Series-A SJU: ST ST TH TH
Series-A SJU: ST ST TH TH
Series-A SJU: ST ST TH TH
19. In which Supreme Court case it was held that preamble is the basic structure of the
Constitution ?
(a) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India (b) Keshvanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala
(c) Chandra Bhavan Vs. State of Mysore (d) Nakara Vs. Union of India
20. Out of the following who has not been elected as Judge of International Court of Justice ?
(a) Dr. Nagendra Singh (b) Dalveer Bhandari
(c) R.S. Pathak (d) Ranganath Misra
16. :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
19. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
20. ?
(a) . (b) (c) .. (d)
22. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
26. Total number of Fundamental Duties provided under the Constitution of India are
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11
27. When a new State is formed through revolt, recognition usually granted is
(a) De Jure (b) De Facto
(c) Precipitate recognition (d) None of these
28. Which of the following Amendment to the Constitution is related with reservation of seats
in Educational Institutions for the economically weaker section of citizens ?
(a) 123rd (b) 101st (c) 103rd (d) 102nd
29. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has discussed the Constitutional
Validity of Triple Talaq ?
(a) Shayara Bano Vs. Union of India (b) Naz Foundation Vs. Union of India
(c) Daniel Latifi Vs. Union of India (d) Shabnam Hashmi Vs. Union of India
30. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats for women in
Panchayats ?
(a) Article 243A (b) Article 243B (c) Article 243C (d) Article 243D
32. Who among the following put the International Law as positive morality ?
(a) Bentham (b) Austin (c) Savigny (d) Holland
33. As per Indian Patents Act, 1970, criteria of Patentability in India are
(a) Novelty (b) Inventive step
(c) Capable of industrial application (d) All of these
28. ,
?
(a) 123 (b) 101 (c) 103 (d) 102
29.
?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
30. ?
(a) 243A (b) 243B (c) 243C (d) 243D
37. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
SJU 7 Series-A
38. The sixth schedule of the Constitution of India does not provide for the administration of
the Tribal Areas in
(a) Assam (b) Manipur (c) Meghalaya (d) Mizoram
40. ‘Procedure established by law’, the terminology is taken from the Constitution of which
country ?
(a) America (b) Japan (c) Canada (d) Australia
41. Which Article of the Indian Constitution defines the proclamation of emergency ?
(a) Article 366(16) (b) Article 366(17)
(c) Article 366(18) (d) Article 366(19)
42. Union Public Service Commission Members have tenure of office for
(a) Two years (b) Three years (c) Five years (d) Six years
43. Neuremberg Trial, Tokyo Trial, Peleus Trial and Eichmann Trial related to whom ?
(a) Laws of Aerial Warfare (b) War Crimes
(c) Laws of Land Warfare (d) Laws of Maritime Warfare
44. Which one of the following principles are not related to recognition ?
(a) Trobar Doctrine (b) Munro Doctrine
(c) Stimpson Doctrine (d) Estrada Doctrine
45. Justice Dalveer Bhandari has a re-elected term as Justice in the International Court of
Justice for a term of
(a) 2017 – 2026 (b) 2018 – 2027
(c) 2019 – 2028 (d) 2020 – 2029
46. Which city of India received the cleanest city award on March 6, 2019 ?
(a) Ambikapur (b) Mysore (c) Indore (d) Chandigarh
47. Which Justice has been appointed as the first Ombudsman of India ?
(a) Justice Pradeep Kumar Mohanti (b) Justice D.B. Bhosle
(c) Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghosh (d) Justice Ajay Kumar Tripathi
48. Which is the 43rd member of the Australia group ?
(a) China (b) Pakistan (c) India (d) Brazil
49. Which of the following State Legislatures has one house ?
(a) Bihar (b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharashtra
50. In which case it was decided that the preamble is not a part of the Constitution ?
(a) In re Berubari case (b) Keshavanand Bharti case
(c) Maneka Gandhi case (d) S.R. Bommai case
Series-A 8 SJU
38. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
42. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
43. , , ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
45.
(a) 2017 – 2026 (b) 2018 – 2027
(c) 2019 – 2028 (d) 2020 – 2029
46. 6 , 2019 ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
47. ?
(a) (b) ..
