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Contenfs
ANATOMY
Questions.
1-9
Answets ruith ExPlanations " " 10-49
PHYSIOLOGY
50-60
Questions.
Answers with ExPlanations " ' " 6L-95
BIOCHEMISTRY
96 1.00 '
Questions. . '
1,01" I lt)
Answers with ErPlanattons ..
PATHOLOGY
"" 1'17 - 126
Questtotrs..
AnswerswithExplanations" """'727 -1'75
MICROBIOLOGY
I/b :.- r6t
Questions..
Answers with ExPlanations ..
183 - 21.3
PARASITOLOGY
214 - 21'5
Questions...
AnswerstoithExplanations "' "'"'';'- """"2L6 - 22L
PHARMACOLOGY
""' - 233
222
Questions.
AnswerswithExplanations """"' """"""':" "'234 - 286
FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY

287 - 289
Questions...
Ansuters with ExPlanations''
290 - 301.
PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE

302 - 314
Questions....
........ 31.5 - 367
Answers with Erplanations
EA& NOSE AND THROAT (ENT)

368 369
Questions...
370 377
Answers utith Exqlanations "
OPHTHALMOLOGY
378 - 387
Questians ".
3SS'- 432
Answerc...
Contents
GENERAL MEDICINE
.-.:
Questions. ....,.. 433 _ 446 ,
AnstpersrcithExplanatiotts .. 447 _ S0g
GENERAL SURGERY
Questions. 570 _ 524
Atrsuters with Explanations .. ..........-S2S _ 605
ORTHOPAEDICS
Questions.. .......606 _ 670
Anszpers with Explanations .. ...... 677 - 634
PAEDIATRICS
Questions. ....... 635 - 637
Answers with Explanations .. ....... 63g _ 650
OBSTETRICS
euestions. .....:. 651 _ 656
AnswerswithExplanatiotts .. .....657 _ 679
GYNAECOLOGY
Questions. ..... 680 _ 6g2
Ansuters utith Explanations .. ...... 6g3 _ 696
DERMATOLOGY
Questions.... 697 - 699
Ansuters with Exptlanations ...
700 - 772
ANAESTHESIA
Questions.... /rJ - /t+
Answers with Explanations ..
/tJ - /ll
PSYCHIATRY
Questions.. 722 - 723
Answers rnith Erplanations ... " 724 - 732
RADIODIAGNOSIS
Questions.. 733 - 734
Anszuers with E*lanations .. 735 - 747
RADIOTHERAPY
Questions.. "....742 _ 742
Answers zuith Explanations ..
743 748
SEPTEMBER 2O1O
Questiorts... 749 - 763

Answ ers utith Explanations
764 - 796
AN,ATOMY (Questions)
EMBRYOLOCY
9. True diverticulum is: March 2010
1. Umbilical cord contains: Septenfuer 2AA5 a. Zenker's diverticr.rlum
a. 2 arteries and 2 veins b. Meckel's diverticr-rlum
b. 1 artery and 2 .reins c. Duodenal diverticulum
c. 1 artery and 1 vein d. Bladder diverticulum
d. 2 arteries and I vein
2. Ligamentum arteriosum is derived from: March 2005 HISTOLOGY
a. Ducfus arteriosus 10. Mucous membrane of vagina is lined by:
b. Ducfus venoslls Septenfuer 2005
c. Ducfus utriculosaccularis a, Nonkeratinizecl Stratilied Squamous epiti-relirrm
d. Ductr.rs reunions b. Kr..r.rtin i zcd Strirti fied bquamous epithetium
3. Arch of aorta develops from: c. Columnar ceils

SeTttemher 2006
a. Itight fr>r,rrth aortic arch arterv d. Cuboidal cpitheliutt
b. Left thirci aortic arch artery 11. Gland of Brunrrer's is found in: Seytttmber 2005
c. Left fourth aortic arch artery a. Jejunum
d. Right third aortic arch arterv b. Duodenum B
4. Lens is derived from: c. Iieum

March 2007. Septenber2}11
a. Endoderm d. All
b. Surface ectoderm 12. Not a layer of retina: September 2007
c. Mesoderm a. Outer limiting membrane
d. None of the above b. Retinal pigment epithelium

c. Bowman's membrane
5. Fate of notochord is: Septentber 2008 d. Ganglion cell layer
a. Annulus fibrosis
13. True about cardiac muscles are all except:
b. Nucieus pulposus
Septenfuer 2007, Septtemlter 20L0
c. Vertebral foramen a. Propertl'of spontaneons and rhythmic contraction
d. Spinous process b. Cardiac mnscle exhibits cross striations
5. Trigone of urinary bladder develops from: March 2009 c. Cardiac r.uscle celis are linear and longitudinal.
a. Mesoderm d. Cardiac muscle is supplied by autonomic nen.e
b. Ectoderm fibers
c. Endoderm of urachus 14. Simple cuboidal epithelium is seen in: Septenrber 2006
d" None of the above a. Skin
7. In the adult heart, floor of fossa ovalis represents: b. Trachea
March 2009 c. Oesophagus
a. Septum intermedium d. Thyroifl g|6p4
b. Septum primum 15. Hassal's corpuscles are seen in: Septenber 2009
c. Septum spurium a. Thymus
d. Septum secundum b. Spleen
8. Which part of the ear has origin from all the three c. Bone marrow
layers of germ layer: Mnrch 2070
d. Lymph node
a. Auricle 16. Blood testes barrier is formed by the: ScTttember 2009
b. Tvmpanic membrane a. Levdig cells
c" C)ssicles b. Sertoli cells
d. Middle ear car.ity c. Cerm ceils
d. A11 of the iibtnre'
Anatomy
: .::1 :':4: i. i
'1.: ,
17" Fenestrated capillaries are found in all except : 25. Structures piercing clavipectoral fascia are all except:
t,,tij,f:l::r:d:iri
: r :L: :l;li'i':i::i September 2009 Septenfuer 2007
:r,.lnlii;.:.'';..!.11
a. Renal glomeruli a. Cephalic vein
,l ,,
b. Intestinal villi b. Thoracoacromial artery
'-:.' c. Pancreas c. Lateral pectoral nerve
d. Muscle d. Basilic vein
26. All of the following muscles of the pectoral girdle are
18. Goblet cells are not seen in: September 2009
.- ,l;-.:' a. Colon
innervated by branches from the brachial plexus:
. i.r except: March 2008
b. Trachea
a. Subclavius
i
c. Conjunctiva b. Serratus anterior
d. Esophagus
c. Rhomboid major
SUPERIOR EXTREMITY d. Trapezius
19. Root value of the Radial nerve is: Septentbu 2005 27. Nerwe supply to hypothenar muscles is from :
a. C5,C6
a. Ulnar nerve March 20A9
b. c5,c6,c7 b. Median nerve
c. C5,C6,C7,C8 c. Radial nerve
d. Musculocutaneous n*lrve
d. c5,c6,c7,c9,T1,
28. Structure passing deep to .lexor retinaculum at wrist:
20. Which of the following is an artery of the forearm:
a. Ulnar nerve Septentber 2009
September 2006 b. Median nerve
a. Brachial artery c. Radial nerve
o
=
F
b. Axillary artery
c. Uhar artery 29.
d. Ulnar artery
The ligament which transfers weight of arm to the
d. Femoral artery
z 21. Insertion of pectoralis major is at: September 2006
trunk:
a. Costoclavicularligament
Mnrch 2009
a. Lateral lip of bicipital groove of humerus b. Coracoclavicular ligament

b. Medial lip of bicipital groove of humerus c. Coracoacromial ligament
c. In the bicipital groove of humerus d. Coracohumeral ligament
d. Clavicle 30. Nerve lying in the spiral groove of humerus is:
22. Labourers nerve is another name for which nerve:

a. Musculocutaneous nerve September 2009
b. Ulnar nerve
March 2007
c. Radial nerve
a. Median nerve d. Median nerve
b. Iladial nerve
c. Ulnar nerve THORAX
d. Axillarv nerve 31. The order of neurovascular bundle in the intercostal

space from above downwards is:- March 2005
23. Nerve roots involved in Erb's palsy: September 2009
a. VAN
a. C5, C6 b. ANV
b. c6,c7 c. AVN
c. C7,C8,T1 d. VNA
d. C5,C6,C7,C8,T1 32. Inhaled forgein body usually lodges in the:
24. Partial Claw hand is due to: September 2007 September 2007
a. Radial nerve injury a. Apex of right lung
b. Ulnar nerve injury b. Lorver lobe of right lung
c. Median nerve injury c. Apex of left lung
d. Axillarv rrerve injurl' d. Lower lobe of left lung
Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination
33. Normal Fluid level in the pericardial cavity: 40. Constrictions in esophagus are seen at all the
September 2005 leveis except: March 2007
a. 50 ml a. At ihe begining of esophagus
b. 100 ml b. At the site of crossing of esopiragus by aortic arch
c. l5u nu c. Where esophagus pierces the diaphragrn
d. 200 ml d. At the point of crossing of thoracic duct
41. Commonest location of diaphragmatic (bochdalek)
34. Right common carotid artery arises from:
SePtertuer 2005
hernia in childrens is: March 2007
a. Right axillary artery a. Retrosternal

b. Posterior and left
b. Arch of aorta
c. Brachioceplralic arterl' c. Posterior and right
d. Ct:ntral
d. Left subclavian arterv
42. lVhich of the following does not drain into coronary
35. Bifurcation of trachea is at which level:
slnus: ,\hrclt 2009
Septenfuet 2006
a. .Antclit'r cartiiac vr'irr
a. Opposite tirer disc betr,r,een the T3-T4 'rettebrae b. Small cardiac vein
b. Opposite the disc betr.r'een the T5-T6 r,ertebrae c. Middle cardiac vein
c. Opposite the disc betu'een the T6-T7 vertebrae d. Great cardiac vein
d. Opposite the disc betrveen the T7-T8 r'ertebrae 43. True about Thoracic part ol syrnpathetic trunk:
36. Branches of left coronary artery are all of the September 2007
following except: Septenrber 2006 a. The first five ganglia give preganglionic fibers
a. Anterior interventricularbranch b. The sympathetic trunk l.ras 13 segmentally arranged
.D
:=
b. Left diagonal artery
c. Left atrial artery
ganglia
c. It is the most medially placed structure in the
.!
:{
d. Posterior interventricularbranch mediastinum 'o
37. True about arch of aorta are all of the following d. The first ganglion is often fused witir the inferior .3
except: March 2007 cervical ganglion to form the stellate ganglion. ,(
a. Situated behind the lower half of the manubrium 44. Length of esophagus in adults is: Septentuer 2005
stemi a. 25 cm
b. Right common carotid artery arises from the arch of h. l0 cm
aorta
c. 15 cnr
c. It ends at the sternal end of the left second costal

d. 20 cm
cartilage 45. Base of the heart is formed mainly by: Septanber 2008
d. Begining and end of the arch lies at same levei a. Right.rtrium

b. Left atrium
38. Structures passing through diaphragm through aortic
c. l{ight vcntriclt'
hiatus are all except: March 2007
d. Left ventricle r,
a. Aorta 46" In mid clavicular plane, lower border of lung lies at lt::''
,;i:it.,,i,;,.,
b. Azygous vein level of: SeTttenfucr 2008
c. Thoracic duct a. {th rib .
d. Hemiazygous vein b. oth rib

39. If the circumflex artery gives off the posterior c. 8th rib
interventricular artery,then the arterial supply is d. l0th rib ..
'
called: March 2007 47. Shape of tracheal cartilage: Se1ttentber 2008 ' '
a. llight dominance a. W shaped ,,: "..
b. Left dominance b. O shaped '.,,.; ;
c. Balanced dominanace c. C shaped ' :',i.,,
d. None of the above d" Dshaped , ,l';"
Anatomy
48. Arterial supply to SA node is by: March 2009 55. All of the following statements regarding the deep
a. Left anterior descending coronarv ar.tery fascia of the thigh are true except: Mnrch 2008
b. Posterior inten entricular (descending) artery a. It splits in the gluteal region to
lr'-... . ' enclose gluteus
rl c. Left coronary artery marimus muscle
j.:,::ii:,:,.:: ::1,:i,
c1. Right coronary artery
,'..t- l,.i.-i.ll., l
:!:*ll:i: ri;.:.ilr .
b. Iliotibialtract forms a sl-reath for tensor fasciae laiae
49. Muscles involved in quiet expiation: Septentber 200g muscie
.:;ii.,t,:;,i'I a. Diaphragm c. medially the fascia is thickened to fonn itiotibial
b. Intercostai muscres tract
,' c. Boih of the above d. It is also known as fascia lata
d. None of the above 57. True regarding relationship of sac in femoral hernia
50. Azygous vein drains into: Septentber 2009 with the pubic tubercle : Septenfuer 2009
a. Right srrbcostal vein a. Above and lateral
b. Superior vena ca\.a b. Belorv and lateral
c. Braciocephalic c. Abor,e and medial
c1. Riglit ascending lumbar r.ein
d. Belo.rv and medial
51. Cardiac dorninance is determined by coronary
artery: Sc1ttunber 2009
ABDOMEN
a. Suppl_ving circulation to the SA nocie 58. All are branches of Intemal Iliac artery except:
b. Supplying circulation to the inferior portion of the 3
Marclt 2005
interrrentricuiar septum a. Ovarian artery
c. Supplying circulation to the interairial septum b. Superior vesical artery
d. Supplying circulation to the anterior portion of the c. Middle rectal artery
o
=
F interventricular septum d. Inferior vesical artery
52. SVC syndrome is most commonly associated with: 59. Which of the following doesn't prevent prolapse
z a. Mediastinal fibrosis
Septentber 2009 of uterus:
a. Perineal body
Mnrch 2005
b. Lrnnphoma b. Pubocervical ligament

c. Lung cancer c. Broad ligament
d. TB mediastinitis d. Transverse cervical ligament
60. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain from all of
INFERIOR EXTREMITY
53. Inversion and eversion occurs the following except: September 2005
at: March 2005
a. Subtalor joints a. Urethra
b. Ankle loir-rt b Anal canal belor,r. the pectinate line
c. lnferior Tibiofibular joint c. Clans penis
d. A11 of the above d. Perineum
61. Cerota's fascia is: Septembcr 2005
54. Vein used in bypass Surgery: September 2005
a. Cre.rt saphcnous vein
a. Renal fascia
b. Short saphcnous vein
b. Fibrous capsule
c. Femoral vein
c. l,aycr of perirenal fat
d. Brachial vein d. Layer of pararenal {at
62" Superficial inguinal ring is a defect in the:
55. Muscles taking origin from ischial tuberosity are all
except : Marclt 2005 Septentber 2005
a. AddLrctor longus a. Inlernal oblique aponeurosis
b. Semimembranosus b. External oblique aponeurosis
c. Semitendinosus c. Transverse abdominis aponeurosis
d" Adductor magnus d. !-iterna] oblique muscle
Self Assessment & Review of FMGE i lvlOl Screening Examination
53. Pouch of Douglas is between: Scptentutr 2006 71. Regarding kidney, all of the following statements are
a. Rectum and Sacrum true except: September 2007
b. Uterus and Urinary bladder a. Tl'rey lie at the vgltgl-rral level T12 to L3
b. Retroperitoneal organ
c. Bladder and pubis syrnphysis c. Left kidney is situated lorver than the right
d. Rectum and Uterus d. Left kidney is located siightliz more medial than the
64.Left testicular vein drains into: September 2006
a. Inferior vena cava 72.True about fallopian tubes are all except :
b. Left renal vein September 2007

c. Portal vein a. Lined by cuboidal epithelium ii:i
d. Sr.rperior vena cava b isthmus is the narror,r'e'r p<-rrt of the fube that links to '
the uterus
65. Which of the foliowing is not supplied by Superior
Tubal ostium is the point rr'here the tubal canal
mesenteric artery: Marclt 2007 meets the peritr'rneal cavity
a. Jejunum Miillerian ducts develops in females into the
b. Appendix Fallopian tubes
c. Ascending colon 73. Short gastric arteries are branches of: Septeniltcr 2007
d. Descending colon a. Celiac artery *
66. Blood supply of the uterus is by: March 2007 t . Splenic artery
a. Ovarian artery c.
Left gastroepiploic artery
b. Uetrine artery
dLeft gastroepiploic artery
c. Both
74. Ovarian artery is a branch of:
a. Renai artery
September 2007
z
d. None of the above b. Internal iliac
artery
c. Abdominal {
67. Pudendal nerve is related to:
a. Ischial spine
Marclt 2007 part of the aorta
d. External iliac arterl, o
b. Sacral prornontory 75. Commonest position of appendix:
September 2007, September 2010
=
c. Iliac crest
d. Ischial tuberosity a. Pelvic
b. Retrocaecal
68. Kidney is supported by all of the following except: c. Subcaecal
March 2007 d. Promontoric
a. Perirenal fat 76. Veins draining into portal vein are all except:
b. Renal fascia September 2007
c. Pararenal fat a. Renalvein

d. Fibrous capsule b. Splenic vein
c. Left gastric vein
69. Uterine artery is a branch of: March 2007
d. Superior mesenteric vein
a. Abdominal aorta 77. All of the following structures forms the stomach bed
b. External iliac artery except: March 2008
c. Femoral artery a. Hepatic flexure of colon
d. Intemal iliac artery b. The left kidney
70. Superficial inguinal ring in the fernale transmits: c. The pancreas
d. Transverse mesocolcin
March 2007
78. Lymphatic drainage of ovary is through: March 2008
a. Broad ligament of uterus
a. Irreaortic and para-aortic lymph nodes
b. Round ligament of the uterus b. Superficial inguinal l,vrnph nodes
c. Cardinal ligament c. Deep inguinal lymph nodes
d. None of the above d. Internal iliac lymph nodes
Anatomy
79. Source of arterial supply to testis: March 200g 87. Superior thyroid artery originates from:
a. Internal pudendal artery
September 2005
b. Deep external pudendal artery a. Internal carotid artery
c. Superficial
external pudendal artery b. External carotid arterv
d.
Testicular artery
c. Facial artery
80. True about uterus are all except. September 2009 d. Maxillary artery
a. Normaliy the uterus is retroverted
88. Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies all of the
b. Angle of anteflexion is 125 degree
following muscles except: Septenfuer 2005
c. Long axis of uterus corresponds to the axis of pelvic
inlet
a. Cricothyroid
d. Posterior surface is related to the sigmoid colon b. Lateral cricoarytenoid
81. Spleen is supported by all of the following except:
c. Posterior cricoarytenoid
d. Thvroepiglotticus
Septenrhcr 2008
a. Phrenicocolic iigament 89. True about pharyngeal diverticula are all except:
Lr. Gastrospie'nic ligament September 2005

c. Lineorenal lieament a. Results due to neuromuscular incoordination
d. Ligamentum teres b. Lies in the anterior rvali of pharynx
82. True about ureters are all except: March 2009 c. They are normal in pig
a. Constricted at three places d. Food may get accumulated
b. It is 25cm long 90. Number of parathyroid glands in human:
c. Testicular vessels lie anteriorly to the ureters September 2005
d. It is lined by cuboidal epithelium
o
=
F 83. Not present at the transpyloric level ; March 200g b.3
a. Neck of pancreas c.2
z b.
c.
Fundus of stomach
Left and right colic flexure 9L. Nasolacrimal duct opens in: September 2005
d. L1 vertebra a. The mouth opposite upper 2nd molar
84. Structures lying posterior to spleen are all of the b. Middle meatus of nose
following except-: September 2009 c. Superior meatus of nose
a. 11th rib d. Inferior meatus of nose
b. Left lung 92. Not a branch of external carotid artery: September 2006
c. The diaphragm a. InJerior thyroid artery
d" The stomach b. Facial artery
85. All of the following veins lack valves except c. Superior thyroid artery
September 2009 d. Maxillary artery
Femoral vein 93. False about facial muscles: March 2007
.:l D" Portal vein
a. Dilates and constrict facial orifices
'c. IVC b. Supplied by facial nerve
d. Dural venous sinuses
c. Develops from 3rd pharyngeal arch
HEAD AND NECK d. They develop from mesoderm
86. Muscle which helps to open Eustachian tube while 94. Motor supply to the muscles of the tongue is by:
sneezing: Mnrch 2005, September 20L0 March 2007
a. Tensor veli palatini a. Hypoglossal nerve
b. Levator veli palatini h Facial nerve
c. None of the above c. Lingual nerve
d. Both A and B u. Glossopharyngeal nerve
95. Name of the parotid duct: March 20a7 L03. Branches of external carotid artery are all except:
a. Stensons duct September 2007
b. Nasolacrimal du.ct a. \{axillary artet:y

c. Whartons duct b.Ascending pharyngeal artery
d. None of the above c.Superior thyroid artery
96. Parotid duct passes through all the following d.Ophthalmic artery
104. The facial nerve controls all of the following
structures except: March 2007
functions except: March 2008
a. Buccopharyngealfascia a. Intensity of the sound reachirg the ear
b. Buccinator b. Lacrimation
c. Buccal fat pad c. Salivation
cl. Masesster d. Srvallorvir-'g
97. Thinnest part of scelra is: Mcrch 20()7 105. All of tire following structures are within the
a. At the entrance of optic nerve' parotid gland except: lt4trclt 2008
b. Site of entrance of ciliary nerves a. Facial arterv
c. Corneoscleraljunction b. facial nerve
d. At the insertion of lecti muscles c. Extemal carotid arrterrr
98. Cadaver like position of vocal cords is seen in: d. Rctronrandibul;rvein
March 2407 106. Which cranial nerve supplies parasympathetic
a. superior larymgeal nerve palsy
Both secretomotor fibres to the submandibular salivary
b. recurrent laqmgeal nerve palsy
Both gland: March 2008
c. a. Vagus :'>
d.
external laryngeai nerve palsv
Both
b. Trigeminal ,Z
internai laryngeal nerve palsy
Both
99. Which of the following extraocular muscles does
c. facial r>
.{
not arise from annulus: September 2007
d. Glossopharvngeai
107. All of the following are contents of the posterior
'o
a. Inferior rectus ,l=
b" Medial rectus
triangle of the neck except:
a. Spinal part of accesory nerve
March 2008
'<
c. Lateral rectus b. Trunks of brachial plexus
d. Superior oblique c. Internal jugular vein
100. Elevation of iaw is done by all except: d. Transverse cervical arterv
SePtember 2007 108. Muscle responsible for intorsion of the eye:
a. Temporalis SEttunher 2008
b. Masseter a.Superior oblique
c. Lateral pterygoids b.Superior rechrs
d. Medial pterygoids c.Both of the above
101. Structure not passing through the superior orbital d.None of the above
fissure: Septenfuer 2007 109. Length of the cartilaginous part of external auditory
canal: Seyttcmber 2048
a. Superior ophthalmic vein
b. Trochlear nerve a. 15 mm
c. Abducent nerve b. 20 mm
d. Zygomatic nerve c. 25 mm
102. All of the folowing opens into middle meatus

d. 30 mm
110. The nerve that may get injured during removal of
except: Septenrber 2007
tlrird molar is : March 2009
a. Middle ethmoidal air sinuses a. lllrprgiossal nerve
b. Maxillary sinus b. Facial nt'rve
c. losterior ethmoid sinuses c. Lingual nerve
d. Frontal air sinus d. Glossopirart'ngeal nerve
Anatomy
'., 111. Parotid duct opens opposite to: March 2009 BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD
a. Upper 1st molar 120. Arterial supplv to dura mater is from all of the
h IInnpr ?nrl mnl41
following except: September 2005
c. Upper 2nd premolar
a. Middie meningeal artery
d.
Upper 1st premolar
b. Internal carotid arterv
112. Function of superior oblique muscle is: March 2009
c. Ascending pharyngeal artery
a. IntortiorL adduction and depression
b" Intortion, abduction and elevation d. Basilar artery
c. Intortion, abduction and depression 121. Artery supplying major part of superolateral surface
d. Extortiory abduction and depression of brain is: September 2005
113. Safety muscle of tongue is: ltIctch2009, Septmtba.2010 a. Middle cerebral artery
a. Styloglossus b. Anterior cerebral arter.y
b. Genioglossus c.Posterior cerebral artery
c. Palatoglossus d.Vertebral artery
cl. Ht.oglossus L22. ln adults, spinal cord ends at the lower end of:
114. Ser.rsory nerve supply to angle of jaw is through:
Seylember 2005
Mnrch 2009 a. L2
a. Creat auricular ner\re
b. r-4
b. Buccai branches of facial nerve
c. Li
c. Lesser petrosal nerve
d. L3
d. Auriculotemporalnerve
123. Hypoglossal nerve is: SEttcmber 2005
115. Vocal cord abductors is: March 2009,2010;
a. 6th nerve
September 2009
o
=
F
a.
b.
Lateralcricoarytenoid
Irosteriorcricoarytenoid
b.
c.
7th nerve
12th nerve
c. Cricothyroid d. 9th nerve
z d. Thyroarytenoid 124. Eye ball movements are controlled by all of the
116. The muscle which is not supplied by recurrenl following cranial nerves except: September 2005
Iaryngeal nerve is: September 2009 a.Optic nerve
a. Thyroarytenoid b.Abducens nerve
b. Posteriorcricoarytenoid c.Trochlear nerve
c. Cricothl'1616[ d.Oculornotor nerve
d. Lateralcricoarytenoid 125. Largest cranial nerve is: September 2006
117. Facial nerve does not supply which structure of the a. Trochlear
face: Marclt 2010 b. Trigeminal
a. Auricular muscle
c. Oculomotor
b" Posterior belly of diagastric muscle
d. Vagus
c. Parotid gland
126. Not a tributary of cavernous sinus: March 2007
d. Submandibular gland
118. Muscle involved in congenital torticollis: It4arclt2010
a. Superior petrosal sinus
it. a. Deltoid b, Sphenoparietalsinus
,iit
,
b. Sternocleidomastoid c.Inferior ophthalmic vein

c. Digastric d. Superficial middle cerebral veins
$tii 127. Nuclei deep within the medial temporal lobes of the
si d. Mylohyoid
1.19. Tendon of which muscle passes through the brain: Septenfuer 2007
:,{;,'
pyramid in middle ear: Msrclt 2010 a. Amygdala
ji, a. Incus b. Raphae nucleus
rii,'l
b. Stapedius c. Dentate nucleus
c. Malleus d. Red nucleus.
ir' d. Tensor veli palatine
.14'
,)
L28. Cross section of midbrain at the level of superior 134. Not involved in damage to cerebellum: March 2010
colliculus shows : September 2009 a. Posfure
a. Red nucleus and trochlear nerve nucleus l-, un,,iil-.i,.-
b. Rednucleus and abducent nenre nucleus c. Asthenia
c. Red rrucleus and optic nerve nucleus d. Tone
d. Red nucleus and occulomotor nerve nucleus
JOINTS
1?9. Spinal part of accesory nerve supplies: March 2009
135. Abduction of the thigh is limited by:
a. Pectoralis major
Septcmber 2009
b. pectoralis minor
c. sternocleidomastoid
a. Ischiofemoralligarnents
d. deltoid b. Pubofemoralligaments
130. Primary auditory area is: Mu'clt 2009 c. Iliofemoralligarlents
r Inierior fpmnnr.rl ulrrrc d
'r
Sacroiii.lc- --b".-
"'--'.'-".. lig.rnrt'nt
h (lrrirrt>l rnrler 136. Ligament resisting hyperextension of hip are all
c. Superior temporal gyrus except: Septenrbcr 2009
C. Frontai cortex a. Ischiofemoralligament

131. A lesion invoiving upper motor neuron of facial b. Pubofemoralligament
nerve manifests as: March 2009 c. Iliofemoral ligament *
a. Upper half of the face is affected, lorver half d. Sacroiliac ligament
normal 137. Unlocking of knee is done by which muscle:
b. Left half of the face
c. Right half of the face a. Adductor magnus
sePtembet 2oo9
z
d. Upper half of the face normal, lorver haif affected b. Biceps femoris {
132. Nucleus ambiguus is not associated with which c. Popliteus o
cranial nerve: March 2010 d. Sartorius
a.X MISCELLANEOUS
=
b" xi
138. Auricle of the ear is made of: March 2007
c. IX
d. XII a. H1'aline cartilage
133. ln neonates, spinal cord ends at: March 2010
b. Fibrocartilage
a. L1
c. Eiastic cartilage
b. L2
d. None of the abor.e
^ T-
L. LJ
d. L4
-.:i.:t. l:a:'..'.1..::j
'* ,l:
::.t.:. : r.t;:,.4
1..;.,,. t.,
:;;.;...iii
. . :,: .:
s i.r. I t:t:.:tt:::
':.:,:: r.rr;:t::r:i,
ttr:,i:,;,;
..ir ,-
,.r.i-.., r :;;tilill
ASSESSIfENT
GElMCr SCREENTN
PHYSIOLOGY (euestions)
HAEMATOLOCY
8. 1 gm hemoglobin binds with: September 2007
1. Normal pH of blood is: Septentber 20A7 a. 7.22m1C.2
a.7.30
b. 1.33 ml 02
b.7.20
c. 1.44 ml O,
c.7.70
d. 1.55 ml 02
d. 7.40
9. Substance present in both serum and plasma:
2. Monocytes remains in the circulation for: March 2005
a. 1-3 days September 2007
b. 24 hours a. Fibrinogen
c. 12 hours b. Factor II
d. 6 hours c. Factor VII
3. Most common Hemoglobin in normal adult cl. Factor V
is:
10. Hemophilia B is deficiency of which factor:
March 2005
a. FIbA September 2007
b. FIbF a. IX
c. FIbS b. XII
d. HbA2 c. VIII
4. Carbon di oxide is transported in plasma as: d.x
September 2005
11. Universal recipients have blood group: March 200g
a. Dissolved form
b. Carbamino compounds b.B
c. Bicarbonate c.O
d. All of the above d. AB
5. Most useful method of estimating total iron content 1.2. Extrinsic system (blood coagulation) is triggered by
of blood: March 2007 the release of: September 2008
a. Ferritin a. Prothrombin
b. Transferrin b. Thromboplastin
c. Erythropoietin c. Fibrinogen
d. Lactoferrin d. Thrombin
6. Vitamin K dependent clotting factors of hepatic 13. Hagemann factor is involved in: March 2009
origin are all of the following except: March 2007 a. Extrinsic pathway
a. II b. Intrinsic pathway
b. VII c. Fibrinolysis
c. VIII d. None
d.x 14. Erythropoietin is secreted by:
7. In sickle cell March 2009
disease: September 2007
a. Interstitial cells of kidney
a. Glutamtic acid, at position No.5 of beta-globin chain
b. Extraglomerular mesangial cells
of haemoglobin is replaced by valine.
b. Glutamtic acid, at position No.6 of beta-globin chain
c. Macula densa
of haemoglobin is replaced by valine.
d. Renal tubular epithelial cells
c. Vaiine at position No.6 1.5, Plasma makes : March 2009
of beta-globin chain of
haemoglobin is replaced by glutamtic acid a. 20% of Body Weight
d. Valine at position No.5 of beta-globin chain of
b. 15%ofBodyWeight
haemoglobin is replaced by glutamtic acid c. of Body Weight
1.0"/"
d. 5% of Body Weight
ti
74,
) :t:,
16. Heparin inhibits the active form of the following 25. Cardiac output depends on all of the following
factors excePt: September 2a09 except: September 2005
a.V a. Cardiac rate
b.x b. Bocly surface area
c.
XI
c. Stroke volume
d. XII
d.Cardiac contractili['
17. Autoregulation is seen in: Mnrch 2010
26. QRS cornplex is due to: Selttember 2008
a. kidney
a. Ventricular repolarization
b. Brain
b. Atrial depolarization
c. Muscles
d. All of the above c. Conduction through AV node
18. Factor required for ervthrocyte stability: llarch 20lA

d. Ventricular depolarization
27. Vitanrin K causes carborylation of all of the
a. Ank,vrin
following clotting faclors except: S':ptentber 2006
b. Spet--trin
a. Il
c. NADPII
d. Al1 of ti-re above
b. VII
L9. Extrinsic system of coagulation is checked by:
c. VIII
a. aPTT Mnrch 2010
d. IX
b. PT
28. Mean pulmonary artery pressure is: Septenfuer 2007
c. BT
a. 10 mm Hg *.
d. b. 15 mm Hg
PTT
c. 20 mm Hg T
20. Reticulocytosis is not seen in:
a. Chronic renal failure anemia
SeptenLber 2005
d. 25 mm Hg I
Mean arterial pressure is calculated as: March 2009
b.
Hemorrhage
c.
Hereditary spherorytosis
29.
a. Diastolic pressure +1i3 (Systolic pressure- diastolic a
d.
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria pressure) o
-
ro
21. Hereditary spherocytosis is due to deficiency of: b. Systolic pressure + 1/3(Systolic pressure- diastolic
pressure)
a. Spectrin
September 2007
c.
Diastolic + 1l3rd of systolic pressure o
b. Pyruvate kinase d.
Arithmetic mean of systolic and diastolic pressures
c. Cytokeratin 30. Blood flow in the vessels supplying the
d. Integrin subendocardial portion of left ventricle occurs
22. Raised aPTT is seen in which of the following during: September 20A9
bleeding disorder: March 2009

a. Systole
a. Hemophilia A b. Diastole
b. Hemophilia B c. Throughout the cycle
c. Von-Willebrand disease d. Diastole and mid half of systole
d. Henoch - Schonlein purpura 31-.Coronary vasodilation is caused by: September 2009
a. Adenosine
CIRCULATORY SYSTEM b. Noradrenergic stimulation
23. CVP denotes pressure of: September 2005 c. Hypocarbia
a. Left ventricle d. All of the above
b. Left atrium 32. True statement regarding purkinje fibres:
c. Right ventricle September 2009
d. Right atrium a. Are myelinated fibres
24. The first heart sound is due to: September 2005 b. Have action potential about a tenth as long as those
a. AV valves closure in the heart muscle
b. Closing of aortic and pulmonary valves c. Have conduction velocify of four times than that of
c. Opening of AV valves the heart muscle
d. Opening of aortic and pulmonary valves d. All of the above
Physiology
I
33.Negative waves in jugular venous pulse: March 2010 41. True regarding glucose tolerance test are all except:
a. A wave
b. V wave September 2007
a. Can be done in fasting as well as post prandial state
c. C wave
;- d. X wave b. 1 gram of glucose/kg body weight is administered
34. ECG changes seen in hypocalcemia:
c. Glucose levels are checked after 2 hours
March 2010
a. ST segment depression d. Diagnosis of diabets mellitus can be established
42. Which one of the following statements describes
b. Prolongation of ST segment
c. Inversion of T wave diabetes mellitus: September 2007
d. Prolongation of PR segment a. Rise of blood sugar of 50 mg/100 ml in oral glucose
35. Left ventricular failure is said to be present if
tolerance test
pulmonary capillary wedge pressure exceeds: b. Fasting blood sugar value more than 200 mg/100m1
Septenfuer 2009
c. Post prandial rise of blood sugar more than
a. 5mmHg 50 mg/100 ml
b. 10 mm Hg d. AII of the above
c. 15 mm I{g 43. Which of the following causes hypocalcemia:
d. 20 mm Hg September 2008
ENDOCRINOLOCY
a. Parathormone
b. Thyroid hormones o
36. Anterior pituitary gland secretes all of the following
except:
c. Calcitonin
March 2005 d. 1, 2S-dihydroxycholecalciferol
a. GH
44. The hormone which helps in milk secretion:
b. TSH
September 2008, September 2010
c. FSH a. Oxytocin
d. GnRH
b. Grorvth hormone
37. TSH is normal in: September 2006 c. FSH
a. Hyperthyroid d. Prolactin
b. Euthyroid 45. Features like hypogonadism, dwarfism, loss of hair,
c. Hypothyroid pigmentation and ulcets of skin and decreased
d. Graves immunity are associated with deficiencv of:
38. Which of the following is not related to the calcium
September 2008
metabolism: March 2007 a. Iron
a. Calcitonin b. Zinc
b. 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol c. Iodine
c. Vitamin D d. Copper
d. Thyroxine 46. Long term status of blood sugar is explained by:
39. At what time of the day GH levels are highest: Septenfuer 2008
September 2007 a. FIbA
a. 2 hrs after sleep b. Serial measurement of FBS
b. 2 hours before sleep c. Oral glucose tolerance test
c" Evening d. HbAlc
d. Early moming 47. Suprarenal medulla secretes which hormones:
40. Fasting blood sugar in normal individuals is: Septentber 2009
September 2007
a. Glucocorticosteroids
a. 80-100 mg/100 ml b. Catecholamines
b. 100 -120 mg/100 rnl c. Androgens
c. I20 -140 mg/100 ml d. Mineralocorticoids
d. 140-160 mg/100 ml
48. Chronic atrophy of adrenal gland will result in which 56. Glomular filtration rate increases if: Septentber 2005
hormone deficiencY: September 2009 a. Increased plasma oncotic pressure
a. CRI{ b. Decreased glomerular hydrostatic pressure
b. ACTH c. Increased renal blood flo'l,v
c. Cortisol d.Increased hrbular hydrostatic pressure
d. MSH 57. Substance used to measure renal perfusion:
49. Procedure of glucose tolerance test is: September 2009
March 2007
a. Giucose load in fed state, measurement of blood a. Inulin
glucose after 2 hours LU. DAU
I AII.
b.
Glucose load in fasting state, measurement of blood
c. Creatinine
glucose after 2 hours
d. Mannitoi
c. Glucose load in fasting state, measurement oI
58. True regarding water absorption in tubules:
urinary glucose after 2 hours
Septentber 2007
d. Glucose load in fed state, measuren-rent of urinarv
glucose after 2 hours a. N{ajoritv of facultative reabsorption occurs in
50. Corticosteroids suppress: Septtnber 2009 prox.imai tubule
a. CH b. Bulk of water reabsorption occurs secondary to
b. ACTH sodium absorption
c. FSH c. 25"/" of 'lvater is reabsorbed irrespective of r,r'ater
balance * -
d. LH
51. Thyroxine levels are raised in: March 2010 d. Obligatory reabsorption is ADH dependent .T
a. Myxedema 59. Site of action of ADH is: March 2008 '-
b. Endemic goitre a. PCT i<
';,(n
c. Idiopathic nontoxic colloid goitre b. Vasa recta
d. Grave's disease ,;o
52. True about Chvostek's sign are all of the following
c. Loop ofhenle
d.
Collecting ducts
;r
-Q
except: March 2010 60. What is glomerular filtration rate? Morch 2008
1o
a. Denotes neuromuscular hyperexcitability
b. Elicited over face
a. 100 ml/min ,<
b. 125 ml/min
c. Raised calcium level
d. Facial nerve is stimulated by tapping
c. 150 ml/min
d. 775 ml/min
EXCRETORY SYSTEM 61. Active resorption of sodium ion occurs in:
53. Normal glomerular capillary pressure: March 2005 March 2008
a. 15 a. Ascending loop of henle
o. z3 b" Early distal tubule
c. 35
c. Proximal tubule
d. 45
d. All of the above
54. Substance which is not absorbed in the loop of
62. PCT absorbs all except: September 2408
Henle: March 2005
a. K* a. Sodium
b. Urea b. Amino acids
c. Cl c. Glucose
d. Na* d. Hydrogen ions
55. Reabsorption of Water is maximum in: 63. Glucose is reabsotbed at: SEttember 2a08
September 2009 a. PCT
a. PCT b. DCT
b. DCT c. Collecting duct
c. Collecting duct d. All of the above
d. I.oop of henle
Physiology
64. Maximum absorption of NaCl in proximal 72. Urobilinogen is formed in the: September 2006
convoluted tubule ociurs due to the effect of: a. I-iver
March 2009 b. Kidney
a. ADH c. Intestine
b. Aldosterone d. Spieen
c. Atrial natriuretic peptide 73. Chymotrypsinogen is activated into chymotrypsin by:
d. Angiotensin II
65. ANP acts at the: March 2007
September 2009
a. Proximal tubule a. Trypsin
:.{ b. Distal tubule b. Pepsin
c. Collecting tubule c. Renin
d. Henle loop cl. HCI
66. GFR decreases with the following: Sc1ttembcr 2009
74. Ion which promotes glucose absorption in the gut
a. Hypoproteinemia rep;ion: Se1:tenfuo 2007
b. Hypotension a. Cl
c. Hvpertension b. K.
d. A1l of the above c. Na*
67. Urinary concentrating ability of kidney increases if d. Ca2*
there is: September 2008 75. ADEK deficiency is seen in:
!',
(9.i
a. Increase in renal blood flow a. Malabsorptionsyndrome
September 2007
b. Increase in GFR b. Obstructive jaundice

O'i c. Decrease in medullary hyperosmolarity c. Deficiency of pancreatic
Jt. d. Contraction in extracellular fluid volume
lipase
o; d. All of the above
Kupffer cells in the liver
(r) :, GASTROI NTESTI NAL TRACT 76. are: March 2008
>,
I,'
68. Faecal mass
a.
is mainly derived
Undigested food
from: March 2005 a. Endothelial celis
b. Secretory cells
O- ' b. Digested food c. Phagocytic cells
c. Intestinal secretions d. Excretory cells
d. intestinal flora 77.True about active absorption of iron is: March 2009
69. Most potent stimulus for bile secretion is: a. Absorbed in distal ileum
September 2005 b. Absorbed in stomach
a. Gastrin
c.Not absorbed in duodenum and proximal lejunum
b. Bile acid
d.Decreases follou'ing gastrectomv
c. Bile salt
78. Mechanism involved in the absorption of glucose
d. Secretin
frorn small intestine is which of the following:
70. Rapidly absorbed in the stomach is: September 2006
a. Protein March 2005
b. Carbohydrate a. Active co-transport with sodium
c. Fat b. Passive diffusion
d. None c. Facilitated diffusion
71. Which of the following is not produced by d. Active co-transport with potassium
hepatocytes: September 2006 79. Causes of vitamin 812 deficiency is: September 2006
a. Gamma globulin a. Lack of intrinsic factor
b. Albumin b. Diseases affecting terminal ileum
c. Fibrinogen c. Fish tapeworm infestation
d. Prothrombin d. All of the above
Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCr screening Examination
80. Salivary amylase is activated by: March 20A7 89. Stretch reflex of urinary bladder is integrated at:
a. Sodium Ion
March 2007
b. Chiorine Ion a. Sacral portion of spinal cord
c. Potassium Ion b.
Lumbar portion of spinal cord
d. Bicarbonate Ion
c. Substantiagelatinosa
NERVOUS SYSTEM d. Sympathetic plexus
81. Bipolar cells is seen in: March 2005 90. Function of neocerebellum is: SEtentber 2007
a. Sympathetic ganglion a. Maintaining posture and equilibriurn
b. Retina b. Planning and programming of voiuntary
c. Cochlear ganglion movements
d. Parasympathetic ganglion
c. Maintenance of muscle tone
82.All are carried through anterolateral system except:
d. Propior:eption
trIarclr 2005
a. Propric'rceptittn 91. All of the following are concerned vvith spatial
b. Ternperafure orientation: Septesltr, 2;t1,,
c. I'ain a. \rc'stibuiar receptors
d. Crude touch b. Eyes
83. All or none law is obeyed by: Marclr 2005 c. Proprioceptors in joint capsule
a. Post synaptic potential d. All of the above
b. Non propagated potential 92. A cut /lesion above the pyramidal tract decussation
c. Action potential results in: Septenfuer 20a7 T
84.
d. Spike potential
Sensory fiber with least conduction velocify:
a. Paralysis of the opposite half of the body T
b. Contralateral loss of propioception
Septentber 2005
c. Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature
a
a. C- fiber
b. Alpha fiber d. Contralateral loss of vibration and joint position o
t-
Which lies in the dorsal column of spinal cord:
c. beta fiber 93.
o
85.
d. Gamma fiber
AII are primary colours except: September 2005 a. Fasciculus gracilis
Selttenber 2007
o
a. green b. Anterior spinothalmic tract
b. Blue c. Dorsal spinocerebellartract
c. Red d. \rentral spinocerebellar tract
d. White 94. Phantom limb is explained by: September 2007
86. True about colour blindness: September 2005 a. Webers law
a. Autosomal dominant inheritance b. Law of projection
b. Tritanopia is the commonest disorder c. Fechners law of degeneration
c.Trichromats are unable to appreciate blue colour
d. Pascals law
d.Defect in 1 or more prime colours
87. True about semicircular canals is:
95. Clasp knife rigitidy is also known as: September 2A07 ,
September 2005
a. Submerged in a fluid called endolymph a. Inverse stretch reflex
b. Base of cupula is in close contact with afferent fibres b. Withdrawl reflex
of cochlear division of the eight cranial nerve c. Lengthening reaction
c. Arranged at right angles to each other d. Crossed extensor reflex
d. Associated with hearing 96.NeurotransmitterdepletedinParkinson,sdisease:
88. Blind spot of mariotte: March 20A7 Septentber 2007 ,
a. Fovea centralis a. Dopamine

b. Optic disc b. Acetylcholine
c. Macula lutea c. Clutarnate
d. Ors serrata d. GABA
Physiology
97. Function of floccunodular lobe of cerebellum is: 104. True regarding movements of the cilia in the inner
Jiil::a'
.'. t*irri _l h4arch 2008 ear are all except: March 2A09
;:;i:riitll i:.i,;;:ii;.ri:
a. Co-ordination of movements a. It moves lr.'hen head is rotated
b. Equilibrium b. It moves rt'hen moving person suddenlv stops
c. Chemoreception c. It moves r.vhen perilymph moves
d. Planning of movements d. Its movement is guided by the inertia of
98. Limbic system is concerned with all except: endolymph
March 2008 105. Electrical response, due to the effect of light on
a. Higher function
photosensitive compounds of rods and cones:
b. Emotion
March
c. Memory 2009
d. a. Hyperpolarisationcrccur.s
Planned motor activity
b. Depolarisationoccurs
99. Alpha wave in EEG are seen in: March 2008
a. Mental w.ork
c. Spike potential is generated
b. Au'ake state
d. None of the above
c. Sleep 106. N{aximum number of sodium channels per square

d. REM sleep micrometer, is prespnt in: March 2009
100. Features of occipital lobe of brain are all except: a. Cell body
>: March 2008 b. Axon terminal
O,' a. Visuai cortex lies in relation to calcarine fissure c. Surface of myelin
o:
J:,'
b. Brodmann's area\7 corresponds to visual cortex d. Nodes of Ranv ier
c. Geniculocalcarine fibres from the medial half of Sweating is mediated by:. March 2009, September 20L0
o.r the lateral geniculate terminate on the superior
1.07.
a. Cholinergic mediated sympathetic activity
cI)'..
>: d.
lip of the calcarine fissure b. Noradrenergic mediated sympatheticactivity
I.. Its the only area in the brain activated by r,'isual c. Noradrenergicmediatedparasympatheticactivity
L,, stimuli
d. Cholinergic mediated parasympathetic activity
10L. Dreaming is common in which stage of sleep:
;a.
108. Function of a muscle spindle is: Septenfuer 2009
Septenfuer 2008
a. Regulates withdrawl reflex
a. REM
b. Maintains muscle tone
b. NREMl
c. NREM 2
c. Feedback device to maintain muscle length
d.NREM3
d.
Ileceptor for inverse stretch reflex
109. Sensory organ for responding to texture is:
102. White colour vision/Perception of white light is due
to: September 2008
September 2009
a. Stimulation of red cones more than blue or green a. Meissner corpuscles

b. Stimulation of blue cones more than red or green b. Merkel cells
c. Stimulation of green cones more than blue or red c. Ruffini corpuscles
d. Stimulation of red, blue and green cones equally d. Pacician corpuscles
103. All are Neuroglial cells in the CNS except: 110. Acetylcholine receptors are decreased in:
Septentuer 2008 SePtember 2009
a" Oligodendrocytes a. Lambert-Eaton st ndrome
b. Microglia b. Parkinson disease
c. Astrocytes c. Alzheimer disease
d. Kunffer cells d. Myasthcnia gravis
111. Alt of the following are cholinergic effects except: 119. Optic nerve is: September 2009
September 2009 a. 1st order neuron
a.
Taclrycardia b. 2nd order neuron
b.
Salivation c. 3rd order neuroon
c.
Miosis d. 4th order neuron
d.
Bronchoconstriction
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
112. Properties of alpha waves are all of the following L20. Correct statement regarding high altitude:
except: September 2009
Septernber 2006
a. It is most marked in the parieto-occipital area a. Po2 is less
b. It has a frequenq' of 8-12}12 b. Pco2 is more
c. Frequency is decreased by low glucose level c. In the ait percentage of oxygen is iess
d. Seen in REM sleep lii
d. Decrease in number of RBC's
i.l3. Melatonin is associated with all of the following
121. Less 02 saturation in blood is seen in:
except: Mnrch 2010
SeTttenfucr 2006
a. Vomiting
a. R-L shunt
b. Pituitary giand secretion
b. LV obstruction
c. Sleep mechanism
c. RV obstruction
d.
]etlag d. L-V shunt 1i
114. All of the following effects c,rn occur if vagus is

