MAT PAPER

Directions (1 to 2) : In each of the following questions find the next number of the given series –
1. 325, 259, 204, 160, 127, 105, ?
(A) 96 (B) 94 (C) 92 (D) 102

2. 16, 17, 21, 30, 46, 71, ?

(A) 98 (B) 91 (C) 107 (D) 103

Directions (3 to 4) : In each of the questions which of the following does not fit in the series –
3. 2, 6, 12, 27, 58, 121, 248
(A) 6 (B) 58 (C) 12 (D) 248

4. 1, 1.5, 3, 6, 22.5, 78.75, 315

(A) 1 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 315

Directions (5 to 6) : In each of the following question a number series is given. A number in the series
is suppressed by letter ‘A’. You have to find out the number in the place of ‘A’ and use this
number to find out the value in the place of the question mark in the equation following the
series.
5. 18, 24, A, 51, 72, 98, 129
3 4
A  ?
7 5
23 12 2
(A) 12 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 14
35 35 5

6. 42, 62, 92, 132, A, 242, 312

A + 14 = ? × 14
6 5 1
(A) 11 (B) 14 (C) 12 (D) 12
7 7 2

Directions (7 to 9) : In such type of question, a figure, a set of figures or a matrix is given, each of which
bears certain characters, be it numbers, letters or a group of letters/numbers, following a certain
pattern. The candidate is required to decipher this pattern and accordingly find the missing
character in the figure.

7. 51 11 61
64 30 32
35 ? 43

(A) 25 (B) 27 (C) 32 (D) 37

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MAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 1

 17 11 19
12 13 16
8.
25 4 ?

(A) 16 (B) 25 (C) 9 (D) 36

9 8 5

103 ? 19
9.
14 10 6

(A) 62 (B) 102 (C) 84 (D) 74

Directions (10 to 12) : In the following question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as
given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented
by two classes of alphabets as in the two given matrices. The columns and rows of matrix I are
numbered from 0 to 4 and that of matrix II from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be
represented first by its row and next by column number e.g., in the matrices for questions A can
be represented by 13, 23 etc. T can be represented by 58, 65 etc. Similarly, you have to identify
the set for the word given in question.
Matrix I Matrix II
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 D K A E C 5 P L O T N
1 C D K A E 6 T P N L O
2 K C E A D 7 P N T O L
3 K C D E A 8 O N T P L
4 E D A K C 9 L O P N T

10. COLD
(A) 44, 96, 95, 22 (B) 31, 99, 77, 22 (C) 30, 66, 86, 43 (D) 10, 85, 79, 24

11. POND
(A) 88, 99, 77, 33 (B) 75, 85, 67, 32 (C) 68, 99, 77, 33 (D) 57, 68, 89, 42

12. LEAP
(A) 96, 00, 01, 99 (B) 86, 34, 24, 69 (C) 68, 21, 22, 86 (D) 56, 03, 23, 55
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MAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 2

13. If “SMALL” is coded a “BIG”, “LITTLE” is coded as “THIN”, then how will “STANDARD” be coded as :
(A) BIGGER (B) BIGGEST (C) HEAVY (D) HUGE

14. If Rain means Water, Water means Road, Road means Cloud, Cloud means Sky, Sky means Sea and
Sea means Path, then where does an aeroplane fly :
(A) Sky (B) Sea (C) Path (D) Cloud

15. One morning after sunrise, Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their backs towards each
other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left hand side. Which direction was Shailesh facing :
(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South

16. Ram is to the South-East of Mukesh, Shyam is to the East of Mukesh and North-East of Ram. If
Suresh is to the North of Ram and North-West of Shyam, in which direction of Mukesh is Suresh
located ?
(A) North-West (B) South-West (C) North-East (D) South-East

17. A person moves towards north a distance of 13 m from a point P and reaches at Q. He turns 135° in
clockwise direction and goes 25 2 m. From here he turns 135° clockwise and goes 20 m. How for did he
from initial point :
(A) 25 m (B) 20 m (C) 13 m (D) 30 m

Directions (18 to 19) : Read the following information carefully and give the answer :
‘L % M’ means that M is brother of L ‘L × M’ means that L is mother of M
‘L  M’ means that L is the sister of M ‘L = M’ means that M is father of L

18. Which of the following means “I is the nephew of Q” :

(i) Q % J = I
(ii) Q  M × B % I
(iii) C  I = B % Q
(A) Only (iii) (B) Only (i) (C) Only (ii) (D) None of these

19. Which of the following is superfluous to answer the above question

(A) (i) Only (B) (ii) Only (C) (iii) Only (D) None of these

20. Pointing to a person in a photograph, Raman said, “ She is the only daughter of the mother of my
brother’s sister.” How is that person related to Raman?
(A) Uncle (B) Father (C) Mother (D) None of these

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MAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 3

Directions (21 to 24) : Read the following information and answer the questions.
1. Natasha and Dharmesh are children of Mr Das.
2. Natasha married Romesh Chopra. Sumant, Sanjeev and Somu are born to them.
3. Sumant is married to the eldest daughter of Mr. and Mrs. Rai.
4. Beena is younger to Roma and older than Seema and all are daughters of Mr. and Mrs. Rai.
5. Anjali is Sumant’s daughter.

