume
55. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
a b c d
inherited by
(1) Only daughters (1) iii ii i iv

(2) Only sons (2) iii i iv ii

(3) Both sons and daughters (3) iv iii ii i
(4) Only grandchildren (4) i iv ii iii

HLAAC/LL/Page 8 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

59. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of 65. Which of the following is an amino acid derived
(1) Proteins and lipids hormone ?
(2) DNA and RNA
(1) Epinephrine
(3) Free ribosomes and RER
(4) Nucleic acids and SER (2) Ecdysone

60. Which of the following terms describe human (3) Estriol

dentition ?
(4) Estradiol
(1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
(2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
66. Which of the following structures or regions is
(3) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont incorrectly paired with its function ?
(4) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration
61. Many ribosomes may associate with a single and cardiovascular
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide reflexes.
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
(2) Limbic system : consists of fibre
termed as
tracts that
(1) Polysome interconnect
(2) Polyhedral bodies different regions of
brain; controls
(3) Nucleosome
movement.
(4) Plastidome
(3) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
62. Which of these statements is incorrect ? connecting left and
(1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in right cerebral
mitochondrial matrix. hemispheres.

(2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol. (4) Hypothalamus : production of

(3) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in releasing hormones
outer mitochondrial membrane. and regulation of
temperature,
(4) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied hunger and thirst.
with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
67. Which of the following hormones can play a
63. Which of the following events does not occur in significant role in osteoporosis ?
rough endoplasmic reticulum ? (1) Aldosterone and Prolactin
(1) Protein folding (2) Progesterone and Aldosterone
(2) Protein glycosylation (3) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
(3) Phospholipid synthesis (4) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
(4) Cleavage of signal peptide

64. Select the incorrect match : 68. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in
(1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents its place by
chromosomes (1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
(2) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes (2) ligaments attached to the iris
(3) Polytene – Oocytes of amphibians
(3) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
chromosomes
(4) Submetacentric – L-shaped chromososmes (4) smooth muscles attached to the iris
chromosomes

HLAAC/LL/Page 9 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

69. Which of the following animals does not undergo 75. Among the following sets of examples for
metamorphosis ? divergent evolution, select the incorrect option :
(1) Earthworm (1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
(2) Tunicate (2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
(3) Starfish (3) Eye of octopus, bat and man
(4) Moth (4) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
76. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
70. Which one of these animals is not a nutritional value by increasing the amount of
homeotherm ?
(1) Vitamin D
(1) Macropus (2) Vitamin A
(2) Chelone (3) Vitamin E
(4) Vitamin B12
(3) Psittacula
(4) Camelus 77. Which of the following characteristics represent
‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans ?
71. Which of the following features is used to identify a. Dominance
a male cockroach from a female cockroach ? b. Co-dominance
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the c. Multiple allele
th
9 abdominal segment d. Incomplete dominance
(2) Presence of caudal styles e. Polygenic inheritance
(3) Presence of anal cerci (1) b, c and e
(4) Forewings with darker tegmina (2) a, b and c
(3) a, c and e
72. Which of the following organisms are known as (4) b, d and e
chief producers in the oceans ?
(1) Dinoflagellates 78. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
disease ?
(2) Diatoms
(1) Psoriasis
(3) Euglenoids
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) Cyanobacteria
(3) Vitiligo
73. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in (4) Alzheimer’s disease

(1) using flagella for locomotion 79. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs
(2) having a contractile vacuole for removing of many vertebrates is an example of
excess water (1) Homology
(3) having two types of nuclei (2) Analogy
(4) using pseudopodia for capturing prey (3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Convergent evolution
74. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
80. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
system.
lymphatic vessels ?
(1) Amphibia
(1) Elephantiasis
(2) Reptilia (2) Ascariasis
(3) Osteichthyes (3) Amoebiasis
(4) Aves (4) Ringworm disease