Shift to right in Orygen dissociation curve is seen in n
stimulated, except: March 2009
122.
all except: March 2007 .rtf
tir
r.-
a. Reduction in blood pressure
b. lncrease in secretions of the intestine
a.
b.
lncreased PaCO2
Decreased PaCO2
:<
':aa
c. Intestinalmusculatureconstriction c.
d. Bronchialmusculature relaxation d.
Increase in 2,3 DPG
Decreased pH
l6
':r
115. Influx of which of the following ion is responsible 123. Which is responsible for respiratory drive: ,;o
for IPSP:
a. Potassium ion
March 2005 SePtembcr 2()07 ':o
b. Chloride ion
a. 02 i<
b. co
c. Calcium ion c. CO2
d. Sodium ion d.
Bicarbonate ions
1,1.6. Delta waves on EEG are recorded in: September 2007 124. Regarding lung volumes, which of the following is
a. REM true: Marclt 2009
b. 01 NREM a. Functional residual capacity accounts for 75o/o of
c. 02 NREM total lung capacity
d. Deep sleep b. Residual volume keeps alveoli inflated between
117. Temperature regulation is chiefly under the control breaths
of: September 2007 c. Vital capacity increases in elderly
a. Midbrain d. Residual volume is about 500 ml
b. Pons 125. Bohr effect is described as: Septen*er 2009
c" Medulla a. Decrease in CO2 affinity of hemoglobin when the
d. Hypothalamus pH of blood rises
1.18. Vomiting centre is situated in the: Septenfuer 2008
b. Decrease in COt affinity of hemogiobin when the
a. Hypothalamus
pH of blood falls
b. Midbarin
c. Decrease in O, affinity of hemoglobin n'hen the
pH of blood rises
c. Pons
d. Decrease in 02 affinity of hemoglobin n'hen the
d. Medulla
pH of blood falls
Physiology
126" Vagal stimulation causes: September 2009

a. Increase in rate of respiration
134. Sperm becomes mobile in: March 200g
h. Incrcase in depth of respiration
a. Vas deferens
c. Bronchodilation b. Prostatic urethra
d. Decreased depth of respiration c. I'estis
1.27. Surfactant is produced by: March 2UA
d. Epididymis
a. Alveolarmacrophages 135. Asthenospermia means: September 2005
b. Lymphocytes in the alveoli a. Reduction in number of sperms
c. Type I alveolar cells b" Reduction in motility of sperms
d, Type II alveolar cells c. Absence of sperms
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM d. Absence of semen
128. Which of the following describes In vitro 136. Ovulation occurs: Sqttember 2005
Septentber 2005 a. 14 days after menstruation
a. Method to judge the time of ovulation so that b. days prior to next menstruation
1,4
cortus can result in fertilization
c. On 14th day of the cycle
Use of hormones to prom()te fertilizafion in
tubcs
the ii.
None of the above
c. Removing mafure ova,fertilizing it u,ith sperrrr
137. Term period for embryonic period: Septenrber 20a6
and implanting back in uterus a. 0-14 days of gqstation
b.
>l d. Artificalinsemination
129. Ovulation is due to surge of: c.
74 days to 9 weeks of gestation
Ol a. FSH
September 2006,2A10
d.
9 weeks to birth
Oi
J..r b. LH
22 weeks intrauterine to 7 days after
L38. Impotency may be seen in:
birth
September 2007
c. Prolactin
9;
A'.
d. TSH
a. Mumps orchitis
b. Testosetronedeficiency
130. Milk ejection is facilitated by:
),r a. Oxytocin
March 2007 c. Prolactinoma
Iti b. d. All of the above
o., c.
Growth hormone
FSH MISCELLANEOUS
d. LH 139. Charecteristic of smooth muscle cells in intestine
L31. Separation of first polar body occurs at the time of:
March 2005
September 2007 a. Does not have actin and myosin
a. Fertilization
b. Cannot do sustained contraction
b. Ovulafion
c" It contracts when stretched in the absence of any
c. Implantation
extrinsic innervation
d. Menstruation
d. Does not require calcium for contraction
132. All of the following are indicators of ovulation
140. Osmolality of plasma in a normal adult:
except: March 2008
a. Increase in cervical mucus September 2005
b. Abdominal cramps a. 320-330 mOsmll
c. LH surge b. 300-310 mOsmA
d. Fall in body temperature c. 280-290 mOsm/L
133. Fertilization occurs in which part of the fallopian d. 260-270 mOsm/L
tube: September 2007 141. Hydrogen ion is eliminated by: September 2005
a. Fimbrial a. Kidney
b. Isthmus b. Lungs
c. Ampuila c. Liver
d. Interstitial cl. Stomach
self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screerring Exarnination
Which ion helps is resting membrane potential in 150. Nearly 20"/o of normal tensile strength of tissue at
142.
neurons: Scptenbu 2005 the site of wound is gained after: September 2008
a. Potassium a. 1 rn'eek o{ rvound healing
b. Calcium b. 2 u,eeks of r,vound healing
c. Chloride c. 3 weeks of n'ound healing

d. Sodium d. 4 weeks of rvound healing
143. Metabolic acidosis is seen in all except: 151. Major contribution to plasma osmolality is by
SePtember 2005 which ion: Mrch 2009
a. Diabeticketaacidosis a. Sodium
b. Emphysema b. Potassium
c. Aspirin overdose c. Clucose
d. Uremia d. Calcium
144. Magnitude of action potential is mainly affected by: 152, A11 of the following changes are seen in chronic
ScYtenfuer 2005 starvation except: Septtittber 2009
:r. Calcium ion a. A11 fat stores have been useo up
b.
Hvdrogen ion b. Se'u'ere fat and muscle rvasting
c.
Sodium ion c. Brain uses ketoacids as fuel
d.
Potassium ion d. Le','el of serum proteins less than 2.8 g/di- :
145. Type of exercise done to increase the muscle 153. Repolarization of a nerve ts due to: Septutrber 2t)09 :
strength: Scptunber 2005 a. Hydrogen ions ,T
.I
a. Aerobic isotonic b. Potassium ions
b. Isometric
,
r<
c. Isotonic
c. Sodium ions :a
d. All of the above
d. Calcium ions
154. Which interleukin is needed for differentiation of
.o
rl-
146. Nicotinic receptors are seen in all except:
SePtentber 2007
eosinophils:
a. IL1
Scptr:nrber 2009 '
o
,o
a. Neuromuscularjunction
b. IL,2 <
b. Autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous svstem
c. IL4
c. Bronchial smooth muscle
d. IL5
d.Brain
155. Bicarbonate exchange occurs in: Septembt:r 2009
L47. Normal limit for postprandial (after 2 hours) blood
a. Kidney
glucose level (in mg/dl-): March 2008
b. Lung
a. 80-110
c. None of the above
b. 110-140
d. Both of the above
c. 1.40-770
156, Size of action potential is decreased as a result of;
d. 170-200
Nlarch 2010
148. BMI of underweight individual: March 2008
a. Less than 18.5
a. Lower extracellular sodium
b. 18.5-24.9
b. Raised extracellular calcium
c. 25-29.9
c. Lorver extracellular calcium
d. More than 30
d. Raised extraceliular sodium l::i il irl-:i:iirrl 1:r,.':
i
,.', . .
157" With glucose which of the following is transported:
149. Most abundant ion in intracellular fluid is:
March 2010 ,
...'.. '
SePtember 2008 ',t*i
a. Hydrogen ions
a. Protein
b. Potassium ions
b. Bicarbonate
c. Calcium ions
c. Potassium
d. Sodium
d. Sodium ions
Physiology
158. During pregnancy/ deficiency

of which vitamin in c. Post adolescent
women causes neural tube defect in the
newborn: d. Post senile
Mnrch 2010 161. Main content of bilayer cell membrane
a. Thiamine is:
b. Pyridoxine March 2009
c. Folic acid a. Glycerol
d. C1'anocobalamin b. Cholesterol
159. What is the BMI for obese person:
March 2010 c. Cholesterol ester
a. Less than 19.5 d. Triacyl glycerol
b. 18.5_24.9 162. Oily substance secreting gland
c. 25-29.9
is: September 2009
d. More than 30
a. Sweat gland
160. A disease occurring before 65 yr
b. Meibomian gland
of age is termed as: c. Salivary gland
a. Senile
September 2007 d. Lacrimal gland
b. Pre senile
(,
o
J i..
o
U) lt,
r
o.
,:.1, .' ,
l , :,.
,.
,
SIELF ASSESSlvfgN"g ,I
Gn/McI SCRFEwING
BIOCHEMISTRY (euestions)
ENZYMES
9. Tme regarding glutamine is:
1. Which of the following is an important marker for March 20a7
myocardial infarction: a. NH3 transporter
September 2005
a. LDH b. Cannot cross the blood brain barrier
b. CK-MB c. 'Ioxic substance in tlre body
c. Troponins d. Stored in smooth muscle
d. All
of the above
2. Enzymes are usually:
10. Sotrrce of nitrogen in urea cycle is: Septenfuer 200g
Septentbt 2()05 a. Glutamate and aspartate
a. Lipid
b. Nucleic acirls b. Glutamate and NH3
c. Carbohvdrates c. Arginine and aspartaite

d. Protein d. I\l{3 and aspartate
3. Other name of AST: St:ptf c117lg7'tggg
11. C peptide is part of: Septenfuer 2007
a. SGOT a, Pro-insulin
b. SGPT b. Insulin
c. Alkalinephosphatase c. ACTH
d. Acid phosphatase a
cl. Gror.vth hormone
AMINO ACIDS AND PROTEINS METABOLISM 12. Glutathione is: March 2009
4. Ammonia is detoxified in brain by: March 2005 a. Dipeptide
a. Creatinine
b. Oligopeptide
b. Uric acid
c. Glutamine c. Tripeptide
d. Urea d. Poll'peptide
5. Thyroxine is synthesized from: March 2005 13. True regarding ubiquitin is: September 2009
a. Phenylalanine a. Product of purine metabolisrn
b. Tryptophan b. Protein destructions
c. Tyrosine c. Present in prokarvotes
6. In intermittent d. Protein synthesis
porphyria, what is present in the
urine: 14. Best indicator of protein quality is: March 2005
September 2005
a. Net protein utilization
a. Biliverdin b. Digestibility coefficienr
b" Uroporphl'rin c. Biological value
c. Porphobiiinogens d. Amino acid score
h;
s' d. Bilirubin
Fr, 15. Limiting amino acid in wheat are: Marclt
8,.
ft: 7. Essential amino acids are named so: Septenther 2005 2005
F.
a. Because they are produced in the body a. Lysine, arginine
$i b. Because they are not produced in the body b. Threonine, methionine
H
c. They are not important for life c. Lysine, threonine
$;
Eg d. Every food stuff essentially c<lntains them d. Lysine, methionine
p;
Er 8. Niacin is synthesized from: Septenfuer 20a5 L6. Secretory proteins are synthesized in: Mnrch 2005
F":
5;: a. Phenylalanine a. Cytoplasm
F,.
Eii
C1i
b. Tryptophan b. Endoplasmic reticulum
tr c. Tyrosine c" Both of the above
E
& "d. Methionine d. None of the above
a;
i):
j..:l
:..:
i.
,,,
1.7. Pulses are deficient in: Septentber 2005,2010 26. What is the end product of anearobic glycolysis:
3. Lysine September 2009
b. Methionine a. Pyruvate
c.
Both
b. Lactate
d.
None of the above
becomes essential in which of the following
c. Fats
18. Tyrosine
d" Cholesterol
condition: September 2005
a. Wilsons disease 27. Which of the following enzyme helps in catalyzing
b. Alkaptonuria conversion of aldose sugars to ketose sugars:
c. Thyrosinosis March 2010
d. Phenylketonuria
L9. Mousy odour urine is present in: Septemher 2409 a. Oxidoreductase
a. Phenvlketonnria lr. Phosnhol riose isonrerase
b. Maple svrup urine disease
c. Decarboxvlase
c. Tyrosinemia
d. Aldolase
d. Homocystinuria
28. How many molecules of pyruvate are formed from
CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM complete metabolism of 1 molecule of glucose:
20. Hexose sugar is not present in: Septemher 2005
March 2005
a. Ribose a. 1 TD
b. Glucose
c. Fructose b.2 .o
d. Galactose c.3 .c)
21. Key glycolytic enzymes in glycolysis are all except: d.4 ,x
March 2007 29. First substrate of Kreb's cycle is: September 2005 ,m
a.
Phosphofructokinase a. Glycine ,=
b.
Hexokinase b. Lipoprotein 'a
:{
c.
Pyruvate kinase c. Pyruvate
d.
Glucose-l,6,diphosphatase d. HCI v
22. Substrate level phosphorylation in TCA cycle 30. Carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism occurs rn
involves: March 2007
which cycle: September 2008
a. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
a. Glycolysis
b. Fumarase
c.
Malatedehydrogenase
b. Malate shuttle
d.
Succinate thiokinase c. Urea cycle
23" Andersen disease is due to lack of: March 2007 d. Citric acid cycls
a. Branching enzyme LIPIDS METABOLISM
b. Debranching enzyme Accumulation of sphingomyelin in spleen and liver
31.
c. Acid maltase
is found in: Mnrch 2005
d. Myophosphorylase
24. Insulin is required for glucose transport in all of the
a. Gauchers disease
following except: March 2009 b. Obstructive jaundice
a. RBC c. Von gierkes disease
b. Skeletal muscles d. Nieman pick disease
c. Adipose tissue 32. Saturated fatty acids is maximum in which of the
d. Heart muscles following: March 2005
25. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I is: March 2009 a. Sunflower oil
a. Lysosolic enzyme b. Coconut oil
b. Cytosolic enzyme c. Soyabean
c. Mitochondrialenzyme
d. Safflorver oil
d. A1l of the above
Biochemistry
33. Ail of the following are essential fatty acids except:

41' Reduci'g agent used in lipogenesis
is derived fronr
September 2A0S
a. Linolenic acid March 2009
b. Linoleic acid a. Pentose phosphate pathrvay
c. Lysergic acid
b. Glycoll,sis
c. TCA cycle
d. Arachidonic acid
d. Cluconeogenesis
34. AII are bad cholesterol except: 42. Prostaglandins are derived from
September 2005
:
a. HDL a. Corticosteroids March 2009
b. LDL b. Oleic acid
c. \/LDL c. I_inoleic acid
(-1. IDL c-i. Arachidonic acid
, 35. Cholesterol is: 43. Ketone bodies are synthesised
September 2005 in: Marclt 2009
a. t ocopherol a. Muscle
O Lipoprotein b. lil'sy
; c. Kidney
- c. Steroid
. d. Lipopolysacchricle d. Brain 1n
& j 36. Apoprotein of cholesterol is: 44. Free fatty acids are transported by
F , a. Apo .A1 September 2005 a. Ceruloplasmin
: h4arch 2009
o ii b. ApoA2 b. Pre-albumin
c. Aibumin
i c. Apo C1
I=
JJ d. Transthyretin
?' r ct. ApoE 45. Building block for fatty acid biosynthesis
o
- 37. Carrier of cholesterol:
a. NADH
is:
o, a. VLDL
March 2007
b. Acetyi-CoA
March 2o1o
dl b. LDL c. Acyl-CoA
c. HDL d. Acetate
d. Chylomicrons 46. Rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis
, 38. L-CAT activator lipoprotein is: is:
March 2007 a. HMG -CoA reductase
. a. ApoAl March 2010
b. HMG -CoA slmthetase
, U. ApoC2 c. HMG CoA lyase
., .. ApoC3 d. Mevalonate synthetase
d. ApoE
' 39' Deficiency NUCLEOTIDE METABOLISM
of sphingomyerinease causes:
March 2007 47. Final product of purine metabolism
': a. Niemann-pick clisease is:
b. Marfan,s syndrome Mqrch 2010, Septermber 2010
t c. Gaucher,s disease a. Uric acid
b. Creatinine
1; d. Von-Gierke,s drsease c. Xanthine
4lu. lrue regarding familial hypercholesterolemia
is: d. Phoshphates
March 2007 48. Production of uric acid is by:
a. Deficient VLDL receptors a. Protein metabolisrn
September 2005
b. Deficient HDL receptors b. Lipid metabolism

c. HMG CoA reductase deficiency c. Pyrimidinemetabolism
d. Deficient LDL receptors d. Purine metabolism
MISCELLANEOUS March 2007

49. Chitin is a: Mnrch 2005
a. Polypeptide
b. Fatty ester
c. Polysacchride
d. None
50. Watson's DNA model is : March 2005
a. Right handed,parallel a. Hypoglycemia
b. l,eft handed,anti parallel b. Hypercholcsterolemia
c. Lefthanded,parallel c. Lipolyiss
d. Right handed,anti parallel d. Ketoacidosis
51. Northern blotting technique is used for the 58. The L or D form of a sugar is determined by its
separation of: Mnrch 2005, Septtcnrber 2010 relation to: Mnrch 2009
a. DNA a. Fructose
b. Protein b. Glycogen
c. RNA
c. Glyceraldehyde
d. Glucose 1w
d. Protein DNA interaction
59. Western blotting is done for identifying Marclt 2009 ;o
52. Which is seen in RNA but not seen in DNA:
a. Protein ..o
September 2405 b. Lipids
lr-
.irfl
a. Adenosine
b. Guanine
c. RNA
d. DNA
i=
':'.U,
c. Uracil Sodium fluoride is added to blood, as it inhibit: .:,{
d" Thvmine
60"
NIarch 2010, September 2010

.v
i<
53. DNA has: September 2005 a. Hexokinase
a. r(Dose sugar b. Glucokinase
b. Deoxyribose sugar
c. Glucose-6-phosphatase
d. Enolase
c. Both
61. Which of the following statement if false regarding
d. None
mitochondria: September 2009 ,:
54. Type of collagen found in cartilage: March 2047
a. Guanine rich strand is referred to as the heavy.,,
a. Type I strand ''ll '
::. ,r.: i
b. Type II b. Each DNA molecule consists of 15,000-17,000 base ', ,,r,'
c. Type III pairs

d. Type IV c. Single stranded straight DNA ,i r
55. Chaperones are: March 2007 d. Transmitted by maternai nonmendelian inheritan* , -
a. Mediators of the post-translational assembly of 62. Palindrome is associated with: Septcnfucr 2009 ,
.i'
i . ':ii
protein complexes a. Synthesis of DNA

b. Antigen presenting cells b. Extrachromosomal molecule of DNA
c. Purine metabolism mediators c. Sequence of DNA
d. Small nuclear RNA
Biochemistry
c. Disulfide iinkage
d. Covalentbond
66. Anticoagulant added to blood for estimation of
prothrombin time is: March 2009
a. Heparin
b. Oxalate
c. Sodium citrate
d. EDTA
a. Prophase
b. Metaphase 67. Which of the following is the radiosensitive stage
of
c. Telophase cell cycle: Septenfuer 2()09
d. Interphase a. G0
65. DNA double helix is rnaintained by:

b. G1
Mnrch 20(t9 c. G2
a. Hydrogen bond
b. Vanderrt'aal forces d.s
E
F
a
=
lU
I
C)
o.
dI"
PATHOLOGY (Questions)
CENERAL PATHOLOCY 9. Following are the examples of apoptosis except:
1, Invasive carcinoma differs from carcinoma in situ by: Scptemher 2008
March 2005 a. Graft versus host disease
a. Abnormal nuclear morphology b. Menstrual cycle
b. Pleomorphism c. Pathological atrophy following duct obstruction
c. Breached basement rnembrane d. Tumour necrosis
d. Mitoses 10. Hyaline arteriosclerosis is seen in which of the
2. All of the following responses are seen in acute following conditions: September 2008
inflammation except: March 2005 a. Tuberculosis
a. Vasodilatation b. Hypertension
b. Neutrophil migration c. Syphilis
c. Granuloma formation d.
Leprosv
d. Increased vascular permeabilit-v 11. Stain used to diagnose amyloidosis: Scptember 2008
3. Epitheloid granuloma consists mainly of which type a. Methylene blue
of cells: March 2005 b. Acid fast stain
a. B cells c. Rose bengal
b. T cells d. Congo red *
c. Monocytes 12. Call-exner bodies are seen in: March 2009
d. Macrophages a. Theca cell tumour
4. Apoptosis means: September 2005 b. Yolk sac tumour
a. Regeneration of cells after injury c. Granulosa cell tumour
b. Reperfusion injury of the cells d. Fibroma of ovary
c. Programmed internal cell death 13. If calcium levels are normal, which type of
d. Uncontrolled multiplication of cells calcification is seen: Septembcr 2009
5. Red infarct is seen in: March 2007 a. Metastatic
a. Kidney b. Dystrophic
b. Heart c. Dyspiastic
c. Brain d. Metaplastic
d. Smali intestine 14. Metastatic calcification is seen in: Septentuer 2009
5. Metastatic calcification does not occurs in; March 2007 a. Cysts
a. Fundal glands of intestine b. Atheroma
b. Renal tubules c. Normal tissues
c. Lungs alveoli d. Infarcts
d. Blood vessels 1"5. Myositis ossificans is differentiated from other
7. Congo red staining for amyloid under polarized light reactive fibroblastic proliferations by the presence of:
shows: September 2007 September 2009
a. Silverbirefringence a. Dysplastic bone
b. Goidenbirefringence b. Dystrophic bone
c. Blue birefringence c. Metapiastic bone
d. Green birefringence d. Hypertrophic bone
8. All of the following are tumor suppressor genes 15" Extracellular hyaline change is seen in:
except: September 2007 September 2A09
a. NF1 a. Arteriosclerosis
b. pRb b. Chronic glomerulonephritis
c. SMAD1 c. Leiomyoma
d. p53 d. Alcoholic hyaline
Pathology
L7. First change seen in acute inflammation is:

26. All of the following are true regarding G6FD
September 2009 deficiency except:
;, a. Increased permeability
a. A recessive Xlinked trait
March
b. Females are commonly affected

c. Oxidatir,.e stress causes ltemolvsis
d. Protective against plasmodium falciparum malaria
27.CD-II helps in assessment of which of the followino
t:: March 2009
Itiarch
ifi a. Warihin-Finkeldey cells a. Adult T-cell leukemia
2
'rL, b. N4arked follicular hyperplasia

b. Hodgkin,s disease
l. . '\4oih-eaten appearance,
c. M-yc-osis fungoides
: d. Ali of the above d. Larger granular lvmphocl,tic leukemia
19. Arnyloid is stained with: ScTtttttbt r 2009 23. CEA is eievated in all of the follorving except:
a. Lugol's iodine
b. h{ethyl violet Mnrclr
a. Alcoholic cirrhosrs
c. Cor.rgo red b. Ulcerative colitis
d. Sucian black
c. Carcinoma colon
20. Reactionary hemorrhage occur within: March 2010 d. Prostatic carcinoma
.. a. 24 hours
o ABDOMINAL PATHbIOCY
o ,,
i: c.
7-2 d'ays
2-4 days 29. Hydatid cyst is commonly found in:
o
J , d. 4-6 davs a. Lungs
Septerfter 2005
b. Liver
o :ii
CLINICAL PATHOLOCY
c. Kidney
I :: 21. Bence Jone's protein is:
March 2005 d. Brain
F ., u Monoclonal heavy chains 30. Most common site of abscess formation due to
D. Monoclonal light chains
amoeba is:
o- , .. Both of above Septenrber 2005
a. Lungs
,' d. None o{ the above b. Liver
22. Marker for carcinoma colon is: September 2005 c. Kidney
a. AFII d. Brain
,, b. cA-125
I 31. All of the following are features of non-alcoholic
c" CEA steatohepatitis except:
, d. HCG September 2005
a. Hepatocyte ballooning
. 23. AFP (alpha feta protein) is raised in: SeTttenrber 2005 b. Steatosis
, a. Renal carcinoma c. Histological features are different from alcoholic
b. Pancreaticcarcinoma steatohepatitis
, c" Prosiatic carcinoma d. Mallory bodies
. d. Hepatic carcinoma 32. Serum marker indicating active viral replication
24. CA-125 is marker for: in
a. Breast cancer
Septentuer 2007 hepatitis-B is: Septenfuer 20A6
a. HBsAg
b. Ovarian cancer b. HBeAg
c. Pancreatic cancer c. HBcAg
d" Colon cancer d. HBVDNA
25. Tumor marker related to both colon carcinoma and 33. Which of the following is also known as australia
pancreatic carcinoma: September 2008 antigen: Septenfucr 2006
a. CA-125 a. HBsAg
b. cA-19-9 b. HBeAg
c. CD-i5-3 c. HBcAg
d. All of the above d. HBVDNA
t'
34. Hepatitis which spreads by feco-oral route is: 42. Amoebic liver abscess ruptures most commonly into
September 2007 which cavity: September 2009
Hepatitis A
3. a.
Peritoneal
b.
Hepatifis B b.
Pleural
c.
HePatitis C c.
Pericardial
d.
HePatitis D d.
None of the above
35. Mallory bodies are seen in all of the following except: 43. Alkaline phosphatase is raised in all of the following :fili
September 2008 except: Septnfuer 2009 "",
a. Hepatocelluiarcarcinoma a. Obstructive jaundice

b. Non-alcoholichepatitis b. Placental hrmor
c. Secondary biliary cirrhosis c. Prostatic tumor
d. Alcohoiic hepatitis d. Skeletal tumor
36. Massive splenomegaly is not seen in: September 2008 44. Follwing are the predisposing factors for hepatic
a. Malaria encephalopathy except: Septtnrher 20A7
b. Chronic rnyelogenous leukemia a. Gi bleeding
c. Syphilis b. Hypol;1lgP1;6
d. Sickle celi anemia c. Metaboiic acidosis
37. True regarding infectivity period of hepatitis A: d. Alcohol
Septnfuer 2009 45. Kupffer cells in liver are responsible for:
a. 1-2 weeks before and 2 weeks after the onset of Scptcttfutr 2007
jaundice a. Lytic functions ,!
b. 1-2 rveeks before and 1 week after the onset of b. Excretory functions
jaundice c. Absorptive functions ,P -t
c. 2-3 rveeks before and 2 weeks after the onset o{ d. Phagocytic fr-rnctions !i f
jaundice 46. Portal hypertension is said to be present if portal
d. 2-3 weeks and 1 week after the onset of
I!
before .,re than:
venous pressure is more rnan: lvnrcn lulu
jaundice a. 3-5 mm Hg I
38. Presence of HBeAg in serum of a patient of hepatitis- b. 5-8 mm Hg :Gl
B indicates: September 2009 c. 10-72mm Hg '<
a.
Acute, non-infectious stage d. 15-20 nrm Hg
b.
Acute, infectious stage
c.
Chronic, non-infectious stage NERVOUS SYSTEM PATHOLOCY :I
d.
Chronic, infectious stage 47. All of the following are true regarding Guillain-Barre r
39. Lardaceous spleen is a feature of: syndrome except: Mnrch 2008

March 2010
a. Thalassemia a. Peripheral nervous system is affected
b. Amyloidosis b. Histologically there is inflammation of peripheral
c. Sickle cell anemia nerve
d. Malaria c. Descendingparalysis
40. Which of the following is associated with primary d. Eievated CSF proteins
hepatic malignancy: 48. Negri bodies are characteristic of: Septentber 2008
March 2010
a. Cadmium a. Tetanus
b. Vinyl chloride b. Rabies
c. Chromium compounds c. Polio
d. Asbestos d. AIDS
41. False about hydatid cyst is which of the following: CARDIOVASCU LAR SYSTEM PATHOLOCY
September 2009 Rheumatic fever is commonly associated
49. with
Ideally should be managed by pre-operative affection of: September 2005
albendazole followed by surgery a. Tricuspid valve
20% saline is scolicidal b. Mitral valve
c. Most commonly involves lung c. Aortic valve
d. PAIR is employed for hepatic hydatid cysts d. Pulmonary valve
Pathology
50 Lipofuscin, the golden yellow pigment

is seen in
heart muscles in: 58. Concentric hypertrophy of heart is
Marclr 2007 caused by:
a. Atrophy
September
b. Hypertrophl, a. Hypertrophic cardiornyopathy
c. Infarction b. Congestive heart lailure
d. Hyperplasia c. Systemichypcrtension
'' t 51. Heart failure cells are:
Marclr 2007 d. Mitral regurgitation
.:,'li a. Lipofuscin granules in cardiac cells
:: b. Pigmented hepatocytes ENDOCRINE SYSTEM PATHOLOCY
c. Pigmented alveolar macrophages 59. All of the following are features of MEN l
d. Pigmented cells in paitcreas syndrorng
except:
52. Ail.of the. following are true regarding marantic September 2007
a. Pancreatic hunor
endocarditis except: Ninrtlt 200g b. Pituitary tumor
a. Vegetation may emi,.oiize
b. Vegetations along the line of closure of leaf.lets c. Hvperparathyroidisrn
c. Affects damageci valves d. lvledullary carcinoma of tf,t,xrid
' d. May be associated rvith hypercoaguiable 50. Pheochromocytoma is usually
states associated with:
, 53. Which of the following is not u .o*porrert
', criteria for diagnosing acute rheumatic
of Jones Se1ttember 2007
fever: a. Pancreatic exocrine carcinoma
) : March 2008 b. Astrocvtoma
O a. Pancarditis
q b. Migrarory polyarrhritis c. Neurofibromatosis
c. Erythema nodosum d. Neuroblastoma
{
V d SYdenham chorea 61. Ectopic ACTH is commonly
secreted by:
t , Un.All of the following are true regarding
fallot except: " tetralogy of september 2()07
Z ,arch 200g a. smalr cet carcinoma of the luncs
i,, a. Boot shaped heart b. Pancreatic carcinoma
t : b. Most common cyanotic
. c. Clinicai consequencesheart disease
depends on severity of
c. Gall bladder malignancy
subpulmonic sterrosis d. Meduliary carcinoma of thyroid l
, d- Left ventricular hypertrophy 52. Best for diagnosing pheochromocytoma
is:
'i 55. All of the following are true regarding Wegener,s
gt"lYl"matosis except: a. Urinary catecholamines and .n",, '
,.' a. Affects large size biood vessels
September 2008 -"rifl"ti:"!*'oot
b. Serum catecholamines and their metabolites
' b. May affect lungs and kidneys c. CT scan
c. N_ecrotizing granulomu ,r,ui.b* seen on mrcroscop).
, d. PR3-ANCAs are present in upto 95% of cases d. Surgery
56. All of the following are features 63. All of the following are associated
of atrial myxoma with
excePt: September 2008
pheochromocytoma except:
Nlarch 2010
a- Ciubbing a. Ventricular arrhythmias
b. Hypertension b. Interstitialfibrosis
c. Emboli c. Hypotension
d. Fever
d. Ectopic ACTH production
57. Biomarker to rise earliest in myocardial
infarction is: 64. Hypocalcemia is seen with which o{
the following:
March 2010
a. Troponin-I September 2008
a. Thyrotoxicosis
b. Creatine kinase_MB b. Hyperparathyroidism
c. Myoglobin c" Acute pancreatitis
d. Troponin-T
d. Addison disease
GASTROI NTESTI NAL TRACT PATHOLOCY 73. Which of the following is true about celiac sprue:
65. Longitudinal ulcers in the intestine are seen in: September 2009
September 2008 a. Associated with HLA-DII4
6. Tuberculosis b. Antiendornvsial antibodies are highly specific and
b. Typhoid sensitive than other antibodies
c. Amoebiasis
c. Anti-gliadin antibodies are IgA/IgG
d. Yersinia
Characteristic of amebiasis is:
d. No pre'disposition to malignancv
65. March 2005
a. Skip lesion 74. Gardner syndrome is associated with all of the
b. Longitudinal ulcer following except: March 2010
c. Flask shaped ulcer a. Intestinal polyps
d. Ulcers r'vith raised marp5ins b. Osteornas
67. Most common type of malignancy of stomach is: c. Dcntal atrnormalities
Septenrbcr 2007 d. Tnmors of the CNS
a. Aclenocarcinoma 75. Which of the following is not tme regarding
b. Squamous carcinorna
hyperplastic tuberculosis: Mnrch 2005
c. Anaplasticcarcinoma
d. Lymphoma a. Mass in right iliac fossa mav be the presenting
68. True regarding morphological feature of peptic ulcer
fe,rttrre :
1S: March 2008
b. Barium studies are helpful in diagrrosis ,Tl
a. Usuaily multiple c. Ileo-caecal junction is common site of invoivement D
b. More common in the stomach d. Should be managed by surgical resection of the i{
c. Round to oval, sharply punched out defect involved segment .I
d. Size and location helps to differentiate between 76. Tuberculosis commonly affects which part of the
.o
l-
benign and malignant ulcer
intestine: SeTttenfuer 2005 ro
69. All of the following are true regarding Crohn disease
except: Mnrch 2008
a. Ileum ,O
,'<
b. Jejunum
a. Skip lesions
b. Inflammation limited to mucosa c. Terrninal colon
c. Recurrence common after surgery d. Transverse colon
d. Fisfulae formation is seen 77"Most common location of gastrinoma is:
70. Anti-gliadin antibodies are seen in: September 2008 Se1stenfuer 2007
a. Tropical sprue a. Pancreas
b. Ulcerative colitis b. Duodenum
c. Crohn disease c. Jejunurn
d. Ceeliac disease
d. Gall bladder
71. Which of the following antibody is highly specific
78. Intestinal angina symptom complex includes:
for celiac disease: Seyttemher 2008
a. Anti-gliadin antibodies March 2009
b. IgA antibodies to tissue transglutaminase a. Post-prandial abdominal pain, weight loss, acute
mesenteric vessel occlusion
c. Anti-endomysial antibody
d. All of the above b. Post-prandial abdominal pain, r.l'eight loss, chronic
mesenteric vessei occlusion
72. Which of the following is associated with H.pylori:
c. Pre-prandial abdominai pair; r,veight gain, acute
March 2009
mesenteric vesscl occlusion
a. Ulcerative colitis
b. Crohn disease d" Pre-prandial abdominal pain, rveight gain, chronic
c. Celiac sprue mesenteric vessel occlusion
d. MALToma
Pathotogy
87. All of the following are causes of aplastic anemia

except:
March 2A0B
a. Heparitis
b. Gold salts
c. Hepatocellular carcinoma
d. Fanconi anemia
True regarding philadelphia chromosome
88.
are all of
the following except;
March2\\g
a. Present in 95% of CML patients
: b. lt is the result of a reciprocai trar_rslttcation
c.
Both of the above c. Specific for CI\{L
: d.
None of the above
d. Desigriated as t(9;22)(q34;q1i)
81. Heinz bodies are seen in:
Sr'1ttcnilrt,r 89. Thalassemia is inherited as:
a. G-6-PD dc-ficienc;, Septcntbcr 2(t0g
b. Sickle cell disease a. Alttosomal domLnant
c. Herediiary spherocytosis b'. Autosomal r.r,cessivt,
d. PNH c. Xlinked dominant

82. Persistent marrow aplasia is caused d. Xlinked recessive
by which
hepatitis virus: 90. Auer rods are seenrjn:
(9i a. HAV
Seplentl,cr 2006
a. ALL
Septenrlter 200g
O.. b. HBV b. AML

J: c. HCV c. CLL
Ol d.
J. None of the above d. CML
Fti 83. t(9;22Xq34;q11) translocation is commonly associated 91. Trisomy 21 is associated with:
Septemher 2008
<,j
(L,
with:
a. AML
September 2007 a. ALL
b. AML
b. ALL c. Both of the abor.e
c. CML d. None of the above
d" CLL
92. Iron deficiency anaemia is seen with all
84. In hemophilia, which of the following is raised: of the
following except: Septenfuer 2008
Septentber 2007 a. Chronic blood loss
a. BT
b. b. Achlorlrydria
CT
c. PT c. Extensit.e surgical removal of the
d rPT"F bowel
i:.l. 85. All of the following d. Excess of meat in the diet
,ri are true regarding hemolytic
93. Gum hyperplasia is seen with:
i$ ii.tif:
|i,i,f
anemla
arrcuu4 €reePt:
a"
except:
Raised haptoglobin levels
March 20A8
a. AML
March 2u09
..--' b. Raised unconjugated bilirubin b. CML

...,
I
I
t:r;ii:i.i.}
il, c. Reticulocytosis c. ALL
?r.,.ii!:,$: i d. Hemosiderinuria indicates intravascular hemolvsis d. CLL
i4,::;:::i:
,.., tU.AIl of the following are true regarding CLL excepi: 94. In acute myeloid leukemia, Auer rods are
"I a.
b.
Most common type of leukemia in aclults
Males are commonly affected
March 2oog in:
a. M2
numerous
Septentber 2009
b. M3
c. ZAP,70 has prognostic importance c. M4
d" Affects T-cells
d. M5
Self Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screeninq Examination
95. Increased osmotic fragility is characteristic of: 102. A patient with nephritic syndrome will not have
Septenfuer 2009 September 2009
a. Hereditary spherocytosis. a. Hematuria

b. Sickle cell anemia
b. Mild to moderate proteinuria
c.
Hypertension
c. Thalassemia d.
Normal RBC
d. Iron deficiency anemia 103. Nephritic syndrome is characterized by all of the
96. All of the following are true regarding the findings following except: March 20L0
of peripheral smear in vitamin 812 deficiency except: a. Hematuria
March 2010 b. Edema
a. Hypercellular marrow c. Hypertension
b. Poikilocl'tosis
d.Massive proteinuria
L04. Beta-naphthyl amine dyes predisposes to:
c. Hypersegmented neutrophils
Septentber 20()5
d. Microcvtic red cells
a. Urinary bladder Carcinoma
97,DIC may be caused by: Septenfuer 2007
b. Renal carcinorna
a. Proionged pregnancy c. Hepatic carcinoma
b. Fat embolism d. Lung carcinorna
c. Amniotic fluid embolism 105. Flea bitten kidney is seenin all of the following
d. All of the above except: Septentuer 2007
:.7
a. Malignanthypertension ;l>
EXCRETORY SYSTEM PATHOLOCY
b. 1i{
Adult polycystic kidney disease is inherited:
Henoch-Schonleinpurpura jlI
98. c. DM ,io
March 2005 d.
Polyarteritisnodosa i:|-
a. X-linked dominant
b" X{inked recessive
105. Nodular glomerulosclerosis is associated with:
September 2009
io
io
c. Autosomal recessive a.Henoch-Schonleinpurpura ;.{
d. Autosomal dominant b.Hemolytic uremic s)'ndrome
99. All of the following are true regarding minimal
c.Hypertension
change glomerulonephritis except: March 2005
d.Diabetes Mellitus
a" Poor response to steroids

107. Spider-leg sign on IVP is suggestive of: March 2010
a. Pyelonephritis
b. Normal glomerulus b. Renal artery stenosis
c. More common in childrens than adults c. Polycystic kidney disease
d. Absence of podocytes d. Bilateralhydronephrosis
100. Normal to increased kidney size is seen in all of the
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM PATHOLOCY
108. Exudative pleural effusion is seen in: March 2005
a. Diabeticnephropathy a. Pneumonia
b. Polycystic kidney b" Nephrotic syndrome
c. AIDS related nephropathy c. Congestive cardiac failure
d. Chronicglomerulonephritis d. Cirrhosis
101. Following circulatory shock, which of the following 109. Few RBCs, raisede neutrophils with some
occurs: March 2009 hemorrhage in alveoli is seen in: Marc:h 2005
a. Acute tubular necrosis a. Cray hepatization
b. Acute papillary necrosis b. Red hepatization
c. Both of the above
c. Viral pneumonia
d. Resolving phase of lobar pneumonia
l.
Pathology
110. Community acquired

pneumonia is most commonly
119. Which pair of organs
caused by: Scptenber 2005 and hlarch 2005 is involved in Goodpasture'g
a. Staphylococcusaureus syndrome:
Mnrclt 2070
b. Streptococcuspneumonrae a. Kidney and intestrne
c. H.influenza b. Kidney and heart
d. Klebsiella c. Kidney and ]ungs
111. Which is of the following is an obstructive lung d. Kidney ancl liver
disease: 120. Horner,s syndrome is associated
septttnber 2005 with: March
a. Bronchiar asthma a^ Bronchiectasis 207A
b. Chronic bronchitis b. Apical lung carcinoma

c. Bronchoectasis c. Chronic bronchitis
d. All of the abovt ,1. Bronchial asthrna
112. Disease causecl by cotton 121. Clubbing is cornmonly seen in
is: Si:Ttterriltt'r 2()05 all of ihe following
' a. Bl,sinosis except:
b. Bag.rssosis March 2()fi
Nttesoihelioma
a. Fanner:,s lung ir. Tropical eositropirili.r
d. Asthma c. Bronchiectasis
r 113. F{eids index is increased ..1. Fibrosing ajveolitjs
in: March 2007
.' a. Bronchial asthma 722. Left pleural effusion
is detected best in which
(9 b. Bronchiectasrs position:
c March
o
J
,,
. d.
Chronic bronchitis
Pneumonia
a.
b.
Supine
Axial
2005
' 114. Curschmann,s spiral are seen in:

o c.
r
F
a. Bronchial asthma
b. Bronchiectasis
March 2007 Left lateral decubitus
cl.
Right lateral decubitus
123. Most common type of
lung carcinoma in non
c.Chronic bronchits
smokers is:
o- d.Emphysema March 2t)05
115. Which is not a part of
a. Srnall cell carcinoma
Kartageners syndrome: b Adenocarcinoma
a. March 2007 c. Squamous cell carcinonra
Sifus inversus
b. d. Large cell carcinorna
Chronic sinusitis
124. Plethoric lung
c. Bronchiectasis fields are seen in the all of the
d.Cardiomegalv following except:
September 2009
116. Exudative pleural a. Ebstein anomaly
effusion is seen in:
a. Left ventricular failure March 2008 b. \/SD
b. Nephrotic syndrome c. Tota] anon-raious pulmonary venous
connection
c. Bacterial pneumonia d. ASD
t.i d. Hepatic failure 125. All of the following are seen in legionnaire,s disease
117. Apical lung carcinoma commonly manifests except:
as: SePtember 2009
ffi a. Fever
Septentber 2009
a. preural effusion b. l\Iental confusron
b"Pericardialinvolvement c. Diarrhoea
# c.l{omer,s syndrome d. Unilateralpneumonitis
d"Tumour obstruction of the airway 126. Miliary shadow on chest X_ray is not
seen in:
118. Bysinnosis is caused
$i by: hlarclt 2010 March 2010
fi a. Bagasse a. Pneumoconiosis
b. Mold hay b. Sarcoidosis
c. Cotton c. Tuberculosis
d. Bird droppings d. COPD
tr
F
i
Self Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screeninq Examination
fi7. All of the following produces cavitating lesion in 135. Wilson disease is due to accumulation of:
the chest radiograph except: March 20L0 September 2005
a. Caplan's syndrome a. Copper

b. Hematoma b. lron
c. Squamous cell carcinoma lung c. Zinc
d. Hamartoma d. Nickel
1"36, Common warts are caused by which virus:
MISCELLANEOUS
September 2006
128. Ovarian fumours commonly arises from: Mnrch 2005
a. Surface epithelium a. Cytomegalovirus
b. germ cell b. Hunran papilloma virus
c. Stroma of the ovary c. Flepaiitis B virus
d. None of the above d. Epstein-Barr virus
129. lVhich is the following is not inherited as X-linked 137. All of tire follorving are true for lupus anticoagulant
recesslve: N4nrclt 2005 syndrome except: St1ttg111b., 2t;1r,
a. G-6-PD deficiencv a. Recurrent abortions
b. Duchenne muscular dvstropl'ry b. Arteriai thrombosis
c. C,vstic fibrosis c. flrrombtrcvtosis
d. Hemophilia d. Cardiac valve vegetatio?rs
130. True about NK cells are all of the following except:
!
138. Kaposi sarcoma is characterized by all of the
Nlarch 2005
following except: Marclr 2008 {..F
a. Mediates type IV hypersensitivity
a. Usually of the four types
b. Kill viruses
b. Skin lesion are sparse in African type o
ro
c. They are iarge granular lymphocvtes
c. Lymphadenopathy is an essential feature in the
d. Reieases small rytoplasmic granules of proteins
called perforin and granzyme
d.
ciassical tvpe
AlDS-associated is commoner in homosexual
o
131. MHC is important in pathogenesis of: March 2005
a. Idiopathic disease 139. All of the following are true for sarcoidosis except:
b. Iatrogenic diseases Septentber 2008
c. Auto-immunediseases a. Kveim test is the most specific test for sarcoidosis

d. Tumours b. Caseatingepithelioidgranulomas
132. SLE is which type of hypersensitivity reaction: c. Most commonly involves lungs
March 2005 d. Unknolvn etiology
a.
Type I hypersensitivity 140. Amyloid deposits in liver are initially seen in:
b.Type II hypersensitivity March 2009
c.Type III hypersensitivity a. Space of disse
d.Type IV hypersensitivity b. Hepatic parenchvma
133. Organ which undergoes involution: Mttrch 2005 c. Intrahepatic ducts
a. Parathyroid gland d. Portai tract
rrrlruru brilru
c. Pineal gland 141" All of the following are true for Sjogren syndrome
d. Thymus
134. HIV affects: Mnrch 2005,2008
a. Ma1, be associated with other autoimmune
a. CD4 cells
dise-ases
b. CD8 cells
b. Excesssivesalivation
c. Natural killer cells
c. immunologicallymediateddisease
d. Helper cells
d. Commonlv associated rvith rheumatoid arthritis
Pathology
142. Multiple sinuses from infection o{ great toe is 145. All of the following are true regarding Cryptococcus
mainly caused by: Stytentber 2AA7 neoformans except: Seyttenfuer 200g
a. Tuberculosis a. Affects immuocompromised patients
b. Actinomycetes b. Grown on sabouraud,s agar
c. Trichosporum
c. Capsular antigen can be cletected in the CSF
d. Anticapsular antibody is protective
d. Histoplasmosis 146. All of the following helps in the diagnosis of
L43. Carcinoma, which has predilection
for metastasis to leishmaniasis except: Septentber 200g
hands and feet bones:
a. Aldehyde test
Mnrch 20C7 b. Blood smear
a. Prostate
c. Immobilisation test
b. Bronchus d. Examination of the bone marrow
c. Pelvis 147. Malignant transformation to melanoma is common
d. Breast
in: Marth 2C09
a. Dermal nevus
144. Trophic ulcers are caused by all of the follorvine b. ]unctional nevus
c.
>i
(9r,
except:
a. Syringomyelia
Septenber 2007
d.
Congenital nevus
Lentigo nevus
148. True regarding ubiquitin is:
o,i b. Varicose veins a. Required for apoptosis
September 2009
Jii
of
Ei:
c.
d.
Leprosy
Prolongedrecumbency
b. It is found throughout the cell
c. Found only in eukaryotes
Fi: d. All of the above
<r
o.:'
:tj
:i
;:i
i ]:
r
"ti
:i
:t
]# :
MICROBIOLOGY (euestions)
GENERAL MICROBIOLOCY
8. Sharp instrument should be disposed in:
1. Best laboratorv test to diagnose HIV infection September 2005
March 2007 a. Blue bag
a. ELISA b. Red bag
b. Western blot c. Black beg
c. Complement fixation test d. Yellow bag
d. RIA 9. True about autoclaving is: March 2007
2. Best medium to grow anaerobic bacteria exclusively a. 115 degree C at for 20 min
1S:
b. l2l degree C at for 15 min
March 2008
a. Blood agar
c. 118 degree C at for 15 min
d. 124 degree C at for 15 min
b. Robertson's cooked meat medium
c. Thioglycollatemedium
10. Operation theatres are sterilized by: Mnrch 20CZ
a. Ethylene oxiCe gas
d. Sabouraud Dextrose agar b. Formaldehydefumigation
3. Which of the following is an enrichment media: c. Washing r,vith soap water
Septenfuer 2009 d. Carbolic acid sprpying
a. Alkaline peptone water 11. Best way to sterilize all-glass syringes is:
b. Moruour's taurocholate Tellurite peptone water September 2007
c. Selenite F broth a. Boiling
d. All of the above b" Autoclave
4. Blood agar is an example of: March 2010
c. Hot air oven
a. Enrichment media d. Formaldehyde
b. Enriched media 12. Cold sterilization is done by: September 2007
c. Selective media a. Steam

b. Inionizing radiation
d. Transport media
c" Infra red
5" True about bacteriuria is: March 2007 d. uv
a. Usually gram positive bacteria in urine 13. Incineration is done for which of the following:
b. Bacterial culture is non specific
September 2008
c. More than 1 lac colony forming units/ml of mid a. Liquid waste
stream urine b. Anatomy waste
d. Multiple bacterial species are taken into account c. Sharp r.r'aste
STERILIZATION
d. All of the above
14. Biological indicator for determining efficacy of
6. Effective mode of sterilization is: September 2005 autoclaving is: Septenfuer 2009
a. Hot water a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Stearn under pressure b. Clostridium Perfringenes
c. Steam at abmospheric pressure c. Bacillus stearothermophilus
d. Dryheat d. Salmonella typhi
7. Pasteurization of milk is determined by: 15. Autoclaving is done at what temperature for 15
September 20A5,2007 & 2009 minutes: March 20L0
a. Methylene blue reduction test a. 118 degree C
b. Phosphatase test b. l21degreeC
c. Turbidity test c" 126 degree C
d" Resazurin test
d. 134 degree C
15. Endoscopes are best sterilized by: September 2aA7 24. True about Chediak Higashi syndrome is: March 2007
a. Boiling September 2009
b" Autoclave a. Neutrophilia
c. Lysol solution 20"uo b. Impaired bacteriolysis
d. Cidex solution c. Autosomal dominant
17. Moist heat kills all of the following except: d. Associated with polyrythemia
September 2009 25. Which Immunoglobulin is involved in anaphylaxis:
a. Coxiella bumetti March 2007
b. Brucella a. IgA
c. Salmonella b. IgE
d. Mycobacteriurn C, IgG
d. Iglvl
IMMUNIT}' 26. All are type II hypersensitivily reaction except:
18. Complement Fixation test is: September 2045
Septenber 2A07
a. WIDAL a. Steven johnson's s)'ndrorne :'il
b. Coombs test b. Drug induced hemolytic anemia
e
;{
c. Wassermann reaction c. Drug induced thrombocytopenia $
d. VDRL d. Hemolytic disease of newbom
19. Wheal and flare reaction is: September 2005 27. Intravascular hernolysis is mediated by:
a. Type I hypersensitivity September 2007
b. Type II hypersensitivity a. IgA
c. Type III hypersensitivity b. IgD
d. Type IV hypersensitivity c. IgE c=
-)
20. Which immunoglobulin is present in the breast milk: d. IgC v
September 2005 28. Which one of the following is a major component in o
a. IgA activation of the complement via altemative pathway: w
b.
c.
IgE
IgD a. C1
September 2007
o
-
l-
d. IgM b. c2 o
21. True about IgM is: September 2005 c. C3
d. c4
o
a. Mediates Prausnitz-kusbrer reaction
b. Primary response 29. True regarding agglutination reaction are all except:
c. Transported across placenta September 2007
d. Secondary response a. It is less sensitive than precipitation reaction for
22. Cells associated with humoral immunitv is: detecting antibodies.
September 2005
b. Works on the same principle as that of precipitation
a. NK cells reaction
b. B cells c. It is the method used for cross matching and blood
c. T cells grouping
d. Null cells d. Agglutination occurs optimally when antigens and
antibody react in equivalent proportions.
23. Which of the following is type III hypersensitivity
30. Defect seen in Di George syndrome: September 2009
reaction: September 2006
a. Humoral immunity
a. Prausnitz-kustner reaction
b. Cell mediated immunity
b. Contact dermatitis
c. Thyrnic hyperplasia
c. Arthus reaction d. Autoimmune hemolvtic anaemia
d. Rh incompatibility
Microbiology
31. Erythroblastosis foetalis is which type of BACTERIOLOCY

hypersensitivity: Scptember 2007, 2009 38. Which of the following is Gram positive: March 2005
a. Type I a. Veillonella
b. Type II b. Bacteroides
c. Type III c. Fusobacterium
d. Type IV d. Actinomyces
39. Urease test is done for: March 2005
32. Half life of IgG: Mnrch 201.0
a. H.pylori
a. 5 days b. Proteus
b. 6 days c. Corynebacterium
c. 8 davs d.
Salmonella
d. 23 days 40. Staphylococcus aureus is a normal inhabitant of:
33. IgM have how many four-peptide subunits: March 2005
March 2010 a. Throat
; a.3 b. Nose
.ti b. 4 c. Skin
tt'a .s d. GIT A
41. Venkataraman-Ramakrishnan media is used for:

o. u
March 2005
$ S+. Hyperacute rejection of renal transplant is which type
a. Sterptococcus pneumoniae
> f of hypersensitivity reaction: March 20A7 b. Staphylococcus aureus
I t a. Type I hypersensitivity reaction c. Vibrio cholerae
\f !;1
^ t:::l b. Tvpe Il hypersensitivity reaction d. Clostridium tetani
F ,i c. Type Ill hypersensitivity reaction 42. Toxic Shock Syndrome is most commonly caused by:
(IlFt d. Typ" IV hypersensitivity reaction a. Sterptococcus pneumoniae