21. What is Sanjeev’s surname ?

(A) Das (B) Rai (C) Chopra (D) None of these

22. Who is married to Sumant ?

(A) Beena (B) Sita (C) Roma (D) Meeta

23. How is Dharmesh related to Somu ?

(A) Brother-in-law (B) Uncle (C) Maternal uncle (D) Brother

24. What is Anjali’s surname ?

(A) Chopra (B) Rai (C) Das (D) None of these

25.

Which number is opposite to 4 :

(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 6

26. 4
3
2

From the above figures of dice, find which number will come in place of ‘x’ :
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 3

27. Smt Indira Gandhi died on 31st October, 1984. The day of the week was:
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday (D) Friday

28. How many Mondays are there in a particular month of a particular year, if the months ends on Wednesday :
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) Cant say

29. At what time between 9 a.m. and 10 a.m. will be the hands of clock point in opposite directions?

4 4
(A) 15 min . past 9 a.m. (B) 17 min . past 9 a.m.
11 11

4 4
(C) 14 min . past 9 a.m. (D) 16 min . past 9 a.m.
11 11
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MAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 4

30. If day of the week on 5th October 2005 was Wednesday then what will be the day on 11th January 2009 :
(A) Sunday (B) Thursday (C) Tuesday (D) Friday
31. There are 30 days in a month and 1st day of this month is Monday. If each second Monday and each
Sunday is a holiday then how many working days are there in the month :
(A) 23 (B) 22 (C) 24 (D) 21

32. At 9 A.M. on Sunday one watch is 5 min. fast and the second watch is 6 min. slow. If on Wednesday at
5 P.M. the first watch is 1 min. slow and the second one is 3 min fast, two watches will agree at ?
(A) Tuesday 7 : 40 A.M. (B) Tuesday 02 : 20 P.M.
(C) Tuesday 7 : 40 P.M. (D) Tuesday 10 : 40 P.M.

Directions (33 to 34) : In the given question, two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions
logically follows from the two given statements. Give answer.
(A) If only conclusion I follows; (B) If only conclusion II follows;
(C) If either I or II follows; (D) If both I and II follow

33. Statements : All windows are doors.

No door is wall.
Conclusions : I. No window is wall.
II. No wall is door.

34. Statements : All locks are keys.

No key is a spoon.
Conclusions : I. No lock is a spoon
II. No spoon is a lock.

35. Select the alternative that has 3rd statement implied by the first two :
(A) All monkeys are copy cats. All men are cheaters. So all men are monkeys.
(B) All men are clever. Some Indians are men. So, all Indians are clever.
(C) All rings are round. All circles are rings. So all round are circles.
(D) All ABC can eat. All DEF are ABC. So, all DEF can eat.

36. How many pairs of letters in the word are as far from each other as they are in the alphabets in the word
‘RELATIONSHIP’ ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) None of these

37. How many 6s in the series are preceded by 5 but not followed by 9 ?
568676565685965696865568659569568
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 5

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MAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 5

38. Jaya’s position from the left in a row of students is 12th and Rekha’s position is 20th from the right . Both
of them interchange their positions and Jaya becomes 22nd from the left. How many students are there
in the row ?
(A) 30 (B) 31 (C) 41 (D) 34

Directions (39 to 40) : In the given question below, find out the correct answer from the given alternatives.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

39. Tennis fans, Cricket players, Students

40. Rhombus, Quadrilaterals, Polygons

Directions (41 to 42) : In the given question, arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and
then choose the most appropriate sequence from amongst the alternatives provided below
question.

41. 1. Income 2. Status 3. Education 4. Well-being 5. Job

(A) 1, 3,2, 5, 4 (B) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4 (C) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 (D) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4

42. 1. Birth 2. Death 3. Funeral 4. Marriage 5. Education

(A) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2 (B) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 (C) 1, 5, 4, 2, 3 (D) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2

Directions (43 to 44) : Refer to the following addition. Each letter represent distinct single digit number
and no two letter represents the same digit.
If E is the largest single digit prime number and B = 2H then

A B C D E
+ F H G H G
F I I I H F

43. Find the value of A + H + F

(A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 9 (D) 13

44. Find the value of C + D – E

(A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 3
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MAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 6

Directions (45 to 46) : In each of the following, there are some figure which have some particular series. Find uot
the next figure ?