HLAAC/LL/Page 10 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

81. Match the items given in Column I with those in 83. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain
Column II and select the correct option given pregnancy are
below :
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
Column I Column II
(2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of uric
(3) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
acid in joints
glucocorticoids
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
(4) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
salts within the kidney

c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in 84. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’

glomeruli
(1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of glucose in preventing eggs from getting implanted.
nephritis urine
(2) increases the concentration of estrogen and
a b c d prevents ovulation in females.
(1) iii ii iv i (3) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(2) i ii iii iv (4) is an IUD.
(3) iv i ii iii
85. The difference between spermiogenesis and
(4) ii iii i iv
spermiation is
82. Match the items given in Column I with those in (1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
Column II and select the correct option given while in spermiation spermatozoa are
below : formed.
Column I Column II (2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed,
(Function) (Part of Excretory while in spermiation spermatids are
System) formed.
a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle’s loop (3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed,
b. Concentration ii. Ureter while in spermiation spermatozoa are
of urine released from sertoli cells into the cavity of
seminiferous tubules.
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
urine (4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli
cells are released into the cavity of
d. Storage of urine iv. Malpighian
corpuscle seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
spermatozoa are formed.
v. Proximal
convoluted tubule
86. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
a b c d from
(1) iv v ii iii (1) ectoderm and mesoderm
(2) iv i ii iii (2) endoderm and mesoderm
(3) v iv i iii (3) ectoderm and endoderm

(4) v iv i ii (4) mesoderm and trophoblast

HLAAC/LL/Page 11 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

87. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly 91. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by
(1) Green sulphur bacteria
help in erythropoiesis ?
(2) Nostoc
(1) Chief cells (3) Chara
(2) Mucous cells (4) Cycas