March 2005
= H 35.Hyperacute rejection occurs most commonly in which
v b. Staphylococcus aureus
^C $ organ:
r_i
March 2007
c.
9i3 ::1""'
D. I(rdney
Vibrio cholerae
d. Clostridium tetani
43. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by:
= ! c. Lung
September 2005,2010
$ d. Heart a. Pneumocystiscarinii
36. Which of the following is true about anaphylaxis: b. Clostridiumdifficile
$
*s September 2007 c. Escherichia coli
$ a. It is mediated by allergen specific IgE d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

b. lype-I hypersensitivity reaction 44. Diagnostic test for Enteric Fever is: September 2005
c. Cytokines like Il-4, ILs and IL6 along with a. VDRL

histamine is released. b. Widal test
d. All of the above c. Urine culture
37. Components of innate immunity that are active d. Cram's staining
against viral cells include: March 2009 45. Enteric fever is caused by: September 2005
a. Cytotoxic T cells a. Salmonella typhi

b. B cell b. Salmonella paratyphi A
c. NK cells c. Salmonella paratyphi B
d" AII of the above d. All of the above
self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCi screenincr Examination
4f, Causative agent of sore throat is: September 2005 54. Chinese lefter arangement is seen in: March 2009
3. Staphylococcusaureus a.
M.tuberculosis
!. Sffeptococcus pyogenes b.
Co4mebnacterium diphtheria
g. H. Intluenzae c. Chlarnydia trachomatis
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. M. leprae
47. Culture medium for cultivation of mycobacterium is: 55. Peptidoglycans are found in large quantities in cell
September 2005 wall of: March 2009

a. Ludlam's medium a. Virus
b. Loeffler's serum b. Gram positive bacteria
s. Thayer-Martinmedium c. Gram negative bacteria
d. LJ medium d. All of the above
56. Which of the following is seen in dark field
48. Type of light used in dark ground microscopy:
nucroscoPy: Septentuer nOS t1j:"!
Scptenrber 2005
a. Vibrio
a Dark light
b. Spirochaetes
b. Reflected light c. Chlamydia
c. Polarized light d. All of the above $
d. Transmitted light 57. Travellels diarrhea is caused due to: ,{
49. Confirmatory test for tuberculosis is: September 2006 a. EIEC
t;tl
a. Gram's staining b. EPEC

b. AFB c. ETEC
c. Guinea-piginoculation d.
EHEC
d. Tuberculin testing 58 Most common cause of gas gangrene is: September 2009
50. Culture media used for corynebacterium diphtheria a. Clostridium histolyticum o
=
rs: March 2007 b. Clostridiumbifermentans v
a. L| media
b. Potassium tellurite media
c.
Clostridium fallax
d.
Clostridium perfringens
o
@
c. Loeffler's serum slope
d. McConkey
59. M. avium intracellulare is:
a. Non photochromogens
Septentber 2009
o
r
51. True about Borrelia recurrentis are all except: b.
c.
Scotochromogens
o
a. Causes epidemic relapsing fever
March 2007
d.
Photocfuomogens
Rapid grolvers
o
b. It is transmitted by ixodes tick 60. Swimming pool granuloma is caused by: Itlarch 20L0
c. No other known animal reservoir of B. recurrentis a. Mycobacterium chelone
b. My'cobacterium kansasii
exists
c. Mycobacterium marinum
d. It infeets the person via mucous membranes
d.
Mycobacterium ulcerans
52. All are gram negative anaerobic exceph September 2ff7
61. Ghon's focus reflecl September 2005
a. Streptococci a. Mitiary t rbe.c,rtotsis
b. Bacteroides b" Primary complex
c. Actinomyces c. Tuberculouslymphadenitis
d. Clostridium welchii d. Post primary tuberculosis
53. Mechanism of action of cholera toxin: 62" Organism responsible for catheter predisposed UTI is:
September 2007, 2009 September 2005
a. Increase in c-AMP a. Pseudomonas
b. Decrease in c-AMp b. E. coli
c. Activates Na+ K+ ATpase c. Proteus
d" Inhibit Na+K+ ATpase d. All of the above
Microbiology
63. Pneumatocoele is most commonly

caused by: 70. Swarming growth is shown by which
gram positive
September 2005,2010 bacilli: september
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae a. Clostridium tetani
b. Klebsiella b. Clostridium welchii
c. Hemophilusinfluenzae c. Proteus
d. Staphylococcus aureus d. All of the above
64. Mycobacterium leprae can be cultured 71. Which olganism can penetrate intact comea:
in:
September 20a6 September
a. Testes of guinea pig a" Pneumococcus
b. L] medium b. Gonococci
c. Pseudomonas
c. Footpad of mice d. Staphylococci
d. Testes of albino rats 72. Diphtheria toxin,s mechanism of action is:
65. Bacteria most commonly involved in prosthetic
september
vall'ular heart disease within 2 months of
surgery is: a. Inhibiting glucose synthesis
b. Inhibiting protein synthesis
March 2007
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Promotingacetylcholinerelease
b. d. Altering cyclic GMp levels
Enterococci
73. After initiation oI DOTS therapy for category_I,
c. Streptococcusviridans sputum examination is done at
ffust
d. Hemophilus March2t
a. 1 month of treatment
b. 2 months of treatment
o 66. Complications of cholera ale all of the following
c. 4 months of treatment
o
J
exceph
a. Metabolic alkalosis
September 2N7
d. 6 months of treatment
o b. Metabolic acidosis 74. Which has an incubation period of less than
a weelc
o c. Acute renal failure

a. Cholera
March
o d. Hypovolemicshock
b. Measles
tr 67. Which of the following is commonlyresponsible
for c. Filaria
C) toxic shock s;mdrome in female patienb September d. Kala-azar
2Mg
a. Streptococcus-group B VIROLOCY
= b. Pseudomonas 75. EBV(ebstein barr virus) causes
all except:
c. H.influenzae
sePtembu
d. Staphylococcus aureus a. Glandular fever
68. Which of the following is true for staphylococcus b. Burkitfs lymphoma
aur€us food poisoning: c. Pancreaticcarcinoma
September 2Cf.8
a. Incubation period of over 20 hours d.
Nasophar;mgeal carcinoma
76. Most serious complication of measles
b. Immediate antibiotic therapy is required is:
c. Heat labile enterotoxin is responsible a. Croup
SePtember
d. Common with dairy products b. Meningo-encephalitis

69. Most common cause of acute bacterial endocarditis
is: c. Otitis media
d. Pneumonia
September 2009
Staphylococcus aureus Z. Carriers for Herpes simplex virus is: Mnrch
Streptococcus viridans a. Man
Streptococcus intermedius b. Monkey
Candida albicans
c. Both
d. None
ft. Nl of the following belong to arboviruses group 86. Which is a yeast like fungi: Septembu 2007
except: September 2009 a. Cryptococcus
3. Bunyavirus b. Candida
!. ParamYxovirus c. Blastomyces
c. Reovirus d. Histoplasma
d. Alphavints
79. Nl of the following is true regarding HIV virus except: 87. All of the following causes subcutaneous fungal
March 2010 infections except: SEtember 2007
a. Belongs to the subgroup lentivirus a. Blastomycosis
b. Double stranded DNA virus b. Sporotrichosis
c. Characterised by the presence of reverse c. Maduram'gcosis
transcriptase enzyme d. Rhinosporodiosis
d. Acts on Cf)4 cells E8. N{ost common fungus causing chronic meningitis is:
80. SSPE (Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis) is Nlarclt 2009
associated with: Mnrch 2010 a. Blastomyces
a. Tetanus b.
Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Meningitis c.
Histoplasma
c. Choiera d. Coccidioidomycosis
d. Measles 89. Which of the following is not a fungal infection:
81, Dengue hemorhagic fever is caused by: March 2aL0
a. Alphavirus a. Blastomycosis
b. Flavivirus b. Cryptococcus
c. Bunyavirus c. Actinomycosis
d. Orbivirus d. Histoplasmosis
82" Virus that spreads by both hematogenous and neural 90. Sclerotic bodies are seen in: September 2009
route is: September 2007 a.
Sporotrichosis
a. Rabies virus b.
Histoplasmosis
b. Polio virus c. Chromoblastomycosis
c. EB virus d. Rhinosporodiosis
d. Enterovirus
91. Amongst the following which is the rarest
83. Gene that encodes the toxin for cholera is transmitted
opportunistic fungal infection seen in AIDS patient:
byt Septembu 2007
a. Protozoa September 2008
b. Bacteria a. Cryptococcosis
c. Bacteriophage b. Candidiasis
d. Fungus c. Histoplasmosis
MYCOLOCY
d. Aspergillosis
84. All are dimorphic fungi except: March 2005 MISCELLANEOUS
a. Blastomycoses 92. True about prions are all except: September 2009
b. Cryptococcus a. Associated with Cruetzfeldt-|acob disease
c. Histoplasma b. Heat labile
d. Paracoccidia
c. Sensitive to proteases
85. True about Cryptococcus neofor:rrans are all except:
d. Infectious proteinaceous particles
September 20aS
93. Southern blot test is for detection of: September 2005
a. Possess a prominent polysaccharide capsule
a. Antibodies against viral proteins
b. Abundant in pigeon droppings
c. Dimorphic fungr b. DNA
d' Causes meningitis in the immunocompromised c. RNA
d. Carbohydrate epitopes
Microbiology
94. AII of the following are arthropod borne d.iseases

c. Rolling
excePl September 2007 d. Transmigration of cells
a. Malaria
b. Filariasis 96. Which of the following infection, if occurs in the
first
c. Dengue trimester, leads to maximum incidence of congenital
d. Dracunculosis malformations: March
95. Integrins are associated with all of the following
a. Rubella
except: b. Toxoplasmosis
Septembu 2009
a. Adhesion c. CMV
b. Arrest d. All of the above
o
o
J
Io
o
E
I
=
.i1r-1,':
i g,-f,l.f,ASSESSIWEN" *
GEIMCI SCKEf;NTNG.
PARASITOLOGY (Questions)
L. Promastigote form of Leishmania is found in which 8. True about plasmodium falciparum is:
part of sandfly: March 2005 Septentber
a. Lvmphnode a. Preferentially infects old erythrocytes only
b. GIT b. Schuffner's dots is characteristic
c. Spleen c. Crescentic macrogametocyte
d. Bone marrow d. Large schizonts
2. Sabin-Feldman dye test is used for diagnosis of: 9. Kala azar is transmitted by: Marclt
NIarch 20A5,2r-tOg A Scptember 2007
a. Sand fly
a. Cryptosporidiurn b. Tsetse f11'
b. Babesia
c. Flea
cl. Hard tick
c. Irr-reurnocYstis
cl. Joaoplasma
10. Cyclops is a part of life cycle of: Stprerrroer
a.Toxoplasmosis
3. Babesiosis is most commonly transmitted by:
b. Echinococcus
lv4arch 2005 c. Leishmaniasis+
a. Pigs d. Dracunculosis
b. Rats 11. Nor.y-McNeal-Nicolle INNNI medium is used for:
c. Sand fh' September
d. Ticks a. Giardia lamblia
4. Q-fever is caused by: A4arch 2005 b. Leishmania dor-rovani
a. Rochaemeiia quintana c. Echinococus
b. Mvcoplasma bovis d. Toxoplasma gondii
c. Coxiella bumetti 12" Most common parasitic infection in AIDS:
d. lvlycoplasma hominis Septenther
Megaloblastic anemia caused by: Mnrch 2005

a. Ancylostorna duode'nale
a. Taenia saginata b. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Diphyllobotrum latum c. Strongyloides stercoralis
c. Taenia solium
d. Enterobius vermicularis
13. Non bile stained eggs is found in:
d. Echinococcus granulosus
a. Ancvlostomaduodenale
5. Paragonismus westermani is commonly called:
b. Trichuris trichura
March 2005 c. Ascaris lumbricoides
a. [.ung fluke d" All of the above
b. Tapeworms 14. LD bodies are associated with: Septembe.r 2009
c. Intestinal flukes a. Larva migrans
d. Liver flukes b. Kala azar
7. Iron Deficiency anemia is eommonly caused by: c. Malaria
SeTttentber 2005, Mnrch 2009 d" Loa loa
Enterobius vermicularis 15. Black malarial pigment is seen in: Scptenrber 20N
b. Taenia solium a. P.vivax

c. Ancvlostoma duodenale b. P.falciparurn
d. All of the above c" P.malariae
o. l'.ovlae
15. [,licrofilaria is not seen in: September 2009 c. Chopra's antimony test
6. LYmPnancs d.Imrnunofluorescent antibody test
6. Hydrocoele fluid 19. Interrnediate host for hydatid disease is: March 2010
g. ChYlcus urine a. Cort'
d. Blood b" Man
lZ. Two
nuclei at the tail tip is seen in: September 2009 c. Dog
3. Brugian malaYi d. Pig
b. Wucheria bancrofti 20. Investigation for definitive identification of
g. Onchocerca volvuius cryptosporodium: March 2010
d. Mansonella ozzardt a. ELISA
1S. Highly
specific and sensitive test for diagnosing kala- b. lmmunofluorescence test
azari March 2070 c. Demonstration of oocyte in feces
a. Complfll€'nt fixation test rvith \VKK antigcn d. Fluoroscent staining rvith auramine
b. Napier's aldehyde test
T
n
CN
{
o
ro
o
- a i' s H$sFf
i:;n=,,, FFII'as EJv? 4 -'..
^ E/IvrcI sc*Er*r*ol
;,lC,r-fi"
PHARN,IACO LO Gy (euestions)
CENERAL PRINCIPLES
1. Which of the following 8. Steady state concentration
of a drug is achieved in:
is a pro_drug: Septentber 2005
a. Clonidine Septetnber )Qg7
b. Enalapril a. 2-3 half lives
c. Streptomycin b. 3-4 half lives
d. Morphine c. 4-5 half lives
2. Pharmocodynamics deals d. 5-6 half lives
with: September 2005 9. Orphan drugs are:
a. I\4ode of excretion of a drug March
b. Mechanism of action of a drng a. Commercially eas1, to obtain. 2010
c. Transport of drug across the b--iological b. Drugs to treat rare diseases u-"ually
d. Latency of onset
membranes c. Developed with an intention ol,monetary gain
3. Therapeutic index of a drug
d. AII of ihe above
signifies: Septonber 2005 10. Therapeutic drug monitoring
a. Dose n'hich produces maximum is required for all of the
effect following drugs except:
b. Safety margin Mnrch
c. Efficacy a. Sulfonamides 2010
d. Maximum response that can be b. Metformin

:.
n
First pass metabolism is maximum
elicited
by a drug c. Cycloserine :.
with which route: d. Gentamycin
September 2005 11. Depot progestins is administered
a. Oral by which route
b. Subcutaneous March 2A1a
a. Subcutaneous route
c. Rectal
b. Intravenous route
d. Sublingual
c. Intramuscular route
5. Administration of which of the
following drug d. Both subcutaneous and intramuscular
requires monitoring: route
March 2007 12. AII of the following drug
a. Lithium
receptors except:
act on the dopaminergic
b. Haloperidol
c. Diazepam
a. Domperidone
d.
Acetazolamide
b. Dobutamine
6. Area under time and plasma
concentration curve c. Fenoldopam
signifies :
September 2005 d. Metclopramide
a. Potency
13. Which of the following is not
b. Extent of absorption ofdrug rnetabolized by
c.
acetYlation: septenfuer 2oo|
Efficacy
i .5: a. Hydralazine
ig d. Plasma clearance of a dmg
rffi b. Phenytoin
7. First order kinetics is: c. Isoniazid
Se2ttentber 2005
a. Absorptior-r of the drug is independent d. Procainamide
ffi of the serum
concentration.
b. Elimination of the drug is independent DRUCS ACTING ON CVS
of the serum 14. Beta-blockers are used in all
concentration. of the following except:
ffi c. Elimination of the drug is proportional
rF to the serum NIarch 2005
H concentration. a. Essential tremors
ffi, d. Absorption of the drug is proportional b. AV block
ffi to the serum
F3
concentration. c. Angina pectoris
* d. Migraine prophylaxrs
ilt
i*
3"
,"4
r:i
self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination
Chronotrophic means: March 20L0

15. In a patient with concomitant diabetes, anti- 22.
a. Drugs affecting the contractility of heart
hypertensive agent of choice is: September 2005
a. Calcium channel blocker b. Drugs affecting heart rate

c. Drugs affecting the myocardial blood flow
b. Beta adrenergic blocker
d. Drugs affecting diastolic relaxation.
c. ACE inhibitor
23. Which of the following calcium channel blocker has a
d. Plasrr.a kinins September 2006
predominant peripheral action:
16. Which of the following is the shortest acting beta-
blocker: September 2006
a. Verapamii
a. Acebutolol b. Diltiazem
b. Sotalol c. Nifidepine
c. BisoProlol d. Depranil
d. Esmolol 24. Recommended step in salicvlate toxicity is:
17. Calcium channel blocker causing cerebral SePtentbl 2006
vasodilatation is: Scptember 2006
a. Chleating agents
a. Nimodipine b. Atropine
b. Felodipine c. Alkaline diuresis T
.T
c. Amlodipine d.Observation
d. Nitrendipine 25. Drug of choice for acute lefiventricular failure:
18. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in: March 2007 SePtenrber 2006 7
a. Hypertension a. Rapiddigitalization
=
b. Myocardialinfarction b. I/V AminophYlline o
c. Renal artery stenosis
d. Left ventricular dysfunction
c. I/V Morphine
d. I/V Furosemide
o
r
19. Viagra like medicine is given in which condition: 26. Both arteriolar and venodilator drug is: o
March 2007
SePtenfuer 2007 o
a. Pulmonaryhypertension a. Hydralazine
b. Essenfial hypertension b. Sodium nitroprusside
c. Malignanthypertension c. Minoxidil
d. Hypertension in pregnancy
d. CaptoPril
27. Allof the following drug can be used in hypertensive
20. Which of the following is not a positive ionotropic
crisis except- September 2007
agent: September 2007
a. Labetalol
a. Dobutamine
b. Pindolol
b. Dopamine c. Nitroprusside
c. Diltiazem d. Nifedipine
d. Amrinone 28. Drug used to treat tremors in hyperthyroidism is:
21. Drug of choice for paroxysmal supraventricular SePtenfuer 2008
tachycardia is: March 20L0, September 20078 2010 a. Adrenaline
a. Digoxin b" Propranolol
b. Propranolol c. Noradrenaline
c" Adenosine d. Dopamine
d. Diltiazem
Pharmacology
29. A patient with hypertension

is also having aortic
dissection. Anti-hypertensive 35. Drug of choice fot rt"t"*ingasthmaticpatientwith
agent of choice is
hypertension,
SeptenLber 20Ag a. Timolol March
a. Sodium nitroprusside
b. Reserpine b. Propranoiol
c. Pindolol c. Metoprolol
d. Nifedipine d. Amlodipine
36. Drug of choice for acute severe asthma is:
30. Dopamine, in renal doses, in shock leads
to:
September
lv4arch 2009 a. Short acting beta 2 agorusts
a. Reduction in peripheral resistance
b. Long actrng beta 2 agonists
n. Lonstriction of renal vasculafut.e
c. Oral theophylline
c. Dilatation of renal vasculafure cl. Inhaied ipratropium
d. Increase in cardiac oufput bromide
37. All of the following
3L. Supraventicular are true regarding sodium
tachycardia can be managed cromoglycate except:
best by:
a. Given in acute bronchiar asthma Mo.rch 20i.a
sePtembcr 2oo9
a Digitalis b. Inhibits degranulation of mast cells
b o. Adenosine
O c. It is not a bronchodiiator
J (. ursop,Vrantide d. It is not absorbed orally
Oi d. euinidine 38. Which of the following is tne most potent
(;) : 92. Which of the following drug glucocorticoid:
is commonly responsible March 2o1a
S , for orthostatic- --r rvlLrrrru"
hypotension a. Hydrocortisone
March 2010
E i a. Clonidine b. Prednisolone
y! b. H,r'dralazine c. Betamethasone
c. Captoprils d.
+i Triamcinolone
d. prazosin 39. Leukotriene antagonists
ti 33. Which a. Nicordanil
is: Nfarch 2009
.+. of the following short-acting
g blocker drug is used in
selective beta- b Zileuton
the managelrrent of arrythmia:
c. Sodium chromoglycate
March 2o1o cl. Montelukast
$
I ". Carvedilol
u ANTIDIABETIC DRUCS
Esmolol
c. Celiprolol 40' In the management
of diabetes mellitus, Iactic
d. Bisoprolol is commonly caused by acidosis
which .f t}," i"ii"*i.g,
DRUCS ACTINC ON March
RESPTMTORY SYSTEM a. Tolbutamide 2005
34. Mechanism of action
of corticosteroids in asthma is: b. Glipizide
March 20a9
c" Pioglitazone
Decreases mucosal edema d. Metformin
inflammatory response
bv suppressing
41. Which of the following
is rapidly acting insulin:
b. Mast cell stabilization
c. Causes bronchodilatafion September 2007
a" Lente
d. Leukotriene antagonist b. Insulin glargine
c. Ultralente
d" Insulin lispro
self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examindtion
regarding mechanism of action of 49. Which of the following is short acting neuromuscular
42.Truestatement
sulfonylureas is: March 2008, Septembet 2010 blocking agenL SePtember 2007
a. Lrcreased peripheral utilization of glucose a. Pancuronium

b. Reduce trePatic glucose outPut b. Doxacurium
c. Act on SURI receptors on pancreatic beta cell c. Mivacurium
membrane d. Vecuronium
d. TranscriPtion of genes regulating glucose 50. Drug of choice for petit mal seizures is:
metabolism SePtembet 2007
4i!.Which of the following drug does not

cause
a. Ethosuximide
September 2008
hypoglYcemia: b. Carbamazepine
a. Tolbutamide c. Phenytoin
b. Glibenclamide d. Valproate
c. Metformin 51. Malignant neuroleptic syndrome is caused by:
d. ChlorproPamide March 2009
44. An oral hypoglycemic agent used to treat obesity is:
SePtember 2008
a. Antidepressants
b. Anxiolytics
a. Tolbutamide
c. Antipsychotics
irT
b. Glipizide
d. Antiepileptics
$ fi-
c. Gliclazide :1>
52. True regarding buProPion is: September 20A9 HN
d. Metformin
Type I diabetes mellitus is initially rnanaged by: *=
45.
March 2010 a. Dopamine reuPtake stimulator *>
b. It is an antianxietY drug iio
a. Metformin
b. Sulfonylureas c. No precipitation of seizures fo
,$r
c. Meglitinide d. Nicotinic recePtor antagonist
i5o
d. None of them 53. Antidote for Restyl/Alprazolam is: March 2410
*o
45. are true regarding adverse effects
All of the following a. Protamine sulPhate f,<
of chlorpropamide except: March 2010 b. Flumazenil a:
a. Sensitizes the kidney to ADH action c. EDTA i

b" Less incidence of hypoglycemia d. BAL e
c" More incidence of weight gain 54. Phenobarbitone and warfarin interaction results in: g
d. Disulfiram like reaction may occur March 2005 :!.
DRUCS ACTINC ON NERVOUS SYSTEM a. Increased absorption of warfarin

47. False statement regarding phenytoin is: March 2007 b. Increased metabolism of warfarin
a. Is highly protein bound c. Displacement of warfarin from the binding site
b. Half life decreases with decreasing dose d. Ali of the above

c" Microsomal enzyme inducer 55. An anxiolytic benzodiazepine which is also
d. Follows zero order kinetics at lower doses antidepressant : September 2007
48. True about Imipramine is: September 2007 a. Lorazepam

a. Antiepileptic b. Oxazepam
b. Antidepressant c. Alprazolam
c. Anxiolytic d. Chlordiazepoxide
d. Antipsychotic
drug is contraindicated
patient of myasthenia itna 63. Treatment for
gravis: Zollinger-ellison sJmdrome
September 200g is:
a. Succinylcholine a. Cimetidine September
b. Tubocurare b. Omeprazole
c. Pyridostigmine c. Misoprostol
d. Halothane d" aluminium hydroxide
57. Antidepressant drug that
can cause neuroleptic 64" True about concen tration
malignant syndrome and of Oral Rehydration
tardive ayrtilJri" i* Solution is:
a. sodium 7o mEq/iit March
a. Amineptin March 2_a09
b. Carbamazepine b. potassium 20 mEq/iit

c. Amoxapine c. Bicarbonate g0 mEq/lit
d. Trazodone tl. Chtoride 30 nrEqitii
58. Which of the follow,ing drug is not given 65. Which of the follolr
rnania: in acute
September 2009
rripr e,rrug rh",.";;'rlTffi:il: ffiponenr or
a. Lithium
o b. Lamotrigine a. Lansoprazole Morch
o
J
c.
d.
Valproate
Oianzapine
b. Clarithromycin
c. Meh.onidazole
o
(J
59. Drug of choice f,or
a" Methysergide
acute migraine is:
March 2010 d. Cimetidine
0e.fllti-Heticobacter pylori
(. b. Sumatriptan drugs are all of the following:
c. Ergotamine
a. Crarithromycin March 2o1o
d. Propranolol
=,,:
8 b. Amoxicillin
<:
ri'
L,.
DRUCS ACTING ON
CASTROINTESTINAL TRACT
is not an antacid drug:
c. Metronidazole
d. Tetracycline
67. Drug of choice
March 2oo; for NSAID induced gastric
a. Aruminium hydroxide ulcer is:
, b. Magnesium sulphate a. Miprinone Septentber 2008
: c. Sodium bicarbonate b. Misoprostol
d. Calcium carbonate c. Carboprost
61. Drug that does not interferes d. Mirtazapine
with antacid:
DRUCS ACTINC ON
a. Tetracycii n ,rrch 2oo| HAEMATOPOIETIC
SYSTEM
68. Warfarin acts by
b. Norfloxacin inhibiting all of the following
except: factors
c. Azifhromycin a. Factor III March zoo,
d. Ranifidine b. Factor VII
62. Which of the following is a prokinetic c. Factor IX
drug with no
dopamine antagonism: d. Factor X
a' Chlorpromolitr"
""" March 20a5
69. Warfarin effect may be
enhanced by:
b. Metaciopramide a. phenobarbitone March 2005
c. Domperidone b. Ketoconazole
d. lV{osapride c. Rifampicin
d. Chronic alcoholism
fO. Which of the following drug inhibits aggregation of 77.Tnte about heparin are all of the following except:
platelets: September 2005 September 2009
4. Ttanexaemic acid a. Powerful anticoagulant only in vivo

b. EACA b. Protamine sulfate is the antidote
s. Aprotinin c. Not given by intramuscular route
d. Aspirin d. Acts by inhibiting factor IIa and Xa
21. Anticoagulants are indicated in all of the following
conditions excePt: September 2005 78. Which of the following is advocated in dicournarol
a. Pulmonary embolism poisoning: March 2005
b. DVT a. Warfarin
c. Pericarditis b. Heparin
d. Myocardial in-farction c, LMWH
72. Aspirin in very low doses inhibits the formation of d. Vitamin K
Septenfuer 2006
DRUCS ACTINC ON EXCRETORY SYSTEM
a. Cyclooxygenase L 79. Which of the following is a potassium sparing drug:
b. Thromboxane .A2
c. Prostaglandin 12 *'
tePtenrber 2oo5 T
a. Indapamide -
73. Dose of Warfarin is managed by: March 2407
b. Frusemide
c. Spironolactone v
a. INR
d. Mannitol =
b. ESR
c. MAC
80. All of the following are true regarding diuretics o
d. PAH
except: March 2008 o
ro
a. Spironolactone is a potassium sparing drug
74. Which of the following drug causes does not causes
b. Manrritol is an osmotic diuretic
thrombocytopenia:
a. Methotrexate
March 2009
c. Thiazides act by inhibiting Sodium-potassium- o
chloride cotransport
b. Aspirin
d. Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase enzyme
c. Ticlopidine
81. Which of the following diuretic causes maximum loss
d. Heparin
of potassium in urine: March 20L0
75. Which of the following drug inhibits plasminogen
a. Acetazolamide
March 2009
b. Spironolactone
a. Aspirin
b. Tranexaemic acid
c. Ethacrynic acid
d. Furosemide
c. Alteplase
d. Streptokinase ANTIMICROEIAL DRUGS
76. Low molecular weight heparin mainly inhibits whieh 82. Pancreatitis may be seen with all of the following
factor: Sept ember 2009 antiretroviral agent except: March 2005
a. Factor IIla a. Lamivudine
b. Factor VIIIa b. Stavudine
c. Factor Xa c. Zidovudine
d. Factor XIIa d" Didanosine
Pharmacology
il 83. Drug of choice for lymphogranuloma

venerum:
91. Drug which inhibit protein synthesis are all
March 2C0S of the
a. Teiracycline following except:
b. Chloramphenicoj March
a. Tetracycline
c. Erythromycin b. Chloramphenicol
d. Ampicillin
84. All of the following
c. Erythromycin
are Beta_lactamase inhibitors
except:
d. Penicillin
March 2005
a" Clavulanic acid 92. Drug of choice for chylamydial trachomatis
is:
b. Aztreonam
c. Sulbactam a. Penicilin
Marcl
d. Tazobactarn
b. Erytirromycin
85. Which antitubercular drug combination
patient who develops hepititis
is safer in a c. Vancomycin
wnite on aff: d. Azithromycin
March 2005
a. Stre;rtomycin+Isoniazicl 93. Which of the following drug belongs to antifolate
b. Streptomycin+Eth6m6u1r1
!r c. Ethambutol+I56niuri6
grouPr
Septentber
oi d. Ethambutol+Rilu-ot.t
a. Erythromycin 2af,?
oi
Ji:
86. Antitubercular drug causing gout
a. >treptomycin
is: NIarch 2005
b. Doxycycline ::
c. Pyrimethamine
oi
of
b. Ethambutoi
c. Rifampicin
d. Gentamicin
94. All pencillins act by:
<; d.
Pyrazinamide a. Inhibiting protein synthesis
SeTttember 2007
(r
=$
87. What is the most serious
side effect of streptomycin:
September 2A0S
b. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
c. Antifolate
<ii a. Hepatotoxicity
Ef b. Ototoxicitl, d. Inhibitis DNA p;yrase i
O- 1l c. Ocular to*i.ity 95. Drug used for prophylaxis

of meningococcal
d. Hematoiogicil disturbances meningitis: c^.
september :
88. Gentamycin is not given 2aat
5 orally because: a. Chroramphenicol
september 2005 b. Erythromycin
a.Adverse effects on gastric mucosa .
b.Interfercs with absorption of other

c. Tetraryclin -
drug,s d.
c.. Rapidly destroyed by gastric acid o- Rifampicin
ct. l,oor absorption 95. Drug used orally for treating scabies: March 2009
89. Drug of choice for plasmodium
vivax is: a. levamisole
Septentber 2006
b. Ivermectin
a. Mefloquine c. Lindane
b. Chloroquine
d" Chloroquine
c. Artesunate
d. Quinine 97. Drug acting on cell wall of gram positive bacteria:
90" Drug which is never given by oral
route: March 2007 March 2009
a. Erythromycin a. Gentamycin
b. Ciprofloxacin b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Streptomycin c. Tetracycline
d. Albendazole
d. Vancomycin
Self Assessment & Review of FMGE i MCI Screenino Examination
qg. Which of the following is not an antiretroviral drug: 105. Which drug is effective against both pseudomonas
March 2009 and proteus: September 2005
a. Lamivudine a. Cloxacillin
b. Zidovudine b. Amoxycillin
c. Ganciclovir c. Carbenicillin
d. NeviraPine d. Ampicillin
penicillin for L06. Drug that can be used against anaerobic
99. Dose and duration of benzathine
prophylaxis of rheumatic fever is: September 2009 streptococci: March 2007
a. 1.2 MU every 2 weeks a" Penicilin

b. 1.2 MU every 4 weeks b Erythromycin
c. 2.4MU every 2 weeks c. Vancomycin
d. 2.4 MU every 4 weeks
d. Clindamycin
100. Strength of topical ophthalmic preparations of
107. Chromaphenicol is metabolized by: September 2007
tobramycin is : Septernber 2009

a. Oxidation
b. Acetylation
a. mg/ml
3
c. Glucoronideconjugation
b. 8 mg/ml
d.All of the above
c. 10 mg/ml
108. Drug which is both phototoxic and photoallergic: T
d. 13 mg/ml
S eptenfuer 2007
rF
+
101. Drug used for chloroquine-resistant vivax malaria
a. Amiodarone
".
are all of the following except:
a. Quinine
September 2009
b. Procainamide n
c. Sulfonamide
b. Doxycycline d. Chloroquine =
c. Primaquine 109. Beta-lactam ring is present in all of the following o
d. Fluoroquinolones
except: March 2008 o
t-
102. Drug of choice for herpes zoster is: March 2010 a.
a. Aryclovir b.
Sulbactam
o
b. Idoxuridine c.
Imipenem
Vancomycin o
c. Ganciclovir d.Cephalexin
d" Valaciclovir 1L0. A patient on antitubercular treatment lunder DOTS]
103. Which antitubercular agent is associated with side shows sputum positivity at the end of intensive
effects as respiratory syndrome,cutaneous phase under category I. Next step would be : ,:ii:
.11,
syndrome, Flu syndrome and abdominal syndrome: March 2009

March 201,0 a. Continue treatment of IP for one more month !::
a. Isoniazid b. Switch to category II treatment

:a
b. Rifampicin c. Restart category I treatment
c. Pyrazinamide d. Start continuation phase under category I
d. Ethambutol
104. All of the following are true regarding penicillin 111. All of the following are true regarding vancomycin
except: March 2005 except: September 2009
a. Probenecid decreases it duration of action a. Excreted unchanged mainly by glomerular
b. All penicillin are active against gram positive filtration
orgamsms b. Poorly distributed in the body fluids
c. Splits into 6-amino penicillanic acid by amidase c. May cause red man syndrome
d. Acts by inhibiting cell wall slmthesis
d. Not absorbed oraliy
Pharmacology
112. True statements

regarding vancomycin uses
of the following except:
are all 119. Drug indicated for
hyperthyroidism during
September 2009
Surgical prophylaxis in Pregnancy:
:
b. D*g of choice for
MRSA pr"rrutu.,t u."u,
a. prophyrtiouracil september
pseudomembranous
enterocolitis b. Carbimazole
c. Effective in penicillin_resistant pneumococcal c. Iodide
infection d. Radioactive iodine
d. Methicillin_resistant
Staphylococcus aureus
120. Antimalarial drug safe in pregnancy
is:
infection
September 2006, March
f13. Drug of choice for
cerebral malaria is: a. Quinine
a. March 2010
Chloroquine b. primaquine
b. Quinine c. Artesunate
c. primaquine d. Chloroquine
d. Sulfadoxine 121. A pregnant lady
is suffering from peptic
ulcer. D
ANTICANCER AND ANTI.INFTAMMATORY that is contraindicated
rrlq rD'|
is:
DRUGS
>i 114. Hemorrhagic cystitis
a. Methotrexate
is caused by: September
2005
a. Omeprazole
b.
March
o$ b. c.
Ranitidine
o$ c. Cyclophosphamide
Melphalan
d.
Misoprostdi
J3l Famotidine
o$ 115. d. Busulfan 122. Ergot derivatives
are used in all of the following
OF Which of the following anticancer
drug causes except :
<$ peripheral neuropathy:
September 2A09
a. Uterine contraction
March
a. Methotreaxate b. Vasoconstrictivedisorders
E
=$ b. Vincristine c. Migraine
c.
r
o.
d.
Cytarabine
Etoposide
116. Anticancer drug
causing nephrotoxicity:
d. Dementia
123. Use of magnesium
sulfate in pregnancy are
associated with all of the following side_effects
September 2009 except:
a. Imitanib March2010',
b. Irinotecan
a. Muscular paralysis
c. fosfestrol
b. Bradycardia
d. Cisplatin c. Cardiac arryhthmias
117. Busulfan may cause: d. Respiratorydepression
September 2007
a. Cystitis 124. All of the followin tul';1to n""
b. pulmonary fibrosis saf er in o."rr,ur,.r " "'" " "rtli ))ri r or o
c. Loss ofhair a. Enalapril
d. peripheralneuropathy b. Labetalol
MEDICATIONS IN PREGNANCY
c. Hydralazine
118. Anti-hypertensive
& LACTATION d. Alpha-methytdopa i
drug contraindicatej in
pregnancy is:
Septentber 2005,2010 March
Hypertension:
dytor i
a. Hydralazine 2007
March2M9
b. Methyldopa a. sodium nitroprusside
c. Enalapril b. Hydralazine
d. Amlodopine c. ACE inhibitors
d. Indapamide
134. Amongst thefollowing, extrapyramidal side effect

il4ISCELLANEOUS
is used in: March 20AS is commonest with which drug: Septenber 2006
fb. Morphine
a.
HYPertension a. Thioradizine
b.
Cardiac arrythmias b. haloperidol
c.
Acute left ventricular failure c. Clozapine
d.
A-V block d. Ziprasidone
135. Danazol is: Septenfuer 2006
l1T,Prolactin secretion is stimulated by: March 2005
a. Anabolic steroid
a. TRH b. Androgens agonist
b. ACTH
c. Antiandrogens
c. GnRH
d. 5-alpha-reductaseinhibitor
d. Dopamine
136. Hypercalcemia is decreased by all of the following
128. GtI secetion is inhibited by: March 2045
except: Mnrch 2007
a. Bromocriptine a. Etidronate
b. Hyperglycemia b. Calcitonin
c. Vigorous exercise c. Lithium
d. Deep sleeP d. Glucocorticoids
129. True about hypnotic drugs is: Scptentber 2005 137. Thalidomide is useful in: March 2007
a. Slower onset and longer duration a. Treatment of leprosy
b. Slower onset and shorter duration b. Treatment of type II l8pra reaction
c. Quicker onset and longer duration c. Treatment of type I lepra reaction
d. Quicker onset and shorter duration d. Treatment of neuritic leprosy
130. Oral contraceptive pills are contraindicated in: 138. Co-administartion of which of the following drug
SePtember 2005 with Zidovudine is not preferred: March 2007
a. Premenstrualtension a. Indomethacin
b. Endometriosis b. Aspirin
c. Hepatadenoma c. Trimethoprim
d" Pelvic inJlammatory disease
d. All of the above
139. Adrenaline is added to Lignocaine injection for:
131. Mechanism of action of allopurinol: September 2005
March 2007
a. Inhibits the slmthesis of uric acid
b. Inhibits tubular resorption of uric acid a. Less bleeding at the site
c. Antinflammatoryaction
b. Higher doses can be given
d. Increases phagocytosis of urate crystals
c. Prolonged duration of action
d. All of the above
132. Which drug is not given in anaphylactic shock:
140. Which of the following does not cause
SePt ember 2005 September 2007
hyperprolactinemia:
a. Adrenaline a. Levodopa
b" Steroids b. Bromocriptine
c.
Antibiotics c. Chlordiazepoxide
d.
Antihistamine d. Pituitary tumour
133. Which of the following is a mast cell stabilizen 141. Withdrawl syndrome is associated u'ith all of the
SePtember 2005 following except: September 2007
a. Montelukast a. Alcohol
b. Sodiumchromoglycate b. Methadone
c. Cetrizine c. Morphine
d. Theophylline d. All of the above
Pharmacology
142. Which of following drug inhibits xanthine oxidase:

149. Which of the following is a dihydrofolate reductase
September 20A7 inhibitor:
a. Probenicid March 2009
b. a. Arcohol
Quiniarcine
c. Allopurinol
b. methotrexate
d. Sulfinpyrazone
c. Cimetidine
d. Erythromych
143. All of the following drugs causes hemolysis in G-6 150. Which of the {ollowing is true regarding
PD deficiency except: S_HT :
a. Primaquine
September 2001 derivatives: March 200g
b. Nitrofurantin
a. Cisapride is selective 5_HT4 antagonist
c. Su,lfonamide
b. Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 agonist
d. Erythromycin
c. Cyproheptadine is 5_HT2A asonist
144. Which of the
d. Sumatriptan action is agonlsticatty, 5_HT. lBnD
following lipid lowering drug acts by
receptor mediated
inhibitingHMG-CoAreductase: March200g,2010
151.. Drug causing toxic optic neuropathy is:
a. Resins March 2a09
b. Statins
a. Pyrazinamide
(^9
c. Fibric acid deravatives
b. Chloroquine b
o
J d" Bile acid sequestrants
c. Ethambutol
d. Tetracycile
o
(J
145. Drug of choice for
a. Thiocayanates
thyroid storm is: March 2008 152. Alpha agonist has all of the following actions
except:
b. Perchlorates September 2009
c. Propylthiouracil
a. Hypotension
E
= d.
Radioactive iodine
b. Hypertension
146. Muscle relaxant safe in renal
c. General anesthesia
failure patient is:
E d. Nasal decongestant
o- a. Pancuronium
September 200g 153. Which of the following drug is contraindicated
in
b. glaucoma:
Piperacuronium September 20A9
c. Curare
a. Adrenaline
d.
Atracurium b. Timolol
147. Which of the following drug
c. Atropine
causes gynecomastia:
a. Cimetidine d. Pilocarpine
Septentber 2008, 2010
b. Ranitidine 154. True statements regarding octreotide are all
of the
c. Omeprazole following except: Septentber 2009
d. Famotidine a. Syntheticoctapeptide
148. Following a bee-sting, a boy develops angioedema
b. Used in variceal bleeding
and dyspnea. Treatment of choice in such

c.Contraindicated in acromegaly
a case
would be:
d.Useful in secretory diarrhea
March 2009 L55. Sibutramine is used for:
a. I,M adrenaline September 2009
b. I/V adrenaline a" Hemorrhage
c. I/V corticosteroid b. Nasal decongestant
d. Antihistamine
c. l)iabetes
d. Obesity
self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI screening Examination
tSO. Which of the following is used for medical 161. Disulfiram like reaction is commonlv caused bv
adrenalectomY: September 2009 which of the following: March 2005
a. Metyrapone a. Penicillin
b. ketoconazole b. metronidazole
6. Aminoglutethimide c. Tetrarycline
d. All of the above d"erythromycin
lS7. All of the following are true regarding sumatriptan 162. Sterile pyuria may occur due to: March 2007
excePt: September 2009
a. Lignocaine
a. 99"k oralbioavailability b. Paracetamol
b. Contraindicated in coronary artery disease c. Phenytoin
c. Constricts cranial vessels

d. Cocaine r:
l:
::
163. Thalidomide is useful in: Artn!.h'rnn7
d. Selective s-HT 1B/1D receptor agonist
::
Zonal hepatic necrosis is associated with:

a. Treatment
of leprosy
158.
b. of type lI lepra reaction
Treatment
March 20L0 c. Treatment
of type I lepra reaction
a. Diclofenac soclium d. Treatment
of neuritic leprosy
b. Acetaminophen 164. True statements regarding halothane are all of the j,Tl
c. lndomethacin
following except: March 2007
,-F
:-
d. Piroxicam a. Unsuitable for pediatric population ;;>
159. True regarding ondansetron are all of the following b. Potentiates competitiveneuromuscularblockers iiu
except: March 201.0 c. Hepatitis may occur ii=
a. Antiemetic of choice for chemotherapy induced d. Contraindicated in patients with $>
vomiting arrythmia
Cardiac
ilo
b. 165. Half life of albumin is: $;o
5-HT3 receptor antagonist
a.
SEtember 2009 $|-
c. Significant drug interactions 5 days
*.O
d. May have 5-HT4 antagonism b. 10 days
1io
c.
160. Methanol toxicity causes blindness due to the
d.
20 days
40 days
r<
formation of: March 2010
it
165. Which of the following is false about salmeterol:
a. Formic acid *
b. Formaldehyde March 2010
a. Regular use may worsen asthma
ii
c.
d.
Lactic acid
Pyruvic acid
b. First long acting selective beta-2 agonist f
c. Effective for acute asthmatic attacks ii
d. More beta-2 selective agonist than salbutamol
r- ;s'i:
.F ASSESSIUENT ,
EIMCI SCREENIN
FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY (Questions)
NJURIES 9. Inquest for custodial death is held by: September 2005
1. Lesion with intact

skin but tearing of subcutaneous a. Doctor
tissue rs: March 2005 b. Magistrate
a. Scalds c. Sub-inspector
f. Laceration
d. District attorney
c. Contusion
d. Abrasion MEDICOLECAL ASPECT OF DEATH
2" Not a grievous iniury: September 2005
10. Most informative test in parental identification:
a. N{ultiple scars of face Marclt 2005
b. Fracture of femur
a. HLA
c. Emasculation
d. Contusion of breast b. Parental likeness
3. Abrasion collar is seen in: Sryten*cr 2006 c. Deveiopmentaldefects
a. Abrasions over neck d. DNA finger printing
b. Bullet injury 11. Post mortem stiffening is called : Marth 2005
c. Punctured wounds a. Putrefaction
d. Lacerated wounds b. Rigor mortis
4. Rupture of the skin and subcutaneous tissue is called:
c. Livor mortis
SePtember 2010
d. Mummificafion
a. Incised wound
b. Abrasions 1,2. True about hydrocution are all except; September 2006
c. Lacerated u.'ound a. Electrocution in water
d. Contusion b. Death results from cardiac arrest
LAW AND FORENSIC MEDICINE c. Results from falling in the water with feet first
5. Police inquest is required in all except September 2007 d. Emotionally tense individuals are prone for this
a. Sucide
b. Accidental death 13. Test used to detect blood group of blood stain:
c. Dowry death March 2007
d. Murder
a. Benzidine test
6. A child can not be considered responsible for a crime
b. Takayama test
before the age of : September 2007
a. 5 years c" Luminol test
b. 7 years d. Absorption elution test
c. 10 years 14. DNA can be taken as sample from all of the following
d. 12 years except : Septenfttr 2007
7. Inquest of Dowry death is done by: September 2009 a. Hair roots
a. Police b. Semen
b. Magistrate
c. CSF
c. Coroner
d. Medical examiner d. Buccal mucosa
8. In India, for exhumation maximum permissible time 15. Total number of deciduous teeth in al4yr old child:
SePtember 2007
period is : . March 20L0
a. 5 years a.0
b" 10 years b.5
c. 20 years c. L0
d. No limit
d. 20
Forensic Medicine and Toxicology
16. Regarding medical termination

of pregnany, all of the 22. Fracture of hyoid bone is indicative
following are true except_:
September 2007
of : Ma
a. Professional secrecy has to be maintained a. Throttling
b. trVoman has the right to abort his b. Suffocation
fetus without c. Choking
consent of husband
c. In an emergency-,termination of pregnanry d. Hanging
can be 23. In simple hanging,the knot comes
done by a single doctor to rest at the:
Termination of pregnancy up to September
20 rveeks can be a. Occiput
':i Oo": medical practirioner withour consutting b. Chin
Jil .Ot
specialist c. Angie of mandible
-
ttt tt.After death, Livor mortis is caused cl. Below the cheek
X
tt, because of:
J 24. Arborescent burns are seen in:
March 200g St:ptenber 2(fig
O . a. Ir4uscle of the body began to relax a. Flame burns
g b. N{uscle of the body began to stiffen b. Lightning stroke
c. Discolourarron
c. Ifeat stroke
as a result of capillo-venous
X 11. Electrocution
distension in the dependent parts
tr of the body 25. True statement regarding postmortem
O ,. d. Putrefaction of the body tissues wounds is:
fi tS. Brain death is said to occur if there is: March 200g