45.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

46.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions (47 to 48) : In each of the following questions there is a specific relationship between the first and
second figure. The same relationship exists between the third and fourth figure which will replace the
question mark. Select the correct term from the alternatives given.

47.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

48.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions (49 to 50) : Find the odd figure out.

49.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

50.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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MAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 7

ALL INDIA NTSE (STAGE-I) TEST SERIES
MOCK TEST PAPER # 10
CLASS -X

MENTAL APTITUDE TEST (MAT)

Time : 45 Min. Date : 07-11-2013 Max. Marks : 50

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. The booklet given in the examination hall is the Question Paper.

2. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of

HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

3. The question paper contains 50 questions. Each carries one mark.

4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in any

form is not allowed.

5. Write your Name & Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.

6. There is no negatice marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question.

7. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet.

8. Use only Black or Blue ball point pen. Do not use INK/GEL PEN

9. In case of any dispute, the answer sheet available with the institute shall be final.

PCCP Head Office:

Address : J-2, Jawahar Nagar, Main Road, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
Contact. No. : +91-0744-2434727, 8824078330
Website : www.pccp.resonance.ac.in E-mail : [email protected]
 MOCK TEST PAPER # 10
CLASS-X [LANGUAGE]
ANSWER KEY
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. D B C C B D C C D A A C B A A B A A B A
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. D B C D A D B C B A C C B D D D C B B C

CLASS-X [MAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

ANSWER KEY
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B C A B A B B C A D B D A D D
Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C C C D D C C C A A D C D D A
Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. C C D D D D D C D A D C B A C
Que s. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. B A D D A

325, 259, 204, 160, 127, 105, 94 Ans. B 7. In first Row

1. 66 55 44 33 22 11 51 11 + 61
16, 17, 21, 30, 46, 71, 107 Ans. C
2. 5 × 1 = 5 11 6=6 ×1
12 22 32 42 52 62 So 3 × 5 + 4 × 3
15 + 12 = 27 Ans (B)
3. The correct series will be –

17
12
8. In first colomn (17 – 12) = (5)2 = 25
4. The correct series will be – 25
1, 1.5, 3, 7.5, 22.5, 78.75, 315
So (19 – 16) = (3)2 = 9
x1.5 x2 x2.5 x3 x3.5 x4

5. The series will be –

18 24 35 51 72 98
6 11 26 16 21
9. (14 × 9) – (14 + 9) = 103
3 4
So A = 35 A × × = 12
7 5
42 62 92 132 182 242 312 8
6.
20 30 40 50 60
A = 182
70 So ? (10 × 8) – (10 + 8) = 80 – 18 = 62
A + 14 = ? + 14 Ans B 10
Ans (A)

SOL.MAT_NTSE STAGE-II MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 1

ALL INDIA NTSE (STAGE-I) TEST SERIES
MOCK TEST PAPER # 10
CLASS -X

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

Time : 1½ Hr. Date : 07-11-2013 Max. Marks : 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. The booklet given in the examination hall is the Question Paper.

2. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of

HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

3. The question paper contains 90 questions, 35 Questions from Science (1-35), 20 Questions from

Mathamtics (36-55), 35 Question from Social Science (56-90), each carries one mark.

4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in any

form is not allowed.

5. Write your Name & Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.

6. There is no negatice marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question.

7. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet.

8. Use only Black or Blue ball point pen. Do not use INK/GEL PEN

9. In case of any dispute, the answer sheet available with the institute shall be final.

PCCP Head Office:

Address : J-2, Jawahar Nagar, Main Road, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
Contact. No. : +91-0744-2434727, 8824078330
Website : www.pccp.resonance.ac.in E-mail : [email protected]
 SAT PAPER
SCIENCE
1. Choose the correct relation between u, v and R :
2uv 2 2(u  v )
(A) R = (B) R = (C) R = (D) none of these
uv uv (uv )

2. The focal length of a concave mirror is f and the distance from the object to the principal focus is a. The
magnitude of magnification obtained will be :
(A) (f + a)/f (B) f /a (C) f/ a (D) f2/a2

3. Find the resistance between x and y :

(A) r/4 (B) 3r/4 (C) 3r (D) 4r 

4. In the house of a person who is weak of hearing, a light bulb is also lit when somebody rings the door-bell.
The ring can be operated both from the garden gate and from the door of the house. Select the correct
possible circuit (s) required.