(c) (d)
130. Limitation of filing appeal against decrees under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is from date of
decree is
(a) 30 days (b) 45 days (c) 60 days (d) 90 days
131. Dastane V. Dastane related to which of the following matter in Hindu Law ?
(a) Restitution of conjugal rights (b) Cruelty
(c) Adultery (d) Spinda
132. Which one of the followings is not the ground of Judicial separation u/s 10 of the Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955 ?
(a) Adultery (b) Cruelty
(c) Leprosy (d) Missing of less than seven years
133. “No petition of divorce can be presented within one year of marriage.” It is provided in
which following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act ?
(a) Under Section 14 (b) Under Section 12
(c) Under Section 13 (d) Under Section 11
134. Right of a child in womb is given under which one of the following Sections of the Hindu
Succession Act ?
(a) Section 24 (b) Section 22 (c) Section 20 (d) Section 25
135. Which of the following is not the heir of class II of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 ?
(a) Father (b) Father’s father, father’s mother
(c) Mother’s father, mother’s mother (d) Brother and sister by uterine blood
136. No person shall be entitled to dispose of or deal with the property of a Hindu minor merely
because on the ground of his or her being the defacto guardian of the minor is provided
under which of the following Sections of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act ?
(a) Section 10 (b) Section 11
(c) Section 12 (d) Section 13
137. The adoption is to be proved as fact and the burden is on the person who asserts, is held in
which of the following case ?
(a) Sitabai Vs. Ramchandra
(b) Kishori Lal Vs. Chaltibai
(c) Jasveer Kaur Vs. District Judge, Deharadun
(d) Smt. Vijaya Manohar Vs. Kashi Rao Rajaram
138. Under Sunni Law in the matter of inheritance, what is share of son in his father’s property
except land after death of father ?
(a) 1/3 of the property (b) 1/2 of the property
(c) 3/4 of the property (d) There is no specific share.
Series-A 24 SJU
129. , 1955 - -
?
(a) 24 (b) 26 (c) 25 (d) 27
130. , 1955 ,
–
(a) 30 (b) 45 (c) 60 (d) 90
131. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
132. , 1955 10
?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
133.
?
(a) 14 (b) 12
(c) 13 (d) 11
134. ,
?
(a) 24 (b) 22 (c) 20 (d) 25
135. , 1956 -II ?
(a) (b) ,
(c) , (d)
136. ,
?
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13
137.
, ?
(a) (b)
(c) , (d)
138. ( )
?
1 1
(a) (b)
3 2
3
(c) (d)
4
SJU 25 Series-A
139. Under Hindu Succession Act, one person is said to be ‘agnate’ of another if the two are related
(a) by blood or adoption wholly through males.
(b) by blood or adoption but not wholly through males
(c) by half blood through males
(d) None of these
140. Who is the natural guardian of a married girl ?
(a) Her Mother (b) Her Father
(c) Her Husband (d) Her Father-in-law
141. Which one of the following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act relates to voidable marriage ?
(a) Section 10 (b) Section 13 (c) Section 8 (d) Section 12
142. Tagore Vs. Tagore laid down which one of the following rule of law ?
(a) A Hindu cannot dispose of his property by gift intervene in favour of an unborn child.
(b) Karta of a Joint Hindu Family has power to intervene into family matters.
(c) A partition of joint family property can be reopened.
(d) Adoption of an orphan is not valid.
143. Which one of the following Sections of the Cr. P.C. deals with ‘evidence for defence’ ?
(a) Section 264 (b) Section 243 (c) Section 237 (d) Section 242
144. Power of the court to convert summons cases into warrant cases is provided under which
one of the following Sections of the Cr. P.C. ?
(a) Section 302 (b) Section 259 (c) Section 301 (d) Section 322
145. Claims and objections to attachment of property is provided under which one of the
following Sections of the Cr. P.C. ?
(a) Section 84 (b) Section 85 (c) Section 86 (d) Section 87
146. The validity of an order made under Section 144 of Cr. P.C. is
(a) three months (b) four months (c) two months (d) five months
147. The power to postpone the execution of death sentence is conferred on
(a) the Court of Session (b) the Court of Judicial Magistrate
(c) the High Court (d) the Court of District Magistrate
148. An accused person shall be a competent witness according to which one of the Sections of
Cr. P.C. ?