.a
sisns
of spurting of arrerial btoocl on ,iffi"'o*
{ I a. Absent spinal reflexes b. Firmly coagulated blood in the ltounds
and tissues
IIJ i, b. Cortical death following widespread brain present
injury
Zl; c
c. Alrc^-^^ of
Absence ^rr--:
brainstem reflexes c.
Edges of the rt ound cloes not
gape
= I d. Core temperature of the body is betorv 35 degree C d.
Increased activity of enzymes
P
A'. 26. CSF test is required in:
li.f
tr
. tS.
-- rFirst
rr4.r/Erurcrr€nr
permanent reern
teeth to erupt is:
is: September 200g March 201A
I, a. First premolar a. Morphirre poisoning
b. Second premolar b. Organophosphorous poisoning
o
= c. First moiar
c. Alcohol poisoning
6,* d. Arsenic poisoning
d' Second moiar
2i 27. Pugilistic attitude in fireburns is due
to: h4arch 2010
zO. Rigor
E
!J , __.
rr mortis uccurs
û6v^ rrrurrrD occurs que
due to:
to: September 200g a. Coagulation of blood in the vascular
E i; a Muscle
a. \irr,.-l^ of the L-
^r,L^ r ,began
body b. Splitting of sofr parts
char-rnels
X
!, h .-^^:rr^
to relax
E " b. Capjllo-venous
-.^ -
distension in the most dependent
c. Tight clothing
body parts d.
Coagulation of protein of the muscles
c. Muscle of the body began to stiffen 28. For autopsy, vitreous is preserved
in: September 200g
d. Mummificalion of the body tissues a. Phenol
21. Causes of death
b. Sulphuric acid
in drowning are aII except:
c. Fluoride
March 2009 d. Xylol
a. Vagal hyperactivity 29. Corpus delicti means:
b. Asphyxia March 2A0g
a. Inquest of death
c. Ventricuiarfibrillation b. Postmortem findings
d. Laryngospasm c, Death by asphyxia
d. Essence of crirne
Msrclt 2009 37. If the hemoglobin is saturated with carbon

v*- coronary is due to:
-^ r;16
Ju.
mcnoxide, the hypoxia involved will be: Marcir 2007
3. Strangulation
. r -,^tr .''ir a. Hypoxic hyPoxia
b. A>vrL;l ^'"
r^*.-{i:n erroct
b. StagnanthyPoxia
c. Ldru'('L q"t"' c. Alaemic l'rYPoxia
d. Myocardial infarction d. Histotoxic hyPoxia
38. Most cornmon feature of alcohol withdrawl is:
SEXUAL OFFENCES
March 2007
31.Female can give
consent for sex if she is above:
Mnrch 2005
a. Violent attitude
b. Hypertension
a. 12 1'ears c. Tretnors
b. 16 vears d. I{yperventilatiorr
c. 19 r'ears 39. Antidote for copper poisoning is: Ivlatcli 2(')09
d. 21 Years a. D-peniciliamine
82. Female Patient with loss of interest in sex is known as: b. Potassiurn ferrocvanide
SePtentber 2006 c. BAL
d. Desferrioxamine
a. Vaginismus
,10. Not used for treating acute iron poisoning :
b. Impotencv
c. SterilitY
-. A,Iarclt 2009
a. Desferrioxamine
d. frigiditY b. BAL
TOXICOLOGY c. Magnesium hYdroxide
33. Pin point pupils are seen in all of the following d. Hemodialysis
September 2405 41. Antidote for organophosphates poisoning are all
conditions excePt:
except: Septenfuer 2009
a. Organophosphrous Poisoning
a. Physostigmine
b. Opiod poisoning
b. Activated charcoal
c. Cerebello pontine hemarroge c. Pralidoxime
d. Datura poisoning d. Atropine
34. Hairs are preserved in which poisoning: March 2007
42. Fomepizole as a antidote is used in the poisoning of:
a. Arsenic SePtember 2009
b. Manganese a" OrganophosPhrous
c. Phosphorous b" Methyl alcohol
d. Alcohol c. Aiuminium PhosPhide
35. All of the following are features of Datura poisoning d. Copper
except: March 2007 43. Pin point pupils ate seen in: March 2010
a. Dryness of mouth a. Opium Poisoning
b. Delirium b. Acute alcohol Poisoning
c. Dilated pupil c. Barhiturate Poisoning
d. Bradycardia d. Epileptic coma
44. Patient presented with anemia, blue line in gums,
35. Best method for methanol poisoning treatment:
constipation, abdominal colic and basophilic
March 2007
stippling. Poisoning maY be due to: March 2009
a. Ethanol
a" Arsenic
b. Calcium gluconate b. Mercury
c" Desferroxamine c. Copper
d. BAL d. Lead
F ASSESSMEN1;-
E/IT{CI SCREENIN 1gg..r'
1. A new drug does nort prevents

occurring but reduce; -_ - *'osq>t from
a disease rrorr
eath due to that disease.
Whieh nr
of rhe r^rr
Inl"n '.^ following is true:
March 2005
;
L il:]ijl:::,"
,.
w. rr
the ilcidcrrce dru
wlll decrease the itncidence
_o prevalence
p,"uur"luJl
and prevalence
.
c. rrre-,or^_-.^ is, increased
_Prevalence
d. Incidence is increased
2. Test which detects
true negative is said
to have:
a. Relative risk March 2005 b. Quarantine
b. Odd,s ratio c. Detecting sourc(,ol infection
(r. \,aCcrnatjon
c. Sensitivihy
10. Associated with
d. Specificity surveillance are all
except: of the forlor.ring
, seen in a country a. Sentinej search Selttetnber
,?;,j:T;::1'l ""_ bur broughr
b. Randomisation
20102
a. Endemic March 2005 t reqarding trends

b. Epidemic of hearrh status or,
c. Zoonotic
i:tfiililon
d. Providing timelv
d. Exotic disasters . wamings of public heal&r
4. Surveillance is: 11. Prevalence is
a:
a' Monitoring of activir March 2005 a. Rate September 2007
ry of health workers
h .^-s__
b. Continuous -- rrLqrf,rt wurKers
monil':ormg of
b. Ratio
,iqrri'.,,*^- of a
distribution occurrence and c. proportion
disease d. percentage
:4:nit:ring of trends of a disease
:. Related
d. tt'"16;"t"rding cohort's study are
to ihe vtute rnce au of rhe foilowing
rr-+:^-. is
A Patient - to wrrlk of the organism
! made
a. Most reliable ,
early after Surgery.
for:
for: This is
t"tw"enl s,ls};T-
of showing an
"eptember2007
association
,
a.
Treating the padent March 2005
:q. :,Tt T j:,1$::lfi lHpl;;3sequen'l
disease
o. Reducing disability
s rano can be calculated
c. specific protection ;. :*,
EXposure rates can
d. Rehabilitation -_ be calculated
13. Prevention of devel<
6. rping risk factors in
Which of the follow'ing
is secondary level
under: CAD comes
prevention: of a. primary prevention September 2007
March 2005 o. Secondary prevention
b. l':ol"]"ctic drug adminisrartion
i Admiting c. rrrmordja.l prevention
disabted .hild;
c. Vaccination r;;d schoots q. I ertiary prevention.
d" C"r,ui.al pap smear 14. Relative risk is associated

_ checking a. Cohort sfudies with: September 2007
7. Sensitivity of a screening test indicates: b" sectional sfudies
_Cross
c. Envoimmental sfudies
a. False positive September 2006
o. Lase control studies
b. False negative 15" First noticed case
c. True negative of a disease is known
a. Reference case as: March 200g
d. True positive b. Secondary case
c. Tertiary case
d. Index case
Self Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screening Examination
g.Hefi Immunity is a feature of all of the following VACCINES

diseases excePt: SEtentuer 2008 24. Which of the follow'ing vaccine should not be kept in
6. Diphtheria freezer: March 2005
b. Polio a. DPT
c. Tetanus b. Measles
d. Measles c. OPV
d. AII of the above
lT.Relative risk can be calculated by: September 2008
a. Incidence of disease amongst exposed/incidence of 25. Oral cholera vaccine is effective for: September 2005
disease amongst non-exposed

a. 6 months
b. Incidence of disease amongst non- b. 12 months
exposed/incidence of disease amongst exposed

c. 2 years
Incidence of disease amongst exposed/total d. 3 years
c.
population of that area 26. Hepatitis B vaccine should be given as per which
,,.7
d. Incidence of discase amongst non-erposed/total schedule:
a. 0,1,6 days
SeTttenfuer 2045
F
population of that area , ITI
detect: b. 0,1,6 rveeks
18. Sentinel surveillance is used to ltlarch 2409
a. New cases
c. 0,l,6months ,m
d. 0,1,6 years ':,2
b. Missed cases
c. Old cases 27. BCG should tre given: September 2005 ,{
it:
d. Reference cases
a. Immediately after birth *'
t<
*: 19. Specificity of a diagnostic test denotes: September 2009
b. At the age of 1 month im
-a:
lri
1; a. True negative
c. Atthe ageof 6months
d. At the age of 1 year
i>
'*z
b. False positive
c. False negative
28. Cell culture Rabies vaccine is given at:. September 2005
a. Medial part of thigh
t(]
d. True positive
b. Deltoid muscle 9s,
20. Cohort study is associated with: March 2010
c. Anterior Abdomen :,o
a. Prevalence d. Lateral part of thigh io
b. Odd's ratio
c. Relative risk
29. BCG vaccine is diluted with: September 2405 iF
l|.
a. Normal saline
d. Exposure rates b. Distilled water
21. Ability of a screening test to diagnose true positive
{=
c. Dextrose 3.m
refers tol March 2010 d. Colloids TU
5-
a. Relative risk
b. Sensitivity
30. For post-exposure prophylaxis, dose of human rabies
immunoglobulin is: September 2407
;o
F-
c. Specificity a. 10IU/kg ?z
d. Attdbutable risk b. 20IU,4<g ira
,;'
22. True regarding case control study are all of the c. 30IU/kg
following except: March 20L0 d. 40IU/kg
a. Possibilty of bias 31. How many doses of MMR are given: September 2007
b. Odd's ratio can be derived a. 1
c. Relativelyinexpensive b.2
d. Attributable risk can be known c.3
23. Correct statement regarding longitudinal studies is: o.4
March 2010 32. MMR vaccine is a type of: September 2009
.,';
a" Short duration study a. Killed vaccine
b. lnferior to cross-sectional studies b. Toxoid
c. Observation is taken only once c. Live attenuated vaccine
d. Helps in identifying risk factors of a disease d. Immunoglobulin
Preventive and Social Medicine
33. Post exposure vaccination for measles

should be done 41. As per WHO, anemia is
considered to exist in
SeTttember 2009 pregnancy/
1day ofexposure if the hemoglobin level is below:
2 day of exposure March 20A7.
3 day of exposure
7 day of exposure
i: il^r;::;
c. 12 grr,To
COMMUNICABLE AND d. 13 gm%
42. Disease spread by hard
NON-COMMUNICABLE DISEASES tick is: Septenber
a. Rocky mountain spotted fever
34. Virus causing rabies b.
in man is: Mnrch 2005 Epidemic typhus
a. Wilcl virus c. Murine typhus
b. Street virus d. Scrr-rb typhus
IJJ
z c. Fixed virus
d. All of the above
43. Which of the
mosquitoes:
following is spread by aedes
(J 35. Quarantine period for yellow fever is: a. Loa L.oa
Seplentbcr 2007
o
IIJ
a. 1 dav
Septembcr 2005
b. Malaria
b. 2 day's c. Dengue
c. 6 days d. Japanese encephalitis
J=, d. t0 days 44. Causative agent f& oriental sore is:
{. 36. Plaque is transmitted by: a. Onchocerca volvulus
Septentuer 2A07
6, a. Flea
September 2005
b. Leishmania donovanr
o, b. Soft tick c. Leishmania tropica
a; c. Mites d.
Brugya malayi
o: d. Hard tick 45. Larvae of which of the
following lies parallel to
z', 37. True regarding elimination of neonatal tetanus in surface of water:
teptember 2oo7
<.. village:
september 2006
a" Anophele,
IIJ.' a. Rate more than 1/1000 live births b. Culex
>: b. Attended deliveries less than 50% c. Aedes
F,, c. Attended deliveries d. Sandfly
zi
IIJ i
d.
more than 50%
Rate less than 0.1/1000 live
births 46. After the appearance of
rash, prophylactic isolation of
38. Chandler,s index is associated measles case is necessary for
>{
lI|; a. Round worm
with: September 2006 a minimum of:
September 2007
E', b. Hook worm a. 2days
o-'' c. Pin worm b. 5 days
d. Tape worm c" 7 days
39. Vector for dengue fever is: d. 9 days
September 2006
a. Culex 47. All of the following diseases are reported to WHO
b. Aedes except:
SePtentber 2007
c. Male Anopheles a" Plague
d. Female Anopheles b. Yellow fever
40. Natural reservoir of Chikungunya
virus in India is: c. Polio
March 2007
d. Cholera
a. Monkey 48. Scrub typhus is spread by:
b. Guinea pig a. Ticks
September 2007
c. Aedes b. Fleas
d. Dog
c. Trombiculid mite
d. Louse
Self ,Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screening Examination
49. Immunoglobulin is used for all of the following 56. Which of the following is not a complication of
diseases excePt: March 2008 mumps: Nlnrch 20A9
a. Measles a. Orchitis tl
b. Rabies b. Oophoritis ,tl
c. Typhoid c. Encephalitis
d. Chickenpox d. Hepatitis
S0. Culex mosquito spreads all of the following disease 57. Case notification under intemational health
excePt: March 2048 regulations is done for which of the following:
a. Viral arthritis September 2009
b. West Nile fever a. hepatitis B fii.i':l i iir'
rli'
c. Yellort' fever b. HIV
d. Bancroftian filariasis ;.U
l,v
c. Yeiioll'fer.er
51. Measles is infective for: It4nrdt 2409 d. Ali of the above ,ffi
a. One da,v before and 4 davs after rash 58. Inflrrenza shows which type of trend: Stlttctrrber 2009
,,(
i,111
b. Four clays before and five days after rash a. Secular :z
c. Entire incubation period b. Cyclicai i l{
d. Only during scabs falling
Which of the following is best for ante-mortem
c. Seasonal i<
52. d. None of the above iirTl
diagnosis of rabies: March 2009
59. Dengue is transmitted by; Marclt2010 *>
a. Antirabies antibodies in blood a. Anopheles
'tz
b. Immunofluorescence of comeal impressions b. Culex IE]
c. Immunofluorescence of skin biopsy c. Mansonia
ta
FO
d. Isolation of virus from saliva
Which of the following is not a part of management
d. Aedes fo
al
53.
in grade III dog bite infected with rabies: March 2009

60. Which of the following disease has an incubation
week:
i> -
period of less than 1 March 2010 al]-

a. Vaccination
b. Stitch the wound with antibiotic coverage
a. Measles {=
b. Cholera {m
c. Wash with soap and water
c. Mumps *g
d. Administration of antirabies serum and vaccination
54. A person has episodes of vomiting 6 hrs after
d. Pertussis i0
;iz
61. Which of the following diseases is under
consuming milk. Organism responsible for this may
international surveillance: March 20L0
tltl
be.. March 2009 *;
a. Influenza
a. Clostridiumperfringenes
b. Bacillus cereus
b. Malaria
c. Salmonella typhi c. Polio
d. Staphylococcus d. All of the above
55.Infectivity period of chickenpox is: 62. False statement regarding japanese encephalitis is:
March 2009
a. 1 day before and 4 days after appearance of rash March 2010
b. 4 days before and L day after appearance of rash a. lt is caused by flavivirus

c. Only when scab falls b. Transmitted by aedes mosquito
d. Entire incubation period c. Not endemic in India
d. Man is dead-end host
63. KFD is transmitted by:

March 2010 71. Maternal mortality rate is calculated
a. Tick as death of a
woman upto a period of:
b. Sandfli' a. Immediately after delir.ery
Septemher 20Cs
c. Mosquito b. 42 days after delivery

ii
iiiii d. Mite c. 7 da7,s after delivery
64. Tru_e statement regarding poliomyeliti s is:
March 2010 d. 21 days after delivery
a. Poliovirus is resistant to pasteurization
72.Total fertility rate is defined
b. For every clinical case, there may be
as: September 2005
subclinical cases in adults.
1000 a. Number of childrens born to woman
over her
c. Commonly spreads by faeco_oral rorrte
lifetime
d. Most outbreaks of polio are due to type_3 poliovirus b. Number of girl children bom to woman over her
u 65. Hypertension is associated with all of the lifetime
z except:
a. Excess salt
following
March 2010
c. Nurnber of bov children bom to r{roman over
lifetime
her
o) b. Excess exercise d. Number of girl children born to married
o
tg
c. Phaeochromocytoma reproductive age group.
woman in
c1. Obesity
E 66. WHO notifiable disease are all of the
following
73. Eligible couple is defined as: September 2005
Ji a. Married couple vrtth husband inn reproductive
except: age
<. a. Cholera
March 2010 group
ot b. Plague b. Married couple rvith wife in reproductive

oi
oi:
c. Tetanus
d. Yellow fever c.
group
Married couple irrespective of the age
age
group
oi DEMOCRAPHY AND PREVENTIVE
z.i HEALTH 74. Denominator for maternal mortality
rate is:
<: 67. To achieve a NRR of 1, Couple protection
be:
rate should a. 100,000 pregnancies September 2005,2010
lUi a. More than 30%
March 2005 b. 100,000 live births
>; b. More than4}"/o c. 100,000 births
Fi c- More than 50% d. 100,000 population
Z': d. More than 60% 75. Sullivan index denotes:
IJJ i 68. Eligible couple September 2006
>;
IIJ;
is defined as:
a. Married couple with husband age 20_40
March 2005
a. Life expectancy at birth
b. Life expectanry excluding disabilty free period
ui
o-1
b. Married couple with wife uge tS_+S
c-. Married couple irrespective of the
c" Contraceptive failure rate
age group d. Hookworm density in stool
d. Just married
76. Infant Mortality Rate for is:
69. PQLI includes all of the following except Japan March 2007
March 2005 d.L
a. Per capita income
b. Literacy rate
c. Life expectanry at 1 year
c.4
d. Infant Mortality o.5
70" Denominator for calculating infant mortality 77. According to 2001. census the male:female
rate is: ratio [sex
September 2005 ratiol in India was: September 2007
a. 1000 popularion a. 890
b. 1000 births b. 933
c. 1000 live births c. 957
d. 1000 pregnancies d. 978
76.
g,ccording to 2001 census, what was the growth rate 85. Denominatot for calculating perinatal mortality rate
of India: September 2007 is: September 2009
a. 1.03% a. 1000 births
b. 1,.33% b" i000 live births
c. 1.63% c. 1000 still births
d. r.%% d. 1000 population
79. lndia is at which stage of Demographic cycle: 86. Percentage of children of under 4 years of age in
SEtember 2008, March 2009 India is: September 2009
a. High stationary a. 1,0"/o
b. Early stationary
b. 15%
c. Late expanding
c. 20%
d, Low stationary
d. 25o/"
80. t{uman Development Index includes all of the
87. According to WHO guidelines, number of check-
following except: March 2a09, September 2009
ups/antenatal visits for a woman having nonnal
a. Infant mortality
uncomplicated pregnancy is: Septenrber 2009
b. Income
c. literacy rate
a.8
d. Life expectancy at birth
b. 10
81. Which of the following better correlates with
c. 14
O- lf)
Sullivan's index: March 2009
a. InJant mortality rate 88. True statement regarding'at risk babt':
b. Life expectancy at the age ofone September 2009
c. Per capita income a. Birth weight less than 2J5kg

d. Numbers of years lived without disability b. Weight less than 70% of the expected weight
82. Denominator while calculating secondary attack rate c. Birth order more than 3
following a person with a primary disease is: d. Ist degree maL:rutrition
March 2009 89. All of the following are components of the
a. All the contacts who are exposed to the affected Kuppuswamy's scale except: March2070
person a. Education
b. AII the people in his home b. Maternal mortality
c. All the people in his family c. Occupation
d. All the people in his city d. Family income
83. Child-Women ratio is the number of child per: 90. Infant Mortality Rate of India as per 2007 census is:
March 2049 March 2010
a. women
1000 a. 34
b.
1000 married women
b. 44
c. 1000 women in reproductive age c. 54
d. 1000 married women in reproductive age d. 54
84' The number of girls a woman would bear if she
91. As per census 2001, most populous state during 199L-
Passes through her reproductive age with the same
2001 was: March 2005
fertility rate gives: March 2009
a. Tripura
a. Total fertility rate
b. Rajasthan
b. Fertility rate
c. Gross reproductive rate
c. Uttar pradesh
d. Net reprocluctive rate d. Orissa
NUTRITION
92. The upper line in growth chart 99. Differences between human milk
denotes what and cow
percentile of WHO reference standard: all of the followingexcept:
Marclr 2005 ,-:::rf;
a. 50ft percentile a. Cow milk has comparatively more fat
b. 60th percentile b. Con, milk has comparatively more protein
c. 70th percentile c. Cow milk has comparatively more calcium
d. 80th percentile d. Cow milk is iron deficient
93. Exclusive breast feeding is recommended 100. Meals supplied
bv WHO in mid day meals programme
upto: should provide:
March 2005 September
a. 3 months a. 1/2 calories and U2 proteins
2Mj
b. 4 months b. 1/2 calories and 1/3 proterns
UJ; . u;";;; c. l/3 calories and ll2 proteins
Z: d. 9 monrhs
d. 1/3 calories and 1/3 proteins
9 ,n. Dietary fibresJ arE rich rn:
are rrLrr in: It4arch 2005 101. Pellagra is due to deficiency
of: September 2006.200g
6 , "' c.,;; a. Riboflavin
E b. proreogl-vcan
e . c. pectin b. thiamine
c. Niacin
starchd.
<,, nU.In India, percentage
d. pyridoxine
i- 1 of energy from fats should be 102. Fish Iiver oil is the richest source of:
less than: September 2006
6 " a. ru
March 2005,2010 a. Vitamin K
ai b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin D
zi c. 30
d. Vitamin A
<i d. 40
103. Number of calories
llJ { 96.Daily required dose in 100 grams of breast milk
of iron in
i an adult man is: is:
>i March 2005
September 2007
2ii :11-'
-.a
1g
D' u.d mg
a.
b.
c.
45 Kcal
65 Kcal
>i c. 0.9mg 85 Kcal
UI d. 1.0 mg d. 105 Kcal

104. Amount of proteins in human milk (in
gms):
September 2a0S September 2007

a" 3 months a" 1.1
b. 6 months b. 2.2
c. 9 months ^
L.
aa
J.J
d. 12 months d. 4.4
98. Toxin responsible for epidemic dropsy 105. Vitamin A prophylaxis is given to
is: children every:
September 2005 Septetnber 2007
a. BOAA a" 3 months
b. Sanguinarine b. 6 months
c. Pyrrolizidine c. 12 months
d" Ergots d" lB months
10f. WHO defines BMI of the malnourished as: 113. When milk is taken before meal which of the
March 2oo8 following element's absorption is decreased:
a. Berow kgm2 March 2009
'g a.
b. Below 18.5 kglm2 Calciurn
c. Below 19kglm2 b. Iron
d. below 19.5 kglm2 c. Phosphorous
107. Folic acid requirement during lactation is: d. Magnesium
September 2A08
1"14. Best indicator for monitoring the effectiveness of
a. 100 microgram/day iodine deficiency controi programme is:

b. 150 microgramlday September 2C09
c. 200 microgram/day
a. Neonatalirypoti'ryroidism
d. 250 microgramlday
b. Hy'pothyroidism in male population Tt ,
c. Hypothyroidism in female populatior.r N .

108. Recommended initial dose of Vitamin " A" fot
cl.
Size of goitror-rs lesion 'Il'!
prophylaxis in a 9 month old child is: September 2008
115. How many gram of protein is given in mid day meal
a. 4,00,000I.U f;
scheme: March 2410 ';,f
b. 5.00.000I.u
a. 4-8 gram t.{
c. 1,00.000 LU
d. 2.00.000I.u.
b. 8-12 gram
c. 72-L6 gram
l'1
xm
109. A patient of total parenteral nutrition develops d. r6-20gtam t>
delayed wound healing loss of taste, deficient 115. Extra calories required during pregnancy state is: y,Z
immunity and diarrhoea. Most probably it could be ,orrP 2g1g{Et
due to deficiency of: September 2008 a. 100 kcal/day lra
a. Selenium b. 200 kcal/day to
t:O
b. Copper c. 300 kcal/day
c. Zinc d. 400 kcal/day

iF
d. Iron 117. Deficiency of zinc causes all of the follon'ing except: lr
1.10. Calories required by one year old child is:
a.
Growth retardation
NIarch 2010
i=
im
a. 92kcallkglday
September 2A08
b.
SexuaI infantilism lu
:lr.-
b" 102 kcafkg/day

c.
Alopecia
d.
Immunologicaldisturbances
{o
c. ll2kcallkglday
118. Vitamin K is required for- March 2005
irZ
d. l,22kcallkglday 1m
a. Chelation :'a.
111. 1st symptom of vitamin A deficiency: March 20A9 b. Transamination

a. Conjunctivalxerosis c. Carboxylation
b. Bitot's spots d. none ofthe above
c. Night blindness 119, Under National Programme for Prevention of
d. Corneal ulcer Nutritional Blindness, a child in the age group of 6-
1L2. Vitamin not present in breast milk: March 2009 1.1 months is given a single dose of vitamin A is:
a. Vitamin A March 2005
b" Vitamin B ' a. 50,000 IU
c. Vitamin C b. 1.00.000IU
d. VitaminD c. 1,50,000 IU
d. 2,00.000 ru
.'...''
:--*
-
120. Which of the following vitamin may have an anti d. 4.5 gramsilitre
infective action: StVtember 2005 127. Depth of water seal in I{CA sanitary latrine of India
a. VitaminK
March 20A7
b. Vitamin D a. 10 mm
c. VitaminA b. 20 mm
d. Vitamin E c. 30 mm
121. All of the following are antioxidant except: d. 40 mm
September 2005 128. Amount of free residual chlorine in
a. Vitamin A
drinking water: September 2007, March 2010
b. Vitamin B
a. 0.1 mg,{-
c. Vitamin C
b.
UJ 0.5 mg/L
z d. \/itamin E
c. 1.0 mg,4-
q 122. Thiamine deficiency may be seen
following except:
in all of the
d. 1.5 mg/L
o a. Homocystinemia
March 2009
129. Amount of chlorine needed to kill cyclops in
IJJ
b. Chronic alcoholism
drinking water is: Selttenrber 2007
c. a. 3 ppm
=
J Heart failure patients on diureiics
b. 4pp*
d. Starvation
123. Which of the following is false regarding
c. 5 pp-
C) d. 6pp*
o
U'
acrodermatitis enteropathica:
a. Low serum zinc levels
L30. Guideline value for drinking water is:
o b. Triad of diarrhea, dementia and dermatitis September 2007
z c.
d.
Autosomal recessive condition
None of the above
a.
b.
1 coliforms per 100 ml
10 coliforms per 1000 ml
IIJ 124. Wernicke's encephalopathy results due to deficiency c. Zero coliforms per 100 ml
of: March 2a10, September 2010
d. 100 coliforms in 10,000 ml
F a" Thiamine 131. Which of the following is false regarding respirable

z
uJ
b. Niacin dust; March2010
c. Pantothenic acid a. May lead to pneumoconiosis
ul d" Cyanocobalamin b. Smaller than 5 microns is respirable
to- ENVIRONMENT AND SANITATION
c.
d.
Silicosis is the most common dust disease
Soluble dust remains in the lungs for a long time
125. In ORS, the effect of glucose on sodium absorption
132. Recommended flouride concentration in water to
ls: September 2005
prevent caries is:
a. Increase in sodium absorption March 20L0
b. Decrease in sodium absorption

a.0
c. Variable effect on sodium absorption
b. 0.5 ppm
d. No effect on sodium absorption c. lppm
126. Sodium content in reduced osmolarity ORS is: d. 1.5 ppm
133. Nitrates in drinking water indicates: September 2005
september 2006
a. 1.5 gramslliire - a" Remote faecal pollution
b" 2.5 grams/litre b. Recent faecal pollution
c" 3.5 grams/litre c. Unpolluted water
d. Water fit for drinking
f4. The acceptable noise level that can be tolerated 141. All were the goals for National health policy 2002
wiihout any damage to hearing is: Mnrch 2009 except: Septemher 2009
;.,1;:;i,aa
a. 85 dB
a. F-,lirninate lymphatic filariasis b1, 2015 :r]ri'.it::.:.5
, . j.i
b. 90 dB
b. Eliminate Kala-azar by 2010 '.: ::.':
.,--.:-:
c. Eliminate HIV by 2015 ,, .i:
c. 95 dB
d. Eliminate leprosy by 2005
d. 100 dB
L42. Rural population under one primary health centre
NATIONAL POLICIES AND HEALTH CARE
in plain areas in India is: SEtember 2049
135. Who should be trained in a community for house to
a. 10,000
,
house surveys: March 2005
b. 20,000
.ii
a. Multipurpose worker
b. Volunteer
c. 30,000
d. rT
c.
d.
Flealth educator
Health guide
1,20,000
143. True about Minimum development goals is:
fim
136. Community health centre covers a population of: SeptenLter 2009
''<
,'m
March 2005, St'ptenfuer 2009 a. 'fotal of 15 goals harre to be acl-rieved :.2
a.
b.
10,000-30,000
30.000-60.000
b.
c.
Targets to be achieved by 2015
Policy of Indian govemirent
i<
;l
c. 60,000-80,000 d. Concerned only rvith the provision of primary im
d. 80,000-1,20,000
health care r>
137. National rural health mission is staded by prime
144. All of the following are present in a subcentre i.z
minister in:
a. 2003
September 2007
except: September 2009 ig
':ut
b.
c.
2004
2005
a.
b.
Multipurpose worker male
Multipurpose worker female
io
,Q
d. 2006 c. Medical officer
:F
138. A primary health care center should provide all d. Volunteer worker ;r
except:
a.
September 2007 L45. A health guide works at: September 2009 t=
Treatment of common diseases a" Each village level im
b.
c.
Specialisedsurgeries
Immunization
b. Sub centre level i9
d. Family planning services
c.
d.
PHC level
CHC ievel
te
i:Z
139. Which of the following is posted at a subcentre:
146. Which of the following is incorrect about ASHA: am
March 2008
a. Voluntary worker September 2009 lt''.
iiri*1:.
b. Anganwadi workers a. 1 ASHA worker per 1000 popuiation
c. Trained dai b. Resident of local community
d. Health guide c" She must be educated till 4th class
140. Which of the following committee proposed the d. 25-45 years of age
concept of primary health centre in India:
147. Death needs to be registered within: September 2009
March 2008
a. 4 days
a. Mukerji committee
b. 7 d,ays
b. Bhore committee
c. Kartar singh committee
c. 10 days
d. Mudaliar committee d. 14 days

148. Which of the following is not a part of duties of 154. Weight of 9 students of a class is as
follows _ 22,24,
anganwadi worker: March 2070 76,72,76,78,80,73 and.72. What is the mode:
a. Immunization
March
":.
''.
b. Health check-ups a. 72
c. Conductingdeliveries b. 74
d. Supplementarynutrition c. 76
149. Number of beds in a CHC is:

d. 78
March 2010
155. Standard deviation is defined as:
a. 20 March
b. 30
a. Value of middle observation when data
c. 40 arranged in ascending order.
d. 50
b. Arithmetic mean
c.
zuJ 150. Kartar singh committee recommendations are Dispersion of values about the mean
related to:
ct. Most frequently occtrrring value
() a. No private practice
March 2()10
156. Significant value of "p,' is: Nlarch 201A
o
llJ ,'
b. Measrrres to improve effectiveness of National a.
b.
0.01
0.02
Malaria Eradication programme
c. Framework of health services at peripheral level c. 0.04 i
J=r d. Concept of primary health care d. 0.05
{i 151. Which of the following is a duty of multipurpose 157. All of the following are measures of dispersion
o; worker male: Except:
o:
U):
a.
March 2010
He will visit schools at regular intervai in the a. Mean Deviation
September
PHC b. Mode
o:
!.
b.
Organizes staff meetings c. Range
2,, d.
(i c.
Regularly visit to every house in his area
d.
Attends patients in the OpD
Standard deviation
158. Percentage of a data can be depicted
rJi 152. As per RCH, which of the following
on a:
)i is the first
a.
September 20ffi
F; referral unit: September 2009

b.
Pie chart
zt; a. Subcentre Bar diagram

UJr b. Primary health centre c. Histogram
)i c. Community health centre d. Graph
UJ:
E,: d. Medical college hospital 159. A continuous quantitative data can be depicted with :
O-i BIOSTATISTICS
the help of- Sept 2009
;j a. Bar diagram
153" Considering the table given below, odds ratio can
b. Pie chart
be calculated as: September 2008 c. Histogram
d. Pictogram
MISCELLANEOUS
160" Most important factor which decides the results of a
randomized controlled trial is: March 2005
a. AB/CD a. Inclusion of all age groups
b. ACEO b. 50% treated with placebo and 50% witll drugs
c. AD/BC c. 100% follorv up
d, BDiAC d. Effectiverandomization
Self Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screenino Examination
Socially acquired behavior is known as: 169. To facilitate the screening of visual-acuity, WHO
161.
March 2005, Septentber 2010 defines blindness as counting fingers at a distance
of: S4ttembcr 2006A Septeruber 20L0
a. Culture
a. 1 metre
b. Socialization
b. 3 rnetres
c. Internalization
c. 6 metres
d. Custom d. 9 metres
162. Temporary contraceptive method of choice in a37 yr 170. Human anatomical waste is put in: March 2007
well educated, normal woman is: March 2005 a. Yellow
a. Diaphragm b. Red
b. IUCD c. Blue
c. N{ala-D d. Biack
d. Mala-N
Df)T is: T
L63. Best protection from STD and Syphilis is bv:
171. True regarding
a Svntlielicinst'cticiclc
Sclttt'trt|ttr 21t07
n
m
Mnrch 2005
b. Natural insecticide
a. IUCD
c. Organophosphateirrsecticide m
b. Condom
d. No incidence of resistance .'2
c. OCP i=
172,ln a faclory, sickness absenteeism predicts:
d. Tubectomy '.:<
Septetnber 2007
164. Comparing cost of 2 sfudies and choosing the one
a. Relationship between employee and employer
im
which is economically superior to others is done by:
March 2005
b. Working environment i>
a:z
c.
a.
b.
Cost accounting
Cost benefit
d.
Managerial control
State of health of workers
is
itcn
c.
d.
System analysis
Netn'ork analysis
173.Kata thermometer is used to measure: September 2A07
a. Air pressure ;o
|'O
b. Degree of hotness in air
165. Condoms are more preferred because:
a. Reduced failure rates
September 2005
c. Air cooling power i>l-
b. d. Air density r:
c.
Easily available
Reduced side efffects
174.Trse regarding malathion are all of the following i=
d. Easy to use
except: March 2008 im
is: a. Used as a spray lEl
156. Natural method of contraception
a. Rhythm method
September 2005
b. Can be used as an altemative to DDT i6
b. Coitus interruptus c. Most toxic of all members of the group i=
c. d. Belongs to organophosphorous insecticides ..lrl
Breast feeding
175. Sickness benefit under ESI Act is payable for how
d. A1l of the above
many days in a year: March &. Septcmber 2008
167. First step in investigating an epidemic is:
a. 71 days
Septenfuer 2005
b. 81 days
a. Confirmation of the diagnosis c. 91 days
b. Isolation d. 101 days
c. Mass immunization
176.Target forwater supply in rural areas of India is:
d. Verification of the diagnosis
Septentber 2008
168. Triage in casuality is done for: September 2006
a. Prevention of such casualities a. 30 litres per capita per day
b. Treating patients b. 40 litres per capita per dav
c. Case segregation c. 50 litres per capita per day
d. Predicting after effects of casuality d. 60 litres per capita per day

777' Agroup of experts discussing

a topic in front of the
audience without any specific
d. HIV drug trial
order. This mode of 185. When someone
communication is known as: iltegally harms property., body
St1rtt,,,Lr, ,OOt or
someone,s reputation, it is
a. Panel discussion known as:
b. Group discussion a. Assault
Septentber
c.
Team presentation b. Civil Injury
d.
Symposium c. Hurt
1.78. Benefits of cost benefit
analysis of a programme are d. Wound
measured in terms of: 186. WHO guidelines for
Septenfuer 200g minimal sperm count is:
a" Number of lives saved
rii b. lr4onetary gains
a.
SeTttentber 2007
c.
Compariscn of alternati_res 10 million/ml
UJ d. b.
z Sequence of actrons
179. As per the school health
committee
c.
20 miltion/ml
50 million/ml
E recommendation, medical examination d. 60 million/ml

of school
o
IIJ
children should be done every:
a 1 Year
March 2009
187. Essential health care
made universally accessible
to
individuals and acceptable to them
b. 2vear is called:
c.
J= d.
3 year
4year
a. Essential heaiTh care
September 200g
S, 180. Which of the following can be eliminated by double b. Primary health care
Oi blinding: c. Community health care
o: a. Berkensonian bias March 2009 d. Social rnedicine
v),:, b. Recall bias 188. Anti tobacco day is:
ol c. Interviewer,s bias
d. Selection bias
a. lMay
September 2009
Zt b. 15 May
(, 181. In disaster situation, how many
colour codes are c. 25May
ltJ; used for triage: september 2oog d. 31May
>.: a. 1 189. Process by which an
b.2 individual gradually acquires
Fi
zl
UI:
L.J
culture and becomes
known as:
a member of a social group is
teptenrber 20a9
)r 182. Ratio of doors and windows
to the floor for a a. Intemalisatio.,
lIJ. classroom should be at least: b. Acculturation
t',
[]
a.
b.
20%
September 2009
c. Socialization
25% d. Custom
c. 30%
190. The critical path method
d. 35% in health planning and
183. Bhopal gas tragedy of management is:
India is an example of March2010
a. Shortest time taken to complete the project
March2010 b. Longest path taken to complete the
Multiple exposure epidemic
-"
b. Propagated epidemic c. Mid-point for reviewing the proiect iroyect
c. Point source epidemic d. None of the above
d. Slow epidemic 191. Which phase of clinical trial involves
184. Which of the following is normal human
not included in phase I Volunteers: March
clinical trial of medicine: 2010
a. Healthy volunteers March 2007 a. phase 0

b. Patient with end stage disease b. Phase I
c. Epilepsy patients L. rnase ll
d. Phase III
**o.*,ffiXffi***
EAR, NOSE AND THROAT (ENT)
EAR
(euestiorJ
1. Hyperacusis is seen in all of the following 8. Unilateral conductive hearing loss
in a patient with
except: history of head injury. On examinatlo.r,
ty*pur.i.
March 2007 membrane is normal and mobile.The
a. Exposr-rre to loud sounds cause for
deafness could be:
b. Otosclerosis a. Collection of fluid in the middle ear
septenber 20ag
c. Meniere's disease b. Otosclerosis
d. Severe head injury c. Dislocation of the incudostapediai joint
2. Menieres disease is characterized d. ASOM
by the triad of
9. Most comtnon cause of chronic ear
MLtrclt 2()08 infection in India is:
a. Lleafness, nvstagmus, tremors Septentlter 2a09
b. Deafness, vertigo, nysragmus a. Svphilitic otitis media
c. Deafiress, tinnitus, t ertigo b. TB otitis media
d. Deafness, tremors, tinnifus c. CSOM
3' The first clinical presentation
d. Fungal otitis merdia
of acoustic neuroma is 10. Referred pain in the ear is commonly
feature of: from:
Septenfuer 200g
a. Brainstem involvement Septentber 200g
a. Maxillary carcinom;
b. Cerebellar involvement b. Nasopharyng"ul
c. Faciai nerve! involvement c. Carcinoma tongue"uJ.i.,o*u
d. Cochleovestibular symptoms d. Malignant otitis externa
4. Most common cause of conductive 11. Tuning fork frequency used for
deafness in testing is:
children less than 12yrs:
March 2009 Septentber 2009
a. CSOM a. 572H2
b. Otosclerosis b. 1048 Hz
c. furous otitis media c^ 248H2
d. Atresia of auditory canals on both d. All of the above
sides
5. Negative Rhinne,s test for 256 Hztuning fork 12. Calorie test based on thermal
stimulation of which
indicates a minimum air_bone part of the semi circular canals:
gap of Marclt 2009 Scptenfuer 2009,2A10
a. 1OdB a. Lateral
b. 15dB b" Posterior
c. 20dB c" Anterior
d. AII of the above
d. 25dB
13. AII of the following are true about glomus_jugulare
6. Cauliflower ear seen in:
March 2009 tumor except: March)010, Septerfuer 2010
si
Fll
a. Hematoma of the auricle a. Commonly metastasizes to lymph nodes
.* b. Carcinoma of the auricle b. Pulsatile tinnifus and conductiro d"uf.,er,
c. Fungal infection of the auricle ,"".,
€ c. Most commoniv affects male
#
,€sj
d. Congenital cleformity d. Paraganglioma,s
7. Causative organism for malignant
otitis externa is: NOSE
ffi
i.2.7
VE Septentber 2009 14. CSF rhinorrhoea is due to the fracture
Hemophilus of which of the
ae.
a"
following March 2aog
trr b. Staphyiococcus a. Nasal bones
{i
F]:;
c. Streptococcus b. Cribriform plaie
t1:
u- Pseudomonas c. Temporal trone
t:'-'.
d. Maxiliary bone
z::a
a.:a:
,',,
.::
is done for: March 2009 19.One of the most important complication of li$i
6.Youn8's :l"t:ltii
rnrruns tracheostomy is: SePf ember 2008 i;;l;
a. AiroPhtc
a. Surgical emPhYsema
b. Vasomotor rhinitis
b. Hemorrhage
c. Antrachonal PoIYP
' Allergic rhinitis c. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
d.
polyp: d. Displacement of tube
Treatment of choice for antrochoanal
20. Stridor in an infant is most commonly due to:
16.
SePtenfuer 2009
March 20L0
a. IntranasalPolYPectomY
a. Diphtheria
b. Caldwell-Luc oPeration
b. Acute ePiglottitis
c. EndoscoPic sinus surgery
d. Intranasal ethmoidectomY
c. Foreign bodY asPiration
following is associated with olfactory d. Laryngomalacia
17. Which of the :m
nerve dysfunction: Mnrch 2010 MISCELLANEOUS
a. Dorvn syndrome
b. Tumer s)'ndrome
21. Paralysis of which muscle lead to hyperacusis in Bell's
palsy: Septcmber 2008 ?
.,2
c. Parkinst tn disease a. Tensor veli Palatini
d. Marfan sYndrome b. Levator Palatini 10
c. Stapedius ;CN
lHROAT
d. Stemocleidomastoid :.m
18.All of the following are true regarding tracheostomy
fube excePt: September 2008 22. florner's syndrome is caused by: March 2009 i>
i:Z
a. Double lumen tube a. Facial injurY
b. Made of titanium silver alloY b. Nasopha4mgeal carcinoma with metastasis i(]
c. Cuffed tube prevents aspiration of pharyngeal c. Meniere's disease i+
i-
secretions d. All of the above
d. Ideally should be changed every 3'd day
?n
:o
:>
l{
:;.
:rn
tz
l-l
i
:::i|: t
s6,!f AssEsslvrErv"g
irurcEzMcr SCRE.rNTNG
OPHTHALMOLO Gy (euestions)
OPHTHALMOLOGY ANATOMY
-1. 9. The normal pH of tears is:
Maximum cones arc secn in: March 2005 a. 6.0
a. Limbus D. b.5
b. Fovea centralis c.7.0
c. Macula lutea
d. Blind spot
10. Power of normal eye is: September
2. Superior oblique muscle is supplied by: March 2005 a. +6D
a. Third cranial nerve
b. +10D
b. Fourth cranial nerve
c. +16D
c. Fifth cranial nerve
d. +60 D
d. Sixth cranial nerve
3. Axial length of eye ball is: Mnrclt 2005 OPHTHALMOLOCY PROCEDURES
a. 16 mm 11. In direct ophthalmoscopy, image is magnified by:
b. 20 mm March2ffiS
c. 24 mm a. 5 times
d. 28 mm b. 10 times
4. 1mm change in the axial length of the eyeball c. i 5 times
prodtrces a change in refractive index by: March 2a0S d. 20 times
a. 1D 12. All are true regarding direct ophthalmoscopy except :
b. 2D
March
c. 3D a. Image is erect
d. 4D b. Magnification is more than indirect
5. Blind spot of Mariotte is also known as: March 2007 ophthalmoscopy
a. Optic disc c. Wide area of fundus with least magnification ca"Ui
b. Ora serrata seen in hypermetropics
.
c. Macula d. It has a large field of view. ,j
d. Fovea
6. Depth of anterior chamber of the eye: March 2007
13. Isochromatic charts are used fon March 2Mg,:.
a. Contrast sensitivity : j
a. 2-3 mm b. Testing colour vision
b. 3-4 mm c. Visual fields charting
c. 4-5 mm d. Visual acuity testing
d. 5-6 mm
14. True regarding retinoscopy are all of the following
7. If the length of eyeball increases by I mm. The net except: September21N;
effect will be: September 2007 a. Helps in estimating the condition of the refraction "l
a. Myopia of 6D b. Usually performed at 1 m distance l
b. Hypermetropia of 6D c. Consists of a plane and a concave mirror

c. Myopia of 3D
d. Hyperopes display an,,against,, movement ,
d. Hypermetropia of 3D
15. Which of the following is the most reliable
8. Eye structure with maximum refractive power: provocative test for angle closure glaucoma: .:
March 20a7
SePtember 20il5
Anterior surface of lens
a. Water drinking test
b. Posterior surface of lens
b. Mydriatic-miotic test r
c. Anterior surface of cornea

c. Homatropine mydriatic test
A Posterior surface of cornea
d. Dark room test
15. Initial manoeuver done in congenital dacryocystitis: 22. All of the following drugs are associated with corneal
Saptember 2007 deposition except: September 2009
a. Probing a. Chloroquine
b. Massaging b. Amiodarone
c. Ointments
c. Quinacrine
d. Antimony
d. Observation
CONJUNCTIVA
OPHTHALMOLOGY PHARMACOLOGY 23. Herbert's pit is seen in: September 2006
17. Which of the following is not an antiglaucoma drug: a. Vernal conjunctivitis
September 2006 b. Atopic conjunctivitis
a. Brimonidine c. Gonococcal conjunctir,'itis
b. Prednisolone d. Chlamydial conjunctivitis
24. Xerosis is seen in: Septentbcr 2006
c. Dorzolamide
a. Vitamin A dc'ficiency
cl. Timolol
b. Vitamin B deficiency
18. The drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis in c. Vitamin C deficiency
HIV patients: Marclt 2007 d. Vitamin D deficiency
a. Aryclovir 25. Arlt's line is seen in: Marclr 2007 o
,Tl
b. Ganciclovir a. Ophthalmia neonarorum
b. Trachoma +
!-
c. Ribavarin
d. Vidarabine
c. Angular conjunctivitis ,,I
!{
19. Which of the following drug can be used topically in

d.
Vernal catarrh ;>
26. Conjunctival xerosis is seen in all of the following .l-
eye: September 2007 except: March 2008 ;=
a.
b.
Erythromycin
Ganciclovir
a.
b.
Steven-Johnson syndrome
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
o
:l-
c. Clindamycin c.
d.
Vitamin A deficiency
Sarcoidosis
io
rO
d. Tetracyclines
20. 1% atropine is givenin uveitis to: March 2010
27. Xerophthalmia can be caused by: March 2010 .<
a. Steven-Johnsons).ndrome
a. Cause mydriasis and prevent formation of anterior
b. Vitamin A deficiency
slmecnlae c. Suifa drugs
b. Cause miosis and prevent formation of posterior d. All of the above
synechiae 28. Which of the following virus does not cause
c. Cause mydriasis and prevent formation of posterior conjunctivitis: March 2010
slmechiae a. CMV
d. Cause miosis and prevent formation of posterior b. Adenovirus
synechiae
c. Herpes simplex virus
d.
Picornavirus
21. Pilocarpine is used in all of the following except:
29. Trachoma can cause all of the following except:
September 2006 March 2005
a. Primary, Open Angle Glaucoma a. Loss of vision
b" Malignant Glaucoma b. Clouding of the cornea
c. Acute Angle Closure Glaucoma c. Trichiasis
d" Chronic Synechial Angle Closure Glaucoma d. Enopthalmos
Ophthalmotogy
30. Epithelial lining of conjunctiva is: It4arch 2009 38. Normal endothelial cell density
a. Squamouskeratinized fper mm squarej in
b. Pseudo-stratified cornea to maintain transparency is: Septenilter 2gg7r,,,i
c. Cuboidai a. -100
d. Stratified non-keratinized b. 400
CORNEA c. 500
31. Diagnostic test for corneal ulcer:
March 2005
cl. 600
a. rnethlzlgns blgg 39" Refractive index of cornea is: Septentber
b. Sodium fluorescein dye 2|0(t7
7.28
c. Alcian l,.lue
d. Rose Bengal 1.38
32. Interstitial keratitis is commonly seen in: hla,-ctt 20()5