•
(A) (B) (C) (D)
• •
•
• • •
5. Assertion : The graph between P and Q is a straight line, when P/Q is constant.
Reason :The straight line means P is proportional to Q or P is euqal to constant multiplied by Q.
(A) both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) assertion is true and reason is false.
(D) both assertion and reason are false.

6. A boy standing in an elevator accelerating upwards throws a ball upward with a velocity v0 . The ball
returns in his hands after t time then the acceleration of the lift is :
2v 0 – gt 2v 0  gt v 0 – gt v 0  gt
(A) (B) (C) (D)
t t t t

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SAT_NTSE MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 1

7. A bullet of mass 10 g is fired with a rifle. The bullet takes 0.003 s to move through its barrel and leaves
with a velocity of 300 ms–1. The force exerted on the bullet by the rifle :
(A) 103 N (B) 104 N (C) 105 N (D) zero

8. An iceberg is floating in ocean. What fraction of its volume is above the water ?
(Given : density of ice = 900 kg/m3 and density of ocean water = 1030 kg / m3)
(A) 90 / 103 (B) 13 / 103 (C) 10 / 103 (D) 1 / 103

9. The figure shows a planet in elliptical orbit around the sun. The kinetic energy of the planet will be
maximum when the planet is at :
P4

P1 s P3
P2
(A) P1 (B) P2 (C) P3 (D) P4
10. The waves produced by a motor boat sailing in water are :
(A) Transverse (B) Longitudinal
(C) Longitudinal and transverse (D) Stationary

11. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the base of the tower. When
is the splash heard at the top ? (Given g = 10 ms–2 and speed of sound = 340 ms–1) :
(A) 10 s (B) 11.47 s (C) 1.10 s (D) 20 s

12. The velocity of a stone thrown vertically upwards is halved in 1.5 second. The maximum height attained
by the stone is (Take g = 10 m s–2)

(A) 20 m (B) 25 m (C) 30 m (D) 45 m

13. Which scientist gave the approximate value of  as 3,1416 ?

(A) Vikram Sarabhai (B) C.V. Raman (C) Aryabhatta (D) Bhaskaracharya

14. The Freon containing two carbon atoms, two fluorins atoms and four chlorine atoms is
(A) Freon- 112 (B) Freon- 114 (C) Freon- 113 (D) Freon- 111

15. Which oxide is neutral among the following ?

(A) CO (B) H2O (C) NO (D) All

16. Fullerence, an isotope of carbon contains :

(A) 30 Six membered rings
(B) 24 five membered rings and 10 six membered rings.
(C) 12 five membered rings and 20 six membered rings
(D) 18 five membered rings and 15 six membered rings.
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SAT_NTSE MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 2

17. The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula (CH3)3 CCH = CH2 is -

(A) 3,3,3-Trimethyl -1-propane (B) 1,1,1-Trimethyl-1-butene

(C) 3,3-Dimethyl-1-butene (D) 1,1–Dimethyl -1,3-butene

18. Which of the following are isoelectronic species ?

(i) CH3+ (ii) H3O+
(iii) CH 3
–
(iv) NH3
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii),(iii) and (iv)

19. The highest ionisation energy is exhibited by -

(A) halogens (B) alkaline earth metals
(C) transition metals (D) noble gases

20. Atomic weight of chlorine is 35.5. It has two isotopes of atomic weight 35 & 37 respectively. What is the
percentage of the heavier isotope in the sample ?
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 25 (D) 20

21. A correct statement about charcoal, diamond, graphite and methane is that they all -
(A) are allotropes of carbon (B) are soluble in water
(C) form CO2 on combustion (D) have high melting point

22. Which one of the following shows the group of atoms having the same number of neutrons in their nuclei ?
23 24 27 238 235 233 14 16 15 40 12 14
(A) 11 Na , 12 Mg, 13 Al (B) 92 U, 92 U, 92 U (C) 6 C, 8 O, 7 N (D) 20 Ca , 6 C, 7 N

23. The metal having highest density is -

(A) Mercury (B) Gold (C) Osmium (D) Tungsten

24. Endocrine glands are those which put their secretions directly into
(A) ducts (B) blood (C) both (D) none of the above

25. During expiration the diaphragm becomes.

(A) Normal (B) Flattened (C) Dome shaped (D) Oblique

26. Deficiency of vit-c (Ascorbic acid) is called as -

(A) Pellagra (B) Anaemia (C) Scurvy (D) Rickets

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SAT_NTSE MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 3

27. Match the column & select right one.
(1) Vitamin C (i) Anaemia
(2) Vitamin D (ii) Scurvy
(3) Iron (iii) Rickets
(4) Iodine (iv) Goitre
(A) (1)i, (2) iv, (3) ii, (4) iii (B) (1) iv, (2) iii, (3) ii, (4) i
(C) (1) ii, (2) iii, (3) i, (4) iv (D) (1) iii, (2) iv, (3) ii, (4) i

28. Haemophilia is an example of

(A) Congenital disease (B) Acquired diseases
(C) Communicable disease (D) Infectious disease

29. Full form of AIDS is

(A) Anti–Immune Deficiency Syndrome (B) Anti–Immune Disease Syndrome
(C) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (D) Acquired Immune Disease Symptoms.