(a) Section 314 (b) Section 316 (c) Section 317 (d) Section 315
149. Which ‘form’ mentioned in the Second Schedule of Cr. P.C. is related with ‘Charge’ ?
(a) Form 31 (b) Form 32 (c) Form 33 (d) Form 34
150. According to Section 97 of the Cr. P.C., who is not competent to issue a search warrant ?
(a) The District Magistrate (b) The Sub-divisional Magistrate
(c) The Magistrate of First Class (d) The Court of Session
151. Which case is related to the power of the court to examine the accused ?
(a) Baba Vs. Maharashtra State only (b) Durbal Singh Vs. State only
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
152. If an intestate has left no heir qualified to succeed to his or her property, such property
shall devolve on which of the following ?
(a) State Government (b) Brothers
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
Series-A 26 SJU
139. ‘’
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
140.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
141. ?
(a) 10 (b) 13 (c) 8 (d) 12
142. ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
143. ‘ ’ ?
(a) 264 (b) 243 (c) 237 (d) 242
144.
?
(a) 302 (b) 259 (c) 301 (d) 322
145.
?
(a) 84 (b) 85 (c) 86 (d) 87
146. 144
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5
147.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
148. ?
(a) 314 (b) 316
(c) 317 (d) 315
149. ‘’ ?
(a) . 31 (b) . 32 (c) . 33 (d) . 34
150. 97 ?
(a) (b) - (c) (d)
151. ?
(a) , (b) ,
(c) (a) (b) (d)
152. / ,
?
(a) (b)
(c) (a) (b) (d)
SJU 27 Series-A
153. A Magistrate empowered under Section 190 of Cr. P.C. may order an investigation by
police in a cognizable offence.
This is provided under which of the following sections of Cr. P.C. ?
(a) Section 154 (3) (b) Section 155 (3)
(c) Section 156 (3) (d) Section 157 (4)
154. Which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code are covered under Section 95
of the Cr. P.C. ?
(a) Section 124 A only (b) Section 153 A and S. 153 B only
(c) Section 292, 293 and 295 A only (d) All of these
155. The High Court may exercise its inherent power under Section 482 on which of the
following grounds ?
(a) in rarest of rate case
(b) in ex debito justice
(c) to prevent abuse of process of any court
(d) All of these
156. If a judge dies after writing his judgment but before delivering in open court, then the
judgment shall be considered as
(a) Judgment of the court (b) Opinion of the judge
(c) Only a dying declaration (d) None of these
157. Who may record confession under S. 164 of the Cr. P.C. ?
(a) Any Judicial Magistrate having jurisdiction only.
(b) Any Judicial Magistrate not having jurisdiction only.
(c) Any Metropolitan Magistrate not having jurisdiction only.
(d) All of these.
158. In which of the following case it was held that the function of the police and judiciary is
complementary to each other ?
(a) King Emperor Vs. Najir Ahmad
(b) Anand Chintamani Dighe Vs. State of Maharashtra
(c) Manisi Jain Vs. State of Gujarat
(d) None of these
159. Under the Criminal Procedure Code, which of the followings is not correctly matched ?
(a) Medical Examination of the Victim of rape – S. 164A
(b) Letter of request to competent authority for – S. 166A
investigation in a country or place outside India
(c) Release of accused when evidence deficient – S. 167
(d) Diary of proceedings in investigation – S. 172
160. Which one of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code provides ‘Victim
Compensation Scheme’ ?
(a) Section 357 (b) Section 357 A (c) Section 357 C (d) Section 357 B
161. “Name of the victim of sexual offence shall not be mentioned.”
It was held in which of the following cases ?
(a) S. Ramkrishna Vs. State (b) Balwant Rai Vs. Changi Ram
(c) Gulzari Lal Vs. State of U.P. (d) Ramapati Vs. State of Bihar
Series-A 28 SJU
153. 190
?
(a) 154(3) (b) 155(3) (c) 156(3) (d) 157(4)
154. , 95
?
(a) 124A (b) 153A 153B
(c) 292, 293 295A (d)
155. 482 ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
156.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
157. 164 ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
158.
?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
159. ?
(a) – 164 A
(b) – 166 A
(c) – 167
(d) – 172
160. ‘ ’ ?