1.48
a. Fuirgal keratitis 1.58
b. Congeniial svphilis 40. True about corneal opacity are all except:
c. I)irlyctc.nular keratitis
d" Trachorna a. Anttrior siaplll,ie*o has iris tissr_rc
33. Dendritic ulcer is seen in: n'ithin tire scar tissue

Mnrclt 2005, 2()07
a. Fung;-rl keratitis b. Healing of a perforated corneal
C,
o
J,
b. Clilamydial keratitis
c. Herpes zoster keratitis c.
formation of aclhe?ent leucoma
A strictly ktcalized dense leucorna interferes
o 34.
d. Herpes simplex keratitis
True about keratoconus are all of the following except:
than a thin,diffuse nebula covering the papillary area.
mcre
d. Some opacities may persists despite destruction

J,
=' Septenfuer 2005 of
a. Can be seen in Dortn,s syndrome Bowman's membrane
t
F
b. It manifests just after birih
c. Munson sign is characteristic
41. Neurotrophic keratitis involves which nerve:
- d. Corneal transplantation is needed

in severc. cases.
September 20A8 :,!.,.
o- 35. Corneal lesion seen in Hutchinson triad Trochlear

o with congenital syphilis is:
associated
Septentber 2006
Trigeminai
a. Disciform keratitis c Abducens
b. Interstitial keratitis d Facial
c.
Phylectenular keratitis
42. Treatment for dendritic ulcer includes all except:
d.
Mooren ulcer
36. True about Fuchs endothelial dystrophy Mnrch 2aA9
are all except:
Septenfuer 2006 Penetrati ng kera toplastl'
a. Cornmonly seen in the elderly female b
b. Svmmetrical and unilateral condition c.
c. Comea guttatae is characteristic
d. Iratient tl,picallv complains of seeing
ADebridement of the edges of the uicer
halos in the
morning 43. Acute corneal hydrops is seen in: Selttentber 200g
37" True about Moorens ulcer: Mnrch 2007 Cornael dystrophy
a. Painless condition Anterior staphyloma
b. Affects cornea
Interstitial keartitis
c. Sudden loss of vision
d. Bilateral in majoritv of cases Keratoconus
51. Most serious complication seen in other eye after

44. Nerve involved in exposure keratopathy:
traumatic iniurY to one eYe:
SePtenfuer 2009
Marclt 2005, SePtember 2008
a. Third cranial nerve a. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
b. Fifth cranial nerve b. Corneal edema
c. Seventh cranial nerve c. Sympathetic oPhthalmia
d. Ninth cranial nerve d. Sudden loss of vision
Posterior staphyloma is seen in: September 2005
Cornea gets its nourishment mainly from:
52.
45.
SePtentber 2009
a. MyoPia
b. HypermetroPia
a. AtmosPhere c. Astigtratrsm
b. Aqueous humour d. PresbYoPia
c. Vitrcous humotrr 53. Follorving anatomical changes predisposes to angle
d. Corneal vessels Nlnrdt 2A()7
closure glaucoma excePt:
46. In Lon'e syndrome, all of the following are seen
except: Sclttenrber 2407 a. Smali cornea
a. Undescended testes in males b. Flat cornea
b. Cataract c. Anterior chamber shallower O
c. H;'Pertonia d. Short axial length of eYebal , 3
d. Low IQ 54. Structure commonly involved in sympathetic ,
47. Initial treatment for perforated corneal ulcer is: ophthalmia: Mnrch 2007 j
March 2009 a. Cornea
=
,>
a. Conjuctival flaP grafting b. Lens i:l-
b. Tissue adhesive glue
c. Contact lens
c. Optic nerve i=
io
d. Iris and ciliary bodY
d. Local anesthetics drops instillation Which of the following is painless condition:
Which of the following is not true regarding fungal
55. F
48. $nttmbt - Y
r" " "- -"2007'
corneal ulcen March 2009
uveities O
a. Anterior diffuse
i<
a. ConvexhypoPyon uveities
b. Commonly perforates
b. Anterior nodular
c. Hyphate margins c. Posterior uveitis l
d. Satellite lesions are seen d" IridocYclitis i

56. In angle closure glaucoma, obstruction to outflow
of
UVEAL TRACT AND CLAUCOMA to the involvement of:
aqueous humour mainly due
49. Anterior uveitis is most commonly associated with: Seulenfuer 2007
March 2005
a. Canal of schlemm
a. HLA DR4
b. HLA D27
c. HLA 84
b. Trabecular meshwork
c. Iris
tu
d. Scleral venous Plexus
d. HLA B 27
57. True about open angle glaucoma ale all except:
50. Definitive managenment in primary angle closure
March 2008
glaucoma: Marclt 2005
a. Trabeculectomy a. Open anterior chamber angle
b. Surgical iridectomY b. Frequcnt change in presbyopic correction
c. Laser iridotomy c RaPid visi'.-,n loss
cl. Pilocarpine d. Cornrnonest form of glaucoma ,,,..ji
Ophthalmology
58. True about angle recession glaucoma are all except:

65. Anterior uveitis is commonly associated with:
September 2009
Septe-mber 20Ag
a. \,tiosis is commonly seen
a. Psoriasis
b. 'iears of the iris sphincter and ciliary body
b. Reactive arthritis
c. Angle recession more than 1g0 degree
c. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. Secondary open angle glaucoma
d. All of the above
59. Which of the following is seen in iridodialysis:
September 2009
LENS :
a. Biocular diplopia 66. Which of the following subfypes of cataract is the ]i
b. Degenerative condition most common cause of visual morbidity: Nlarch

2005
c. Iris is torn ar,t,ay from its ciliary attachment a. Senile
d. Normal pupil b. Congenital
60. Prostaglandin used in the management of glaucoma: c. Traumatic
cl. Drug toxicity
Septeniber 2009
a. Bimatoprost 0.03% 67. Ideal site for intraocular lens implantation is:
b. Travoprost0.004% March 2005, September 2006 & 2009
c. Latanoprost 0.005% a. Subcomeal
(,, d. Ali b. Capsular bag '
o,
J 61.
of the above
HLA testing aids in the diagnosis of which ocular c. Anterior to the pupil
oi :
affection: March 2010
d. Anterior chamber
l:
J.:
a. Conjunctivitis
b. Uveitis
68. Rosette shaped cataract
a. Senile cataract
in March 2005,2N7 |
<: c. Retinitis b. Diabetic cataract

E,r d. Viteous hemorrhage c. Traumatic cataract
F.i 62. Neovascular d. After cataract
t:
O-,. a.
glaucoma is
CRVO
caused by: March 201-0
69. What is the magnitude of magnification when
oj ,1
b. CRAO
c. Diabetes mellitus
refractive correction of aphakia is done with contact
lens: September 2006
d. All of the above a. 1.-2"h
63. Very high intraocular pressure, vertically oval mid_ b. 8%
dilated pupil and shallow anterior chamber is seen in: c. 20-30%
d. More than 50%
March 2A10
a. Primary open angle glaucoma 70. Most common cause of blindness in India is:
b. Acute primary angle closure glaucoma September 2006
c. Malignant glaucoma a. Glaucoma
d. Pupillary block glaucoma b. Cataract
64. Hundred day glaucoma is associated with: c. Trachoma
d. Vitamin A deficiency
September 2006
a. Neovascular glaucoma 71. Sunflower cataract is seen in: March, Septenrber 2007
b. CRAO a. Trauma
c. CRVO b. Diabetes
d. Steroid-related glaucoma c. Chalcosis
d. HIV
lentis is seen in all of the following except: 80. Correct statement regarding Coats disease:
T2.Ectopia
March 2007 March 2007
a. Marfan's syndrome a. Unilateral

|. Homocystinuria b. Presents in fourth to fifth deacde
c. Weil-Marchesanislmdrome c. Sudden loss of vision
d. Down s1'ndrome d. Hereditary in nafure
73. Most common cause of cataract is: March 2007 81. Characteristic feature of diabetic retinopathy:
a. Trauma September 2005,2010 March 2007
b. DM a. Hard exudate
c. Age related b. Soft exudate
d. HereditarY c. Ambylopia t!
74, Which of the following is most irnportant factor for d. Microaneurysm
refractive en:ors: Mnrch 2007
82. Roth's spot are seen in: LLnrclt 2007
a. Lens a. SABE
b. Vitreous hemorrhage b. Trauma
c. Aqueous humour c. Hypertension
d. Axial eyeball length d. Trachoma
75. In extra-capsular cataract surgery [ECCE], which part
83. Cotton wool spots are commonly seen in: March 2007 ro
of the lens is excised: September 2008
a. HIV ]T
a. Anterior capsule
b. Diabetes Mellitus i-
b. Posterior capsule 1{
c. Nucleus
c. Hypertension ;I
d. \ltrhole lens
d. All of the above i>
Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of l-
76. Snowflake cataract is associated with: September 2008 84. ti
a. Hypertension retinal detachment: March 2008 ;=

b. Adult diabetes a. Feeling of curtain obscuring their field of vision :o
f
c. Trauma b. Fioaters :,:
d. fuvenile diabetes c. Photopsia io

77. Intumescent cataract is associated with which fype of d.
Fall in visual acuity ;o
glaucoma: September 2009 85. Rubeosis iridis is not seen in: Septemher 2008 ,:<
a.
Phacolytic glaucoma a. CRVO t
b.
Phacomorphinc glaucoma b. Diabetic retinoPat\
c.
Phacotopic glaucoma c. Hypertensive retinoPathY i
d.
Pseudophakic glaucoma d. Ocular ischemic syndrome .::
78. Diabetic cataract is due to accumulation of: 86. Most common eye pathology in toxoplasma infection ri
March 2009 is: Marclt 2009

a. Fructose a. Corneal ulcer
b. Galactose b. Retinochoroiditis
c. Glucose c. Uveitis
d. Sorbitol d. Cataract
RETINA 87. Chodoretinitis is commonly caused by all of the
Following excePt: March 2009
79. Tractional retinal detachment is seen in: March 2005
a. Myopia a. CryPtococcosis
b. DM retinopathy b. Onchocerciasis
c. Trauma c. Cytomegalovims infection
d. Vitreous loss after Surgery d. Toxoplasmosis
Ophthalmology
88. True regarding photoretinitis are all of the following 95. Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes in microscopy is
seen
except: Marclt 2009 in: c-.-a-. ,
Septentlser
a. No effective treatment a. Retinitispigmentosa
b. Caused by ultravio)et rays b. Trauma
c. Caused by infrared rays c. Retinoblastoma
d.
Complete recovery is possible d" Neuroblastoma
89. Retinal tear is associated with which degeneration: 96. Most common malignant eyelid tumour is:
March 201A September 2@
a. Equatorial drusen a. Melanoma
b. Reticular pigmeniary degeneration b. Retinoblastoma
c. Paving stone degeneration c. Neuroblas'roma
d. Lattice retjnal degeneration d. Basal cell carcinoma
90. All of the following are seen in retinitis pigmentosa 97. All of the following childhood tumours cause
except: Septetrher 2009 proptosis except: Septentber 200g
a. Prominent retinal vessels a. Iletinoblastoma
b. Ring scotoma b. Metastatic neuroblastoma
c. Rhabdomyoru..oriu
o c. Pigmentation around the retinal veins
o
J 91.
d. Pale disc
Vision loss in HIV is commonly due to infection with: 98.
d. Leukemia
White pupillary reflex is seen in:
o March 2005
a. Retrolental fibroplasia
b. Complete retinal detachment
a. Herpes virus
J= b. Toxocara c. Retinoblastoma
c. Toxoplasma d. All of the above
I
F d. Cytomegalovirus MISCELLANEOUS
I- 92. The superficial retinal hemorrhage is seen in which 99. Which of the following is the most common cause of
o- layer of retina: vitreous hemorrhage in young individuals:
o a. Inner plexifonn layer
Mnrch 2070
It4a r ch, S ep t en tb er 2ffi5
b. Nerve fibre layer a. Trauma
c. Inner nuclear layer b. H1'pertension
d. Outer nuclear layer c. Eale's disease
93. Photoretinitis is due to: March 2010 d. Diabetes
a. Visible rays 100. Scleritis is most commonly associated with:
b. Infrared rays March 2ffi5 ,
c. Ultraviolet rays a. Diabetes

d. All of tire above b. Osteoarthritis
OPHTHAL ONCOLOCY
c. Rheumatoidarthritis
d. Hvpertension
94. Lisch nodules are seen in: March 2009
101" tight reflex is carried through: March 2005
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Neurofibromatosis
a. Cranial nen'e Vl
c. Retiniitis pigmentosa
b. Cranial nerve VII
c. Cranial nerve V
d. Neuroblastoma
d. Cranial nerve II
€1iii.
1L0. Oculocardiac reflex is seen in which surgery:
:; used to manage
fiLlaser "U"t:",'::Tl
March 2005, September 2009 Mnrch 2007
1.,,"', u. Excimer laser, a. Cataract surgery
.,. ' b. Argon green laser b. Strabismus surgery
,:.:,i:. c. Diode laser c. Ventricular Septemberal Defect surgery
,;.:r, d. Nd:YAG laser
September 2005
d. Valvular surgery
Lens used to treat astigmatism:
103.
111. Type of squint seen with 6th cranial nerve palsy:
a. Concave lens
March 2007
,, b.
it.' c.
SPhericallens
Convex lens a. Crossed diPloPia
d. Cylindrical lens b. Uncrossed diPloPia
104. All of
the following are seen in Hornels syndrome c. \'ertical diPloPia
Septembcr 2005, March 2007
excePt: d. No diPloPia
a. Enophthalmos
112. |et-black spots in the retina are seen in:
b. Hypelhvdrosis
ScPtember 2008
c. Miosis
d. a. Retinoblastoma
Ptosis
105. Constriction of pupils
is seen in: Septenfuer 2005 b. DiabeticretinoPathY 'o
a. OnlY light reflex c. Retinitis Pigmentosa
+ .-o
b. light reflex and accommodation reflex :,-
d. HYPertensiveretinoPathY r{
c. AtroPine medication -SAFE' strategy for control of trachoma; 'S'-stands
d. AII of the above L13. f I
106. Laser used in LASIK for correcting myopia:
for: SePtember2\\|?>
Septenrber 2005, March 2007 I 2009 a. safety i=
a. Excimer b. Solutions iO
b. Xenon c. Surgery ir
c.
d.
Nd:Yag
None of the above
d. Side-effects io
114. Early ocular sign of herpes zoster: March 2009 i,Q)
107. True statement regarding myopia: September 2006 :4!
a. Parallel rays comes to focus posterior to the retina a. Punctate keratitis ,:.
b. Parallel rays comes to focus anterior to the retina b. follicularkeratitis

c. An abnormal shortness of the axial iength of the c. dendritic ulcer
eye d. vesicles on eYelids
d. Newborns eYe is mYoPic 115. Bitemporal hemianopia is seen in the lesion of:
108. Recurrent vitreous hemorrhage in young individual Marclt 2009
indicates: March 2007, Septenrber 2009
a. Lateral geniculate bodY
a. Eale's disease
b. Glaucoma
b. OPtic nerve
c. Chorioretinitis c. OPtic chiasma

d. Coat's disease d. OPtic tract
109. For preventing Retinopathy of Prematurity, 116" Synchisis scintillans means:
concentration of oxYgen should be: March 2007 a. Vitreous detachment
a. 20-30% b" Liquefaction of vitreous
b. 30-40% c. Adhesion of iris
c. 50-60%
d. Vitreous hemorrhage
d. 60-70%
Ophthalmology
117. Which of the following is not a cause of 124.T'rue regarding amaurosis fugax are all except: .:,
l-rypermetropia: Septenrber 2009 M^nrch2g1g:,
a. Short axial length of the e1'eball a. transient and recurrent episodes of -,'isual ktss ,.,.
b. Flat cornea b. Binocular lesion
c. Increased refractive index of the cortex of lens c. Emblous from the carotid artery is the commonest
d. Anterior dislocation of the lens cause t.
According to WHO, blindness is defined

d.Ocular examination may be normal
as:
125. Amongst the following causes of blindness, one
September 2009,2010
which is less common in India: March2A16"1,
a. Visual acuity of less than 1/60 a. Trachorna
b. Visual acuity of less than 3/60 b. Diabeticretinopathy
c. Visual acrrity cf less than 6/60 c. Onchocerciasis
d. \/isrial acuity of less than 6/18 d. Refractive errors
119. The terrn ankyloblepharon means: Scpterrtl,cr 2009 126. A pupil responds to accomodation but light reflex is
a. Smaller appearing palpebral fissure absent. It is known as: March2()05
b. Inconrplete closure of palpebral aperture \4/hen a. Adie's pupil
eyes are shut b. Hutchinson pupil
o c. Adhcsions of the margins of the two lids
c. Argyll Robertsonlupil
o
J
d. Eversion o{ the lid margin
d.None of the above
127. Muscle to be affected commonly in thyroid
o 120. Keratoconus is seen
a. Patau syndrome
in: March 2010
ophthalmopathy is:
a. Superior recfus
J
= b. Down syndrome b. Inferior rectus
c. Turner syndrome c. Superior oblique
I d. \,Veber syndrome d. Inferior oblique
F
T 121. To check power of IOL, which formula is commonly
20j,0
128. Hypervitaminosis
following except:
A manifests as all of the
2M
IL used: March Scptenrber
o a. Hoffer formula a.
b.
Alopecia
Anorexia
b. Holladay formula
c. SRK formula
c. Pseudofumor cerebri

d. Peripheral neuritis
L22.^kue about paralytic squint is:

129. Best for correcting 15 degree esotropia in a5 year .;:
March 2010
old child is: September 2N7'11
a. Uniocular diplopia
a. Refraction testing under atropine followed by full;j;
b. Binocular diplopia correctlon
c. The person cannot use the two eyes together b" Surgical correction
d. Diminished visual acuity c. Occlusive patches
123. Hemorrhage in vitreous humour is caused by all of d. Ocular exercises
the following except: March 2010 130. Afferent pathway for pupillary light reflex is:
a. Diabetes meliitus SePtembet 2N7
b. CRVO a. Oplic nen'e

c. Glaucoma
b. Oculomotor nerve
c. Trigeminal nerve
d. Trauma
d. Ciliary nerve
Angiod streaks are seen in which of the following:

c. Removal of the eyeball along with extraocular
131.
March 2009 muscles
a. Tendinous xanthoma d. Ilemoval of the eyebail along with extraocular

muscles and part of skuli
b. Pseudoxanthomaelasticum
c. Xanthelesma 136. Peribulbar injection is given in: Septentber 2009
d. Eruptive xanthoma a. Anterior chamber
f2. Which of the following is not seen in papilledema:

b. Subtenon space
March 2009 c. Periorbital space
a. Marked venous engorgement d.
Subperiorbitalspace
b. Elevation of optic disc 137. Common cause of sudden blindness in a young
c. Cotton wool sPots diabetic female is: September 2009,201.0
d. Prominent oPtic disc margins a. Glaucoma

133. Blue Sclera is associated with: Mnrch 2009 b. Vitreous defects
a. OsteogenesisimPerfecta c. PaPilledema
b. Marfan's s1'ndrome d. Cataract
c. AlkaPtonuria 138. Vision 2020-Right to sight by WHO targets ail
3
d.All of the above except: SEtember 2009
134. Which of the following is a cause of sudden a. Cataract
blindness in a quiet eye with a normal media and b. Trachoma
funcius: September 2009 c. Epidemicconjunctivitis
a. Acute retrobulbar neuritis d. Onchocerciasis
b. Vitreous hemorrhage L39.Which of the following orbital structure is involved
c. Iridocyclitis in blow out fracture of the skull: March 2010
d. All of the above a. Lateral wall
135. The term enucleation means: September 2009 b. Medial wall
a. Removal of eyebail contents c. Roof
b. Removal of eyeball along with a portion of optic d. Fioor
nerve
SELF ASSESSIVIENTC
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GENERAL MEDICINE (Questions)
HEMATOLOCY 9. Which of the followine is not a side effect of blood
1 In hemolytic anemia, all of the following are true transfusion: Septenfuer 2009
except: Mnrclr 2005 a. Hypokalemia
a. Bone marrow hyperplasia b. Hypomagnesernia
b Reticulocytosis c. Hypocalcemia
c. Increased unconjugated bilirubin d. Iron overload
d. Increased hapioglobulin
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
Most common form of shock is: March 2005
10. Most irnportant factor determining rnyocardial Oz
a. Hypovolemic shock consumptron: March 2005
b. Cardiogenic shock a. Mvocardial fibre tension
c. Neurcgenic shock b. Cardiac outprit
d. Sep';icemic shock c. Blood v,)lume
i)ialysis is not effective in: hlarclt 2045 C. Heart rate
a. Salicr'Latepoisoning
11. Which of the following is not a cause of Cor
b. Digoxin poisoning pulmonale: March 20A5
c. Barbjturate poisoning a. lntermittent pulmonary embolism
d. Methanol poisoning b. Kyphoscoliosis +
4. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is associated c. COPD
with: March 2005 d. Mitral stenosis
a. Diabetes lvlellitus 1.2. Dresslels syndrome is due to: March 2005
b. Vitamin 812 deficiency a. Cor pulmonale
c. Hemolytic uremic sy'ndrome b. Mitral stenosis
d. All of the above c. Myocardial infarction
i. In alpha-thalassemia trait,electrophoresis shows: d. Pulmcronary embolism
March 2405 13. A -wave in fVP indicates: Marclt 2005
a, Increased FIbF and normal FIbA2 a. Atrial relaxation
b. Normal HbF and normal HbA2 b. Atrial contraction
c. Normal HbF and decreased FIbA2 c. Bulging of tricuspid
valve into right atrium
d. Decreased FIbF and normal FIbA2 d. Ventricular
contraction
6. Not a feature of hereditary Spherocytosis: March 2007 14. Wide split fixed 2nd heart sound is heard in :
a. Autosomal dominant lvlarch 2005
b. lncreased RBC surfaee area a. Normal individuals
c. Increased MCHC b. Left bundle branch block
d. Normal or decreased \4CV c. ASD
7. Causes of megaloblastic anaemia are all except: d. VSD
March 2007 15. Most important in aetiology of coronary artery disease
a. Hemodiaiysis ls: Mnrclt 2005
b. Amlodipine a. VLDL
c. Fish tapeworm infestation b. LDL
d. Blindloop syndrome c. HDL
8. First investigation to be done in a patient with d. All of the above
thrombocytopenia: September 2008 16.1AA"/o Oxygen is not effective in; Nldrch 2005
a. Platelet count a. Pulmonary edema
b. Bleeding time b. MI
c. Prothrombin time c. Tetralogy of fallot
d. aPTT d. COPD
General Medicine
of a 6 year old 25. Left ventricular hypertrophy is caused by all except

.'J rz. True regarding secondary prophylaxis ,
.rl:tl:. child with carditis is: Mnrch 2005 September lQQ5

a. Aortic stenosis
b. Duration of prophylaxis is till tA y"ears b. Chronic cor pulmonale
' c. Duration of prophylaxis is at least 5 years after onset
. c. Chronic kidney disease
. ,. d. Duration of prophl'laxis is till 25 years of age
:rj:i::; -:! : r:,!i*;:
d. Essential hypertension
ro' revcrrrY
.';;ii li1i,. 18. L mitral stenosis is determined by:
Severity of
. .j,rii,
-:1'. March 2005
26. Malignant hypertension can lead to all of the ,
'^:t ' :''' : a. lntensity of S'l heart sound following except: MarchZMi
b. Diastolic murmur duration a. Hypertensive retinopathy
c. Opening snap b. Respiratory failure
d. Intensity of diastolic murmur c. Renal failure
segment elevation is seen in:
19. ST Septtentber 2005 d. Flemolvtic blood picture
a.
Prinzmetal's angina 27.ECG changes in atrial fibrillation do not include:
b.
Acute pericarditis
March 2AA7
c. Acute MI
LlJ d. All of the above a. Absence of P rvaves
7 ' z}.Continuous murmur is found in which arterial h lrreqrlrritv nf R-f{ intCryal
3
disease: SePtcmber 2005 c. Tall P t,aves
O
7i a. Atherosclerosis d. None of the above
]|i b. Dissecting aortic aneurysm 28. Rupture of myocardium takes place in what duration
c. Arteriovenous Frsruia after myocardial infarction: March lt:j1
= d. Thromboangitis obliterans rl,-l
=
J a. First week ..:.lt
zt.Swan Ganz Cuih"te. is used to measure: ;.:i

b. Second week
tv a. Mean arterial pressure
c. Third week
iii d. Fourth'lveek
b. Cardiac output
iii c. Blood volume 29. Austin Flint Murmur is commonly mistaken for the
=
fi d. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure murmur of: lY4arch 2M7
- ' 2z.Which of the following is seen in a patient with a. Mitral regurgitation

,; tricuspidlncompetence: Septenfuer 2005 b. Pulmonary regurgitation
.r a. Hepatic pulsafion c. Tricuspid stenosis
ri b" A wave in ]VP d. Mitral stenosis
:, .. Mid diastolic murmur
l. d. Normal cardiac output 30. Large'a'waves in |VP represents: March2007
,',, 23" Pulsus bisferiens occurs in: September 2005 a.- Complete heart block
. a. HOCM b. 1't degree A-V block
i : bAR c. Sinus bradycardia
ii .' .
t..
c. ASandAR d. Tachycardia
ig, '.- d. All of the above 3l-. Acute anginal attack can be terminated by:
',,'.' 24. Most common feature of essential hypertension:
i '
;;
,' SePtentber 2ffi7
September 2005
l
a. Nitroglycerin.
,,.;1: f l1,.ii:,,.1i a. Visual disturbances
;11
.' "^. :" b. Digoxin

::i:l':, ::, ;tri:.';
.l b. Headache
c. Palpitations c. L,ignocaine
riil d. Dizziness d. Verapamil
.'t;i:,
'riii
32. Carotid sinus massage will terminate: 39. A 20 year old female patient has non exertional chest
pain. On auscultation, she had multiple non-ejection
March 2005, September 2007
clicks. Investigation of choice would be:
a. Atrial fiutter. September 2008
b. Atrial fibirillation a. Serum markers
c. Supraventiculararrythmia b. Chest X-ray
d. Suprventicular tachycardia c. Electrocardiography
33. Which of the following is the most common
d. Echocardiography
arrhythmia: September 2007
40. False regarding Austin-Flint murmur is: March 2009
a.
Systolic murmur
a. Inappropriate sinr.rs tachycardia
b.
Severe aortic regurgitation
b. Junctional Preniafure complexes c. Origtrates at anterior mitral valve leaflet
c. Atrial fibrillation d. N4av be confused Murmur of mitral stenosis
"vith
d. Atrial flutter 41. A lady presented with dyspnea and palpitations.
34. Pacemaker is indicated in which of the follon'ing On examination there was a non eiection click.
Next investigation is: Marclt 2009
condition: September 2407 A--:^^---L-,
^ nr
d, 15rv6r ayr rJv
i;
a. Acute myocardial infarction n'ith first degree AV b.

io
ir':
Chest X-ray
block c.
Electrocardiography
b. Acute myocardial infarction with fascicular block d.
Echocardiography #m
c. Sick sinus syndrome 42. Austin flint murmur is a: Septenher 2009 &z
$m
d. All of the above a. Pansystolic murmur
b. Midsystolic murmur in
35. Indication for aortic stenting is: March 2008 c. Middiatolic murmur {>
a. Acute aortic occlusion d. Confinuous murmur $r
b. Aortic dissection 43. Dyspncrea at rest is which
a. I
grade: Septenfuer 2009 I=
c. Rheumatic aortitis $m
d. Tetralogy of fallot b.2 *El
:-
36. One of the main disadvantage of stenting is:
c.3
d.4 io
March 2008 44. Murmur heard in aortic regurgitation is: &z
a. Elastic recoil Seotenfuer 2009 *m
b. Late stent thrombosis a. Continuous murmur
c. Restenosis b. Austin flint murmur
d. Less efficacy in bifurcation lesions c.
Crescendo-decrescendo
d.
Graham Steele's Murmur
37" Preferred biochemical markers in patients presenting
45. Pericardial effusion is best diagnosed by:
with myocardial infarction September 2008 Swtember 2009
a. Myoglobin a. Chest X-ray
b. Cardiac specific Troponins b. Echocardiography
c. CK-MB c. ECG
d. All of the above d. Angiography
45. Treatment of orthostatic hypotension includes all
38.Split first heart sound is heard in Septenrber 2008
a. Mitral stenosis except: March 2014
b. Left bundle branch block a. High salt and fluid intake
c. Complete right bundle branch block b. Physical countermaneuvers
d. Pulmonary hypertension c. Dopamine
d. Fludricortisone
General Medicine
-i't
47. A patient presented with shock with pump failure. 54. True statement regarding oliguria: March
;;r
..'.-.::
Ideal management would be: Septenfucr 2006 a. Urine formation less than 50 mli24 hours
::ir,rt'l::
'::l:::l':
a. Intra-aortic ballooning b. Urine formation less than 250 mL/24 hours
b. Intracardiac adrenaline c. Urine formation of less than 500 mL/24 hours
c. Rapiddigitalization d. Urine formation less than 750 mL/24 hours
d. Dopamile 55. Hemodialysis related complications are all of the .:i
48. Most common valvular lesion after myocardial following except: September 2ffitji
infarction is: September 2008 a. Altered cardiovasculardynamics
a. MR b. Anaphylactoid reaction
b. AR c. Hypertension
c. AS d. Muscie cramps
,J Scnicrr,hr'r;rl dofect 56. Most common cause of death in a patient rvith chronic
49" A patient with inferior wall myocardial infarction is in renal failure on clailysis: Mnrclt2\tV
shock.The reason is: Septenfucr 20UE a. Uraemia
a. Right ventricular infarction b. Infection
lTJ b. Tr{itral rt'gurgitation c. Cardiovascular disease
i. c. Infarction causing septal defect d. respirator), failure *
Io
= ::' d.
,,:: 50.
Decreased eiection fraction from left ventricle
AU of the following can lead to sudden death except:
57. Renal artery stenosis is not associated with:
March2W
ul :i ^
September 2008 a. Marfan's s)'ndrome :
:l
a. Massive MI b. atherosclerosis
=
J .\
b. Atrial flutter c. polyarteritisnodosa
c. Ventricular fibrillation d. takayasu arteritis
t
,':
d. Massive pulmonary emboli 58. Nodular glomerulosclerosis is pathognomic for:

UJ
z t?
UJ
51. Pulsus alternans is seen in:
a. MS with MR
March 2009
a. Antiphospholipid syndrome
Scptenber 20[E ;
b. Goodpasture's syndrome
o 'iit u.
c.
AS with AR
Left ventricular failure c. Renal amyloidosis
, d. Digitalis poisoning d. Diabetic nephropathy
.! EXCRETORY SYSTEM 59. To diagnose diabetic nephropathy, earliest sensitive

ai test is: March 2010
!i 52. Syndrome characterized.by proteinuria, hematuria
j and hypertension: a. Regular blood sugar estimation
'i' March 2007
,t a. Nephrotic svndrome
b. Blood urea nitrogen
.n c. Microalbuminuria
,,r.i b. Acute nephritis
'- d. Serum creatinine test
c. DRenal
^- ^t cell
-^ll carcinoma
,.,-r.it;i:
CASTROINTESTINAL TMCT
'- d. Nephroclacinosis
Neplrroclacinosis
60. Best marker to assess prognosis after Surgery for colon '"'
ti ss.Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by all of the
liiiali{:i rû^--ihd except:
6v.6n+. )oo)
h,toreh 2008
carcinoma: March2A05
following March
'.' - l: a. CA19-9
jjffi
!il::::::..i1
a.
- T^-_:
ToxicitY
^jL_
of
jrl
â llithium
b" cA-125
:ll!:i :r '::i ::: b
U. Amvloidosis
c. Alpha fetoprotein
' c. Hvpocalcemia
d. CEA
.
.:
d. Hypokalemra
Self Assessment & Review of FMGE i MCI Screening Examination
61, Hepatorenal syndrome is characterized by all of the 68. Enzyrne specificaily raised in chronic alcoholics:
Setttember 20A9
a. Reduction in creatinine clearance a. Camma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)
b. Managed effectively by renal vasodilating agents.
b. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
c. Proteinuria less than 500 mg/d
d. Normal intrinsic kidney c. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
Typhoid ulcer perforation mostly occurs in:
d. Ratio of AST: ALT
f2.
a. 1 -2 rveek March 2005 59. Hepatosplenomegaly is not seen in: March 2010
b. 2 -3week a. lvlalaria
c. 3-4 week b. Lymphorna
d. 4-5rveek c. Sickle cell disease
63.45 year cld rnan complaining of vomiting Vomitus d. Kala azar
consist of food mass taken few days back, foul INFECTIOUS DISEASES
smelling breath and occasional dysphagia to solid 70. Spirochaetes can be identified by :
food. Diagnosis is: March 2005
NInrch 2005
a. Achalasia cardia
b. Diabetic gastroparesis
a. Levaditi stain
c. Scieroderma b. Fontana stain 3 .O
d. Zenkers diverticulum c. Gram stain :rfl
64. True about hepatitis E are all except: d. Dark field microscopy ,4
tq
September 2005,2010
71. Most common CNS manifestation of HIV:-4^^+:^..
Inlectron ,^.
,t, .,7t
a. Transmitted by faeco-oral route nl"d'2005 \D
b. Majority of patients develops chronic infection a. seizures
c. Caused by non-enveloped, positive-sense, single b. Dementia i-
.: S
stranded RNA genomic,HAV like virus. ue'crrs
c. Focal neurologic deficits
d. Fulminant hepatitis occurs more frequently in d. stroke ig
pregnancy
72.Post exposure prophylaxis [PEP] for HIV should be
65. All of the following are features of Obstructive ,i6
jaundice except:
given for a minimum period of: March 2005 :.f
Seyttember 2007
a. Normal alkaline phosphatase
a. 4 r,veeks
b" Mildly elevated serum aminotransferases level b. 6 weeks ifn
c. Clay colour stools c" 8 weeks j
d. Pruritis d. 10 weeks
;
f6. All are the features of carcinoid syndrome except: 73. Bacteria causing vomiting and diarrhea within 6 hours
Septenfuer 2007
of food intake is: March 2005
a. \Aheezing a. Clostridium perfringens ;
b. Diarrhea b. Salmoneila spp.
c. Acute appendicitis c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Flushing d. Staphylococci aureus
57. An young man is brought to casualty with history of 74. Not a cutaneous manifestation of tuberculosis:
hematemesis.There is mild splenomegaly on
Marclt 2005
examination. Cause of bleeding is: March 2009
a. Gastritis a. Lupus vulgaris
b. Oesophageal varices
b. Scrofuloderma
c. Tumour c. Exanthematouslesion
d, Leukaemia d. Ervthema migrans
General Medicine
81. Which drug is given as a single dose to prevent

mother to child HIV transmission: March2A0i
a. SlrePtococcus a. Didanosine
-,...
'- ,t..,,', .l- b. H.influenzae b. Nevirapine
r1 ,'.',".
c. Pneumocystii c. Acyclovir
r:. 1 ::l-:,'.,'':
;- i ': , . d. Nelfinavir
:;1;;i;$:;-l;:
d. All of the above
82. Possibility of vertical transfer of HIV infection if
76. Chest X-ray findings in tuberculosis associated with
i:' :,..ia'.,.i prophylaxis is given: March 2ffi7
lt ., HIV are all except: September 2005
a. 1"/o
:
rrl:; a. Disseminatedhrberculosis
|.::l]i
b. 2%
b. Lupus vulgaris c. 3n/"
' c. Pleural effusion
d. 1%
d. Hilar lymphadenopathy 83. Possibility of vertical transfer of HIV infection if no
TT.Drugused to treat Cryptococcal meningitis is: prophylaxis is given: March20()I
March 2007 a. 25%
[U r,
Z,) a. Pentostatin b. 50%
c. 75%
6 i b' AmPhotericin
B
7i c. Zidovudine d. 100%
lJi
IIJ
t d' Clotrimazole 84. True regarding sialadenitis in AIDS are all except:
Septembu 2W
! f,: ZS. Which of the following is not true about Mumps:
a. May present as Sjogren's sl.ndrome
J ii March 2007
{(v.,, a. Caused by paramyxovirus b. Unilateral parotid enlargement is common
b. lncubation period is less than 14 days c. Non tender enlargement of salivary gland
= " c. Orchitis is a common complication in males
IIJ.: d. May present as xerostomia
2 ,, 85. Not seen in dengue: Mnrch201A
lll ii d. Aseptic meningitis is a commoner complication in a. Hemorrhagic tendencies
or', children
b. High grade fever
i: zs. Whicn of the following is best for diagnosing typhoid
c. Circulatory problem
t" the first week: Marclr 2007
d.
i Hepato-splenomegaly
a. Stool culture 85. Symptoms of secondary syphilis are all except:
;u U. Blood culture March2010
..- C. Urlne Culrure
.;.. a. Localized or diffuse mucocutaneous lesion
b. Generalized and tender lymphadenopathy
c. Self resolving
d. Condyloma lata is seen
a. Common site is right posterosuperior part of liver 87. Which infection is common after organ
i' ', ii
,, I b. Alcoholics are susceptible to develop amoebic liver
abscess
transplantation:
a. Pneumocystii
March2010
c. Anchovy sauce pus b. Nocardia

d. Fever is the most .'ommon sig'n c. Cvtomegalovirus
d. Toxoplasma
ENDOCRINOLOCY 95. Pheochromocytoma predorninantly secretes which

88. Pretibial myxedema is seen in: March 2005 hormone: Seotenfuer 2AA7
a. Papillary Ca thyroid a. Serotonin
b. Follicular Ca thyroid b. Epinephrine
c. Thyrotoxicosis c. Nor-epinephrine
d. Myxedema d. Dopamine
Long term control of diabetes is assessed by:
96. Excessive insulin levels are associated with:
89.
September 2007, 2009
March 2005
a. Randomblood sugar
a. Diabetes mellirus
b. Microalbuminuria/creatinine ratio
b. Pancreatic cancer
c. Zollinger-eliisonsVndrorne
c. F{bA2 d. Pheochromocytoma
d. F{bA1C
97. I{hich of the following is seen in Conn's syndrome:
90. All of the following are features of hypothyroidism
Septentber 2007
except: Septentber 2005
a. Water retention
a. Dry skin b. Hypernatremia
b. Bradycardia c. Hyperkalemia
:
o
c. d. Edema m
d.
Myxedema
Lid retraction 98. Diffuse hyperpigmentation is seen in all except:
:
:
zm
91. Complications in Diabetics mellitus type
around:
-II occu(s
Septentuer 2405 a. Addison's disease
Septenber 2007 i;
n
a. 5 years of onset b. Cushings s)'ndrome l-
b. 10 years of onset c. Pcrphyria cutanea tarda
c. 15 years of onset d. Phenl{ketonuria
=
]7I
d. 20 years of onset 99. All of the following are features of hyperthyroidism g
92" HbIAC indicates blood glucose level in the previous: except: September 2007 ':
a. Rise in BMR Q
March 2047
b. Delayed deep tendon reflexes
rl
:r z
i rl
a. 1 week
b. 2 week c. Weight loss
c. 3 week d.Moist skin j:
):,
d. 8 week 100. All of the following are true regarding primary 'r
93. Pheochromocytoma is a feature of all of the following

hyperparathyroidism except: September 2007 ::,
except: a. Hypocalcemia
september 2oo7
a. MEN I syndrome
b. Hypophosphatemia
c. More than half of the patients are asymptomatic
b. MEN lI syndrome
d. Parathyroid adenoma is the commonest cause
c" Neurofibromatosis lype I
101. A patient of tuberculosis presented with low levels
d. Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
of sodium,chloride and bicarbonate. He also had
94" Pheochromocytoma is characterized by:
hyperpigmentation of palmar creases. Most
September 2007 probable diagnosis is: Septenfuer 2008
a. Headache a. Cushing's syndrorne
b. Paroxysmal hypertension b. Addison's disease
c. Profuse sweating c. Primaryhyperaldosteronism
d. All of ttre above d. SecondarvhvBeraldosteronism
General Medicine
102. Which of the following plays an important role in 109. Investigation of choice for diagnosing primary i
tlre treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: NInrch 2009 hypothyroidism: Mttrch 2007, Septentber 2Q4g
a. Norrnal saline a. Decreased free T3
b, Bicarbonate b. Decreased free T4
c. Potassium c. Elevated TSH
ir,; d. Insulin d. Anti-TPO antibodies
1]1;, fOS. Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism: 110. Most common form of diabetic neuropathy is:
i*{
i.,iil
March 2009 September 2@;
i: u. Carcinoma a. Cranialneuropathies
n. I1vpcrPlasia b. Radiculopatl'ries
'.: c. Adenoma c. Sensorimotorpoll'neuropathy
d. Familial isolated hyperparathi,roidism d. Lirnbmononeuropathies
104. lVeight gain is seen in all of the following except: 111. Regrading typhoid ulcer, all of the following are
Ir4nrch 2009 true except: March 2A0S
Phact'chromocYtoma
UJ :h. a. Perforation is common
Hvootlrvroidism
Z b. Obstruction results due to stricture formalion
n c. lnsulinoma
c. Bleeding is usudl
A
d. Cushing's syndrome
d. Ileum is the common site
l-f
= 105. Not seen in cushing's s)'ndrome: March 2009
112. True regarding level of sugar in hyperosmolar non
a. Hypertension
e
= b. weighr gain
ketotic hyperglycemia is: Septenrber 2ffi5
J c. Hirsutis
a. No change
ci. Hypogiycemia b. Mild elevation
# c. Moderate elevation
fi tOo. All of the following are seen in acromegaly except:
d. Severely elevated
2:; March 2009
Primary causes of non-inflammatory edema include
IIJ'i a. Diabetes mellitus 113.
O .i b. Enlarged nose all of the following except: September 2ffi9

rr c" Increased heel pad thickness a. Increasedintravascularpressure
1 d. Muscle hypertrophy b. Decreasedvascularpermeability
: tOZ. Not true about congenital hypothyroidism: c. Obstruction of lymphatics
t:
::
March 2009 d. Reduced plasma colloid oncotic pressure

a. Males more often affected" METABOLIC AND NUTRITIONAL DISORDERS
b. No signs at birth 114, Tetany is not seen in: L4arch 2005
c. Occurs due to antibodies against thyroid a.
Malabsorption
peroxisomes b.
Hyperventilation
d. Seen in 1:4000 live births c.
Antiestrogentherapy
108. Most common cause of hypothyroidism in India: d"
Thyroid Surgery
September 2009 1L5. Normal anion gap acidosis seen in: March20A5
a. Iatrogenic a. Lactic acidosis
b. Pituitarv tumours b. Cholera
c. Iodine deficiency c. DKA
d. Hashimoto's disease d. Uremia
r{:i
lL5. pH=7.28, P aCO2=70, Condition
is 124. Features of T wave in ECG of hypokalemia patients
consistent with: Mnrch 2005 are all except: Septtcnfuer 2009
a. Metabolic acidosis a. Elevated T wa.:ir
b. Metabolic alkalosis b. Inverted T wave
c. Respiratorl'acidosis c. Fiat T wave
d. Respiratory alkalosis
d" Bigeminal T wave
117. Hypocalcemia with hypophosphatemia is seen in:
September 2006
125. Anion gap is increased in all except: September 2009
a. Crush injurY
a. Ureterostomy
b. Rhabdomyolysis b. Ethylene glvcol

c. Vitamin D dependent rickets-Il c. Methylene glycol
d. Renal failure d. Diabeticketoacidosis
118. All of the following are used in the management of 126. The ECG in hyperkalemia classically shou's:
hyperkalemia except: lv[arclt 20{J7 ScPtember 2009' 2010
a. Calciurn gluconate a. lncrease QRS duration
b. Sodir.rmbicarbonate b. Shortened PR interval o
c. I.V. infusion with glucose and insulin
c. Prominent U r.vaves t
jnl
d. I.V. KCI intusion
d. Increased R wave amplitude
',2
119. Not seen in hyponatremia: Marclt 2009 [Tl
a. Nausea
127. Which of the following is not associated with zinc
Mnrch 2005
'v
.
b. Delusion deficiency:
1>
c.Vomiting a. Delayed wound healing ,l-
d. Anorexia b. Loss of libido :,=
120. Neurological manifestations of water intoxication c. Pigmentation 'Jll
are all of the following except:
a.
March 2009 d. Sexual infantilism '9
b.
Headache
Confusion
NEUROLOCY :o
.-
128. Not seen in case of hemorrhage in MCA tertitory: ':.2
c. hrcreased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage
Mnrch 2005 j 111
d. Convulsions
L21. Normal anionic gap is seen in: March 2009
a. Contralateralhemiplegia
a. Lactic acidosis b. Aphasia
b. Diarrhea c.
Dysarthria
c. Ketoacidosis d.
Urinary incontinence
d. Methanol poisoning 1,29. Brain death is defined as loss of: March 2005
122" Incteased plasma concentration of calcium is a. Withdrawl reflex
associated with: March 2009 b. Brain stem functions
a. Rickets c. Cortical functions
b. Osteomalacia d. Spinal reflex
c. Primaryhyperparathyroidism
1.30. Characteristic of Guillain-Barre syndrome is:
d. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
SePtenrber 2005
123. Not an ECG finding of hypokalemia: September 2009
a. Absent T waves a" Profouund sensory loss
D. b I elevatlon b" loss of limb reflex
c. Flat T waves. c. Residual paralysis
d. Prominent lJ wave d. Descendingparalysis
General Medicine
131. Spike and Dome pattern is seen in: Marclt 2007 138. Most common cause for meningitis in adults:
a. Petitmai seizures
b. Grandmal seizures a. H.Influenzae
c. Cionic seizures b. N.meningitidis
d. Myoclonic seizures c-- S+rnh "*'
"'*t-." rrrrpriq
- *"
132. An upper motor neuron lesion of facial nerve will r'i ..-.r.. ------
.Strentoe^..r ri '
pneumonlae
cause: Mttrch €t S ept ember, 2007 L39. Kernig's sign is seen in: September
a. Paralysis of the lower half of face on the same side a. \/iral encephalitis
b. Paralysis of the lou'er half of face on the opposite side b. Pyogenic meningitis
c. Paralysis of the upper half of face on the same side c. Brain abscess
cl. Paral-'rsis of the upper half of face on the opposite side d. All of the above
133. Argvll-Robertson pupil is seen in: Mtrclt 2009 140. Flapping tremor is seen in all except: l\4nrch 20AS
a. Horner's syndrome a. lVilscur disease
b. Retrobulbar optic neuritis b. Th\irotoYicos s
c. Diabetes
c. Uraemia
IIJ . d.Neurosyphiiis
d. CO: narcosis
134. CSF findings in Tubercular meningitis:
Marclr 2009
141. Bilaterally pinpoint ptrpil, hyperpyrexia and loss of
9.
= a. Decreased glucose, increased proteins, decreased
consciousness is suggestive of: March 2ffi5
o. b.
lymphocytes
Increased glucose, decreased proteins, decreased
a. Subarchnoid hen'rorrhage :
IJJ i b. Cerebral infarction

lvmphocytes
c. Pontine hemorrhagc
=t
J,, c. Increased glucose, increased proteins, increased
lvmphocytes d. None
{,. d. Decreased glucose, increased proteins, increased 142. Dominant parietal lobe injury leads to all of the
E:.
UJ '. iymphocytes following except: March 2ffi5
Z';: 135. Most Common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage a. Agnosia
ul,: is: March 2009 b. Dvsphasia
O.r a. Rupture of bridging veins c. Dyscalculia
b. Saccular aneurysm rupture d. Urinaryincontinence
c. Hypertension 143. Most common cause of intracranial bleed is:
d. Idiopathrc March 2005
136. Initial Investigation of choice of subarachnoid a. Berry aneurysm

hemorrhage: March 2A09 b. Hypertension
a. Angiography c. Coagulopathy
i ,iii b. Lumbar puncture

c. CT scan 144"
d. Diabetes
Which of the following sensation is preserved on
i d. Serum electrolytes the side of the lesion in Brown-Sequard syndrome:
t
*fi L37. Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors are seen
in: SePtember 2009
a. Vibration
SePtemher 2005
a. Lambert-Eaton-mvasthenic syndrome
b. Touch
b Hyperthyroidism n Tomnorrfrrro
$' c.
d
Botulism
Myasthcnia gravis
d. Al1 of the above
?
7]
.{t
t
.:
145. Cranial nerve commonly involved in Guillain Barre 152. Pulmonary edema rvill be caused by: September 2007
syndrorne is: March 2009 a. Mitral stenosis

a. Optic b. Pulmonary emobolism
b. Trochlear c. Pneumonia
c. Oculomotor d. COPD
d. Facial 153. All of the following are signs of Cor pumonale
146. Most common causative agent for meningitis in the except: September 2007
immunocompromised patient is: Septentber 2009 a. Feeble pulse
a. Histopiasmosis b. Elevated JVP
b. Cryptococcus c. Hepatomegaly
c. Candida albicans d. Peripheral edema
d. Coccidiomycosrs 154. Diagnostic criteria for acute respiratory distress
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM syndrome is: Stytenfucr 2008
147. Management of steroid resistant asthma is done by: a. Pao2/Fio, ratio is </= 100
a. Oral steroids
March 2005 b.
c.
Paor./Fio, ratio is <l:200
Pao2lFio2 ratio is </:300
o
b. m
Long acting Beta-2 agonist d. Pao2/Fio2 ratio is </= J00 ,Z
c.Leucotrineantagonist
155. Most common occupational malignancy in India is: ,m
d.Theophyliine
March 2009, September 2010 .7
1.48. Lung Carcinoma is most commonly associated with:
March 2005
a.
b.
Breast
Lung
r
'>
a. Silicosis c. Skin
,=
b. Asbestosis m
d. Bladder
c. Coal dust ,g
d. Beryllill^ 156" Positive End Expiratory Pressure is useful in:
Marclt 2009
o
149. True about COPD are all except: September 2005
a. Pneumonia
.Z
a. Polycythemia m
b. Left ventricular Failure b. ARDS
c. Right ventricular Failure c. Pulmonary edema
d" Clubbing is not a sign of COPD d. All of the above
150. Characteristic of obstructive pulmonary disease are 157. Investigation of choice in pulmonary embolism:
all except: March 2007 Marclt 2009
a. Reduced FEVt a. Ventilation perfusion mismatch
b. Reduced diffusion capacity b. Conventionalangiography
c. Reduced residual volume c. ChestCT
d. Reduced mid expiratory flow rate d. MRI angiography
1,51. Respiratory acidosis is caused by all except: 1.58. ECG pattern seen in pulmonary embolism is:
SePtember 2007 Septentber 2009',,:: a:
a. Chronic bronchitis. a. S3Q3T1

b. COPD b. s1Q1T3
c. Pulmonaryhypertension c. S1Q3T3
d. Interstitial lung disease d. s3Q3T3.
(
General Medicine
159. Most common ECG change in pulmonary embolism 166. Investigation of choice for diagnosing
is: lung
September 2009
a. sequestration is:
Sinus bradycardia March 2009
b. Sinus tachycardia a. X-rav chest_pA view
c. Tall T wave in iead III b. Plain CT scan_chest
d. Left bundle branch block c. Angiographi,
160. True regarding type_III respiratory d. MRI
failure are all
except: ONCOLOCY
Septenfuer 2009
Also knor",'n as perioperative respiratory
Ib. There is impaired CNS drive to breathe
failure 167. Treatment regimen for Hodgkins
lymphoma is:
c. Occurs as a result of atelectasis September 200g
d. Can be marraged conserr,.atively
a. VAD
161. Type-II respiratory failure is associated with:
b. CMF
c. ABVD
St'ptembcr 2009
a. Flail chest d. CHOP
uJ b.
z c.
Pulmonary eclema
Interstitial lung disease
168. Not seen
a.
in tumor lysis
Hyperphosphatemia
syndrome: Septenrbcr 2009
C) d. COPD b. Hyperuricemia
o 162. Example of type-I respiratory
a.
failure is: March 2010 c. Hypocalcemia
UJ Cardiogenic shock d. hypercalcemia
b. Ateiectasis 169. False statement regarding
Hodgkin,s disease is:
J= c. Myasthenia gravis
d. COPD
a. CNS is the commonest site of invoivement
September 2a09
tr 163. True about ARDS are all except:

March 2010 b. Mediatinal involvement is common
UJ a. Mortalitv rates ranges between 40 to 65ok
z
UJ
b. Pneumonia is commonly associated with it
c.
nodulosclerosis tvpe
in
c. Ilecovery in terms of lung functions is poor in Characteristic cell is a Reed_Sternberg cell

(9 d. Increase in eosinophils
ARDS survivors ald plasma cllh
, d. Acute respiratory distress syndrome is present
if
170. Working formulation in staging of non_hodgkins
: Pao2lFiorratio </= 200 lymphoma is based on;
March 2010
I 164. Most common symptom a. Morphology of cells
of Interstitial Lung disease
.. rsi March 2010 b. Cell surface markers
a. Hcmoptysis c. Sur.r'ival characteristic of cells
,,,.,. b. Dl,spnea d. Cellular genetics
,,,'.;l c. Substernal discomfort
d. Wheezing MISCELLANEOUS
r 165. True about pancoast tumour are 171.. 45 year old man complains of back pain
all of the following and
except: March 2005
multiple joints pain. X-Ray shows bilateral
a. Onlv 3-5% are small cell carcinomas sacroilitis.Diagnosis could be:
Mnrch 2005
b. Involves eighth cervicai and first two thoracic a. Rheumatoidarthritis
nerves commoniy b" Ankvlosingspondylitis
c. t{orner's sl.rrdrome may be a manifestation c. Psoriatic arthritis
d. Lor,r'er lobe Carcinoma
d. Osteoarthritis
Self Assessment & Review of FMGE i MCI Screening Examination
fi2. Anti mitochondrial antibody is typically seen in: 179. All of the following can occur in rheumatic fever
March 2005 except: Septentber 2007, 2010
a. Hepatic cirrhosis a. Mitralregurgitation

b. Cardiac cirrhosis b. mitral stenosis
6. Primary sclerosing cholangitis c. Pericarditis
d. Primary biliary cirrhosis d. Loud first heart sound
Characteristic of mixed connective-tissue disease 180. All of the following are associated with polyuria
173.
IMCTD] are all of the following except: March 2005

except: Septembcr 2A07
a. Hvpogammagiobulinemia a. Diabetes insipidus

b. lr4embranous glornerulonephritis b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Polyarthritis c. Rapidlyprogressiveglomerulonephritis
d. CNS involvement d. P;'eloncphritis
181. Bone age corresponds to chronological age in:
L74. Patient complaining of finger stiffness and
Mnr* 2409
dysphagia.What could be the most probable
a. Uncontroiled diabetes
diagnosis: March 2005
b. Familial short stature- jo
a. Achalasia c. im
b. Lower esophageal ring
Osteomalacia
i:Z
d. Rickets
rm
c. Esophagealcarcinoma
d. Scleroderma
182. Preobesity is defined as BMI of: March 2009 ?;v
a. L8.5-24.9 I>
175. Not
a.
apremalignant condition: March 2005
b. 25-29.9 ll-
b.
Retinitispigmentosa
Crohn's disease
c. 35-39.9 i=
d. 40-M.9 lm
c.
d.
Ulcerative colitis
Leukoplakia
183. Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in all except: ls
L76. Nephrocalcinosis seen in all except: March 2005
March 2009 ?o
\z
i:,
a. Myocardialinfarction -
a. Sarcoidosis
b. Biliary cirrhosis *1Tl
b. Acute pancreatitis
c. Pregnancy
c. Hyperparathyroidism *
d. Pernicious artemia *
d. Vitamin D intoxication
184. True regarding Felty's syndrome are all except: *
177. Hypercholesterolemia is commonly associated with:
t ePtember 2oo9 i
Septenfuer 2005
a. splenomegal, t
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Neutrophilia
b. hypothyroidism c. Femalepreponderance
c. Nephrotic sl.ndrome d" Associated with rheumatoid arthritis
d. All of the above 185. Which of the following is true for acanthosis
178. Most specific antibody for Systemic lupus nrgrrcans: March 2010
erythematosus: March 2007 €t Septenrber 20L0 a. May be an indication of skin malignancy
a. Anti-Sm antibodies b" Hypopigmentation
b" Anti-ss DNA antibodies c" May be associated with Insulin resistant diabetes
c" Anti-RNA antibodies mellltus
d. ANA antibodies d. Commonly occurs in lean and thin
General Medicine
185. Correct statement regarding von recklinghausen 189. Tripple screening test for Down syndrome during ".H
pregnancy includes all of the following except:

diseaselNF-1] are all except: March 2014 ..:
l\/ln!^L a^^-'
a. Never turns malignant .,lqtrrt LUUJ,
b. N{utations of gene on chromosome L7 causes NF1 a. Maternal serum AFP ..:

' . 'tl.
i: i:..1
c. Ma1' be associated with nervous system tumors b. Serum beta-HCG
i, d. Lisch nodules can be seen c. AlkanlilePhosphatase

.
'i.r
.:.tii'
'.t d. Serum oestriol
187. Acantholysis is seen in: March 2005
:ilil:n 190. The tourniquet test is positive if the petechiae are
::ll a. Bullous pemphigoid
more than: March 2007 A September
:,.:!r::,.
b. Dermatitisherpetiformis
a. 50 petechiae per square inch
c. Hailey-Haileydisease
b. 40 petechiae per square inch
d. Ali of the above c. 30 petechiae per square inch
188. A patient develops gross hematuria 3 days after an rl. 20 pr'tr'chiae per square inch
attack of URTI. Which of the following is 191. Most common cause of short stature is: March 2010
responsible: March 2005 a. Constitutional
a. Drug abuse b. H1'pothyroidism
UI b. Acuteglomerulonephritis c. Grorvth hormone deficiency
z c. Minimal change disease d. Systemic illness *
o d. IgA nephropathy
6,
tJl:
='
J
tlll
z'
IIJ'
o,
i..
i .i:
i.
t:
.:,
: .!.
LF ASSESSMENr&
E/MCI SCREENING
GENERAL SURGERY (Questions)
BURNS VASCULAR SYSTEM
1. All of the following are tme regarding fluid 8. Superficial thrombophlebitis is seen in: March2W
resuscitation in burn patients except: March 2008 a. AV fistula
a. Consider intravenous resuscitalion in children with
b. Raynaud's disease t:,.
bums greater than 15% TBSA :i:
b. Oral fluids must contain salts c. Buerger's disease
,t.i
c. Most preferred fluid is Ringer's lactate d. Aneurysm
d. Half of the calculated volume of fluid shorrld be 9. W-hich of the following is associated with Virchowe
given in first B hours triad: SEtember
2. According to "rule of nines", burns involving a. Hypercoagulabiiity
perineum are: Nlnrclr 2009 b. Disseminated malignancy
10/
^
a. I o c. DVT
b. 9% c1. .A11 of the above
c. 18%
1.0. Hemorrhage leads to:
a a10/ Stptentber ZNS
q. Ll /o
a. Septicemic shock
3. Which of the following is not seen in 3rd degree
burns:
b. Neurogenic shock
March 2009
a. Loss of skin appendages c. Hypovolemic shock
b. No vesicles d. Cardiogenic shock
c. Red colour 11. Which of the following is true for shock:
d. Extremely painful September 2M5'i
4. In second degree burns, re-epithelialisation occurs a. Hypotension
around: Septenfuer 2009 b. Hypoperfusion to tissues
a. l week c. Hypoxia
b. 2 rveeks d. All of the above
c. 3 weeks
d. 4 weeeks 12. Buergers
Most common vessels to be affected in Buergers , j;l:
5. Which of the following is false regarding deep 2nd

disease: March2NV ::;.i
degree burns: September 2009

a. Femoral artery ,.:
a. Heal by scar deposition b. lliac artery

b. Painless c. Popliteal artery :
c. Damage to deeper dermis d. Anterior and posterior tibial artery
d. Less blanching 13. Drug used for sclerotherapy of varicose veins are all of
6. In burns management, which of the following is the the following except: Septentbet 2007
medium of choice: March 2010, September 2010 a. Ethanolamine Oleate

a. Dextrose 5% b. Polidocanol
b. Normal saline c. Ethanol
c. Ringer lactate d. Sodium tetradecyl sulfate
d. Isolyte-M
14. Ravnaud's syndrome occurs in all of the following
7. All of the followingare complications in a patient on
except: September 2A07
total parenteral nutrition except: Septentuer 2008
a. Hyperchlosterolemia a. SLE
b. Hyperglycemia b Rheumatoid arthritis

c" Hypotriglyceriedemia c" Osteoarthritis
d. Hypophophatemia d. Cryoglobulinemia.
Generalsurgery
30. Acute Pancreatitis is associated with: September 2005 38. Which of the folloning is the most pathognomonic
a. Elevated serum amalyse
sign of impending burst abdomen:
b. Alcohol March 2C08
a. Fever
c. Gali bladder stones
d. Ali of the above b. Shock
31. Traurna to spleen in a stable patient is best diagnosed c. Pain
by, d. Serosanguinous discharge
Septenfuer 2005, March 200g 39. Which of the investigation can itself lead to acute
X-ray abdomen pancreatitis: March 200g
b. USG a. USG
CT scan b. CTscan
o. diagnostic peritoneal iavage
c. ERCP
i d. MRI scan
32. Splenectomy can lead to:
September 2005
40. Indications of splenectomy are all except: Nlarclt ZC|j|
a. Leucoprgni3
b. Thrombocvtosis a. Hereditary spherocl,tosis
c. Thrombocytopenla b. Trauma
>: d. Thrombocytopenia c. Poh.cythemia
ft,: and leucopenia
Investigation of choice for Acute pancreatitis:
lU,, 33. d. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Or SeTttember 2005 A 2006 41. All of the following relarding diagnosis
Ei a. X-ray abdomen peritonitis are correct except:
of acute
fr; b. CTscan
March 20Ag
oi c. USG
a. Raised WBC count irr peritoneal aspirate
b. Moderately raised amylase levels are diagnostic of
Ji d. ERCP
peritonitis
<a Charcoat triad is seen in:
si
34.
September 2006
a. Acute pancreatitis c. CT scan mav aid in diagnosis
uJl b. Acute appendicitis d. Upright films shows free air under the diaphragm
zr;: c. Acute hepatitis 48. Most sensitive and specific for acute pancreatitis
uJ! d. Cholangitis
oi; 35. Investigation for assessing proper functioning of
amongst the following is:
a. S.amylase
Scptenfttr 2008
biliary system: March 2007 b. S.Alanine transaminase

$ a. USG
; c. S.lipase
b. CT scan
f c. HIDA scan d. C-reactive protein
i d" All of the above 49. Splenectomy is useful in:
t, 36. Best way to diagnose gall bladder
stones: March a. Hemophilia
2007
a. USG b. Polyrythenia
!ilie b. Oral cholecystography c. HereditarySpherocytosis
$ c. Percutaneous transhepaticcholangiographv cl. Thalassemia
d. Intravenous cholangiogram 50. Pentad of pain, fever, jaundice, confusion and shock is
37. Charcot's triad is defined by all of the following
seen ln: March 2009
except: Septtember 2007, March 2U09
a. Fever a. Pancreatitis
b. Gall stones b. Hepatitis
c. Jaundice c. Cholangitis
d" Pain d. Appendicitis
,;,.,.1;
t,.:i..j
,ll!:
58. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in:

51. Most common type of gallstone in India is:
September 2005
March 2009
a. Dubin Johnson syndrome
a. Cholesterol
!. Pigment b. Cilbert's syndrome
c" Mixed c. Criggler Najjar type I
d. Both A and C d. Criggler Najjar type II
52. Investigation of choice for hydatid disease is: 59. True regarding primary sclerosing cholangitis
SePtember 2009 associated with ulcerative colitis are all of the
a. CT scan following except: March 2007
b. Elisa a. Biiiary Cirrhosis is a known complication
c. Biopsv b. Increasecl risk of hilar cholangiocarcinoma
d. USG
c. May har.'e raised levels of alkaline phoshphatase
53. A11 of the following are common cause of post
d. Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis resolt'es after total
splenectomy infections excePt:
coiectomy
SePtember 2009 i
a. H.influenza
60. Investigation of choice for diagnosing intra
abdominal bleeding in an ulstable patient:
ti
o
b. Ecoli m
c. Klebsiella S eptember 2007
:i
zm
d. Streptococcus a. CT scan
54. Management of infected pancreatic necrosis includes b. MRI scan n
all of the following except:
a. Percutaneousdrainage
March 2010 c. USC
d. diagnostic peritoneal lavage
i r
b. Pancreaticnecrosectomy 61. All of the following are seen with bile duct stone i U,
c
7
,.].
c. Manage conservatively with antibiotics alone except: March 2008 i;

d. Nutritional support a. Obstructive jaundice o
;:
55. Investigation of choice for acute cholecystitis: b. Distended and palpable gall bladder *m
March 2010
c. Pruritis 7
a. Plain Radiography d. Clay coloured stools
b. USG
62. Which of the following statement is true regarding
c. CT scan
pyogenic liver abscess: September 2009
d. Barium studies
56" Calculous cholecystitis is associated with all of the
a. Diagnosis can be confirmed by serological test f;
following except: March 2005 b. Radiographic features are diagnostic *

t:
a. Oral contraceptives c. Usually a large and single abscess is seen in cases of :i
iL,,
b. Oestrogen direct spread. $.1!r
c. Obesity d" Systemic manifestations are uncommon

d" Diabetes 63. Reversed "3" sign on barium studies is seen in which
57. Chronic calcific pancteatitis is associated with all of condition: September 2009
the following except: September 2005 a. Ampuilary carcinoma
a. Hypercalcemia b. carcinoma stomach
b. Diabetes mellitus c. Carcinoma head of pancreas
c" Malabsorption of fat d. Insulinoma
d. Diabetes associated complications are uncommon
General Surgery
64. All of the following are true regarding splenic 70. Which of the following is not associated n ith Crohn,a
rupture except: September 2009 disease:
a. Elet'ation of the left dome of diaphragm a. fistula
b. Obliterated psoas shadow b. stricture
c. Obliterated colonic gas shadow c. Sclerosing cholangitis
d. Obliterated splenic outline d. granuloma
55. A 26 year old male presented with 4 day history of 71. Hirschsprung's disease involves which region o{
pain in the right sided lower abdomen with frequent intestine: March
vomiting. Patients GC is fair and clinically a tender

a. Colon
b. Rectum
lump was felt in the right iliac fossa.Most appropriate
c. Rectosigmoid part
management for this case would be: March 2010 d. Terminal ileum
a. Flxploratorv iaparaotomv
72. Hirschsprung's disease in diagnosed by: hlarch2(fr5
b. imrnediate appendicectomy
a. USG
c. Ochsnt'r-Sherren re5;irr,an b. CT scan
d. Extemal drainage c. Anogram
t, 66. Investigation of choice for gall bladder stone is: d. Rectal biopsy
Which of the followirg is the investigation of choice
ut March 2010 73.
o a.
b.
OCG for diagnosing carcinoma colon:
a.
September 2ffi5.,
v, USG X-ray abdomen

f, c. PTC b. CTscan
@ d. X-ray c. Colonoscopy
J CASTROINTESTINAL TMCT
d. Barium enema
74. Uncommon complication of meckels diverticulum is:,,
tr 67. Routine management of paralytic ileus include all of September 2Ni
IJJ the following except: a. Intussusception
zul a. Electrolyte correction
March 2005
b. Diverticulitis
b. Nasogastric aspiration c. Malignancy
o c. Parasympathomimetics d. Increased bleeding
d. Intravenous fluids 75. Acute appendicitis is characterized by all of the
68. Ideal management in an old and frail patient following except: September 2M5
presenting with a mass situated 15 cm anay from anal a. Anorexia
orifice: March 2005
b. Rovsing's sign
a" Abdomino-perineal resection c. Fever >42 degree celsius
b. Colonoscopic removal
d. Peri-umbilical colic
c. Hartman's operation 76. True about Barrett's esophagus are all of the follo$'itlg
d. Anterior resection
except: Septembu2M
a. Hvperplastic change in the lining mucosa of
69. Dumping syndrome is characterized by all of the
esophagus
following except: March 2005 b" Patient is usually asymptomatic
a. Colic c. Histology of the lesion shows mucus secreting
b. Tremors and giddiness goblet cells
c. Hyperglycemia d. Chronic gastroesophageal reflux is a predispostlt6
d. Epigastric fullness factor
7/, Commonest cause of peptic ulcer disease: 85. A patient presents with history of mild diarrhea,
Septenfuer 2006 blood in stools with multiple fistulas. What is the
a. NSAID ingestion most probable diagnosis: September 2007
b. Smoking a. Intestinal fuberculosis

c. H.pylori b. ulcerative colitis
d. Genetic factors c. Crohn's disease
78. Commonest cause of esophageal perforation:
d. Typhoid
March 2007 86. All of the following predisposes to carcinoma of the
a. Boerhaave sl'ndrome esophagus except: September 2008
b. Carcinoma of esophagus a. Achalasia
c. Acid ingestion b. Zenker's diverticulum
d. Instrumentation c. Barrett's esophagus
79, Entero enteric fistula is found in all except: d. Piummer-Vinson disease
March 2007 87. Ochsner-Sherren regimen is used for:
a.
Crohn's disease Septernber 2009, 2010
b.
Colo-rectal malignancy a. Appendicularabscess
c.
Actinomycosis
d.
Ulcerative colitis
b. Pelvic abscess
c. Appendicular mass .
.o
false: March 2007
80, Which of the following statement is i tTi
a. Granulomatous inflammation is found in Crohn's d. Acute appendicitis j:,2
disease. 88. Trichobezoar is pathological ingestion of: ifn
b. Perianal lesions are common in Crohn's disease. Seplembcr 2009':7
c. Stricture involving the colon is found in ulcerative a. \'egetable matter > ,'
colitis. b. Hair ,l-

d. Fistula formation is common in Crohn's disease. c. Coins iA
81. Which of the following is not a commoner cause of o. )rones C
intestinal perforation: March 2007 89. Most common site of volvulus is: i7
a. Gastric ulcer
March 2010 Septettuer 2f|r0 iG)
b. Gastrointestinal cancer
a. Ileum
.im
c. Typhoid
d. Crohn's disease b. Appendix ',4
82. Commonest operation done for gastric outlet c. Sigmoid colon
obstruction with peptic ulcer is: March 2007 d. Caecum i:
a. Truncal vagotomy with gastrojejunostomy 90. Which of the following is false regarding gastro
b. Truncal vagotomy with pyloroplasty oesophageal reflux disease: March 2005 :i
c. Highly selective vagotomy with pyloroplasty a. Transient relaxation of the lower esophagus
d. Gastrojejunostomy b. Tea and coffee should be avoided
83. Metabolic disturbance seen with pyloric stenosis: c. Length of LES is an important factor
March 2007 d. Omeprazole is the preferred agent for management

a. Hypokalemic hyponatremic alkalosis
b. Hyperkalemia 91.The commonest cause of significantly lower
c.
Hyperchloremicacidosis gastrointestinal bleed in a middle aged person
d. Hypematremia without any known precipitating factor may be due to
84. Hellels myotomy is done for. September 2007,2009,201.0 March 2008, September 2010
a" Esophagealcarcinoma a. Ulverative colitis
b. Pylorichypertrophy b" Ischemic colitis
c" Achalasia cardia c. Angiodysplasia
d. Inguinal hemia d. DiverLiculum of sigmoid colon
Generalsurgery
92. Which of the following is not true for Zollinger- 99. If caecum is involved as a pad of the wall of hernial i
Ellison syndrome: 5c1,tt1,'Lr,' rrr,t sac and is not its content, then it will be k.ro*n
ur,-- i
a. Recurrence after operation

Septentber
b. Reduced BAO : IvIAO raticr a. Richter's hernia
2@g
t.-:
c. Gastrin producing tumour b. Spigelian hernia
d. Diarrhoea may be a presenting feature c. Sliding hernia .'.i
93. Which of the following plays a major role in the d. lnterstitial hemia ::..i,
development of dumping syrdrome: Most common type of hernia in the young ti:,i
lvlarch 2009 1.00.
age .,;
a. Vagolytic mechanism group: Septernber 2ffi *$
b. Smaller stonach a. Femoral hernia
c. Excessive food in the stomach b. Direct inguinal hernia
d, Large volurne of hyperosmotic fluid in the intestine c. Indirect inguinal ht'rnia
94. Treatment of an incidentally detected appendicular d.
Urnbilical hemia
101. While operating upon strangulated hernia, the sac
carcinoid measuring 2.5 cm is: Mnrclt 2009 is
a. Right hemicolectomy opened at: Scptembcr 200g
b. Limites resection of the rieht colon
a. Neck
b. Body
tr c.
d.
Total colectomy
Appendicectomy
c. Fundus
uJ d. Mouth
o 95. Features of achalsia cardia are all of the following 102. Which of the following describes Richtels hernia:
E, except: March 2009
:) a. Regurgitantvomiting September 2W
The strangulated loop of ,W, lies within the
a b. Elongated and dilated esophagus
a.
abdomen
J c. Rat-tail deformitl' and filling defect on barium study b. Hemia occurring at the lerrel of arcuae line
tlU d. Increased difficulW in sn'allowing
HERNIA
c. lnvolves only a portion of the circumference of *re
bowel.
z
IJJ
96. Spigelian hemia is: Marclt 2005
d.
Hernia occurring through the linea alba
103. Hernia which often simulates a peptic ulcer is:
a. Hernia passing through the obturator canal
o b. Hernia occurring through the linea alba
a.
March 2005
Umbilical hernia
c. Hernia through the triangle of petit b. Incisional hernia
d. Hernia occurring at the level of arcuate line c. Strangulated hemia
97. Strangulation most commonly occurs in: d. Fatty hernia of linea alba
Seatember 2005
CENITOURINARY SYSTEM
a. femoral hernia
1,04. tnvestigation of choice in Vesico-ureteric Reflux is:
b. Direct inguinal hernia
c" Indirect inguinat hemia March 2005, Septenrber 2010
',,i;i..., d" Lumbar hemia a. CT scan
:9,t.t,. b. Voidingcystourethrography
98. True regarding indirect inguinal hernia are all except: c. Intravenousurography
-
,.r.t,.:;;it'i. .
March 2008 d.X-ray KUB
'.;:.
1,,.:.;::l't '':l
a. Most common lype of hernia 105. Seminoma is carcinoma of: September 2005
.' . ".,i.r, ,,,. b. Always unilaterai a. Kidney
,'.,$;;t",,,t""
c" Inguinal herniotomy is the basic operation b. Urinary bladder
,
,
':iiit.,",
,.,':1 ,,1::i
d. Transillumination distinguishes it from hydrocele c. Testes
d" Penis
l;'
, ;t,t.
t';
Reflex nephropathy is diagnosed mainly by: 1L4. Treatment of stage I teratoma is: September 2008
100.
SePtember 2405 a. Chemotherapy
a. X-ray KUB b. Radiotherapy
b. Micturating cysto uretl-rrogram c. Surgery
c. CT scan d. Observation
d. MRI scan 1L5. Fournier's gangtene is seen in: September 2008
107. Lateral internal sphincterotomy is useful for: a. Scrotum
Septembet 2007
b. Shaft of penis
a. Anal fistula
c. Base of penis
b" Anal canal strictures
d. Glans penis
c.Haemorrhoids
d.Anal fissure 116. Most common testicular tumour in 4th decade is:
108. Treatment of choice for 3rd degree hemorrhoids is: Mrch 2009
SePterfuer 2007 a. Teratoma
a. Sclerotherapy b. Dermoid
b. Band ligation c. Seminoma
c.
d.
Hemorrhoidectomy
All of the above
d. All of the above o
m
109. Which one of the following is radiolucent stone:
September 2007
117. Following urethral rupture, immediate procedure to
be done is: SeTttember 2008, March 2009
zm
a. Calcium oxalate a. Urinarycatheterization n
b. Cystine b. Suprapubiccystostomy
c. Uric acid c. Referral to a urologist l-
d. Phosphate
d. a
110. True about incompletely descended testis are all of
Observation
Delirium, mental confusion and nausea in patients
c
the following except: March 2008
1.18.
n
a. Early repositioning can preserve function who had undergone transurethral resection of
o
b. It may lead to sterility, if bilateral prostate suggests: Septemher 2009 m
c. Poorly developed secondary sexual characters a. Hypernatremia n
d. May be associated with indirect inguinal hemia b. Sepsis
11L. Most radiosensitive testicular tumour is: March 2008 c. Hepatic coma
a. Seminoma
d. Water retention
b. teratoma
119. Associated with urinary bladder carcinoma are all of
c. Interstitialtumours
d. Lymphoma the following except: Srptenrber 2009
112. Erythroplasia of Queyrat occurs in: September 2008 a. Smoking
a. Scrotum b. Human papilloma virus infection
b. Testes c. Schistosomiasis
c. Penis d. Cyclophosphamide
d. Bladder
113. A 25 year old man presents with hydrocele on the
120. All of the following are radio-opaque stones except:
September 2009
left side. Associated condition could be a:
SePtember 2008 a. Calcium
a. Nephroma b. Struvite
b. Hepatic malignancy c. Uric acid
c. Testicular tumour d. Cystine
d. Penile malignancy
Generalsurgery
L21. Cobra head appearance on excretory urography

is 129. During thyroidectomy, inferior thyroid artery is
suggestive of: I'tlarch 2010 ligated at:
a. Horseshoe kidney
Septentber 2a06
b. a" Maxiamally away from the gland

Duplicaiion of renal pelvis
c. Simple cyst of kidney
b. Close to the gland
d. Ureterocele c. Halfr,r'ay from the gland
122. Thimble bladder is seen in: March 2005
a. Diverticulae 130. FNAC is useful in all except: March 2N7
b. Bladder stones a. Follicularcarcinoma
c. Schistosorniasis
b. Papiilary carcinoma
d. Tuberculosis
123. Narrowest part of the urethra is: c. Anaplasticcarcinoma
LInrch 2009
a. Prostatic urethra d. Merlullary carcinoma
b. Bulbar urethra 131. Features of hyperthyroidism are all except:
c. Penile urethra
March 2Aa7
d.
Membranous urethra
a. Voracious appetite
L24. Which of the following causes orchitis without
epididymitis:
b. Cold intolerance
March 2009
a. Syphilis c. Emotionaldisturbance
b. TB d. Sleeplessness
c. Gonorrhoea 132. Metastasis from follicular carcinoma should be
d.
Chlamvdiatrachomatis
treated by:
125. Drainage of venous blood from testes following September 2007
division of testicular vein for treatment of varicocele is a. Radioiodine
byt March 2009
b. Surgery
a. Cremasteric vein c. Thyroxine
b.
Dorsal vein of penis d. Observation
c.
Internal pudendal vein
d.
Pampiniform plexus 133. AntiTPO antibodies are present in: September 2007
126. Spider-leg appearance is seen in: March 2010
a. Reidel'sthyroiditis
a. Pyelonephritis b. Grave's disease
b. Polyrystic kidney c. Hashimotosthyroiditis
c. Renal artery stenosis
d" DeQuervain's thyroiditis
d. Ureteric stones
127. All of the following are seen in chronic pyloric 134. All of the following are true regarding Gtave,s
obstruction except: March 2010 disease except: March 2008
a. Alkaline urine a. Orbital proptosis
b. Acidic urine b" Presents as primary thyrotoxicosis
c" Hypochloremia
d. H1'pokalemia
c. Anti-TPO antibodies
d. Pretibial myxoedema
THYROID
135. True regarding Papillary carcinoma of thyroid is:
128. All of the following are features of Graves disease
except: Septenrber 2005 March 20A8
a. More common in males a. Undifferentiatedcarcinoma
b. Tremor b. Blood-bome metastasis is commoner
c" Pretibial myxoedema c. Excellent prognosis
d. Intolerance to heat
d. Capsulated
f6. Most common cause of solitary thyroid nodule is: BREAST
Septentber 2008 142. Most important prognostic factor for breast

Carcinoma is: March 2005
a. Physiologicalgoitre
b. Follicular adenoma a. Age of the patient
c. Colloiddegenerations b. Lymph node involvement
d. Cysts
c. Genetic factors
d. Family history
f7, Thyroxine can be given in which thyroid carcinoma:
143. Group of lymph node involved in breast carcinoma
SePtember 2009
are all of the following except: Mnrch 2005
a. PaPillary
a. Supraclavicular
b. Medullary
b. Prebracheal
c. Anaplastic c. Axillary'
d. Undifferentiated d. Intemal mammary
$8. After thyroidectomy for medullary carcinoma of 144.Unilateral breast involvement with scaly skin around
thyroid, which is important for determining the nipple and intermittent bleeding is suggestive of: ..O
recurrence of tumour: September 2009 3 SePtember 2005 :m
a. thyroglobulin a. Galactocoele i:Z
b. ,irn
b. TSH Pagets disease
*v
c. Carcinoembryonicantigen c. Eczema
*>
d. Thyroxine levels d. Sebaceous cysts
$l-
Amyloid deposition is seen in which type of
145. Simple Mastectomy includes removal of: *o
139.
September 2005 €i 2006 *c
carcinoma thyroid: September 2009
a" Only breast in
a. Follicular
b. Breast and axiJ.lary nodes to
b. Anaplastic
c. Breast +axillaries nodes+pectoralis major muscle
*m
c. Anaplastic
d.
*F
d. Medullary
Breast+axillariesnodes+Pectoralismajor $<
muscle+pectoralis minor muscle -(-
{:
140. All of the following are true regarding medullary :l:
*
carcinoma of thyroid except: March 2010 146. Peau d'Orange of breast is due to: i
a. Total thyroidectomy is done September 2005,2010, March 2007
b. Parafollicular cells involved a" Obstruction of Vein
c. TSH dependent b. Obstruction of lymphatic ducts.
d. Releases calcitonin c. Obstruction of glandular ducts
141. Which of the following is initial investigation of d. Obstruction of arteries
choice for a patient presenting with solitary nodule of 147. Structure preserved in Modified radical [Pateyl
thyroid: March 2005 mastectomy is: Septenrber 2006' 2009
a. Thyroid function test a. Axillary vein

b" FNAC b" Pectoralis major muscle
c. Radionuclide scan
c. Nerves to serratus anterior
d. MRI
d. All of the above
GeneralSurgery
rii
.
1,48. Most unfavorable/poor prognosis is seen in which 155. Minimum score in Glassgow Coma Scale:
type of breast cancer: Septernber 20A7 March2MT
a. Tubular carcinoma a.0
b. Medullary carcinoma b. 1
,'t1,"i c. Colloid carcinoma c.2
Jcl. lnilammatory
l^fl --- -r^-,, carclnoma o.J
ffi
.,..i,*:.i,:
1,49. True regarding breast carcinoma is: March 2008
a. Occurs most commonly in upper inner quadrant
b. Late menarche and early menopause predisposes
156. Raised
a.
b.
Intra cranial Pressure will
Tachycardia
Hvpotension
cause: March2@L
for breast malignancy c. Papilloedema

c.
Commoner in nulliparous wornel-l d. Normai locrking anterior fontanelle in infants
d.Unrelated r.r.ith the family historv of breast cancer 157. Surgerv of choice for pleon'rorprhic adenoma is:
150. All of the following are predisposing factors for
Stptetnber 2007,2A10
breast carcinoma except: ltnlntrhrr
"-r-'" )OO.9
"' -"'_ a. Totalparotidectornv
a. Family history of breast carcinoma b. Superfici.rl parotidectonry
b. First child at a younger age
!,. c. E.rrly menarche and late mcnopause
c.
d.
Total paroiidectomy n'ith lymph node dissection
&i: d. Nulliparous lvomen
Radicaiparotidectomy
IIJ i 158. True statement regardihg fracture base of the skull
(,t HEAD.NECK are all of the following except: March2ffi8;
EI 151. Both breasts are affected in which type of breast a. Prophylactic antibiotics are usually not required r.,i
f,t carcinoma: Septentuer 2009 b. Associated with 8 cranial nerve palsv

@i a. Inflammatory c. Early surgery is indicated for optimal outcome
J}: b. infiltrative d. May present with CSF otorrhoea
<l
t:, c. Ductal 159. All of the following statement regarding stones in
d. Lobular the submandibular gland are true except: March 2008
IJJ I'
152. Stones are most commonly seen in which salivary a. 80% of stones occur in the submandibular qland
Zii gland:
utt March 2005,2007 b. Majority of submandibular stones are radio-lucent ,:
C,l a. Submandibular c. Stones are the most common cause of obstruction r
b. Sublingrral within the submandibular gland

c. Parotid d. Patient presents rvith acute swelling in the region
d. Occurs with equal frequenry in all the salivary of the submandibular gland
glands.
160. True regarding cystic hygroma is: March 20At
1"53. A man sustained injury and presented with fluid
a. Alrvays unilateral
coming out through nose. What could be the
b. Brilliantlytranslucent
possible fracture: Marclr 2007 c. Subsides itself
a. Fracture base of skull d. Always presnts at birth
b. Fracture of mandible 161. Most common congenital anomaly of the face is:
c. Fracfure of maxilla
March 2009
154. What is not found in head injury:
a. Cieft lip alone
March 2007
a. Confusion b. Isolated cleft palate
b. Loss of consciousness c. Cleft lip and cieft palate
c. Lucid interval
d. All have equal incidence
d. GCS score of 0
152, Carcinoma of tongue most commonly occur at: LUNGS

March 2009 169. Emergency management for Tension pneumothorax
a. Dorsum ls: Septenfuer 2005
b. Lateral border of anterior 2/3rd a. Thoracotomy
c. Lateral border of posterior 1/3rd b. Insertion of a chest tube
d. Tip c. Needledecompression
163. Most common location of ectopic submandibular

d. Tracheostomy
L70. Management of flail chest with respiratory failure
salivary gland tissue is: September 2009
a. Cheek
is: September 2006
b. Palate
a. Chest tube drainage
b. Oxygenadministration
c. Angle of mandible
c. IPPV
d. Tongue d. Intemal operative fixation of the frachrres
164. True regarding Sjogren's syndrome are all of the segments
following except: Septenfuer 2009 171. True about flail chest are all except: March 2007
a. Autoimmune condition a. Ultimately leads to respiratory failure
b. Males are commoniy affected b. Paradoxicalrespiration
c. Progressive destruction of lacrimal and salivary c. Fracture of 3-4 ribs ?
,o
d. i|'rl
gland Mediastinal shift :.2
d. No single laboratory investigation is 172. Carcinoma responding maximally to radiotherapy is: im
pathognomic.
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
September 2006
,D
n
165. Branchial cyst arises from the which branchial cleft:
September 2009
b.
c.
Adenocarcinoma
Small cell carcinoma
tr
t'rU,
a.
b.
First
Second
d. None of the above ic
i.,F
173. Most common symptom in pulmonary embolism:
c.
d.
Third
Forth September 2007 io
a. Dyspnea irTt
166. Most common tumour of eyelid is: September 2009
b. Pleuritic chest pain .in
a.
b.
Neurofibromatosis
Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Cyanosis i<
d. Hemoptysis I
c. Basal cell carcinoma
174. Condition which builds within hemithorax
d. Rhabdomyosarcoma
resulting in collapsed lung, flattened diaphragm,
167. Surgical correction in cleft palate primarily aims at
contralateral mediastinal shift and compromised
all of the following except: March 2010 venous return to right side of heart is known as:
a. Control of regurgitation September 2007
b. To promote normal dentition and facial growth a. Open pneumothorax
c. To get a normal speech b. Flail chest
d. Normal appearance of lips, nose and face c. Massive pulmonary hemorrhage
168. Bacterial pyogenic parotitis affecting the parotid d. Tensionpneumothorax
gland is most common after: March 2008 175. IPPV is useful in: March 2009
a. Uveo-parotid fever a. Hemopneumothorax
b. Mumps b. Pneumothorax
c. Debilitation after major surgery c. Flail chest
d. After administration of iodine d. Hemothorax
General Surgery
176. Which of the following subtype of lung carcinoma 183. All of the following
are false for Gall Bladder
produces superior vena cava syndrome: Carcinoma except: March 2005
Septonber 2a09 a. Carries a good prognosis
a. Small cell carclnoma b. Gallstones may be a predisposing factor
b. Adenocarcinoma c. Commorrly squamous cell carcinoma
c. Anaplasficcarcinoma d. Jaundice is rare
d. Squamous cell carcinoma 1.84.Psammoma bodies are seen in: March 2007
a. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
SURCICAL ONCOLOCY b. Follicular carcinoma of thyroid
177.Most common subtype of Basal cell carcinoma is: c. Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid
March 2005
d. Lymphoma of thyroid
185. False statements about carcinoma esophagus are all
a. Sr,rperficiai basal cell carcinoma
b. Nodr,rlar basai cell carcinoma
of the following except: March 2007
c. a. Most common in lorver third
Sclerosing basai cell carcinorna
b. Histologically,adenocarcinomaonll,
d. Pigmented basal ccll carcinoma
c. Unrelated to tobacco chen ing
L78. Sister |oseph Nodules are present at: Mar& 2A05 d. It is more common in females
a. Umbilicus
& b. Diaphragm
MISCELLANEOUS
ut c. 186. Glasgow coma scale in death is: September 2005
o d.
Lung
Liver
a.0
b. 1
&
f 179. Most common histological type of carcinoma of base
of tongue:
c.2
d.3
CD March 2007
J a. Squamous cell carcinoma 187. Commonest complication of parenteral nutrition
b. Adeno carcinoma includes all except: March 2007
t c.
d.
Basal cell carcinoma a. Hyperglycemia
b. Hyperkalemia
zIIJUJ Transitional cell carcinoma
180" Feafures of carcinoma penis include all except:
c.
d.
Hyperosmolardehydration
Azotemia
(, March 2007 188. Chyluria is caused by all except: Nlarch 2007
a. Metastasize to inguinal lymph nodes a. Pregnancy
b. Surgery is the treatment of choice b. Childbirth
c. Hypospadias is a premalignant lesion c.Filariasis
d. Circumcisionprovides protection d.Bile duct stones
181. True about breast carcinoma are 189. Which of the follorving is preferred cannulation site
all except:
for total parenteral nutrition: September 2007
March 2007
a. Positive family history
a. Subclavian vein
b. b. Great Saphenous vein
Median age of presentation is about 40 years c.Median cubital vein
c. More common in muslims d.Extemal jugular vein
d. Peau d'orange is due to subcutaneous lymphatic 190. Which is best method for supplementing nutrition
involvement in patients who have undergone massive tesection
L82" Aim of surgery in carcinoma rectum is: March 2010 of the small intestine is: September 2007
a. Limited excision of the rectum a. Parenteral
b. Sacrificing gastrointestinal continuity b. Enteral
c. Preserving the anal sphincter c. Gastrostomy
d. Preservingmesorectum d. All of the above
199. A patient on antibiotics for treatment for peritonitis

191. Level V cervical nodes includes: September 2007
a. Upper jugular nodes presents with mucus diarrhoea. Most probable

b. Middle jugular nodes cause could be: September 2009
c. Lower jugular nodes a. Ulcerative colitis

d. Posterior triangle nodes b. Activation of latent tuberculosis
f2. Which of the following is ideal in moderate c. Antibioticassociateddiarrhoea
hemorrhagic shock: September 2007 d. Gastritis
a. Dextrose 200. CVP is usually measured in: September 2009
b. Ringer lactate a. Superior vena cava
c. Blood b. Right atrium
d. Dextran c. Junction of superior vena cava and right atrium
193. Which of the following solution is a colloid: d. Subclavian vein l
SePtenfuer 2007
201. Pneumoperitoneum is created by: Septenfucr 2009
a. Normal saline
a. 02
b. Albumin
b. co
c. Ringer iactate
C. CO2 iQ
d. dextrose 5%
d. N20 " im
194. leep disease is also known as: March 2008
202. All of the following are true regarding pilonidal $m iz
a. Anal incontinence
b. Hemorrhoids exceph
sinus SePtemberz\lgYV
c. Pilonidal sinus a. Seenpredominantlyinwomen t> dF
d. Anal fissure b. Occurs only in sacrococcygeal region. 1'
195. Ideal investigation for fistula-in-ano is: March 2008 c. tendenry forrecurrenc
" trp
a. Endoanalultrasound d. Obesity is a risk factor i=
b. MRI 203.Graft is not taken up by the following tissue: i
6
c. Fistulography March 2005 $n1
d. CT scan a. Fat *I
"{<
196. Cellulitis is most commonly caused by: b. muscle
Swtember 2008,2010 c. Skull bone 1
a. Clostridia d. Deep fascia 1
b. Staphylococci 204. In radical neck dissection, which strucfure is not t
c. Streptococci Removed: March 2005 :l'
d. H.Influenzae
a. Cervical group of lymph nodes
197. Hypochloremic alkalosis is seen in: March 2009
b. Stemocleidomastoidmuscle
a. Achalasia cardia
c. Internal jugular vein
b. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
c. Ureterosigmoidostomy
205. All of the following conditions result in chronic
d. Diarrhea
198. Cryoprecipitate eontains: March 2009 thick walled pyogenic abscess exeept: March 2005
a. factor II a" Inadequate surgical drainage

b. factor V b. Virulent strain of offending organism
c. factor VIII c" Prolnged course of antibiotic therapy
d. factor IX d. Presence of foreign body
Generai Surgery
206. Which of the following is true regarding 213. Basal cell carcinoma usually spreads by which route:
tuberculous lymphadenitis: March 2005 September 20ai
a. Historv of contact lr,ith TB patient rnay be present a. Hematogenous route
b. Commoniy seen in the 1'oung and children b. Lymphatic route
c. Mostly in the ccrvical region c. Direct spread
'lr,i.:l.,,'
i:.,+,1,
d. Ail of the above
d"
All of the above
ll'.,;:il;t 207. Sen-m amylase level is increased in all of the
: i 'j''.
2L4. Which of the following is commonest site for rodent l
a. Intestinalobstruction ulcer: September 2A07
' ' ,,' b. Perforated ulcer a. Lips
c. Acute pancreatitis b. Orrter canti'rus of eve
d. Acute appendicitis c. Inner canthus of eve
208. Cystic hvgroma may be associated'with: Mnrclr 2005 d. Cheek
a. Turner's syndrome 215. Highest chance of success in renal transplant is
b. Klinefelter'ssr.ndrome possible when the donor is: Septenfuer 20A1, 2010
c. Don'n's syndrome
a. Father
tUI 209.
d. All of the above
Differential diagnosis of a lesion, histologically
b. Mother
g) c. Twin -:
. resembling giant cell tumour in the small bones of
E,': the hand/feet, include all of the following except:
d. Son
216. HtA matching is not necess ary for:
--
J March 2005
September 2ffi7
ai. a. Fibrosarcoma a. Liver transplant
J; b. Enchondroma b. Renal transplant
<:
&,,:
c. Hyperparthyroidism c. Heart transplant
IJJ.:
d. Aneurysmal bone ryst d. Comeal transplant
z"j 210. All of the following

are features of carcinoma penis 217. Which of the following is seen in Addison's disease:
ltJ Except: March 2005 September 2407
(9"' a. Surgery is the treatment of choice a. Hypernatremia
b. Balanoposthitis may be a predisposing factor b. Hypokalemia
c. Metastaizes to inguinal nodes c. Hyperglycemia
d. Histologically a transitional cell carcinoma
d. Hypercalcemia
21.1. Curling's ulcer are associated with:
218. All of the following conditions are associated with
September 2005
raised amylase level except: September 2A07
a. Patient with gastrinoma
b. Head injuries
a. Carcinoma pancreas
c. Burns b. Perforated ulcer

d. Analgesicoverdosage c. Acute pancreatitis
212. Cock's peculiar tumour is: Septenfuer 2007
d. Acute appendicitis
219. Adson test is positive in: September 2007
a. Infected sebaceous cyst a. Cervical spondylosis
b. Osteomyelitis of skuli b. Cervical rib
c. Cyst in the skull c. Cervical vertebra fracture
d. Tumour of the skull d. Superior vena cava syndrome
SELF ASsEssefigerre
.NNNCC/MCI SCRE.*NING EXAMIN
ORTHOPAEDICS (Questions)
ORTHOPAEDIC TRAUMA 9. lVhat is the position of the leg in fracture neck of
1. Hill-Sachs lesion is seen in: NIarch 2005 femur: Septentber 2@J
a. Ilecurrent dislocation of elbou' a. Internal rotation deformitv of less than 45 degree ,r,
b. Recurrent dislocation of patelia b. External rotation deformitv of less than 45 degree ' .1,
c. Recurrent dislocation of hip c. Internal rotation deformitv of more than 45 degree ',
d. Recurrent dislocation of shoulder d. External rotation deformity of more than 45 degree.
2. Supracondylar fracture of the femur commonly 10. March fracture is fracture of: September
inlures which structure: September 2005 a. Calcaneus ":'
a. Sciatic nerve b. 2nd metatarsal
b. Popliteal nerve c. Distal fibrrla
c. Popliteal vessel d.
Proximal tibia
cl. Femoral vessel 11. Humeral supracondylar fracture commonly results in
3. Comrnonest complication of extra capsular fracture of vrhich nerve injury: S eTttetnber 20A7
femur is: Septentuer 2005 a. Musculocutancous nerve

a. Non union b. Radial nerve
b. Mal union c. ulnar nerve
c. Avascular necrosis d. Median nerve 3
d.Osteoarthritis L2. Fracture of distal end of radius may results in loss of
4" Most serious complication of fracture of a long bone function of which tendon: Sept ember
is; September 2005 a. Extensor pollicis longus
a. Fat embolism b. Flexor pollicis brevis
b. Pulmonary embolism c. Extensor indicis
c. Deep vein thrombosis d. Extensor digitorum
d. Associated joint injuries 13. Complication of humeral lateral epicondyle fracture ,,1
5. Which of the following nerve is damaged in the is: Scptember 2N8

fracture of the shaft of the humerus: a. Non union
March, Septeruber 2a05 b. Tardy ulnar nerrre palsy
a. Musculocutaneous nerve c. Cubitus valgus deformity
b. Radial nerve d. All of the above
c. Ulnar nerve 14. Bone commonly fractured in facial injuries is: :.
d. Median nerve March2W
6. Epiphyseal plate fractures are classified by: a. Nasal bones
Seatnnber 2005 b. Nasoethmoid bone
a. Herring's classification c. Zygomanc bone
b. Salter-Harris classification d.Mandible
c. Garden'sclassificanon 15. Manoeuvre carried out for diagnosing medial
d. Pauwel's classification meniscus injury is: March2010
7. Uncommon in Colle's fracture: March 2007 a. McMurray's test
a. Non-union b. Lachmann's test
b. Mal-union c. Valgus stress test
c. Rupture of EPL tendon d. Varus stress test
d. Refler sympathetic dystrophy 16. Manoeuvre for diagnosing rupture of medial
8. True regarding Monteggia fracture is: March 2007 collateral ligament is: March2il'A
a. Upper ulnar fracture & dislocated radial head a. Posterior drawer test
b. Upper radial fracture & dislocated ulna h, Anterior drar.t.er test
c. Lower radial fracfure & dislocated ulna c. Lachmann's test
d Lorter ulnar fracture & dislocatcd raclius cl. Valeus stress test
24. Monoarticular joint involvement is seen in which oI

INFLAMMATIONS OF MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM September 2007 it ri
the following:
17. Fibrous ankylosis is caused by which of the following: a. Primarvosteoarthritis
March 2A05
b. Rheumatoicl arthritis
a. Septic arthritis c. Tuberculararthritis
b. TB arthritis d. Sero-neagtive spond-arthritis
c. Bechet's disease 25. Most common joint involved in osteoarthritis in India:
March 2409
d. Psoriatic arthritis
18. Metacarpophalangeal joints are most commonly a. Shoulder
March 2A05 b. Hip
affected in:
c. Knee
a. Osteoarthritis d. Ankle
b. Psoriatic artirritis 26. Part of knee most commonly involved in
c. IRhettmatoid arthritis osteoarthritis: Mnrch 2009
d. Rheumatic fever a. Medial comPartment
19. Felon is: Mnrch 2407 b. Laterai corrlPartment
a. Mid palmar sPace infection c. Medial and lateral comPartment
b. Infection of ulnar bursa d. Patellofemoral comPartment
27.Felty's syndrorne is associated with which of the
c. Terminal pulp sPace infection following: SePterfuer 2009
d. Infection of nail bed a. Osteoarthritis
3
Iliac crest involvement is common in which

:,o
20. b. Rheumatoid arthritis ',.7
condition: Mnrch 2007 c. Ankylosing sPondYiitis ,,{
a. Ankylosing spondylitis d. Psoriatic arthritis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis 28. Purulent inflammation and infection of terminai pulp
space of distal phalanges is known as:
lo
'T
c" Reiter's syndrome
d. Osteoarthritis
a. Acute paronYchium
SePtentber 2009
'T
,.D
'.lll
21. Commonest presenting symptom of Pott's spine is:
Mnrch 2007
b. Whitlow
c. Acute suppurative tenosynovitis
ls
a. Cold abscess d. Apical subungual infection i.6
b. Back pain 29. All of the following are true regarding ankylosing iu,
c. Decreased sPinal movements spondylitis excePt: March 2010
d. Collapse of spine a. Involvement of sacroiliac ioint

b. Most of people areHLAB2T positive
22. In a patient with gouty arthritis, strongly birefringent c. 50% of pafients may have urinary infection
needle-shaped crystals with negative elongation in d. Bamboo spine may be a radiologicai feature
synvial fuid aspiration are comPosed of: 30. HLA 827 is commonly associated with which of the
SePtember 2007 following: March 2010
a. Monosodium urate a. Rheumatic fever ::
b. Calcium pyroPhosPhate b. Rheumatoid arthritis

c. Homogentisic acid
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Ankylosing sPondYlitis
d. Sodium pyroPhosPhate : ,
23. Charcots/ neuropathic joints are most commonly seen OTHER NON TRAUMATIC CONDITIONS ,l
in September 2007 31. Duputryens contracture commonly affects: ." ......-,,.'