30. Leaves respire with the help of

(A) lenticles (B) stomata (C) plasmodesmata (D) cuticle

31. The end product of anaerobic respiration is -

(A) CO2 (B) H2O (C) ethyl alcohol (D) A and C both

32. The correct statement is

(A) Plasmids are extracellular genetic material which cannot replicate freely.
(B) Plasmids can replicate only by getting integrated with main genetic material.
(C) If plasmids are removed from bacterial cell, they will die due to cessation of all the metabolic activities.
(D) Plasmids do not affect necessary biological activities of bacterial cell.

33. The term ‘Genetics’ was coined by

(A) Mendel (B) Bateson (C) Muller (D) T.H. Morgan

34. The phenotypic ratio of dihybrid cros in F2 generation will be :

(A) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 2 :1 (C) 1 : 3 : 3 : 1 (D) 8 : 2 : 1 : 3

35. Rod shaped bacteria is called as -

(A) Spirilum (B) Bacillus (C) Coccus (D) Vibrio

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SAT_NTSE MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 4

 MATHEMATICS

36. Median of a data set is a number which has an equal number of observations below and above it. The
median 1,9,4,3,7,6,8,8,12,15 is
(A) 7·5 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) any number between 7 and 8

37. Which of the following is an irrational number?

(A) 41616 (B) 23.232323 ...

(1  3 )3  (1  3 )3
(C) (D) 23.10100100010000 ...
3

38. The value of tan1º tan2º tan3º......... tan89º is

1
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D)
2

39. ABC is an equilateral triangle of side 2 3 cms. P is any point in the interior of  ABC. If x, y, z are the
distances of P from the sides of the triangle, then x + y + z =
(A) 2 + 3 cms. (B) 5 cms. (C) 3 cms. (D) 4 cms.

40. ABCD is a square with side a. With centers A, B, C and D four circles are drawn such that each circle
touches externally two of the remaining three circles. Let  be the area of the region In the interior of the
square and exterior of the circles. Then the maximum value of  is

4  2
(A) a2( 1 – ) (B) a2  4  (C) a2( – 1) (D)
  4

41. The value of (256)0.16 ×(256)0.09 is :

(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 4

42. AB and CD are two parallel chords of a circle of radius 3 cms. If AB = 4 cms and CD= 5 cms. Then the
distance btween them in cms is

5 11 11
(A) + 11 (B) 5+ 11 (C) 5+ (D) 2+
2 2 5

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SAT_NTSE MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 5

43. On a road, three consecutive traffic lights change after 36, 42 and 72 seconds. If the lights are first
switched on at 9.00 am, at what time will they change simultaneously ?
(A) 9 : 08 : 04 (B) 9 : 08 : 24 (C) 9 : 08 : 44 (D) 9 : 08 : 58

1 1 1 1
44. If + + = where (a+b+c)0 and abc 0. What is the value of (a+b) (b+c) (c+a) ?
a b c abc
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) –1 (D) 2

45. Mean of 100 items is 49. It was found that the three items which should have been 60, 70, 80 were
wrongly read as 40, 20, 50 respectively. The correct mean is :
(A) 48 (B) 49 (C) 50 (D) 60

46. The value of ‘P’ for which the equation x2 + 4 = (P + 2) x has equal roots ?
(A) (2, –6) (B) (–2, + 6) (C) (–2, –6) (D) (2, 6)

47. There are 3 hockey players Vinay, Raja and Jayanth, who are equally capable of scoirng a goal in a
match, it was konwn that the team scored 3 goals, then the probability that Vinay scored one goal and
Raja scored two goals is
1 6 2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
27 27 9 9

48. The coach of a cricket team buys 7 bats and 6 balls for Rs.3,800. Later he buys 3 bats and 5 balls for Rs.
1,750. The cost of each bat and each ball is :
(A) Rs. 3,800, Rs. 1,750 (B) Rs. 50, Rs. 500
(C) Rs. 500, Rs. 50 (D) Rs. 2,150, Rs. 750