(a) 357 (b) 357 A (c) 357 C (d) 357 B
161. “ ”
?
(a) . (b)
(c) (d)
SJU 29 Series-A
162. Which one of the following is not correctly matched in the Criminal Procedure code ?
(a) Section 2(d) – Complaint
(b) Section 2(h) – Investigation
(c) Section 2(r) – Police report
(d) Section 2(w) – Victim
163. Discharge of the accused before trial has been provided under which of the following
Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code ?
Choose the correct answer with the help of code given below :
(1) Section 227 (2) Section 239 (3) Section 255
Code :
(a) Only (1) is correct. (b) Only (2) is correct.
(c) Both (1) and (2) are correct. (d) Both (1) and (3) are correct.
164. Consider the following statements to summary trial under the Criminal Procedure Code
and choose the correct answer with the help of the code given below :
(1) Offences under Sections 454 and 456 of the Indian Penal Code may be tried by
summary trial.
(2) Sentence under summary trial shall not be passed less than three months.
(3) Procedure of trial of summon case shall be followed in summary trial.
Code :
(a) Only (1) and (2) are correct. (b) Only (2) and (3) are correct.
(c) Only (1) and (3) are correct. (d) All (1), (2) and (3) are correct.
165. Section 41-B was inserted in the Criminal Procedure Code by the Criminal Procedure
Code (Amendment) Act in which of the following year ?
(a) in 2008 (b) in 2010 (c) in 2005 (d) None of these
166. No court shall take cognizance of an offence under the Criminal Procedure Code after the
expiry of the period of limitation under Section 468. Which one of the following is not
correct ?
(a) Six months, if the offence is punishable with fine only.
(b) One year, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding
one year.
(c) Two years in respect of economic offences.
(d) Three years, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding one
year but not exceeding three years.
167. “Irregularities which do not vitiate proceedings” is provided in which of the following
Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code ?
(a) Section 461 (b) Section 460 (c) Section 462 (d) Section 458
168. Power of High Court to confirm sentence is provided under which of the following
Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code ?
(a) Section 366 (b) Section 367 (c) Section 369 (d) Section 368
Series-A 30 SJU
162. ?
(a) 2(d) –
(b) 2(h) –
(c) 2(r) –
(d) 2(w) –
163.
?
(1) 227
(2) 239
(3) 255
(a) (1) (b) (2)
(c) (1) (2) (d) (1) (3)
164.
(1) 454 456
(2) ,
(3)
(a) (1) (2) (b) (2) (3)
(c) (1) (3) (d) (1), (2), (3)
165. 41-B ()
?
(a) 2008 (b) 2010 (c) 2005 (d)
166.
468 ?
(a) ,
(b) ,
(c) ,
(d) ,
167. “ ”
?
(a) 461 (b) 460 (c) 462 (d) 458
168.
?
(a) 366 (b) 367 (c) 369 (d) 368
SJU 31 Series-A
169. Section 195-A of Indian Penal Code is related to :
(a) Punishment for false evidence (b) Threat to give false evidence
(c) Using evidence known to be false (d) Issuing or signing false certificate
170. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched under Indian Penal Code ?
(a) Section 93 – Communication made in good faith
(b) Section 95 – Act causing slight harm
(c) Section 54 – Commutation of sentence of imprisonment for life
(d) Section 54-A – Definition of ‘appropriate government’
171. A man who monitors the use by a woman of internet, e-mail or any other form of
electronic communication, commit the offence of
(a) Trafficking of woman (b) Sexual harassment
(c) Voyeurism (d) Stalking
172. The punishment for attempting to commit offence punishable with imprisonment for life or
other imprisonment is provided in
(a) under Section 511 IPC (b) under Section 509 IPC
(c) under Section 510 IPC (d) under Section 507 IPC
173. The offence of ‘attempt to commit culpable homicide’ is punishable under which of the
following Section of IPC ?
(a) Section 304 (b) Section 308 (c) Section 310 (d) Section 301
174. ‘A’ puts jewels into a box belonging to ‘B’ with the intention that they may be found in
that box, and this circumstances may cause ‘B’ to be convicted of theft.
‘A’ has committed the offence under which Section of IPC given below ?