'
SePtember 2005
a. DM
b. Syringolmyelia a. Littlefinger ,
b. Ring firger .
c. Leprosy c. Middle finger

d. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Index finger i''' r,
Orthopaedics
32. Aseptic necrosis is common in: 40. In Hansen's disease, the nerve commonly affected
at
March 2007, Septenfuer 2010 elbow
erpow is:
rs: (--+..---,
Sr|ttember
a. Scaphoid a. Ulnar nerve
2005
b. Calcaneum b. Median nen'e

c. Cuboid c. Radial nerve
d. Trapezium d. Muscuiocutaneous nerve
Best diagnostic modality to diagnose avascular
4L. Foot drop occurs due to the involvement of:
necrosis is: March 2007
a. MRI scan September 200lr
b. CTscan a. Sciatic nerve
c. X-rav b.Direct injury to the dorsiflexors
d. USG c. Common peroneai nerve palsy
34. AII of the following are seen in rickets except: d. All of the above
Stptctrfucr 2009 42, Most common nerve injured in fracture of medial
a. Frenkels line epicondyle of humems is: Mdrch 2A{)7
b. lVidening of epiphysis- diaphvsis distance a. Radial nerve
c. Cupping and splaying of metaphvsis b. Ullar nerve
d. Rarefaction c. Median nerve
. 35. Duchenne,s muscular dystrophy affects which
group d. Musculocutaneous nerve
, of muscle s commonly: Septeiber ZbOg 43. Positive Trendelenburghign is seen in:
Ur "', a. Calf muscles
a. Superior gluteal nerve palsy
March 2007
O :: b. Sl-roulder muscles
b. In-ferior giuteal nerve palsy
A
-:: c. l-orearm muscles
c. Obturator nerve palsy
iii . d. Respiarr.ory muscles
d. Ilihypogastric nerve palsy
? ,, ,U. In Duchennes muscular dystrophy, calf muscle is: 44. Carpal tunnel is associated with all of the following
L ,i, a September 200g
Hypertrophied
O D. Arroptued a. Hyperparathyroidism
T b. Rheumatoid arthritis
tr c. Pseudoatrophied
d. Pseudohvpertrophied. c. Wrist osteoarthritis
U d.
O 37. of Congenital talipes equinovarus deformity includes all Acromegaly '!
the following except: March 2010 45. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is commonly seen in:
r,r a. Eversion SePtember 2008
i: b. Forefoot adduction a. Cubitus varus deformity
-: c. ,t oretoot cavus
b. Cubitus valgus deformity
o. Equrnus c. Dinner fork deformity
38. All of the following are true about rickets except: d. Garden spade deformity
March 2010 46. Carpal tunnel syndrome is due to involvement of
a.
h which nerve: March 2009
a. Radial nerve
d b. Median nerve
c. Ulnar nerve
d. Axillary nerve
47. Inability to adduct the thumb is due to the injury of:
lvlarch 2009
a. Median nerve
Ulnar nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
Median nerve
c. Radial nerve
uI Radial nerve
d. Musculocutaneous nerve
September 2009 56. Sunray appearance on X'ray may be seen in:

48. Tinel sign indicates: SePtember 2048
a. Nerve degeneration
a. Osteoclastoma
b. Nerve regeneration
c. Both
b. Osteoblastoma
d. None c. Osteosarcoma
d. Chondroblastoma
49. Partial claw hand is caused by lesion involving
the:
March2010 57. Tumour which can occur following exposure to
radiation is: March 2009
a. Radialnerve
b. Ul:rar nerve a. Osteosarcoma
c. Median nerve b. Osteoblastoma
d. Anterior interosseous nerve c. Ewing's sarcoma
d. Osteoclastoma
ORTHOPAEDIC ONCOLOCY
MISCELLANEOUS
50. Radiological finding of ewings sarcoma is:
Scotentber 2005 58. First epiphysis to appear around the elbow region is:
Mnrch 2005 :..:
a. Soap bubble aPPearence

b. Sunray apPearence a. Head of radius i'
c. Onion peel apPearence b. Capituium

d. Codman's triangle c. Trochlea t' ..,
51. Osteosarcoma conunonly af f ects: September 2005 d. Medial condYle iO

a. Metaphysis 59. Supination and pronation occurs at which of the ,tV
b. Diaphysis following joinh SePtember 2006 I
c. Epiphysis a. Wrist joint |*

d. None of the above b. Eibow joint :9'
52. Commonest location of aneurysmal bone cyst isl c. Radio-ulnar joint tI
SePtembet 2006 d. CarpometacarPal ioint \4
is:
rr' ?on7 i r I
Qsntowhor -""
a. Femur 60. Example of syndesmosis Ju'rrr
ioint
'''o" '
b. Pelvis a. Tibiotalarlo*a I
c. Vertebrae b. Tibiofibuiar joint ,Q
d. Tibia c. Elbowjoint i.(n
53. Which of the following is seen in multiple myeloma: d. CarpometacarPal joint
March 2007 61. Trendelenburg sign is positive due to the involvement i''
a. Raised serumcalcium of: March 2009 t:'
b. Decreased serum calcium Gluteum maximus

a. !:
c. Normal serum calcium b.

Gluteus medius
d. None of the above c. Psoas major
54. Most common tumor of sPine is: September 2008 d. Adductor magnus
a. Secondaries 62. "Marble Bone" appearance is seen in: March 2009
b" Ewings sarcoma a. Osteomalacia
c. Oteosarcoma b. OsteoPetrosis
d. Multiple myeloma c. Rickets
55. Punched out lesion in the skull is indicative of: d. OsteoPorosis
SePtember 2008 63. Spondylolysis is more common in: March 2009
a. Ewings sarcoma a. Intervertebral disc
b" Multiple myeloma b. Anterior Part
c. Metastasis c. Pars interarticularis
d" Osteosarcoma d. Annulus fibrosus
Orthopaedics
March 2009 67. Knuckle bender splint is used for: September

a. Ulnar nerve palsy
b. Radial nerve palsy
c. Median nerve PaisY
d. Axillary nerve palsY l:
SEtember 2009 68. Maximum weight that can be given with skeletal .':-::
traction is: Septenrber 2@g
a. 5kg
b. 10 kg
c. 15 kg
d.20 kg
Stpttentber 2009 69. Who coined the term orthopaedics: Match2010
a. Osteosarcoma a. Louis Pasteur

b. Osteomalacia b. Erlu'ard jenner
c. Multiple myeloma c. Nicholas andry
d. Malnutrition d. Kuntscher
U'
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CI 5CREENIN
PAEDIATRICS (Questions)
CROWTH 9. Very low birth weight is less than: September 2009
t. Fluid intake by a 8 kg boy should be: March 2005 a. 1000 gm

a. 700 ml b. 1500 gm
b. 800 ml c. 2000 gm
c. 900 ml d. 2500 gm
d. 1L 10. Anterior fontanelle ossifies by: March 2007
2. Nocturnal enuresis may be considered normal upto: a. 6 months
March 2005
b. 12 months
a. 3 years
c. 15 months
b. 4 years
c. 5 I'ears d. 18 months
d. 6 years 11. Moro reflex disappear by: March 2010
Height of a newbom doubles at: Septenrber 2005, a. 2 months

Marclt 2A10 b. 3 months
a. 1 year c. 4 months
b. Z1tear d. 5 months
c. 3 year
NUTRITION
d. 4 year
Weight of a child triples at: September 2405 12. Vitamin D deficiencv is manifested as: Swtember 2005
a. 6 months a. Scurr,y
b. 1 year b. Night blindness
c. 18 months c. Beri-Beri
d. 2 year d. Rickets
5. A 8 month old baby will be able to do which of the 13. Malnutrition is assessed clinically by; September 2007
following: March 2047 a. Mid arm circumference
a. Stable sitting b. Weight for age
b. Pincer grasp c. Body mass index
c. Stands without support
d. Al1 of the above
d. Says mama
14. Specific sign of kwashiorkor is: September 2007
5. Normal weight of infant at 1 year from birth is:
SePtember 2007
a. Pitting edema
a. Doubled b. Weight loss
b. Trippled c. Flag sign
c. Quadrupled d" Muscle wasting
d. Variable increase 15" Prelacteal feed given iust after birth is: March 2009
7' A child of 3 years will be able to: March 2009 a. Colv's milk
a. Copy circle b. Honey
b. Ride bicycle c. Water
c. Copy cross d" None
d. Copy triangle
16. All of the following are the features of scurvy except:
8. A child of 4 years can do all of the following except:
SePtenfuer 2009
Smtember 2009
a. Skip a. Hyperkeratosis
b. Goes down stairs one foot per step
b" Ecchymosis of lower limbs
c. Tell a story c" Hypoglycemia
d. Copies triangie d" Bleeding gums
Paediatrics
17. A child of age 9 needed prophylaxis of vitamin A. 25. A 32 weeks premature, healthy infant weighing less
The dose and route of administration is: than 1kg is having jaundice with serum bilirubin
Scpternber 2009 level of 5 mg%. Ideal management in such a case
.,,,,i",i' a. 1,00,000 IU intramuscularly would be: Septenber 2A06
]r:i:;,.1:]i
b. 1,00,000IU orally a. Observation
:.,,::,
.:,
c. 2,00,000 IU intramuscularly b. Phototherapy
ii,*.;;i d. 2,00,000 IU orally c. Medical management
:rlirii
.- ..: :). L8. Breast feeding should be initiated with in: d. Erchange transfusion
: iiit51 SePtember 2009 26. Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all of the following
tj.iyi.,
. 1 :T,: a. Half an hour except: September 2@7
''':l'. b. Onehour a. Lecithin:sphingomyelinnratio
c. One and a half hour b. Foam stability index
d. Trgo hour c. Maternal alpha feto-prctein levcl
19. Acute malnutrition in a chiid is clinically assessed by: d. Amniotic fluid phosphatidl,lcholine level
Srytentber 2005 27. Most common cause of pathological jaundice on first
a. Body mass index day of life is: Nlarch 2008
b. Weight for age a. Physiologic
c. Height for age b. Biliary atresia
d. Weight for height c. Rh incompatibility t
U)t d. Sepsis
()11 NEWBORN
of the following condition doesn't present 28. Which of the following is not a cause for neonatal
E'i 20. Which jaundice manifesting for the first time in the second
Fii a. TOF
with cyanosis at birth: Septenfuer 2006
week: September 20A8
<:i b. Transposition of great vessels a. Rhesusincompatibility
6ii c. PDA b. Hypothyroidism
llJ ri c. Jaundice due to breast milk
<t
CL r' 21.
d. Tricuspid atresia
True about administration of corticosteroids for fetal d. Galactosemia
lung maturity all of the following except: 29. Most common cause of neonatal mortality in India is:
SePtember 2007 March 2010
a. Repeat dose if the rvomen remains undelivered a. Congenital malformations
after the first course b. Birth injuries
b. Decreased risk of enterocolitis and intracranial c. Prematurity
haemorrhage d. Inbom error of metabolism
c. Contra-indicated in eclampsia 30. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in all of the
d. Indicated in women with preterm labor between following except: March 2010
24-34 weeks of gestation a. Crigler Najjar Syndrome
22. All of the following are components of APGAR score b. Physiological jaundice
except: SEtember 2008
c. Dubin-fohnson syndrome
a. Heart rate d" Gilbert syndrome
b. Respiratory efforts
c. BP CONCENITAL DISORDER
d. Muscle tone 31" All of the following are associated with Down
23. Physiological jaundice in a term baby lasts upto: syndrome except: March 2010
Marclt 2005 €t September 2010 a" Sensory hearing loss

a. 4 days b. VSD
b. 7 da7,s c. Hypothyroidism
c. 10 days d. Duodenal atresia
d. t4 days
32. Which of the following is associated with Down 38. Koplik's spots are seen in: Septembet 2008
syndrome: March 2014 a. Typhoid

a. Raised PAPP-A level b. Measles
b. Decresed beta-HCG level c. Mumps
c. Raised estriol level d. Polio
d. Decreased AFP level
PEDIATRIC ONCOLOGY
CVS DISORDERS 39. Which of the following is the most common
All of the following are features of chest radiography malignancy of the childhood: March 2008
33.
in Tetralogy of fallot excePtr September 2007 a. CLL
a. Boot shaped heart shadow b. ALL $
b. In 80% right sided arch of aorta c. CML i
c. Oligemic lung fields d. AML
d. Right atrial enlargement MISCELLANEOUS
34. Which of the following step is least useful in the in: March 2007
40. Decreased LAP score is found
management of TOF: March 2010
a. Leukaemoid reaction
a. Anastomosis of a systemic artery with pulmonary
b. Myelofibrosis
artery
c. Pemicious anemia
b. Modified Blalock-Taussig shrmt i-u
d. Polycythemia
c. Administer 100% oxygen
41. Characteristic of achild with acute post-streptococcal r>
d. None of the above rm
35. Most common cause of death in aortic stenosis
glomerulonephritis is:
a. Leucocytosis
March 2005
:tl
patients is: March 2005
b. Fever ;>
a. Pulmonary edema
c. Raised ASO titre
:{
b. Atrial flutter ',:,4
d. Pedal edema
c. IHD with ventricular fibrillation
d. Cerebral embolism 42. Basic abnormality in a case of nephritic syndrome is: io
t(n
SePtember 2008
36. Congestive heart failure is seen in all of the following
except: September 2007 a. Hyperlipidemia
a. TAPVC b. Proteinuria
b. TOF c. Pedal edema
c. Coarctation of aorta d. Hypertension
d. PDA 43. A 5 year boy presented with massive haemetemesis'
He is not febrile. Per abdomen examination revealed
INFECTIOUS DISEASES
massive splenomegaly without hepatomegaly' Most
37. Commonest virus causing diarrhea in infants is: probable diagnosis would be: March 2005
SePtember 2006
a. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis
a. Poliovirus b. Extrahepatic portal venous obstruction
b. Adenovirus c. Budd-Chiarisl'ndrome
c. Rotavirus d. Hepatic carcinoma
d. Rhabdovirus
ASSESSMENT
OB STETRICS (Questions)
OBSTETRICS ANATOMY 9. Polyhydroaminosis is volume of amniotic fluid more
1. The distance from the upper end of sacrum to lower than: Seplember 2005
border of pubis corresponds to: Mnrch 2009 a. 1000 ml
a" Transverseconjup;ate b. 2000 ml
b. True conjugate c. 3000 ml
c. Diagonal conjugate d. 4000 ml
d. Obstetric conjugate 10. Accurate diagnosis of anencephaly on ultrasound can
2. Smallest pelvic diameter in anteroposterior plane of be done at: Septenfuer 2005
inlet: Mlarch 2009 a. 5 weeks of gestation
a. Obstetric conjugate
b. 8 weeks of gestation
b. Diagonal conjugate
c. 10 rt'eeks of gesi:ation
c. True conjugate d. 14 weeks of gestation
d. Transverse conjugate
11. True regarding pre-exposure tetanus immunization
3. Largest fetal head diameter: March 2009
are all except: September 2005
a. Occipitofrontal
b. -suboccipitofrontal a. If already immunized, a booster in the last trimester
is advocated
c. Mentovertical el
d. Submentovertical b. Vaccine is given intramuscularly

4. Pelvis with only one ala is known as: March 2010
c. Tetanus immunoglobulin is injected to the mother
a. Rachitic pelvis d. 2 doses are recommended
b. Naegele's pelvis 12. Placenta Praevia is characterized by all of the
c. Scoliotic pelvis following except: September 2005
d. Robert's pelvis a. Painless bleeding
b. Causeless bleeding
ANTENATAL PERIOD
c. Presents in first trirnester
5. Most common type of vertex presentation:
d. Recurrent bleeding
March 2005
13. A pregnant lady in her first trimester presents with
a. Right Occipito Posterior
vaginal bleeding. On examination the os is closed and
b. Left Occipito posterior
uterine size corresponds to the period of
c. Right Occipito Anterior
amenorrhoea.The condition could be: September 2005
d. Left occipito anterior
6. Pregnant lady presents with fulminant hepatitis. Most a. Septic abortion
Common Cause: March 2005, September 20L0
b. Compiete abortion
a. Hepatitis D c. Inevitable abortion
b. Hepatitis E d.
Threatend abortion
c. Hepatitis B 14. Post term pregnancy is the pregnancy which continues
d. Hepatitis A beyond: September 2006
7. Hydramnios is complicated by all except: March 2005 a. 274days
a. Placenta abruptio b. 284 days
b. Pre-eclampsia c. 294days
c" Postdated pregnanry d. 304 days
d. Atonic Hemorrhage 15. Ideal time for screening of blood sugar for diabetes in
8" Painless, heavy, recurrent bleeding of sudden onset is a pregnant female is: September 2006
seen ln: Mnrch 2005 a. 1.6-20 weeks
a. Cervical carcinoma b. 20-24weeks
b. Circumvallate placenta c. 24-28 weeks
c. Placenta praevia d" 72-16rveeks
d. Abruptio placentae
Obstetrics
15. During pregnancy/ maximum urinary HCG level is 23. Which Ig crosses through placenta: September 20Ag
reached in: March 2007 a. IgA
a. 30 days b. IgE
b. 50 days c. IgG
c. 70 days d. IgM
d. 90 days 24. Fetal adrenals release which hormone predominantlrn
17 . A 32 w-eeks pregnant lady presents in emergency room a" Oestrogen March 2009, September 20fi
with continuous bleeding per vaginum.The uterus is b. Testosterone
painful and tender.Most likely diagnosis is: c. Aldosterone
September 2007 d. Cortisone
a. Circumvallate placenta 25. tlltrasound is done in 1st trimester for all except:
b. Rupture of membranes
March 2009
c. Placenta praveia a. Mulfiple pregnancy
d. Accidental hemorrhage
b. Fetal anomalies
18. Type of anemia in pregnancy is: September 2007
c. To estimate gestational age
a. Megaloblastic
d. To know the position of the placenta
b. Microrytic hypochromic
26. Maximal level of cardiac output is seen at:
c.
Microcyticnormochromic
d.
Normochromic normorytic September 2A09
a. 22-26 weeks of pregnancy
U)i: 19. Drug of choice in chronically hypertensive pregnant
b. 26-30 weeks of pregnancy
O.I
r:i
women requiring long term antihypertensive therapy:
c" 30-34 weeks of pregnancy
trii Seotember 2007
d. 3+38 weeks of pregnancy
F$ a. Nifedipine
Congenital anomalies that can be identified by USG
ut i, b. Metaprolol 27.
F,"q c. Methyldopa are all except: September 2009
u) !::
d. Hydralazine a. Hydrops fetalis
m,i 20" True about abruptio placentae are all except b. Esophageal atresia
o::, c. Anencephaly
- iri September2))8
;:
ri a. Hypertension in the pregnancy is important d. Cystic hygroma
ir predisposing factor 28. pH of vagina in pregnancy is: September 2ffi9
.,,);
b. Placenta lying in the lower segment a. 2-4
I c. Tender and hard uterus b. 4-6
a d. Continuous bleeding per vaginum c. 6-8
i 21. Most common cardiac lesion seen in pregnancy: d. 8-10
a':
:,: September 2008 29. Uterus reaches up to umbilical level at: September 2009
a. Mitral regurgitation a. L6 weeks
b. Mitral stenosis b. 20 weeks
c. Tetralogy of fallots c. 24 weeks
d. Patent ducfus arteriosus d. 28 weeks
22. Shortest diameter of true pelvis amongst the following 30. Earliest fetal anomaly that can be diagnosed with
ls: September 2008 USG: September 20N
a. True conjugate a. Duodenal atresia
b. Diagonal conjugate b. Fetal hydrops
c. Interspinous diameter c. Down's symdrome
d. Interfuberous diameter d. Anencephaly
::
Ilj
*
+
31. Best time for diagnosing fetal abnormalities by USG: 38. Which of the following genital infections carries the
,:,
September 20A9 highest risk for preterm delivery: March 2005 :.ii
a. 6-12 weeks of pregnanry a. Trich.omonas vaginitis :ti
b. 13-19 weeks ofpregnancy b. Monilial vaginitis *

c. 20-26 weeks of pregnancy c. Bacterial vaginitis
d. 27-32 weeks of pregnanry d. Human papilloma virus
32. Term for relation of different parts of the fetus to one 39. During pregnanct fibroid may have all o{ the
f ollowing complications except: March 2009
another: SEtember 2009
a. Fetal station a. Metastasis
b. Fetal attitude b. Pain
c. Fetal lie c. Post partum hemorrhage
d. Fetal presentation d. Preierm iabour
33. Vaccine not contraindicated in pregnancy are all LABOR

except: March 2010 40. Advantages of median episiotomy over mediolateral
a. Rabies episiotomy are all except: March 2005 :,
b. Hepatitis B a. Less blood loss ].:

;t
c. Yellow fever b. easy repair :!,

d. Hepatitis A c. extension of the incision is easy i
34. Increase seen in plasma volume in pregnancy: d. muscles are not cut *o
March 2010 41. Progress of the labour is assessed with the help of *w
a. 1.0-20"/o March 2005 ltUt
b. 20-30o/o a. Cervicograph
${
..*ITl
c. 30-400/" b. Partogram f"{
d. 40-s0% c. Dilatation chart i,7
35. Change noticed in diastolic blood pressure in d. Growth curve !o
pregnancy is: March 2010 42. Bishop's classification is used for: March 2005 iU,
a. Decline of 10-20 mm of Hg a. Progress oflabour :i
b. Requirement of induction for labour
!
b. Decline of 5-10 mm of Hg
c. Elevation of L0-20 mm of Hg c. Gestational age of fetus i
.i;
d. Elevation of 5-10 mm of Hg d" Fetal well bein

43. A hypertensive primigravida with completely
36. Increase in cardiac output seen in pregnancy is:
subsided pre-eclamptic feafures,pregnancy should be
March 2010
continued at least upto: September 2005
a" 10%
a. 35 week
b. 20"/"
b. 37 week
c. 30%
c. 39 week
d. 40%
d. 40 week
37.True regarding rubella infection in pregnancy is:
44. Which of the following is seen in 2nd stage of labor:
March 20L0
September 2005
a. Risk of congenital infection is more in last trimester
a. Expulsion of the fetus
b. Vaccination is indicated in pregnanry for protection b. Increase in contraction
c. IgM antibodies in fetus reflects immunity c. Cervical dilatation
d, It is caused by DNA virus d. All of the above
Obstetrics
45. A full-term multigravida is having breech 52. Ideal management of a37 weeks pregnant elderly
presentation. Ideal management in this case would be: primigravida with placenta praevia and active
Sextentber 2006 bleeding: September 2007
a. Elective caesarean section a. Labour induction
b. External cephalic version followed by vaginal b. Caesarean section
delivery c. Vaginal deiivery
c. Trial of labour
d. Expectant treatment
d. Extemal cephalic version followed caesarean section
53. Successful trial of labour can be expected in:
46. External cephalic version is conhaindicated all of the
March2wl
a. Antepartum hemorrhage a. Android pelvis
b. Multiple pregnancy b. Naegele's pelvis
c. Breech presentation c. Flat pelvis
d. ltupfured membranes d. Generally contracted pelvis
47.True labour pains is represented by: Septenber 2006 54. Contra-indications to ergometrine are all except:
a. Pain and discomfort in the abdomen Mqrch 2AA8
b. Shot' a. Suspected muitiple pregnancy
c. Relieved by enema ans administration of sedative b. Cardiac problems
d. Dull in nature c. Atonic uterine bleeding "
U' 48. Pressure in ventcuse assisted delivery is: d. Rh-negative mother
(J September 2006 Which of the following is not parameter in Bishop's
tF i: a. 0.4 kgisq"cm
55.
score:
a
March 2N9
:, b 0.6 kg/sq.cm
IJJ ,,: c. 0.8 kg/sq.cm
a. Cervicalconsistency
F .:. d. 1.0 kg/sq.cm b. Station of head
aI 49. Shoulder dystocia results in the following except:
c. Position of head
m d. Cervical length
o ". a Erb's palsy
March 2007
56. Drug which is contraindicated before 2nd stage of
labor is: March 2009
., b. Klumpke's palsy
, c. Sternomastoid swelling a. Mifepristone
. d. Anencephaly b. Oxytocin
., 50. Shoulder dystocia is seen predominantly in: c. Misoprostol
: March 2007 d. Ergometrine
a. 57. Contraindication for applying forceps: March2N9
.l Transverse lie
,, b. Cord around neck a. crowning of head
c. Anencephaly b. head station +1
o. r|ano Prolapse c. maternal cardiac disease
-.i.:,* 5l.Prerequisite for applying forceps are all except: d. CPD
, ,. SePtcmber 2007 58. Causes of prolonged first stage of labor are all except
'1. a. Aftercoming head of breech March 2a09
'.ffi b. Thereshouldbeno CPD a. Weak uterine contractions
;,.i'i,{ c. Saggital suture should be in line with transverse b. CPD
'' diameter of pelvis
c. Rigid perineum
d. Foetal head should be engaged
d. Transverse presentation
,'&i,
$.,
.,ii-
:.,iiji':.r
,,a.,,,t
,
59. Cord cutting should be delayed in which condition: 66. Retained placenta can lead to: September 2005
Se1ttember 2009 a. Placental polyp
a. IUGR b. Proionged bleeding
b. Sever anemia c. Puerperal sepsis
c. Rh incompatibility d. All of the above
d. Asphp<ia 67. Post partum hemorrhage in a spontaneous delivery is
60. The average blood loss in normal delivery is: commonly due to: September 2005
September 2009 a. Traumatic
a. 250 ml b. Uterine atony
b. 500 ml c. BIood coagulopathy
c. 750 ml d. Mixed causes
d. 1000 ml 68. Low birth weight baby is defined as baby weighing:
61. Ideal management of 37 lveeks uncomplicated breech
Septembet 2.006
pregnancy is: March 20L0
a. Spontaneous vaginal delivery a. 1000 gm
b. Elective caesarean section b. 1500 gm
c. External cephalic version and trial of vaginal
c. 2000 gm
delivery d. 2500 gm
d. External cephalic version followed caesarean secfion 59. Most common cause of uterojvesical fistula in India:
62. All are done in 3'd stage of labour except: March 2010
a. Injection of ergometrine a. Pelvic Surgery
Septemher 2006
io
]TD
b. Cord clamping b. Obstructed labour ,;a
c. Massage of uterus c. Tumours ,.{
d. lnjection of oxytocin d. Tuberculosis .:JTI
63. A primigravida with vertex presentation is having
j{
70. Drugs used to control post partum hemorrhage are all
fully dilated cervix. Head is well engaged and is except: September 2007
',,4
having a station of +2. Foetal heart monitoring shows
a. Prostaglandin analogue
:lo
tu,
late deceleration. Most appropriate management in
b. Oxytocin
such a case would be: September 2009
a. Observation
c. Progesterone
b. Vacuum extraction
d. Ergotmetrine
c. Forceps application 71. All of the following are signs of uterine scar
d. Immediate Caesarean dehiscence except: September 2009
a. Tachycardia
POST NATAL PERIOD
b. Fetal distress
64. After 3rd stage of labour and expulsion of placenta,
patient is bleeding heavily. Ideal management would
c. Strong uterine contractions
include all except:

d. Falling BP
March 2005
a. Check for placenta in uterus 72. A woman with a history of repeated abortions gave
b. Check for laceration of labia birth to a low birth weight baby. The child is having
c. APGAR scoring rashes over palm and rhinitis. The most probable
d. Uterine massage and I/V oxytocin diagnosis is September 2009
65. AntiD Rh is given for: September 2005 a. Congenital HIV
a. Rh positive father,Rh positive mother b. Congenital syphilis
b. Rh negative father,Rh positive mother c. Congenital rubella
c. Rh negative father,Rh negative mother d. Pemphigus
d. Rh positive father,Rh negative mother
Obstetrics
73. Percentage of scar dehiscence in lower uterine 80. Commonest cause of ectopic pregnancy: March 200?
segment caesarean section is: September 2009 a. Previous tubal disease
a. 0.1-2% b. Oral contraceptives
b. 2-5% c. IUCD
c. 5-9"/" d. Endometriosis
d. More than 10%
81. Method of termination of pregnancy in first trimester
are all of the following except: September 2007
74. Involution of uterus occurs at the rate of:
a. Ethyl dacryryanate
Swtember 2009
b. Misoprostol + Mifepristone
a. 1.0 cm/day
c. Methotrexate + Misoprostol
b. 1.25 cm/day d. Suction and evacuation
c. L.5 cm/day
82. True regarding gestational trophoblastic neoplasia are
d. 2.0 cm/day all except: March 2009
75, Most common cause of post partum hemorrhage: a. pHCG is highly elevated in both the forms of molar
September 2009 preSnancy
a. Trauma b. Classical svmptoms are only seen with complete
b. Uterine atony moles
c. Tumours c. The genotype is 46XX i! majority of complete moles
'ii d. Blood coagulopathy d. The genotypes is 69XXY in majority of incomplete
U)ili moles
()ltj MISCELLANEOUS
83. Not associated with twin pregnancy: March20ffi
76.Exact number of weeks between last menstnral period
tr$
-.ij: a. Pre-eclampsia
F;: ILMPI and expected date of delivery [EDD]: b. Oligohydramnios
IJJ I March 2005 c. Antepartum hemorrhage
Frt
(,):i
a. 38 weeks d. Atonic uterus
b. 39 weeks 84. All of the following are associated with pathogenesis
dl,'i c. 40 weeks of acute hydrops fetalis except: September 2009
o.'li d. 41 weeks a. Hypoproteinemia
; 77.Most common site of ectopic pregnancy in fallopian b. Anemia
ir
:!:
il
tube: March 2005 c. Hypoplasia of placental tissue
;i a. Infundibulum d. Metabolic acidosis
il
,( b. ampulla 85. If division of fertilized egg takes place in between F8
c. isthmus days. It would give rise to which kind of twin
i d. interstitium pregnancy: March 2009
:i 78. Treatment for choice for fubal pregnancy with no a. Monochorionic/monoamniotic
,:i,
.,r!r: evidence of bleeding or rupfure: September 2005 b" Monochorionic/diamniotic
a. Salpingectomy c. Dichorionic/monoamniotic
b. Salpingostomy d. Siamese twins
c. Observation 86. Which of the following is not a manifestation of
d. Salpingocentesis neonatal tetanus: September 20N
79. Misoprostol is indicated in all of the following except: a" Irrritability

a. Postpartumhemorrhage September 2005,2010 b. Hypotonia
b. Missed abortion c. Difficult feeding
c. Induction of labour d. Facial grimacing
d. Menorrhagia
ESSMENT
GYNAECOLOGY (Questions)
d. IUCD
GYNAECOLOCY ANATOMY
CYNAECOLOCY-INFECTION
1" The mucosal lining in vagina is composed of:
March 2005 9. Gold standard investigation in diagnosing PID is:
March2005
a. Transitional
b. Ciliated columnar a. Anti chlamYdial Ab
c. Stratified squamous non keratinized b. LaParoscoPY
d. Pseudostratified columnar c. USG
d. Blood leucocYte count
2. Hormone responsible for ferning pattern of cervical
mucus: March 2007 10. Which of the following condition is most
iikely to be
of September 2009
a. Progesterone associated with vaginal PH 4 :
b. Estrogen a. AtroPhic vaginitis

c. LH b. Trichomanas vaginatis
d. Prolactin c. Candidal I'aginitis
3, Commonest uterine anomalY is: March2007
d. Gardenelia vaginitis
a. Uterus unicomis L1. A female presented with thick white discharge and
b. Uterus bicomis pruritus. aetiological agent fu: September 2009
c. Uterus didelPhYs a. Gardnerella
d. SubsePtate uterus b. Trichomonas vaginalis
CONTRACEPTIVES c. Candida
4. Contraceptive which is supplied by government free d. Gonococci
of cost: SePtember 2006
GYNAECOLOCY-ONCOLOGY
a. MiniPill bleeding
12. A 46years old lady has abnormal uterine
b. Norplant of endometrium' The
c. Mala-N with simple hyperplasia
d. Centchroman treatment of choice would be: March 2005
5. Pearl index is used to calculate: March' September

2009 a. Total HYsterectomY
a. Accidental Pregnancies b. Progestron
b" PoPulation c. Estrogen+ Progestogen
c. FertilitY rate d. Estrogen
d. Abortions 13. Meig's syndrome is associated with ovarian:
Sevtember 2006
6. Levonorgestrol containing IUCD Prevents Pregnancy
primarilY due to: March 2007 a. Teratoma
a. Making endometrium unrecePnve b. Brenner tumour
b. Suppressing ovulation c. Fibroma
c. tiiatit'tg inflammatory changes within the
d. Theca cell tumour
endometrium March 2007
14. Most com{non cervical carcinoma:
d. Making cervical mucus thin a. Adenocarcinoma
March 2010
7. Teehnique of Cu-T insertion: b. Sarcoma
a. Surgery under local anaesthesia c. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Surgery under general anaesthesia d. Small cell carcinoma
c" Pushing is highest with the
15. The risk of endometrial carcinoma
d. LaparotomY of endometrial
is: September 2006 following histological pattern
-
8. Conventional contracePtion March 2A07
a. OCP
hyperplasia:
b. Surgical sterilization a. Simple hyperplasia n'ith atyPia
c. 'Condoms
b. Simple hvperplasia without atypta
c. Complex hyperplasia with atypia c. Unicornuate uterus

d. Complex hyperplasia without atyPia d. Imperforate hYmen
in picking up 24. Estrogen deficiencY leads to: September 2005
16. Sensitivity of conventional PAP smear
cervical cancer is: SEtember 2007 a. PostmenoPausalbleeding
a. 70% b. Decreased risk of cardiovascular diseases
b. 80% c. OsteoPorosis
c. 90% d.
Dysmenorrhea
d. 100% 25. Hirsuitism is seen in all except: Septembet 2007 201-0
'
17. Not useful for diagnosis, in a female of 55 years a. AcromegalY
presenting with postmenopausal bleeding: b. Hyperthyroidism
Seatember 2009 c. Arrhenoblastoma
a. Transvaginal USG d. PCOD
b. Postcoital test 26. Laparoscopy is the diagnostic procedure of choice for:
c. Pap smear March 2008
d. Endometrial bioPsY a. Ca uterus
18. Endometrial carcinoma with vaginal metastasis,what b. Ca cervix 'i
FIGO stage would it be : September 2009
c. Ca rectum ;
a. Stage III a
b. Stage III b
d. Endometriosis 1 :o
c. Stage III c
27.78year old girl presented with primary amenorrhea, i<
d. Stage IV a
normal breast development, absent pubic and axillary 2Z
19. Therapeutic conisation is indicated inl. September 2009
hair.Condition is: September 2009 t>
a. Tumer s}'ndrome $m
a. CIN IiI
b. Mullerian agenesis {o
b. Cervical metaPlasia
c. Microinvasive carcinoma c. Premature ovarian failure io
i1-
d. Unsatisfactory colposcopy with cervical dysplasia d. Testicular feminizing syndrome io
20. Treatment of choice for choriocarcinoma:
28. Not seen in anorexia nervosa: September 2009
*o
SePtember 2009 a. Osteoporosis *<
a. Observation b. Refusal to feeds g
{
b. HysterectomY c. Weight loss *
c. Chemotherapy with Methotrexate d. Menorrhagia $
.{
in manchester operation: September 2009
d. RadiotheraPY 29, Preserved
I
21. Carcinoma cervix involving upper 2/3d of vagina' a. Full length of cervix
g
The stage would be: September 2009 b. Competenry of os
a. Stage II a c. FertilitY
b. Stage II b d" Menstruation
c. Stage III a 30. Most important part of post operative management of
d. Stage III b vesico vaginal fistula is: September 2009
MISCELLANEOUS
a. Complete bed rest
22. Colposcopy is used to visualize all except: March 2405
b. Acidification of urine
a. Upper 2/3'd endocervix c. Continuous bladder drainage
b. Lower 1/3'd endoCervix d. Antibiotic
c. Lateral fornix 31. Most important manifestation of ureterovaginal
fistula is: September 2009
d" Vault of vagina
23. Heamatocolpos is seen in: September 2005 a. Hydronephrosis
a. Septate uterus b. Overflow incontinence
b. Bicomuate utems c. Stress incontinence
Gynaecology
34. Hysterectomy is indicated in postpartum period fon

d.Continuous incontenence March 2007
32. Methylene blue 3 swab test is done fot urinary
fistulae.source of leakage if the low-ermost slvab gets
a. Trvin Pregnancy
stained: March 20L0 b. Endometriosis
a. Ureter c. Fibroid uterus
d. PPH not controlled bY of intemal iliac
b. Urinary bladder
artery
c. Urethra except
35. Gynaecomastia is seen in all September 2007
33. lVhat is the most common complication after
a. Spironolactone
abdominal hYsterectomY: March 2007 b. HyPothYroidism
a. Ureteral injury c. Klinefelters s)'ndrome
b. Intestine dvsfunction d. Cirrhotic liver diseases
c. Urinary bladder atonY
d. Vaginal vault ProlaPse
j
;.-t*
.rt
:*
I {
) ,l
J
c 4
IJ .. ,.,q
;,ili
:$
IJJ ,':i
z '€
o
DERMATOLOGY (Questions)
BACTERIAL INFECTION 8. As per IVHO recommendation, duration of treatment
1. Chancroid is caused by: Septenrber 2005 of multibacillary leprosy is: September 2009
a. Herpes simplex virus a. 3 months

b. HPV b. 6 months
c. T. paliidum c. 9 months
d. H.ducreyi d. 12 months
2. Which of the following is associated with leprosy: 9. Most important in establishing diagnosis of leprosy
SePtember 2005 is: March 2010
a. Foamy historytes a, Evidence of neural involvement

b. Epitheliod cells b. Hypopigmented patches
c. Noncaseatinggranulomas c. Slit smear for AFB

d. All of the above
A Positive lepromin test
3. Incubation period of syphilis is: Septentber 2006 FUNGAL INFECTION

a. 10-14 days 1.0. A 40 yr old male has a rash over gtoin with
b. 30-60 days demarcated peripheral scaling and central clearing. It
c. 9-90 days could be due to: Septentber 2005
d. 3-6 months
'
a. Candidiasis
4. All of the following are commonly involved in b. Malassezia furfur
disseminated gonococcal infection except: c. Trichophyton
a. |oint and tendons September 2006 d. Aspergillosis
b. Skin 1L. Most common fungal infection in neutropenic patient
c. Brain ls: September 2005
d. Liver a. Candidiasis
5. Which of the following is true for multibacillary b. Aspergillosis
leprosy: SePtember 2006 c. Histoplasmosis
a. More than 5 iesions on skin smears d. None of the above
b. Clofazimine is an important drug to be given 12. Fungus which affects hair is: March 2009
c. Treatment is to given for 12 months a. Microsporum
d. All of the above b. Trichophyton
6" Asmmetrical several nerves thickening with sevetal c. Both of the above
hypoesthetic macules on skin indicates which stage d. None of the above
of leptosy: March 2009 13" Kerion is: March 2009
a. Borderlinelepromatous a. Viral infection
b" Tuberculoid leprosy b. Fungal infection
c. Borderlineborderline c. Bacterial infection
d. Borderline tubeculoid d. Parasitic inJection
7" Innumerable, small, normoesthetic and symmetrical
PICMENTATION DISORDERS
skin lesions are present in which type of leprosy:
14. Deereased number of melanocytes are seen in:
March 2009
March 2005
a. Borderlinelepromatous
a. Pebaldism
b. Lepromatous
b" Albinism
c" Borderline tubeculoid
Vitiligo
d. Tuberculoid
u- All of the above
Dermatology
albinism 23. Erythroderma is related with all of the following

15. All of the following are true regarding
except: SePtember 2008 ]{
l:;: except: March 2009
a. Lepromatous leProsY
' a. Autosomal recessive condition
'i
b. Psoriasis
ffi b. Normal procluction of melanin c. Air-borne dermatitis
d. Sulfonamides
24. Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with all of the
following excePt: September 2008
'rl
a.
Giuten sensitive enteroPathY '{
,i1
b.
Enteral lymPhoma
c. Atrophic gastritis
d. Ulcerati're colitis i
i
i
25. Most common type of pemphigus in India is:
September 2008
MISCELLANEOUS
17. Latest retinoid drug used in acne is: March 2005 a. P.foliaceus
a. Retinoic acid b. P.vulgaris
c. P.erythematosus
b. CiindamYcin d. P.vegetans
c. Adapalane 26. Nail deformity commonly sgen in lichen planus are
d. Azelaic acid all of the following excePt: March 2009
o 18. True isomorphic phenomenon is not seen in: a. Pterygium

o
J a. Lichen sclerosis
March 2005 b. Longitudnal
c. Oncholysis
grooves
o
F b. Lichen planus
27.
d.Beau's lines
Causative agent of molluscum contagiosum is a:
c. Vitiligo
SePtembet 2009
d. Psoriasis
September 2006
a. Bacteria
E
= 19. Silver plaques are a feature of:
b. Virus
ul a. Lichen Planus c. Prion
o b. Psoriasis d. Fungus
c. Vitiligo 28. The following is an important feature of psoriasis:
d. Albinism SePtember 2009
20. Butterfly rash is associated with: September 2006 a. Crusting

a. DLE b. Silvery Scaling
b. SLE c. Coarse bleeding
c. Rheumatoid arthritis d.
Erythematous macules
29. Fir tree pattern lesion on trunk is seen in:
d. Reiter's sYndrome
SePtentber 2009
21. Auspitz sign is seen in: March 2007, September 20L0
a. PemPhigoid
a. Psoriasis b. Psoriasis
b. Fungal infections c. Pityriasis rosea
c. Vitiiigo d. Pityriasis versicolor
d. Melasma 30. Wickham's striae is a feature of: September 2009'2010
22. Ashleaf sPots are seen in: March 2007 a. Psoriasis

a. Psoriasis b. Pityriasis rosea
b. Tuberous sclerosis c. Lichen Planus
c" Multiple sclerosis d. Vitiligo
d. Pemphigus vulgaris
31. Which of the following features are associated with a. Tinea cruris
b. Scabies
September 2009
Infantile eczema
a. Munro's micro-abscesses, fir tree appearence and
epidermal hyperplasia Papular urticaria
b. Munro'smicro-abscesses, parakeratosis, and 34. Which of the following is the histological feature of
epidermal hyperplasia pemphigus; March 2010
c. Munro's micro-abscesses, satellite pustules and
epidermal hyperplasia
a. Acanthosis
d. Munro's micro-abscesses, wickham's striae and b. Colloid bodies
epidermal hyperplasia c. Acantholysis
32. Salt and pepper dyschromatosis is seen in: d. Basal cell degeneration
September 2009
a. Dermatofibrositis 35. Drug of choice for dermatitis herpetiformis:
b. Scleroderma
c. SLE March 20L0
d. Psoriasis a. Rifampicin
33. A child presented with complaint of severe itching b. Thalidomide
over the web of fingers, more at night. Examination c. Dapsone
revealed burrows. Most probable diagnosis is: d. Clofazimine
Sevtember 2009
g
m
v
=
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ro
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SCREEN
ANAESTHESIA (Questions)
RECIONAL ANAESTHESIA 7. All of the following are induction agents except:
1. Epidural anaesthesia is preferred over spinal Sentenfuer 2007
anaesthesia because: September 2006 a. Thiopental
a. Prolonged duration of effect b. Halothane
b. Cheaper c. Nitrous oxide
c. Less incidence of intravascular injection d. Propofol
d. Less incidence of epidural hematoma 8. Regarding neuromuscular blockers which of the
SYSTEMIC ANAESTHESIA
following is true: March 2009
a. Neostigmine reverses the effect of succinylcholine
2. Short acting anesthetic agent used for day care surgery
b. Atracurium is a depolarizing agent
1S: Srytternbcr 2005,2q10
c. Pancuronium should be avoided in renal disease
a. Diazepam
d. Depolarizing blocking dmgs shorvs no fasciculations
b. Ketamine
9. Which of the following is the best induction agent:
c. Propofol Septenfuer 2009
d. Sevoflurane a. Ketamine
3. Nirous oxide is contraindicated in all of the following b. Diazepam :
except: September 2006 c. Nitrous oxide
a. Volvulus surgeries d. Thiopentone
b. Pneumothorax MISCELLANEOUS
c. Patient in shock
10. Pin index of orygen is: March 2005
d. Tympanoplasties
a. 0,5
4. Which of the following anaesthetic agent also has
b. 1,5
anti-emetic property: September 2006
c. 2,5
a. Ketamine d. 3,5
b. Thiopentone L1. Laughing gas is: March 2005
c. Propofol a. Ketamine
d. Nitrous oxide b. Nitric oxide
5. A multigravida \ffoman was posted for emergency c. Nitrous oxide
,
caesarean section. Correct statements are all of the d. Methane
following except- September 2006 12. All of the following are used for intravenous
a. Cricoid pressure is applied n'hile intubating induction except: March 2005
b. Isoflurane should not be used as it causes placental a. Bupivacaine
insufficienry b. Thiopentone
c. CS is done to prevent fetal distress and meconiumm c. Ketamine
aspiration d. Etomidate
d. Cord clamping to be done after a few minutes 13, Incorrect statement about orygen storage is:
6. Anaesthetic of choice in asthma patients: March 2007 September 2006
a. Halothane a. Pressure is 2,000 pounds per square inch

b. Thipentone b. Acceptable pvrity is 99c/a
c, Ketamine CommorLly used rylinders on anaesthesia machine
d. Fentanyl are of type E
d. Blue rylinder with orange collar
Anaesthesia
Which of the following is not widely used in

c. Sore throat
14.
September 2006
d. Abductor ParalYsis
cardiopulmonary resuscitation:
ti 17. Contraindication of bag and mask ventilation are all
a. Adrenaline March 2009
of the following excePt:
b. Calcium
* a. Tracheo-esoPhageal fistula
c. Atropine
t d. VasoPressin
b. Hiatus hemia
c. PregnancY
15. Site for external cardiac massage is: March 2009
I
$ a. Lower third of stemum' d. EmptY stomach
it Drug of choice for sedation of a patient in ICU is:
b. Junction of body and manubrium stemi 18.
$ c. Xiphoid Process September 2009
d. 2 fingers left to xiphoid process a. DiazePam