49. A rectangular paper of dimensions 6cm and 3 cm is rolled to form a cylinder with height euqal to the width
of the paper. Its radius of the base is :
3 6 9 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2  2 

50. A right circular cone is cut by two planes parallel to the base and trisecting the altitude. What is the ratio
of the valumes of the three parts : top, middle, bottom respectively :
(A) 1 : 7 : 19 (B) 1 : 2 : 3 (C) 1 : 8 : 27 (D) 1 : 7 : 18

51. If sec2 (1 + sin) (1 – sin) = k, then the value of k is :

(A) 0 (B) – 1 (C) 1 (D) 2

52. A cone is divided into two parts by drawing a plane through the mid-point of its axis parallel to its base.
Then the ratio of volumes of the two parts is :
(A) 1 : 7 (B) 2 : 7 (C) 7 : 2 (D) 3 : 2

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SAT_NTSE MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 6

53. The King, Queen and Jack of clubs are removed from a deck of 52 cards and then well shuffled. One card
is selected from the remaining cards. The probability of getting a club is :
13 10 3 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
49 49 49 49

5 2  5 –2
54. If N = – 3–2 2
5 2
then the value of N is :
(A) 2 2 –1 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 5 2

55. If x + y + z = 1,
then 1-3x2 -3y2-3z2 + 2x3 + 2y3 +2z3 is equal to :
(A) 6xyz (B) 3xyz
(C) 2xyz (D) xyz

SOCIAL SCIENCE

56. F. H. Buchanan, a traveler, describes the life of pastoral community of

(A) the Gollas of Mysore (B) the Gaddi shepherds of Himachal Pradesh
(C) the Banjaras of Andhra Pradehs (D) the Dhangars of Maharashtra

57. Which one of the following was the main reason for unfavourable balance of trade between China and East
India Company during the nineteenth century?
(A) East India Company bought tea in return of silver coins
(B) China did not allow any foreign product in lieu of it
(C) East India Company forced to sell tea in loss
(D) China favoured the company

58. The name ‘kulaks’ in the Soviet Union was related to the
(A) church fathers. (B) poor peasants. (C) socialist volunteers. (D) well-to-do peasants.

59. What was the name given to the game of cricket for women in England?
(A) Croquet (B) Cricket (C) Baseball (D) Soccer
60. Main objective of Green revolution was to
(A) make everything green. (B) increase greenery in villages.
(C) increase cultivation of wheat and rice. (D) increase use of bullocks carts.

61. Pradhan Mantri Gramodya Yozna was launched in

(A) 1980. (B) 1990. (C) 2000. (D) 2002.

62. The introduction of Rationing in India dates back to the

(A) 1930s (B) 1940s (C) 1950s (D) 1960s
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SAT_NTSE MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 7

63. The Republic of South Africa was established on
(A) 19 April, 1994. (B) 26 April, 1994. (C) 24 April,1995. (D) 10 August, 1995.

64. The Chief Administrative Officer of the United Nations is

(A) President of United Nations. (B) Vice-President of ECOSOC.
(C) UN Secretary General. (D) Advisor of General Assembly.

65. SEBC stands for

(A) Science and Enviornment Board Class. (B) Socially and Economically Backward Classes.
(C) Societal and Economic Back Classes. (D) Sociological and Ecological Board Class.

66. ‘Traffic in human beings’ means

(A) buying & selling of human beings.
(B) childrens going abroad.
(C) looking into the working condition of prisoners.
(D) traffic rules governed by citizens.

67. The elections are held in the Panchayats and Municipal Corporation on the basis of
(A) division of village or towns into several wards.
(B) indirect representation.
(C) nomination of candidates in the villages.
(D) location of the village.

68. In case of violation of Fundamental Rights the authority that issues ‘writs’ is
(A) Parliament. (B) Executive.
(C) Supreme Court. (D) Parliamentary Committees.

69. India adopted architectural styles of dome and minarets from

(A) west Asia. (B) east Asia. (C) north Asia (D) south east Asia.

70. The correct definition of the ‘biome’is areas having

(A) large forest cover.
(B) large ecosystem on land with distinct vegetation and animal life.
(C) enough water on land.
(D) only animal population.

71. Which one of the following had the most serious effect on pastoralists due to the forest act in India?
(A) Reserved forests barred entry of pastoralists
(B) Colonial official did not permit them to enter into the forests
(C) The customary grazing right was finally taken away by these acts excluding protected forests
(D) Passes were issued to them

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SAT_NTSE MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 8

72. Wall Street Exchange, the world’s biggest stock Exchange, is located in
(A) Britain. (B) France. (C) Germany. (D) USA.