(3) Parietal cells 92. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in
liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
(4) Goblet cells
(1) – 120C
88. Match the items given in Column I with those in (2) – 80C
(3) – 160C
Column II and select the correct option given
(4) – 196C
below :
93. In which of the following forms is iron absorbed
Column I Column II
by plants ?
a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance (1) Ferric
b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting (2) Ferrous
(3) Both ferric and ferrous
c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism (4) Free element
a b c 94. Which one of the following plants shows a very
close relationship with a species of moth, where
(1) iii ii i
none of the two can complete its life cycle without
(2) i ii iii the other ?
(3) ii iii i (1) Hydrilla
(2) Yucca
(4) i iii ii
(3) Viola
89. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle (4) Banana
contraction because it +
95. What is the role of NAD in cellular
respiration ?
(1) binds to troponin to remove the masking of
(1) It functions as an enzyme.
active sites on actin for myosin.
(2) It functions as an electron carrier.
(2) activates the myosin ATPase by binding to (3) It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic
it. respiration.
(3) prevents the formation of bonds between (4) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
the myosin cross bridges and the actin 96. Double fertilization is
filament. (1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube
with two different eggs
(4) detaches the myosin head from the actin
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
filament.
nuclei
90. Which of the following is an occupational (3) Syngamy and triple fusion
(4) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
respiratory disorder ?
97. Which of the following elements is responsible for
(1) Anthracis maintaining turgor in cells ?
(2) Silicosis (1) Magnesium
(2) Sodium
(3) Emphysema
(3) Calcium
(4) Botulism (4) Potassium
HLAAC/LL/Page 12 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English
98. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain 104. Plants having little or no secondary growth are
Reaction (PCR) is (1) Grasses
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing (2) Deciduous angiosperms
(2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation (3) Cycads
(3) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (4) Conifers
(4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
105. Select the wrong statement :
99. Select the correct match : (1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
(1) Ribozyme – Nucleic acid and Plantae.
(2) F2  Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross (2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.
(3) G. Mendel – Transformation (3) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell
in all kingdoms except Monera.
(4) T.H. Morgan – Transduction
(4) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
100. Use of bioresources by multinational companies structures in Sporozoans.
and organisations without authorisation from the
106. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are
concerned country and its people is called
produced by
(1) Bio-infringement
(1) Apical meristems
(2) Biopiracy
(2) Vascular cambium
(3) Bioexploitation
(3) Axillary meristems
(4) Biodegradation
(4) Phellogen
101. In India, the organisation responsible for
107. Sweet potato is a modified
assessing the safety of introducing genetically
modified organisms for public use is (1) Stem
(1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) (2) Adventitious root
(3) Rhizome
(2) Council for Scientific and Industrial
Research (CSIR) (4) Tap root
(3) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee 108. Pneumatophores occur in
(GEAC) (1) Halophytes
(4) Research Committee on Genetic (2) Free-floating hydrophytes
Manipulation (RCGM)
(3) Submerged hydrophytes
102. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign (4) Carnivorous plants
company, though such varieties have been
present in India for a long time. This is related to 109. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Co-667 (1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
gymnosperms.
(2) Sharbati Sonora
(2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia
(3) Basmati is homosporous.
(4) Lerma Rojo (3) Stems are usually unbranched in both
103. Which of the following is commonly used as a Cycas and Cedrus.
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human (4) Horsetails are gymnosperms.
lymphocytes ?
110. Casparian strips occur in
(1) Retrovirus
(1) Epidermis
(2) Ti plasmid (2) Pericycle
(3) pBR 322 (3) Endodermis
(4)  phage (4) Cortex
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111. Offsets are produced by 118. Winged pollen grains are present in
(1) Meiotic divisions (1) Mustard
(2) Mitotic divisions (2) Cycas
(3) Parthenogenesis (3) Pinus
(4) Parthenocarpy
(4) Mango
112. Select the correct statement :
(1) 119. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are
Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’.
(2) Punnett square was developed by a British produced exogenously in
scientist. (1) Neurospora
(3) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman. (2) Alternaria
(4) Spliceosomes take part in translation. (3) Saccharomyces
(4) Agaricus
113. Which of the following has proved helpful in
preserving pollen as fossils ?
120. Which one is wrongly matched ?
(1) Pollenkitt (1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
(2) Cellulosic intine (2) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
(3) Sporopollenin (3) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
(4) Oil content (4) Gemma cups – Marchantia
114. Select the correct match :
(1) Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus 121. Match the items given in Column I with those in
pneumoniae Column II and select the correct option given
(2) Alfred Hershey and – TMV below :
Martha Chase Column I Column II
(3) Francois Jacob and – Lac operon a. Herbarium i. It is a place having a
Jacques Monod collection of preserved
(4) Matthew Meselson – Pisum sativum plants and animals.
and F. Stahl b. Key ii. A list that enumerates
115. The experimental proof for semiconservative methodically all the
replication of DNA was first shown in a species found in an area
(1) Fungus with brief description
(2) Bacterium aiding identification.
(3) Virus
c. Museum iii. Is a place where dried and
(4) Plant
pressed plant specimens
116. Which of the following flowers only once in its mounted on sheets are
life-time ?
kept.
(1) Bamboo species
d. Catalogue iv. A booklet containing a list
(2) Jackfruit
of characters and their
(3) Papaya
alternates which are
(4) Mango
helpful in identification of
117. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
various taxa.
matched ?
a b c d
(1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
(1) i iv iii ii
(2) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) XO type sex : Grasshopper
determination (4) ii iv iii i

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122. Niche is 128. The Golgi complex participates in
(1) all the biological factors in the organism’s (1) Fatty acid breakdown
environment (2) Formation of secretory vesicles
(2) the physical space where an organism lives (3) Activation of amino acid
(3) the functional role played by the organism (4) Respiration in bacteria
where it lives
129. Stomata in grass leaf are
(4) the range of temperature that the organism
(1) Dumb-bell shaped
needs to live
(2) Kidney shaped
123. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant ? (3) Barrel shaped
(1) CO (4) Rectangular