16. Which of the following is the most common b. LorazePam
complication related to intubation: March 2009
c. Propofol
a. Bleeding d. Alprazolam
b. MalPosition
ESSM
sc
N
PSYCHIATRY (Questions) 1(
PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCE USE DISORDER 9. Drugs used for treating schizophrenia are chiefly:
1. Chronic use of anti-psychotic drug can lead to: March 2010
SePtember 2006 a. Antimaniac
a. Orthostatic hYPertension b. Antidepressant
b. Parkinsonism c. Antihistaminics
c. Tardive dyskinesia d. Antipsychotic
d. All of the above
2. Benzodiazepine overdose in a patient presenting with MOOD DISORDERS
coma, is treated by: March 2010 10. Suicidal tendency is associated with: September 2005
a. Protamine a. Depression
b. Flumazenil b. Schizophrenia
c. Coumarin c. Impulsive disorder
d. Midazolam d. Ail of the above
3. All of the following are true for Korsakoff's psychosis
except: March 2010 11. A 40 year old man with elevated mood: March 2007
a. Organic amnestic s1'ndrome a. Schizophrenia

b. Loss of insight b. Mania
c. Deficienry of ryanocobalamin c. Depression
d. It may follow Wemicke's encephalopathy d. Hysteria
4. Most severe manifestation of alcohol withdrawl 12. Estimation of serum levels is important for which of
syndrome: March20-l-0 the following drug: September 2009
a. Wemicke's encePhaloPathY a. HaloPeridol
b. Delirium tremens b. BenzodiazePines
c. Seizures c. Lithium
d. Aloholic hallucinosis
d. ChlorPromazine
SCHIZOPHRENIA 13. Ftequent suicidal tendencies are seen in which of the
5. Catatonia is a tyPe of : September 2407 September 2009
following:
a. Schizophrenia a. Schizophrenia
b. Phobia b. Severe dePression
c. Depression c. Borderline personality disorder
d. OCD
September 2007
d. All of the above
5. Delusion is a disorder of:
a. Thinking CHILD PSYCHIATRY
b. Memory 14. Drug of choice for attention deficit disorder with
c. Perception hyperactivity is: September 2009
d. Leaming a. ChlorPromazine
7. Most common type of schizophrenia is: March 2009
b. Clonidine
a. Paranoid
c. Imipramine
b. Simple
c" Catatonic d. Methylphenidate
True regarding autism is: September 2009
d Undifferentiated 15.
8. Which of the following is the drug of choice for a. A metabolic disorder

medication-resistantschizophrenia: September2009 b. Caused due to teratogenic drugs
a" Haloperidol c. Impaired reciprocal social and interpersonal
b. Chlorpromazine interaction
c. Clozapine d. Neurodevelopmental disorder
d" Flupentixol
Self Assessment & Review OF FMGE / MCI Screening Examination
NEUROTIC DISORDERS c. Abnormal perception by a sensory misinterpretation

16. Drug of choice for obsessive-compulsive disorder is: of actual stimulus
March, 2005, September 2009 d. Fear of closed spaces
a. Sertraline 21. The term'psychoanalysis' is associated with:
b. Alprazolam March 2009
c. Chlorpromazine a. John Broadus Watson
d. Fluoxetine b. Carl Gustav |ung
17. Panic attack is: September 2005 c. Sigmond Freud
a. Acute anxiety d. Wilhelm Reich
b. Chronic anxiety 22. Which of the following is a method of breaking bad
c. Acute depression news: )nno ..4:
Înr.L
d. Chronic depression a. Burst l.:
b. Spread ,:i
MISCELLANEOUS :j..
c. Spike :r
18. Which of the following is a shortest acting d. Divert t
benzodiazepine: September 2005 23. Presently, classification of psychiatric illness is done it
a. Diazepam bv:
by, March 2009 :..,
b. Lorezepam a. DSM-IV-TR
c. Midazolam b. ICD-10 o
d. Alprazolam
d. None of the above o
19. Neurofibrillary tangles are associated with:
24. Organic cause for erectile dysfunction is most
March 2007 commonly:
a. Bipolar disorder a. Psychological
b. Alzheimer's disease b. Vascular
c. Schieophrenia c. Neuronal
d. Hormonal
d. Multiple infarctions
25. In EEG, alpha wave denotes: September 20A9
20. Illusion is: September 2007 a. REM sleep
a. A false unshaken belief not keeping one's sociao- b. Awake and eye closed and mind wandering
cultural background c. Sleep with eyes closed
b. Perception without stimuli d. Mental activity
RADIODLA-GNO SIS (Questions)
GENERAL PRINCIPLE 8. Minimum fluid collection required for radioiogical
1. Filament in X-ray machine is made up of: March 2005 detection of pleural effusion in lateral decubitus view
a. Molybdenum is: September 2009
b. Tungsten a. 15 ml
c. Strontium b. 25 ml
d. Silver c. J5 ml
2. Who discovered X-rays: d. 45 ml
September 2007
a. Roentgen ABDOMINAL
b. Curie 9. Double Bubble sign on abdominal skiagram is
c. Becquerel suggestive of: Marclr 2005
d. Gray a. Ileal atresia
3. Roentgen is the unit of: March 2010 b. Anorectal malformation
a. Radioactivity c. Bladder calculi
b. Radiation exposure d. Duodenal Atresia
c. Absorbed dose
10. Gold standard investigationdor diagnosing cystic
echinococcus is: September 2009
a. USG
THORAX b. X-ray
4. Rib notching is a feature of: September 2006 c. ELISA
a. ASD d. CT scan
b. PDA 11. Initial investigation for an amoebic liver abscess is
c. Coarctaation of aorta Sntember 2009
d. All of the above a. USG
5. A patient presents with the clinical features of b. Exploratory laparotomy
interstitial lung disease. How will you confirm the c. CTscan
diagnosis: September 2007,2010
d. Technetium-99 scan
a. CT scan MUSCULOSKELETAL
b. X-Ray 12. Investigation of choice in a patient brought with
c. Bronchoscopy traumatic paraplegia: March 2005
d, MRI a. Plain X-ray
5. All of the following are seen on the right side of the b. Myelography
cardiac silhouette in chest X-ray except: c. CT scan
d. MRI scan
September 2008,2010
13. White line of Frenkel is seen in: September 2008
a. Right atrium
a. Osteoporosis
b. Superior vena cava
b. Osteomalacia
c. Inferior vena cava
c. Scurvy
d. Pulmonary artery
d. Beri-Beri
7. Investigation of choice for bronchiectasis is:
14. Which of the following is the radiological features of
September 2009
rickets: September 2008
a. Chest X-ray a. Frenkel line
b. MRI b. Narrowing of epiphysis
c. CTscan c. Metaphyseal cupping and splaying
d. V-P scan d. Pelikan spur
Radiodiagnosis
,U. Ouaio".tive isotope of which of the following is used 19. Hair-on-end appearance is associated with all of the
i
i i" bone scans: SePtember 20A9,2070 following excePt: March 20L0, September 2010
a. G-6-PD deficienry
i " Phosphorous b. Sickle cell anemia
$ b. Iodine
c. Aplastic anemia
* c. Technetium d.
$ d. Gallium Thalassemia
is not a radiological feature of
$ fO. Whi.tt of the following MISCELLANEOUS
$ rickets: March 20L0
20. Which of the following is the best view for visualizing
a. MetaPhYseal cuPPing
minimal pneurnoPeritoni um:- Septenfuer 2005
:l b.
I'hyseal widening
a. X-ray abdomen-erect vieil'
:: c. Frenkel's line b. X-ray abdornen-suPine view
d. Triradiate Pelvis beam
:t c. Left lateral decubitus with horizontal
-: srur-l d. Left lateral view with vertical beam
i tz. nrrat ganglia calcification is seen in all of the 21. Which one of the following is the preferred route for
performing cerebral angiograPhY: March 2009
$ f"ttowing except:
March 2007
a. Transfemoral route
$ a. HypoParathYroidism
b. Transbrachial route
$ b. HypothYroidism c. Transradial route
_* .. HyperparthYroidism d. Transaxillary route
gi d. Acromegaly
18. Pu.".t"tal sinus which can be visualized best on a 22. USG finding in chronic renal disease may be:
il
March 2009
.:
t;:
occipito-frontal view is: September 2009
a. Frontal sinus a. Enlarged kidneY

I$
l*. b. Ethmoidal sinus b. Noral kidneY
c. Sphenoid sinus c. ShrunkenkidneY
:$ d. All of the above
$ a. Maxillary sinus
it
$
$
x
$
i*
il$:
#3:
&h
s.'i
ffii
::.lti
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F+j
i:;il
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:ii';
;*i;
t:,
RADIOTHERAPY (Questions)
9. Which of the following radio of Iodine is used for
RADIOSENSITIVITY OF TISSUES
March 20AS
thyroid scan: SePtenfuer 2008
L. Most radiosensitive organ is: a, l-123
a. Liver b. r-125
b. Fat c. I-127
c. Bone marrow d. I-131
d. Nervous tissue
2. Which of the following is the most radiosensitive THERAPEUTIC
tissue: March 2008 10. Element most commonly used in brachytherapy of
a. Adrenal carcinorna cervix: Mnrch 2005
b. I'ancreas a. Carbon
c. Gonads b. Technetium
d. Uterus c. Nitrogen
3. Which of the following is a harmful: March 2A09 d. Cesium
a. Alpha particle 11. lVhich of the following has longer half life:
March 2009
b. Gamma particle
c. Neutron a. I'123
d. Electron b. I-131
March 2009 . t-1?.)
4" Most radiosensitive cell is:
a. NeutroPhil d. All have equal half life
b. Lymphocyte 12. Radiotherapy is most useful in which of the
c. MegakarYocYte following: March 2010
d. Basophil a. Choriocarcinoma
5. Radioactivity acts on which phase of cell cycle: b. Osteosarcoma
March 2010 c. Seminomas
a. GI
d. Renal cell carcinoma
b. G2 MISCELLANEOUS
c.M 13. Radium emits which of the following radiations:
d.s SePtember 2007,2010
DIACNOSTIC
a. Gamma raYs
6. Radiation exposure occurs in all of the following

b. Alpha raYs
except: September 2005 c. Beta raYs
a. CT scan d. All of the above
14. Amount of radioactivity absorbed by body is
b. MRI scan
measured bY: March 2010
c. Fluoroscopy
d. X-ray a. Curie
doesn't produce radiation
b. I{oentgen
hazardz Septenfuu 2006 c. Rad
d. Rem
a. MRI safe
15. Maximum dose of radiation which is considered
b. Doppler USG for human in a is: March 2010
Year
c. Both of the above a. 5 Rads
September 2007
b. 10 Rads
8. Gamma camera is used for:
c. 15 Rads
a. Mesuring the radioactivitY d. 20 Rads
b. Radionuclide scans
September 20L0 Questions
5. True about cardiac muscles are all except:
Se1ttentber 2007, SePtenfuer 2010
L. Which of the following artery is present in a. Property o{ spontaneous and rhythmic contraction
anatomical snuff box: September 2010 b.
Cardiac muscle exhibits cross striations
a. Anterior interosseous artery c.
Cardiac muscle cells are linear and longitudinal.
b. Brachial artery d.
Cardiac muscle is supplied by autonomic nerve
fibers
c. Radial artery
6. Commonest position of appendix:
d. Ulnar artery
September 2007, SePtember 2010
2. Peyels patches are present in: September 2010
a. Duodenum a. Pelvic
b. jejunum b. Retrocaecal
c. Ileum
c. Subcaecal
d. Promontoric
d. Stomach
7. Muscle which helps to open Eustachian tube while
3. I{hich of the following nerve does not supply
submandibular gland: September 2010 sneezing: March 2005, Septembet 2010
a" Lingual nerve a. Tensor veli palatini

b. Chorda tympa.i
b. Levator veli palatini
c. None of the above :r
c. Sympathetic plexus
d. Both A and B
d. Auriculotemporalnerve 8. Safety muscle of tongue is: Mmch 2009, September 2010
4. Arch of aorta begins and ends at which level: a" Styloglossus
a. T2 September 201.0
b. Genioglossus
b. T3 c. Palatoglossus
c. T4 d. Hyoglossus
cl. r5
12. Iron binding protein is Septenrbet 201'0
a. Ferritin
9. Which of the following is true: September 201.0 b. Ferroportin 1
a. ExtraCellular Fluid is rich in organic anion c. Transferrin

b. ECF is more than IntraCellular Fluid d. Hephaestin
c. High sodium to potassium ratio is seen in ECF 13. Platelets ate stored at what temperature:
d. ECF is potassium ion rich a. 20 degree Celsius September 2014
10. Haldane effect is defined as: September 2010
b. 15 degree celsius
a. Important mechanism meant for oxygen transPort c. 10 degree celsius
in the body d. 5 degree celsius
b. Binding of oxygen to hemoglobin increases 14. The hormone which helps in milk secretion:
capacity for carbon dioxide September 2008, SePtember 2010
c" Deoxygenation of blood increases capacity for a. Oxytocin
carbon dioxide b. Growth hormone
d. All of the above
c. FSH
d. Prolactin
11. Hypocalcemia results in September 2070
15. Sweating is mediated by:March 2009, September 2010
a. Absent tendon reflexes a. Cholinergic mediated sympathetic activity
b. Shortened QT interval in ECG b. Noradrenergic mediated sympathetic activity
c. Reduced excitability of nerves and muscle cells c" Noradrenergic mediated parasympathetic activity
d. Cholinergic mediated parasympathetic activify
d. Tetany
September 201 0 (Questions)
Septenrber 2006,201-0
c. Prolactin
16. Ol'ulation is due to surge of: d. TSH
a. FSH
b. LH
chain acYl-
22. Which is involved in transport of long
SePtember 2010
CoA in mitochondria:
t7. Xanthine Oxidase is associated with which

co-factor: a. Ornithine
a. Zinc SePtember 2010 b. Xanthine
b. Copper c. Camitine
c. Selenium d. Albumin
deficient in: September 2005,201'0
d. Molybdenum 23. Pulses are
18. Codor,, are present in: Septenfuer 2010 a. LYsine
a. m-RNA b. Methionine
b. I-RNA c. Both
c. r-NA d. None of the above
is:
DNA d. 24. Final product of purine metabolism
19. Which of the following is found in urine in March 2010, SePtermber 2010
SePtember 2010 acid e
HartnuP's disease Pateints: a. Uric
a. PhenYalanine b. Creatinine
b. Omithine c. Xanthine
c. CYstine d. PhoshPhates
d.
ClYcine 25. Northern blotting technique is used for
tle separation
20. Which element is required by phosphofructokinase: of: March 2005' SePtember 2010
^ SePtember 2010
a. Magnesium a. DNA
b" Inorganic PhosPhate b. Protein
c. Manganese c. RNA
d. CoPPer d. Protein DNA interaction
25. Sodium fluoride is added to
blood' as it inhibit:
2L. Adipocytes use which of following: Septemher 2010 Mar ch 201'0, SePtemb er 2010
a. GLUT1 a. Hexokinase
b. GLUT2 b. Glucokinase
c. GLUT3 c. Glucose-6-PhosPhatase
d. GLUT4 d. Enolase
c. Reticulorytosis
d.
Howell-jolleYbodies
29. Which of the foliowing is not a feature of prirnary
ii by which type
zz. ACTH type of substance is produced tuberculosis:
t. of lung malignancY a" APical cavitY
,a;
:'t;:. a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Ghon's focus
ti b. Small cell lung carcinoma c. ParatrachealtYmPhadenoPathY
.1r
c.
Large cell carcinoma d. Heal sPontaneouslY bY fibrosis
;.'t
b,'tty are seen in which of
;i: SO. FriaUte
tr: d.
Oat cell carcinoma
the
".ra
following:
""gut"iiotrs
.'i.i.:
ot
li 28. Which of the following is not a feature a. Infective endocartitis
ifi megaloblastic anaemia:
,..,.l- b" Libman sack's endocartitis
lfi:
a. ThrombocYtoPenia c. Rheumatic fever
b" MegakaryocYtes d. All of the above
31. Which of the following is the first symptom of iron c. Streptococcuspnuemonlae

deficiency anemia: d. Pseudomonas
a. Low iron concentration in blood 38. Pathology of Alzeheimer's disease is:
b. Reduced hemoglobin a. Defecienry of cholinergic action .."'l
c. Reduced PCV b. Excess action of dopamine
,,
. ;
d. Reduced ferritin c. Accumulation of beta-amyioid protein

,t, t'.,, . i
32. Lacunar cells is seen in which type of Hodgkins d. None of the above
.iii.;.'r '{
Lymphoma 39. Chalcosis is deposition of:
a. Mixed cellularity tyPe a. Iron i1:;i-!
b. Lymphocytepredominant b. Calcium ir
c. Nodular Sclerosis TYPe c. Copper
d. All of the above d. Lead
Christmas disease is due to deficiency of
',a
33. Which of the following is not a featute of red 40.
.m
-g
infarction: a. Deficiency of factor IX ,,
a. Venous occlusion b. Deficiency of factor X { ,'

c. Deficiency of factor XI m 1:'
b. Occurs in organs having dual circulation
c. Occurs in solid organs
d. Deficiency of factor XII 1=
41. Biomarker to rise earliest hr myocardial infarction is:
d. Occurs in previously congested tissues H
March 2010
34. Most common lung cancer in non-smokers is: V
a. Troponin-I IXI
a. Adenocarcinoma b. Creatine kinase-MR ^ |6
b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Myoglobin !:r.l
c. Oat cell carcinoma d. froponin-f !O
d. None of the above 42. In acute myeloid leukemia, Auer rods are numerous .6
35. Sickle cell anemia is characterized by: in: SePtember 2009
C
a. Microrytosis a. M2 :fm
b. Macrorytosis
b. M3 ig')
c. M4 i:,{
c. Splenomegaly d. M5 ;t
d. Autosplenectomy 43. Nephritic syndrome is characterized by all of the ,'Y
36. Which of the following is ultrastructural feature of following excePt: tvtarch 2010
6
irreversible cell iniury: a. Hematuria .,:
a. Formation of PhagolYsosomes b. Edema i:'

b. Formation of amorphous densities in the c. Hypertension
mitochondrial matrix
d. Massive proteinuria iil,
44. Bysinnosis is caused by: March 2070
",1,. ,:
c. Formation of blebs in plasma membrane
a. Bagasse :,1.,1.i
d. Detachment of ribosomes from rough b. Mold hay :r .: : :
endoplasmic reticulum c. Cotton ..1.. ,: .,..:
37. Lobar pneumonia is caused bY: d. Bird droPPings ... ,, ,
a. Staphylococcusaureus ': ..: ' ',,' '-^.r
b. Klebsiella -,... l. ,
:'.'. .t.'.,
,,1.., , '.'-
,i.:
-. .,r
-,r-,.i
- _lr'
:'.
I
'
:.:].' :' :j:
49. Which of the following has opsonins on its surface:

a. IgG SePtember29l)
September 2010
15. VDRL is a tyPe of: b. IgM
a. brdirect hemagglutination test c. IgE
b. Slide flocculation test d. IgA
c. Gel PreciPitation test Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by:
50.
d. None of the above SePtember 2005,20L0
46. Confirmatory test for Syphilis is: September 20L0
a. \'DRL a. PneumocYstiscarinii
b. Rapid plasma reagin test
b. ClostridiumDifficile
c. FT-ABS
c. Escherichia coli
d. Streptococcus Pneumoniae
d. A1l of the above
51. Travelle/s diarrhea is caused due to:
Earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by foetus SePtenfuer 2009,2010
in response to infection: September 20L0
a. EIEC
a. IgA b. EPEC
b. IgE c. ETEC
c. IgM d. EHEC q
d.IgG
52. Pneumatocoele is most commonly caused by:
48. Heterophile antibody test is done for:
Sevtember 2005,201.0
SePtember 2014
a. Rickettsialinfections
a. StrePtococcusPneumoniae
b. Klebsiella
b. Infectiousmononucleosis c. HemoPhilusinfluenzae
c. SmallPox d. staPhYlococcusAureus
d. japaneseencePhalitis
56. Nevirapine belongs to: September 2010
a. Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

JJ. Furosemide mechanism of action in LVF is:
SePtember 2010
b. Protease inhibitor
c. Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor
a. Inhibitor of Na-K-Cl ion symport
b. Aldosteroneantagonist d. None of the above
c. Mercurialderivative 57. Which of the following is inhibited by Aspirin:
d. Carbonic anhYdrase inhibitor SePtember 2010
Side effects of glucocorticoids are all of the following a. Cyclo oxYgenase

September 2010
except b" LipooxYgenase
a. Hlpoglycemia
c. PhosPholiPase
b. Cataract
c. Psychoses
d.
None of the above
d. OsteoPorosis 58. Metoprolol is preferred over Propranolol as it:

SePtember 2010
55. Antitubercular drug which is least hepatotoxic:
SePtember 20-1'0 a. Is more potent in blocking beta-1 receptors
a. RifamPicin b" Is more Potent in blocking beta-2 receptors
b. Pyrazinamide c. Is more effective in suppressing essential tremors
c. Ethambutol
d. ImPairs exercise caPacitY
d. INH
59" Mechanism of action of Telmisartan is: 54. Contents of Ringels lactate are all except
September 2010 Seutember 2010
a.Blocks alpha adrenergic receptors a. Sodium ion
b.AT-2 receptor antagonist b. Potassium ion
c.Blocks 4'T-L receptors c.
Chioride ion
d.Mast cell stabilizer d.
Bicarbonate ion
60. Beta2 adrenergic receptots are not found on: 65. Drug of choice for parorysmal supraventricular
September 2010 tachycardia is: March 20L0. Swtember 2007A 2U0
a. Arterioles a. Digoxin
b. Veins
b. Propranolol
c. Adipose Tissue
c. Adenosine
d. Diltiazem
d. Uterus
66. True statement regarding mechanism of action of
61. W-trich of the following is used for treatment of
sulfonylureas is: March 2008, September 2010
hypercholestremia: ':cn
Septenfuer 2010
a. Increased peripheral utilization of glucose tm
a. Thiamine b. Reduce hepatic glucose output ],7
b.
Biotin c. Act on SIIRI receptors on pancreatic beta cell t{
c.
Pyridoxine
d.
Nicotinic acid d.
membrane
Transcription of genes regulating glucose .!fll
.
62. Acetazolamide decreases intraocular nressure bv metabolism '. [P

what mechanism: September 2010 67. Anti-hypertensive drug contraindicated in :,i rTl
a. Decreases aqueous humor production Pregnancy rs: September 2005, 2010 March 2007 ;rv
b. Decreases vitreous volume a.
Hydralazine iiN
c. Increased drainage of aqueous b.
Methyldopa itl
iio
d. None of the above c.
Enalapril liiO
of the following is not true regarding d.
Amiodopine ;i^
63. Which
carbimazole: Seotember 20L0
68. Which of the following drug causes gynecomastia: to
a. Cimetidine Septemher 2008, 2010 irC
a. Safely used in pregnanry ,im
b. More potent than propylthiouracil b. Ranitidine
c. Omeprazole ,iclt
c. Single daily dose administration d. Famotidine
i:{
d. Does not inhibit peripheral conversion of T-4 to r6
T-3 ;LZ
r
,!:Cf)
71,. Cobra venom is primarily: September 201.0

69. Arsenic poisoning mimics which disease: t.
September 2010
a. Musculotoxic -r
b. ,:
a. Neurotoxic t.,..:ii'.1
,
Acute cholerystitis
::-1 . '-a ,
b.Cholera c. Cardiotoxic ,:, ... ,,
,
c.Dhatura poisoning
d" Hematotoxic
,
d.Morphine poisoning ..'., ". t"'

72. Rape is defined under: September 2010
,..'-: i,
70" Mechanism of action of cyanide poisoning: .
Seotember 2010 a. IPC 375 ' .',.'-'' i,'

a. Inhibits protein breakdown b. rPC376 ':. ,i;',
b.
c.
Inhibits DNA synthesis
Inhibits protein syntheisi
c. IPC377 , .'-"' ii'.
d. IPC 378 i l
d" Blocks Cytochrome enzyme P- 450

ir
:.;,
' , i,
i' :
73. Gastric lavage is contraindicated in which of the 74. Sweating does not occur in: September 2010
following: Septentber 2010 a. Heat exhaustion
a. Arsenic poisoning b. Heat fatigue
b. Kerosene poisoning c. Heat rash
c. OrganophosphorusPoisoning d. Heat Stroke
d. Dhatura poisoning
77. Calorie test based on thermal stimulation of which part

of the semi circular canals: September 2009,2070
75. Sinus not present at birth is/are: Septenfuer 2010

a. Lateral
a. Maxillary
b. Posterior
b. Ethmoidal
c. Anterior
d.All of the above
c.
Frontal
78. All of the following are true about glomus-jugulare
d.
All of the above
tumor except: March 2010, Septenfuer 2010
76. What is rhinophyma: September 2010
a. Commonly metastasizes to lymph nodes
a. Hypertrophy of sweat glands b. Pulsafile tinnilus and cd-rductive deafness seen
b. Hypertrophy ofsebaceous glands c. Most commonly affects male
c. Hypertrophy of meibomian glands d. Paraganglioma's
d. Hypertrophy of lacrimal gland
83. Which of the following mydriatic does not have any
cycloplegic effect: September 2010
79. Melanoma of choroid spreads most commonly to: a. Phenyephrine
a. Lungs September 20L0
b. Tropicamide
b. Kidneys
c. Atropine
c. Adrenals
d. Cocaine
d. Liver
84. Cycloplegics are used for the treatment of:
80. Which of the following is not a feature of
September 2410
occulomotor nerve palsy: September 2010
a. Mydriasis
a. Lens induced glaucoma
b. Absent papillary reflex

b. Closed angle glaucoma
c. Proptosis c. Iridoryclitis
d. Ptosis d. Chorioretinitis
81. Drug which is not used in glaucoma: 85. Cherry red spot is seen in: September 201.0
a. Timolol September 2010 a. CRVO

b. Physostigmine b. CRAO
c. Pilocarpine c. Eale's disease
d. Atropine d. Retinitispigmentosa
82. Chronic, sterile inflammation of meibomian gland is 85. What is epiphora: September 2010
seen ln: September 2010 a. Everted upper eyelid following surgery
a. Extemal hordeolum b. CSF running through nose after injury
b. Internal hordeolum c. Abnormal flow of tears due to obstructed lacrimal
c. Chalazion duct
d. Stye d" CSF mnning through ears after injury
:.,1',:
a ..:),:l
.
':::a.a:
Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screeninq Examination
87, Keratometermeasures Septenfuer 2010 91. Regarding Sjogren's syndrome, all are true except:
a. Thickness of cornea Septenfuer 2010
b. Radius of cornea a. Keratoconjuctivitissicca
c. Curvature of cornea b. Rheumatoidarthritis
d. Depth of posterior chamber c. Epiphora
88. Grave's ophthalmopathy mostly presents as: d. Autoimrnune in nature
September 2010 92.Characteristicfeatureofdiabeticretinopathy:
a. Proptosis September 2005, 2010 March 2007' :,,
b. Ptosis a. Hard exudate

c. Reduced intraocular tension b. Soft exudate
d. lncreased power of convergence c. Ambylopia
89. Which of the following is malignant intraocular d. Microaneurysm
tumor of children: Srytembcr 20L0
a. Retinoblastoma
93. Common cause of sudden blindness
diabetic female is: 5c1, | 11 1, 1t r,
in a young
201)9. St tot rtte r 2010
a
m
b. Rhabdomyosarcoma a. Glaucoma
1,
'g
c. Melanoma b. Vitreous defects -.{
d. Chloroma c. Papilledema m
90. Single drug used for treatment of trachoma is: d. Cataract
September 2010 'w
=
a. Tetracyclin |TI
b.
c.
Doxycycline fi
Azithromycin .,N
d. Chloramphenicol
,.A
o
98. Housemaid's knee is bursitis of which of the !
following: September 2010'.O
94. Gower's sign is seen in: September 2010 a. Olecranon bursa C
a. Congenital myopathy b. lnfrapatellarbursa ' ffl
b. Guillain-Barreslmdrome c. Prepatellar bursa 'V,
' " Dursa
ttrsa {
c. Duchhene Muscular Dystrophy o- )uDacromlal
d. All of the above 99. In spinal fuberculosis, the commoner route of spread,. Q
95. Looser's zone is present in September 20'L0 is: Septentber 2010';:17
a. Multiple myeloma a. Direct spread ,A
b. Osteomalacia b. Blood t:--
c.Pseudoparathyroidism c. Lymphatics l
d.Osteoporosis
d. All of the above ,
100. Tuberculosis in Pott's disease involves:

96. What is Neurapraxia: September 2010
a. Complete division of nerve a. Hip Joint
b. Loss of conduction due to axonal interruption b. Knee Joint
c. Irreversible injury c. Spine
d" Reversible physiological nerve conduction block d. Wrist Joint
101. Aseptic necrosis is common in:
97. Triple arthrodesis does not involve September 2010 March 2007, Septenfuer 2a70
a. Calcaneocuboidloint a. Scaphoid
b" TalanovicrrlarJoint b. Calcaneum
c. Talocalcaneal |oint c. Cuboid
d. Tibiotalar Toint d" Trapezium
a. Presents before the age of 5 years

b. Mostly presents as abdominal mass
102. tn nephrotic syndrome,which infection is more c. Spreads mostlY bY lYmPhatics
conrmoner in children: September 2010 d. ResPonds well to treatment
a. Cellulitis 106. First sign of sexual maturity in boys is:

b. Pneumonia a. Increase in height September 2010
c. UTI b. Increase in facial hairs

d. BacterialPeritonitis c. Testicularenlargement
103. 10 vear old child with mental age of 2 years will have d. Axillary hairs
107. Best index for chronic malnutrition is:
an IQ level of: September 20L0
a. Height for age September 2010
a. 20
b. Weight for age
b. 30
c. 50
c. Weight forheight
d. 70 d. All of the above
104. Figure of 8 in chest X-ray is suggestive o* 10E. Physiological iaundice in a tegr baby lasts upto:
a. TOF Septembu 201'0 March2005 I SePtember 20L0
b. TAPVC a. 4days
c. Ebsteins anomalY b. 7 days
d" None of the above c. 10 daYs
105. Which of the following is false about Wilm's tumon d. 14 daYs
SePtembet 2010
c. Cervical mucus
d. All of the above
109. Plasma levels of hCG during pregnancy doubles L13. Folic acid is given during which trimestet of
every: SePtembet 2010 Septembo 20L0
Pregnanclr:
a. DailY a. First
b. 2days b. Second
c. 4 days c. Third
d. 6 days d. ThroughoutPregnancy
hCG is secreted bY: Septembet 2010
110"
114. Which of the following is true regrading hCG:
a. CytotroPhoblast SePtember 20L0
b. Chorionic villi a. Half-life is around 7 daYs
c. SynrytiotroPhoblast
b. Low levels are seen in hydatidiform mole
c. HCG can be detected as early as 8-9 days after
111. Teratogenic effects are rare with which of the
Se7tember 20L0
concePtion.
following infections:
a. CMV
d" All of the above
b. Rubella 115. Pregnant lady presents with futminant hepatitis'
c. Varicella Most Common Cause: March2005, September 20L0
d. HIV a. HePatitis D
112. Which of the following is a part of lochia: b. HePatitis E
a. Red blood cells SePtembu 2010 c. HePatitis B
b. Decidual membranes d. HePatitis A
'''
a
115. Fetal adrenals release which honnone 117. Misoprostol is indicated in all of the following
predominantly: except: September 2005,201,0
March 2009, September 201,0 a. Postpartumhemorrhage
a. Oestrogen b. Missed abortion
b. Testosterone c. Induction of labour
c. Aldosterone d. Menorrhagia
d. Cortisone
c.
Clue cells
d.
It is sexually transmitted
118. All of the following are side effects of Oral 120. Menstrual regulation is done upto: September 2010
Contraceptive Pills except September 20L0 a. 35 days of Amenorrhea
a. Thromboembolism b. 42 days of Amenorrhea
b. Liver disease c. 49 days of Amenorrhea
c. Ovarian fumor d. 56 days of Amenorrhea
d. Breast Carcinoma 121. Hirsuitisrr is seen in all excepk September 2007,2010
119. Featutes of Bacterial vaginosis are all of the a. Acromegaly
following except: September 201.0 b. Hyperthyroidism
a. Abundantlactobacillus c. Arrhenoblastoma a'
b. pH>4.5 d. PCOD
124. Defect seen in Vitiligo is: September 20L0
a. Absent melanosomes
122. Wood's lamp is not used for diagnosing: b. Absent melanocytes
September 2010 c. Reduction in melanin slmthesis
a. Vitiligo d. Reduction in number of melanorytes
b. Porphyria 125. Auspitz sign is seen in: March 2007, September 2010
c. Pityriasis a. Psoriasis
d. Lichen planus b. Fungal inJections
123. All of the following are immunologically mediated c. Vitiligo
blistering diseases except September 201-0 d. Melasma
a. Pemphigus r"ulgaris 125. Wickham's striae is a feature of: September 2009,2010
b. Pemphigusfolliaceous a. Psoriasis
c. Bullous pemphigoid b. Pityriasis rosea
d. Psoriasis c. Lichen planus
d. Vitiligo
127. Which of the following induction agent is most

preferred for day care $urgery: September 20'10
a. Morphine
b. Propofol
c. Diazepam
d. Ketamine
close friends and is having reduced appetite and

improper sleep. He is probably suffering from:
September 2010
128. Shailza, a 40 year old female is having headache for
the past 6 months. A1l her investigations were a. Acute depression
normal. She had several consultations and she had b. Acute mania
no relief of her symptoms. She still believes that she c. Acute Psychosis
has some problem in her brain. Likely diagnosis d. Schizophrenia
could be: September 2010 130. Which of the following is not a feature of
a. Acute mania hallucination: September20L0
b. Acute depression a. It can occur in any sensory modality

c. Psychogenicheadache b. It is independent of will of observer
d. Hypochondriasis
c. It is defined as perception occurring witltout
external stimulation
129. Rupak, a 22 year old, unmarried man is suffering
from sudden onset of third person hallucination for d. Always pathological
the past 12 days. He is suspicious of his telatives and
b. X-Ray
c. Bronchoscopy
131. Wimberger's ring is seen in: September 2410 d, MRI 3
a. Rickets 135. All of the following are seen on the right side of the
b. Scurvy cardiac silhouette in chest X-ray except:
c. Hemophilia September 2008,20L0
d. Pellagra a. Right atrium
L32. Investigation of choice for marking out calcification b. Superior vena cava
of an intracranial lesion rs: September 2010 c. lnferior vena cava
a. CT Scan d. Pulmonary artery
b. MRI scan 136. Radioactive isotope of which of the following is used
c. USG in bone scans: September 2009,2070
d. Contrast studies a. Phosphorous
133. Air crescent sign in chest X-ray is seen in: b. Iodine
SePtember 20L0 c. Technetium
a. Blastomycosis d. Callium
b. Pneumonia 137. Hair-on-end appearance is associated with all of the
c. Invasiveaspergillosis following excePc March 2010, September 2010
d.
Bronchiectasis a. G-6-PD deficienry
134. A patient presents with the clinical featutes of b. Sickle cell anemia
interstitial lung disease. How will you confirm the c. Aplastic anemia
diagnosis: September 2007, 2010 d. Thalassemia
a. CT scan
i d. Iodine
il 139" Radium emits which of the following radiations:
f 138. Which of the following isotope is commonly used in September 2007,2010
ii: teletherapy: SePtember 2010 a. Gamma rays
! b. Alpha rays
I a. Cesium
:.i
b. Iridium c. Beta rays
:1
c. Technetium d. All of the above
;i
It represents the number of total cases in the

community
140. Reversed cold chain is used for: Septenrber 2010 It represents the number of cured cases in the r,:
a. Transportation of vaccines back from vaccination community

centre to hosoital
L47. Urban population of India as per census 2001 is:
b. Transportation of vaccine from hospital to
vaccination centre September 2010
c. A system of storing and transporting samples at a. 1,I.6%
recommended temperatures from the point of b. 27.8Yo
collection to the laboratory c. 30.5%
d. Transporting oral polio vaccine only d. 38.6%
141. Certificate of vaccination of Yellow Fever is valid for
how manv vears: September 201.0
1,48. Which of the following is not included in the
primary prevention for hypertension: Septenfuer 2010
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
a, Exercises U,
c. 5 years b. Weight control m
d. 10 years c. Health education q
142. Incubation period of Rabies depends on: d. Early diagnosis and treatment t
September 2010 L49. All of the following features are seen in dengue !
a. Number of bites hemorrhagic fever except: . 54rf ernlser 2070 Vl
b. Site of bite a. Positive tourniquet test ryl
c. Animal species b. Platelet counts less than 1 lac n
d. All of the above c. Falling hematocrit value N
143. Poliomyelitis is diagnosed by:
,O
d. Acute onset of high fever ': I
September 2010
a. Clinicalpresentation
150. Rabies vaccine is prepared from which strain ofl'O
b. Antibody titer measurement in blood
virus: Selttember 2t|r}'ff
c. Isolation of virus from blood
d. Isolation of virus from stool
a. Street virus C
144. Amongst the following which carries the least
b. Fixed Virus m
chance of transmitting HIV infection: c. Wild virus @-
Swtember 2070 d. All of the above 'I

a. L51. Which of the following is not included in neonatal
Heterosexualkrtercourse !
b. Blood transfusion mortality: Septenber 2U0
c. Verticaltransmission a. Early neonatal mortality \/A;
d. IV drug abusers b. Late neonatal mortatity
145. Swine Flu pandemic in 2009 was caused due to which c. Post neonatal mortality :
strain: September 2070 d. None of the above :.r:
a. H1N1 152. ESI act does not cover which of the follor vrng: -
b. H3N1 S,Yttrrfuer' 20-10
:
c. H5N1 a. Hotel employee

d. H7N1 ,:i'*
,
b. Transpoters
146. What is Incidence Rate: September 20L0
c. Railway employees
,i*t
a. It represents the number of old cases in the
d. Factory employees
"
community ,
b. It represents the number of new cases in the 153. PERT is a type of: SeTttember 2010
community a. Netrvork analysis

b. Input output analysis
i
'*
151. Requirement of iron during pregnancy is lin mg']:

c. System anaiYsis
SePtember 2010
d. Cost benefit analYsis
a. 7A0
154. Which of the following is the most reliable
bacteriological indicator of water pollution:
b. 800
SePtember 20-10 c. 900
a. Fecal strePtococci
d. 1000
152. Which of the following is uncommon symptom of
b. Salmonella tYPhi
c. Escherichia coli deficiency of vitamin A: September 20L0
d. Clostridium tetani
155. In which of the following interpretation of benefits a. Night blindness
is done in terms of results achieved: September 2010 b. XeroPhthalmia
a. System anall'5is c. Keratomalacia
t: b. Cost accounting d. PolyneuroPathY

) c. Cost benefit analYsis 163. Criteria for assessment of severity of disease in ICU
.: d. Cost effective analYsis is: September 20!a
l'. 155. Most common cause of matemal mortality in India is: a. APACHE II
::, SePtember 2010 b. Glassgow scale
,: a. Toxaemia c. Apgar score f
It F
ia:i
b. Puerpural sePsis d.
t;s !:;
c. Haemorrhage
Bishop score
,i 154. Denominator for maternal mortality rate is:

I d.
FJ
Anemia SePtember 2005,2010
157. All of the following are features of cost accounting
li {;i
except: SePtember 2070

a.
b.
100,000 Pregnancies
100,000live births
): c.
{.: Data on cost of a prograrnme is provided
a.
100,000 births
l';r"l*) b" Control of cost can be done

d. 100,000 PoPulation
165. Wernicke's encephalopathy results due to deficiency
U. c. Benefits are expressed in terms of money
;1
of: March 20L0, Sqtenrber 2070
0s d. Planning and allocation of peoples and financial
- tr
{:
iJ services can be done a. Thiamine
'*;
b. Niacin
I i 158. Which of the following diseases is not covered under
*".
WHO International Health regulation: c. Pantothenic acid
L ,*ti SePtember 2010 d. CYanocobalamin
u ;_1:
a. Wild PoliomYelitis 156. Socially acquired behavior is known as:

t, t: b, SARS March 2a05, SePtember 2010
.f
I c. Human Influenza a. Culture
d. Cholera b. Socialization
159. Most common c.rncer worldwide is: Septenrber 2010
c. Intemalization
a. Breast d. Custom
b. Lung
l1T.Tofacilitate the screening of visual-acuity, I4IHO
c. Cervix
defines blindness as counting fingers at a distance of,
d. Oral cavity
September 2006€t SePtanbu 2010
160. Carrier state is not seen in which infection:
SePtember 2010 a. 1. metre
a. Tetanus
b. 3 metres
b. Ameobiasis c. 6 metres
c. Pertussis d. 9 metres
d. Diphtheria
175. Predisposing factors for carcinoma of penis are all of

the following except: Septenfuer 2010
168. Bezold abscess is seen in: Septenrber 2010 a. pagets disease
a. SternocleidomastoidMuscle b. Phimosis
b. Sternohyoid muscle
c. Balanoposthitis
c. Sartorius muscle
d. Semimembranosusmuscle d. Papilloma
159. What is a xenograft: Septenfuer 2010 1,76. Palmar surface of hand represents: Septenrber 201'0
a. Graft from L twin to other twin a. 1% of total body surface area
b. Graft from 1 species to other species. b. 2% of total body surface area
c. Graft from father to other child c. 3% of total body surface area
d. Graft from sister to brother d. 4% of total body surface area
170. Which of the following is most sensitive and specific l77.For shock patient, best guideline to check for
screening test for carcinoma of breast: adequacy of fluid replacement therapy: a
SePternber 2010 SePtenber 2()-l'0 m
a. FNAC a. Hemoglobin
!
b.
{
b. Mammogram Urine output m
c. USG c. Blood pressure and pulse
*
d. Self Examination d. Central Venous Pressure =
Ip
171. Commonest malignancy t)?e in oral cavity is: 178. Villous adenoma presents as: Septeniltcr 201.0
JI]
Sntentber 2010 a. Hypercalcemia
b. Hypokalemia
v
a. Adenocarcinoma ,N
,o
b. c.Hyperphosphaetemia
Transitional cell carcinoma
d.All of the above ..r
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
179. Lucid interval is associated with: Septetrther 2010
,o
d. Basal cell carcinoma
172. Brodie-Trendelenburg test is positive in:
SePtember 2010
a. Intracerebralhematoma
b. Subarachnoidhematoma
aC
c. Extradural hematoma .m
a. Deep vein thrombosis
d. All of the above :a
b" Sapheno-femoralincompetence
180. Most common type of breast carcinoma is: j{
c. Thromboangitisobliterans Seytenfuer 20'l'0 :lo
d" Below-knee perforators incompetency a. Lobular :.2
173. In 3-glass utine test, there is thread in the first glass. b
Septentber 2010
Sarcoma :,4
What is the probable diagnosis: c.
Ductal
a. Cystitis d.
Granuloma
b. Prostatitis 181" Which of the following is feature of Diffuse axonal
c. Urethritis injury: Septenfuer 2010
d. Pyelonephritis a.No unconsciousness
\74. A 70 year female patient having coronary artery b.Transientunconsciousness
disease was found to have apnptomatic gallstones on c.Prolongedunconsciousness
routine ultrasound scan of the abdomen.What the d.None of the above
best management for his gallstones: 182" In burns management, which of the following is the
Septenfuer 2010 medium of choice: March 20L0, Septentber 2010
a. Laparoscopic removal of gall bladder a. Dextrose 5%
b. Open cholecystectomy b. Normal saline
c. ERCP assisted galistones removal c^ Ringer lactate
d. Observation d. Isolyte-M
, fSS. Buerger's disease usually affects all of the following 188. Investigation of choice in Vesico-ureteric Reflux is:
except: Septenber 2009, 2010 March 2005, Septenfuer 2010
a. Small sized arteries a. CT scan
b. Medium sized arteries b. Voidingcystourethrography
c. Large arteries c. lntravenousurography
d. Deep veins d. X-ray KUB
184. Hellels myotomy is done for: Septanber 2M7,2009,2010 1.89. Peau d'Orange of breast is due to:
a. Esophagealcarcinoma
September 2A05, 2010, March 20a7
b. Pyloric hypertrophy
c. Achalasia cardia a. Obstruction of Vein
d. Inguinal hernia b. Obstruction of lymphatic ducts.
185. Ochsner-Sherren regimen is used for:
c. Obstruction of glandular ducts
Septentuer 2009,2010
d. Obstruction of arteries
a. Appendicularabscess 190. Surgery of choice for pleomorphic adenoma is:
b. Pelvic abscess Septenfuer 2007,2010
c. Appendicular mass a. Total parotidectomy
d. Acute appendicitis b. Superficialparotidectomy
185. Most common site of volvulus is: c. Total parotidectomv with lymph node dissection
March 2010 Seatenfuer 201.4 d.
Radicalparotidectomy
a. Ileum 191. Ideal investigation fot fistula-in-ano is: March 2008
b. Appendix a. Endoanal ultrasound
I
c. Sigmoid colon b. MRI
d. Caecum c. Fistulography
t 187.The commonest cause of significantly lower d. CT scan
I
gastrointestinal bleed in a middle aged person in renal transplant is
t 192. Highest chance of success
without any known precipitating factor may be due to
March 2008, Se.ptenfuer 2010
possible when the donor is: September 2007,2010
a. Ulverative colitis a. father

b. Ischemic colitis b. Mother
c. Angiodysplasia c. Twin
d. Diverticulum of sigmoid colon d. Son
195. Which of the following does not present with

193. Kussmaul's sign is not seen in: Septenfuer 2010
hemoptysis: Septernber 2010
a. Right Ventricular infarction a. Mitral stenosis

b. Constrictivepericarditis b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Restrictivecardiomyopathy c. Empyema
d. Cardiac tamponade d. Bronchiectasis
194. Characteristic of type-Il respiratory failure is: 196. Which of the following is not seen in chronic renal
SePtember 2010 failure: September 201.0
a" Low PaO2 and low PaCO2 a. Hyperkalemia
b. Low PaO2 and normal PaCO2 b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Normal PaO2 and high PaCO2 Hypophosphatemia
d Low PaO2 and high PaCO2
d. Hypocalcemia
Self Assessment & Review of FMGE i MCI Screening
197. Pulsus paradoxus is not seen in: September 2010 201. True about hepatitis E are all except:
a. Cardiac tamponade Sepf entber 2005, 20-l 0 :
b. Constrictivepericarditis a. Transmitted by faeco-oral route

b. Majority of patients develops chronic infection t
c. HypertrophiccardiomYoPathY
Caused by non-enveloped, positive-sense, single
,
d.
c. ' ,
stranded RNA genomic,HAV like virus.
,
Severe COPD r
198. Most severe and persistent symPtom for acute d. Fulminant hepatitis occurs more frequentiy in ,
'i
mountain sickness is: September 2014 Pregnanry ,,, ' ..,
a. Headche 202. Which of the following is not associated with zinc .l ',
I -.. .:j
b. Dizziness deficiency: "
March 2005
c. Drowsiness a. Delayed wound healing :
d. Cyanosis b. Loss of libido

c Pi smentafinn
199. Which of the following is used for prophylaxis of ''b--'. '"-.--.'" e!,
d. Sexual infantilism m
acute mountain sickness:
a.
Septtember 2A1A
203.Allofthefollowingcanoccurinrl.reunraticfever T
Frusemide
except: Septentber 2007, 201 0
{
b. Spironolactone FN
a. Mitralregurgitation
c. Acetazolamide
b. mitral stenosis
d. Al1 of the above
=
tF
c. Pericarditis rfl
200. Hyponatremia is seen in all of the following excePt:
SePtember 2010
d. Loud first heart sound 7
204. Most common cause of short stature is: March 2010
'N
a. Congestive heart failure a. Constitutional ;o
,,I
b. Kidney problems b. Hypothyroidism .iOr
c.
d.
Diabetes insipidus
SIADH
c.
d.
Growth hormone deficiencY
Systemic illness
:o
:c
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a
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o
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FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY

PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE

EA& NOSE AND THROAT (ENT)

Questiorts... 749 - 763

3. Arch of aorta develops from: c. Columnar ceils

4. Lens is derived from: c. Iieum

c. Mesoderm a. Outer limiting membrane

d. None of the above b. Retinal pigment epithelium

a. Lateral lip of bicipital groove of humerus b. Coracoclavicular ligament

22. Labourers nerve is another name for which nerve:

d. Axillarv nerve 31. The order of neurovascular bundle in the intercostal

a. Right axillary artery a. Retrosternal

c. It ends at the sternal end of the left second costal

d. Begining and end of the arch lies at same levei a. Right.rtrium

d. Hemiazygous vein b. oth rib

b. Lrnnphoma b. Pubocervical ligament

b. Left renal vein September 2007

c. Pararenal fat a. Renalvein

Lr. Gastrospie'nic ligament September 2005

b. Nasolacrimal du.ct a. \{axillary artet:y

102. All of the folowing opens into middle meatus

b. Sternocleidomastoid c.Inferior ophthalmic vein

C. Frontai cortex a. Ischiofemoralligament

18. Factor required for ervthrocyte stability: llarch 20lA

bleeding disorder: March 2009

b. Increase in GFR b. Obstructive jaundice

a. Fovea centralis a. Dopamine

c. Sleep 106. N{aximum number of sodium channels per square

a. Stimulation of red cones more than blue or green a. Meissner corpuscles

114. All of the following effects c,rn occur if vagus is

126" Vagal stimulation causes: September 2009

a. Potassium a. 1 rn'eek o{ rvound healing

b. Calcium b. 2 u,eeks of r,vound healing

c. Chloride c. 3 weeks of n'ound healing

158. During pregnancy/ deficiency

c. Carbohvdrates c. Arginine and aspartaite

33. Ail of the following are essential fatty acids except:

b. Deficient HDL receptors b. Lipid metabolism

MISCELLANEOUS March 2007

NIarch 2010, September 2010

c. Type III pairs

protein complexes a. Synthesis of DNA

65. DNA double helix is rnaintained by:

L7. First change seen in acute inflammation is:

b. Females are commonly affected

'rL, b. N4arked follicular hyperplasia

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

a. Hepatocelluiarcarcinoma a. Obstructive jaundice

39. Lardaceous spleen is a feature of: syndrome except: Mnrch 2008

50 Lipofuscin, the golden yellow pigment

87. All of the following are causes of aplastic anemia

d. PNH c. Xlinked dominant

O.. b. HBV b. AML

..--' b. Raised unconjugated bilirubin b. CML

a. Hereditary spherocytosis. a. Hematuria

a" Poor response to steroids

110. Community acquired

b. Chronic bronchitis b. Apical lung carcinoma