73. During the French revolution in France, not all citizens had the right to
(A) Vote (B) Travel (C) Freedom (D) Agriculture

74. Density of population in Arunachal Pradesh is

(A) 13 persons per sq km. (B) 40 persons per sq km.
(C) 80 persons per sq km. (D) 100 persons per sq km.

75. Marble rocks are located in the state of

(A) Madhya Pradesh. (B) Uttar Pradesh. (C) Andhra Pradesh. (D) Arunachal Pradesh.

76. In dividing economic activities into primary, secondary and tertiary sectors, the criterion used was______.
(A) Ownership of assets (B) Working condition
(C) Nature of activity (D) Number of workers employed

77. What do you mean by Net Attendance ratio?

(A) It implies the total number of children of age group 6-10 attending school as a percentage of total
number of children in same age group
(B) It implies the total number of children of age group 6-10 not attending school as a percentage of total
number of children in same age group
(C) It implies the total number of children of age group of 10 -15 attending school as a percentage of total
number of children in same age group
(D) It implies the total number of children of age group of 5 -10 attending school as a percentage of total
number of children in same age group

78. What is the basic function of foreign trade?

(A) Connects markets of two countries only
(B) Creates opportunity for only the buyer to approach foreigh goods
(C) Connects markets of different countries
(D) Foreign trade connects developed countries only

79. What are ‘demand deposits’ ?

(A) Deposits with banks kept for at least 10 yrs
(B) Deposits with bank which can be withdrawn on demand
(C) Deposits in bank in form of jewellery only
(D) Deposits with banks kept for at least 5 yrs
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SAT_NTSE MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 9

80. What do you mean by ‘collateral’?
(A) It is a liability that the borrower bears while taking loan
(B) It is a document used in the process of taking credit
(C) An asset that a borrower owns and the lender uses it as a guarantee until the loan is re-paid
(D) It is an asset

81. The institutions established by Government of India that helped in modernization of Agriculture is
(A) World Trade Organization. (B) Kissan Credit Card.
(C) Indian Council of Agriculture Research. (D) Indian Institute of Agronomy.

82. The tiger reserve threatened by dolomite mining is

(A) Kanha national park in Madhya Pradesh. (B) Tiger reserve of Sunderbans.
(C) Buxa tiger reserve in west Bengal. (D) Jim Corbet in Uttaranchal.

83. The major aluminium producing ore is

(A) magnetite. (B) bauxite. (C) mica. (D) manganese.

84. The joint forest management programme has involved the local communities, especially in
(A) Punjab. (B) Kerala. (C) Orissa. (D) Gujarat.

85. In which one of the following states of India oldest gold mine is located?
(A) Panna in Madhya Pradesh (B) Jharia in West Bengal
(C) Kolar in Karnataka (D) Shinghbhum in Jharkhand

86. An unexpected problem that was faced by the Europeans in Africa was
(A) inhospitable climate. (B) shortage of labour.
(C) lack of minerals. (D) shortage of fertile lands.

87. Read the following statements & find out incorrect one –
(A) Kitagawa Utamaro was widely known for his conribution to an art orm called ‘ukiyo’.
(B) ‘Ukiyo’ means ‘he pictures of the floating world’
(C) These prints travelled to contemporary US & Europe & influenced artists like manet, monet & Van
Gogh.
(D) A morning scene, ukiyo print was made by Kitagawa Utamaro.

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SAT_NTSE MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 10

88. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
Column– I Column – II
I. Water eroded Area 10%
II. Forest degraded Area 6%
III. Galine & Alkatine land 28%
IV. Wind eroded area 56%
(A) I-10%, II-6%, III-28%, IV - 66% (B) I–56%, II-28%, III–6%, IV-10%
(C) I-6%, II-28%, III-10%, IV-56% (D) I-56%, II-10%, III-28%, IV-6%

89. Which of the following countries is not the example of coming together federalism-
(A) U.S.A (B) Switzerland (C) Australia (D) Spain

90. The ‘Vicar of Wakefield’ is written by-

(A) Oliver Goldsmith (B) Emile Zola (C) Premchand (D) Shakespeare

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SAT_NTSE MOCK TEST PAPER-6_PAGE # 11

 MOCK TEST PAPER # 10
NTSE STAGE-I
CLASS-X [SAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

ANSWER KEY
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A B A B A A A B A C B D C A D
Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C C D D C C C C B B C C A C B
Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. D B B A B A D B C B D C B A C
Que s. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. A A C D A C A B D A A B D A C
Que s. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. C B B C B A A C A B A D A A A
Que s. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. C A C B C C C B C B D B D

17. The given compound can be written as fol- 38. tan1° tan2° tan3° .........tan89°
lows. = (tan1° tan89°) (tan2° tan88) ......... tan45°
= (tan1° tan1°) (tan2° cot2°) ...........(1)
= (1) (1) .............. (1)
=1

a a
39.
18. H3O+, CH3– and NH3 all have same no. of a
electrons, i.e. 10.
a = 2 3 cm
19. Noble gases have stable electronic configu-
ration. Hence, it is difficult to remove an elec- 1 3 2
a(x + y + z) = a
tron from them. So, their I.E is maximum. 2 4

3 3
21. (C) Carbon and carbon containing compounds x+y+z= a= 2 3 = 3 cm
2 2
form carbon dioxide gas on burning.