(2) CO2 130. Which of the following is not a product of light

reaction of photosynthesis ?
(3) O3 (1) ATP
(4) SO2 (2) NADH
(3) Oxygen
124. In stratosphere, which of the following elements
(4) NADPH
acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and
release of molecular oxygen ? 131. Which of the following is true for nucleolus ?
(1) Carbon (1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
(2) Cl (2) It is a membrane-bound structure.
(3) Oxygen (3) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
synthesis.
(4) Fe
(4) It takes part in spindle formation.
125. World Ozone Day is celebrated on 132. The two functional groups characteristic of
th sugars are
(1) 5 June
(1) hydroxyl and methyl
st
(2) 21 April (2) carbonyl and methyl
(3) 22
nd
April (3) carbonyl and hydroxyl

th
(4) carbonyl and phosphate
(4) 16 September
133. Stomatal movement is not affected by
126. What type of ecological pyramid would be (1) Temperature
obtained with the following data ? (2) Light
Secondary consumer : 120 g (3) CO2 concentration
Primary consumer : 60 g (4) O2 concentration
Primary producer : 10 g
134. Which among the following is not a prokaryote ?
(1) Inverted pyramid of biomass (1) Saccharomyces
(2) Pyramid of energy (2) Mycobacterium
(3) Upright pyramid of biomass (3) Oscillatoria
(4) Upright pyramid of numbers (4) Nostoc
135. The stage during which separation of the paired
127. Natality refers to
homologous chromosomes begins is
(1) Death rate (1) Pachytene
(2) Birth rate (2) Diplotene
(3) Number of individuals entering a habitat (3) Zygotene
(4) Number of individuals leaving the habitat (4) Diakinesis
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136. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with 140. A carbon resistor of (47  4·7) k is to be marked
its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The with rings of different colours for its
ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat
identification. The colour code sequence will be
absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from
state A to state B, is (1) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
(2) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
(3) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
(4) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold

141. A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value ‘R’ each, are

connected in series to a battery of emf ‘E’ and
2 internal resistance ‘R’. The current drawn is I.
(1)
5 Now, the ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel to
2 the same battery. Then the current drawn from
(2) battery becomes 10 I. The value of ‘n’ is
3
2 (1) 10
(3)
7 (2) 11
1 (3) 9
(4)
3
(4) 20
137. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed 142. A battery consists of a variable number ‘n’ of
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe identical cells (having internal resistance ‘r’
is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is
each) which are connected in series. The
(1) 13·2 cm
terminals of the battery are short-circuited and
(2) 8 cm
the current I is measured. Which of the graphs
(3) 16 cm
shows the correct relationship between I and n ?
(4) 12·5 cm
138. At what temperature will the rms speed of
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
escaping from the Earth’s atmosphere ?
(Given :
–26
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2·76  10 kg
–23 –1
Boltzmann’s constant kB = 1·38  10 JK )
4
(1) 2·508  10 K
4
(2) 8·360  10 K
4
(3) 1·254  10 K
4
(4) 5·016  10 K
139. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
between the freezing point and boiling point of
water, is
(1) 26·8%
(2) 20%
(3) 12·5%
(4) 6·25%
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143. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a 147. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of
 ^ an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom,
velocity V = V i . The instantaneous oscillating
is
electric field of this em wave is along +y axis.
(1) 1 : 1
Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of (2) 1 : – 1
the em wave will be along (3) 1:–2
(1) – z direction (4) 2:–1
(2) + z direction
148. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
(3) – x direction  ^
V = V0 i (V0 > 0) enters an electric field
(4) – y direction  ^
E = – E0 i (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is
144. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain
its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its
inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the
de-Broglie wavelength at time t is
inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance
0
(1) 0·138 H (1)
 eE0 
(2) 138·88 H 1  t
 mV0 

(3) 13·89 H
(4) 1·389 H  eE0 
(2) 0  1  t
 mV0 
145. The refractive index of the material of a prism is
(3) 0
2 and the angle of the prism is 30. One of the
(4) 0 t
two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a
mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of 149. When the light of frequency 2v (where v is
0 0
monochromatic light entering the prism from the threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
other face will retrace its path (after reflection plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted
from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence is v1. When the frequency of the incident
radiation is increased to 5v0, the maximum
on the prism is
velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate
(1) 60 is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
(2) 45 (1) 1 : 2
(3) zero (2) 1:4
(4) 30 (3) 2:1
(4) 4:1
146. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a
concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object 150. For a radioactive material, half-life is
10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the
the mirror, the displacement of the image will be
disintegration of 450 nuclei is
(1) 30 cm away from the mirror (1) 20
(2) 36 cm away from the mirror (2) 10
(3) 36 cm towards the mirror (3) 15
(4) 30 cm towards the mirror (4) 30
HLAAC/LL/Page 17 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English
151. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane 154. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
surface of a material of refractive index ‘’. At a voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
particular angle of incidence ‘i’, it is found that values of IB, IC and  are given by
the reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular to each other. Which of the
following options is correct for this situation ?

(1) Reflected light is polarised with its electric

vector parallel to the plane of incidence

(2) Reflected light is polarised with its electric

vector perpendicular to the plane of
incidence

–1  1 
(3) i = tan   (1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250

(2) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200
–1  1 
(4) i = sin  
 (3) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125

(4) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250

152. In Young’s double slit experiment the separation
155. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength  of
due to heating
the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between
(1) affects only reverse resistance
the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the
(2) affects only forward resistance
angular width of the fringes is 0·20. To increase
(3) affects the overall V – I characteristics of
the fringe angular width to 0·21 (with same 
p-n junction
and D) the separation between the slits needs to
(4) does not affect resistance of p-n junction
be changed to
156. In the combination of the following gates the
(1) 1·8 mm
output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and
(2) 1·9 mm B as
(3) 1·7 mm
(4) 2·1 mm

153. An astronomical refracting telescope will have

large angular magnification and high angular
resolution, when it has an objective lens of
(1) A.B
(1) small focal length and large diameter – –
(2) A. B + A .B
(2) large focal length and small diameter
(3) AB
(3) small focal length and small diameter
(4) large focal length and large diameter (4) A.B +A.B

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157. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer 161. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a
is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular glass tube. The length of the air column in this
tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At
deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V.
room temperature of 27C two successive
The resistance of the galvanometer is resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of
(1) 40  column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork
(2) 25  is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27C is
(3) 500  (1) 330 m/s
(4) 250  (2) 339 m/s
(3) 300 m/s
158. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
–1 (4) 350 m/s
0·5 kg m is lying horizontally on a smooth
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30 with 162. The electrostatic force between the metal plates
the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a
down by flowing a current through it when a charge Q and area A, is
magnetic field of induction 0·25 T is acting on it (1) independent of the distance between the
in the vertical direction. The current flowing in plates.
the rod to keep it stationary is (2) linearly proportional to the distance
between the plates.
(1) 7·14 A
(3) inversely proportional to the distance
(2) 5·98 A
between the plates.
(3) 11·32 A
(4) proportional to the square root of the
(4) 14·76 A distance between the plates.
159. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a 163. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
resistor 50  are connected in series across a distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in directed electric field E. The direction of electric
the circuit is field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the
same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it
(1) 0·79 W through the same vertical distance h. The time of
(2) 0·43 W fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of
fall of the proton is
(3) 1·13 W
(1) smaller
(4) 2·74 W
(2) 5 times greater
160. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
(3) equal
between the poles of an electromagnet. When the
(4) 10 times greater
current in the electromagnet is switched on, then
the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the 164. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains sufficiently high building and is moving freely to
gravitational potential energy. The work and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The
required to do this comes from acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is
2
(1) the current source 20 m/s at a distance of 5 m from the mean
position. The time period of oscillation is
(2) the magnetic field
(1) 2 s
(3) the induced electric field due to the
changing magnetic field (2)  s