36. Ascending order

1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 8, 9, 12, 15
78
Median = = 7.5.
2

37. 23.10 1 00 1 000 1 0000 ........ is an irrational

number as it is Non-terminating & non-
repeating.

SOL_NTSE MOCK TEST PAPER-3_PAGE # 2

 1 1 1 1
44.   =
a b c abc
D C
ab  bc  ca 1
=
abc abc
40. (ab + bc + ca) (a + b + c) = abc
B
a2b + ab2 + abc + abc + b2c
A
+ bc2 + a2c + abc + ac2 = abc
or
2 abc + a2b + a2c + b2 a + b2c
a
2 + c 2b + c 2a = 0
Area of interior region = a –   
2 Now
(a + b) (b + c) (c + a) =
a2
= a2 –  abc + abc + a2b + a2c +
4 b2a + b2c + c2a + c2b = 0
4 (by equation)
= a2  
 4 
100
41. (256)0.16 × (256)0.09
16

9 25
45. x
i 1
i = 49 × 100 = 4900
(256) 100 100 = ( 4 4 ) 100
Correct sum = 4900 – (40 + 20 + 50) + (60 +
=4 70 + 80) = 500
Correct mean = 5000 ÷ 100 = 50

46. x2 – (p + 2)x + 4 =0
For equal roots
b2 – 4ac = 0
42. (p + 2)2 – 4(1) (4) = 0
P2 + 4P – 12 = 0
(P + 6) (P – 2) = 0
P = – 6 or P = 2
2 47. Total no.of different cases = 27
5 11
OM  (3)2 –    only one case possible is 1
2 2
1
2 2
 probability =
ON  (3) – (2)  5 27

11 48. Let the C.P. of 1 bat = x

So MN = OM + ON = 5 + C.P. of 1 ball = x
2
43. L.C.M. of 36, 42, 72 is 504 sec  A.T.Q.
= 8 min 24 sec. 7x + 6y = 3800
so 9 : 08 : 24 Ans. 3x + 5y = 1750
on solving
x = 500
y = 50

49. 2 r = 6
6 3
r= =
2 

SOL_NTSE MOCK TEST PAPER-3_PAGE # 3

 13  3 10
53. =
52  3 49

50.
5 2  5 2
54. – 32 2
5 2

5 2
N=1+ – ( 2  1)2
5 2
1
V1 = x x 2y
3 ( 5  2)( 5  2)
=1+ –( 2 – 1)
1 1 ( 5  2)( 5  2)
V2 = x (2x)2(2y) – x x 2y
3 3
1 ( 5  2)2
= x (7xy) =1+ – ( 2 – 1)
3 5 4
1 1 =1+ 5 –2– 2 +1
V3 = x (3x2)(3y) – x (2x)2(2y)
3 3
= 5 – 2
1
= x (19xy)
3 55. x+y+z=1
So V1 : V2 : V3 = 1 : 7 : 19 Now
1 – 3x2 – 3y2 – 3z2 + 2x3 + 2y3 + 2z3
51. sec2  (1 – sin2 ) = k 1 – 3(x2 + y2 + z2) + 2 (x3 + y3 + z3 )
1 – 3(1 – 2xy – 2yz – 2zx) +
sec2  cos2  = k = 1 2{(x + y + z) (x2 + y2 + z2 – xy – yz – zx) +
3xyz}
1 – 3 + 6xy + 6yz + 6xz
+ 2{x2 + y2 + z2 – xy - yz – zx + 3xyz}
=1 – 3 + 2 [x2 + y2 + z2 + 2xy+ 2yz + 2zx] +
6xyz
52. = – 2 + 2{x + y + z]2 + 6xyz
= – 2+ 2 + 6xyz
= 6xyz

1 2
Volume of conical part = y x
3
1 1
Volume of frustum = (2y)2 (2x) – y2 x
3 3

1 2
y x
3 1
ratio = 
1 2 7
y x(8  1)
3

SOL_NTSE MOCK TEST PAPER-3_PAGE # 4