(4) the lattice structure of the material of the (3) 1 s

rod (4) 2s

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165. The power radiated by a black body is P and it 169. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0. If the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
the temperature of the black body is now diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
changed so that it radiates maximum energy at
3
wavelength  , the power radiated by it
4 0
becomes nP. The value of n is
3
(1)
4 3
(1) D
4 2
(2)
3 (2) D
81 5
(3) (3) D
256 4
256 7
(4) (4) D
81 5
166. Two wires are made of the same material and 170. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
have the same volume. The first wire has circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have
cross-sectional area A and the second wire has the same mass M and radius R. They all spin
cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first with the same angular speed  about their own
wire is increased by  l on applying a force F, symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W)
how much force is needed to stretch the second required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the
wire by the same amount ? relation
(1) 9 F (1) WC > WB > WA
(2) 6 F (2) WA > WB > WC
(3) F
(3) WA > WC > WB
(4) 4 F
167. A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a (4) WB > WA > WC
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due 171. A moving block having mass m, collides with
to viscous force. The rate of production of heat another stationary block having mass 4m. The
when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is lighter block comes to rest after collision. When
proportional to the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then
(1) r
3 the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be
2 (1) 0·5
(2) r
4 (2) 0·25
(3) r
5
(3) 0·4
(4) r (4) 0·8
168. A sample of 0·1 g of water at 100C and normal 172. Which one of the following statements is
5 –2
pressure (1·013  10 Nm ) requires 54 cal of incorrect ?
heat energy to convert to steam at 100C. If the (1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding
volume of the steam produced is 167·1 cc, the friction.
change in internal energy of the sample, is (2) Limiting value of static friction is directly
(1) 104·3 J proportional to normal reaction.
(2) 208·7 J (3) Coefficient of sliding friction has
(3) 84·5 J dimensions of length.
(4) 42·2 J (4) Frictional force opposes the relative motion.
HLAAC/LL/Page 20 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English
173. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical 177. A student measured the diameter of a small steel
ball using a screw gauge of least count
orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are
0·001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major zero of circular scale division coincides with
axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw
position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. gauge has a zero error of – 0·004 cm, the correct
diameter of the ball is
Then (1) 0·521 cm
(2) 0·525 cm
(3) 0·529 cm
(4) 0·053 cm  ^ ^ ^
178. The moment of the force, F = 4 i + 5 j – 6 k at
(2, 0, – 3), about the point (2, – 2, – 2), is given by
(1) KA < KB < KC ^ ^ ^
(1) – 8 i – 4 j – 7 k
(2) KA > KB > KC ^ ^ ^
(2) – 4 i – j – 8 k
(3) KB > KA > KC ^ ^ ^
(3) – 7 i – 4 j – 8 k
(4) KB < KA < KC ^ ^ ^
(4) – 7 i – 8 j – 4 k

174. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling 179. A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless
motion a body possesses translational kinetic horizontal plane surface under the influence of a
 
energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy uniform electric field E . Due to the force q E ,
(Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one
the sphere is second duration. At that instant the direction of
(1) 7 : 10 the field is reversed. The car continues to move
(2) 5 : 7 for two more seconds under the influence of this
(3) 2 : 5 field. The average velocity and the average speed
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
(4) 10 : 7
respectively
175. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its (1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the (2) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
sphere is increased keeping its mass same. (3) 1·5 m/s, 3 m/s
Which of the following physical quantities would (4) 1 m/s, 3·5 m/s
remain constant for the sphere ? 180. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined
wedge ABC of inclination  as shown in the
(1) Angular velocity figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’
(2) Moment of inertia towards the right. The relation between a and 
for the block to remain stationary on the wedge
(3) Angular momentum
is
(4) Rotational kinetic energy

176. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller

and the universal gravitational constant were
ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
following is not correct ?
(1) Raindrops will fall faster. g
(1) a=
(2) Walking on the ground would become more cosec 
difficult. g
(2) a=
(3) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change. sin 
(4) Time period of a simple pendulum on the (3) a = g tan 
Earth would decrease. (4) a = g cos 
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 Read carefully the following instructions :

1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.

2. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave

his/her seat.

3. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer
Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a
candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to
have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.

4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per
Rules and Regulations of this examination.

6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

7. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer
Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.

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