(a) Section 191 (b) Section 193 (c) Section 194 (d) Section 192
175. ‘A’ a carrier, is entrusted by ‘Z’ with property to be carried by land or by water. ‘A’
dishonestly misappropriates of property.
A has committed the offence of :
(a) Criminal misappropriation of property (b) Cheating
(c) Criminal breach of trust (d) Criminal breach of trust by carrier, etc.
176. When a person tries to escape from lawful custody while taken to a Magistrate to furnish
security for good behaviour could be punished under the provision of :
(a) Section 224 IPC (b) Section 225 IPC
(c) Section 225-A IPC (d) Section 225-B IPC
177. A young man waves a currency note of rupees two thousands in front of a woman as if he
offers the money for an indecent favour from the woman, he may be criminally booked
under :
(a) Section 509 IPC (b) Section 489-B IPC
(c) Section 508 IPC (d) Section 354-B IPC
178. Under which one of the following Section of the Indian Penal Code the offence of
‘Voyeurism’ has been defined ?
(a) Section 354-A (b) Section 354-B (c) Section 354-C (d) Section 354-D
Series-A 32 SJU
169. 195-
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) -
170. – ?
(a) 93 –
(b) 95 –
(c) 54 –
(d) 54-A ‘ ’
171. , - ,
?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
172.
:
(a) ... 511 (b) ... 509
(c) ... 510 (d) ... 507
173. ‘ ’ ... ?
(a) 304 (b) 308 (c) 310 (d) 301
174. ‘’ , ‘’ ,
‘’
‘’ ?
(a) 191 (b) 193 (c) 194 (d) 192
175. ‘’ ‘’ , , , ‘’
‘’ :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
176.
...
?
(a) 224 (b) 225 (c) 225-A (d) 225-B
177.
...
?
(a) 509 (b) 489-B (c) 508 (d) 354-B
178. ‘’ ?
(a) 354- (b) 354- (c) 354- (d) 354-
SJU 33 Series-A
179. Dishonest misappropriation of property possessed by deceased person at the time of his
death, is an offence punishable under the Indian Penal Code in :
(a) Section 404 (b) Section 406 (c) Section 407 (d) Section 409
180. When two or more persons indulge in fighting at a public place and thereby commit breach
of peace, they commit the offence of :
(a) Robbery (b) Riot (c) Public nuisance (d) Affray
181. ‘A’ signs his own name to a Bill of Exchange, intending that it may be believed that the
bill was drawn by another person of same name. ‘A’ has committed the offence of
(a) Cheating (b) Mischief
(c) Forgery (d) Fabricating false evidence
182. Where a woman is gang raped, each of those persons shall be deemed to have committed
the offence of rape and shall be punished with :
(a) Death
(b) Imprisonment for life
(c) Imprisonment for life with fine
(d) Rigorous imprisonment not less than twenty years
183. Which one of the following is not an essential element of the offence of acid attack
mentioned under Section 326-A of the IPC ?
(a) Partial damage, deformity or burn (b) Maiming, disfigurement or disablement
(c) Damage, disfigurement or grievous hurt (d) only bodily pain
184. ‘A’ causes cattle to enter upon the field belonging to ‘Z’, intending to cause damage to Z’s
crops. ‘A’ committed the offence of
(a) Cheating (b) Mischief
(c) Dishonest misappropriation of property (d) None of these
185. Right to private defence is available to all irrespective of gender and age of persons except :
(a) Police officers (b) Officers of armed forces
(c) Aggressors (d) Officers of B.S.F.
186. The minimum punishment in term of imprisonment provided under the Indian Penal Code is :
(a) 24 hours (b) 7 days (c) two days (d) one month
187. The word illegal as defined in the Indian Penal Code means :
(a) everything which is an offence only.
(b) everything which is prohibited by law only.
(c) everything which furnishes ground for a civil action only.
(d) All of these
188. ‘A’ a private doctor running his own clinic, refuses to provide medical treatment to ‘B’, a
victim of acid attack.
‘A’ is liable under which one of the following Section of the Indian Penal Code ?
(a) Section 166 (b) Section 166-A (c) Section 166-B (d) Section 167
189. Whoever by force compels, or by any deceitful means induces, any person to go from any
place, commit the offence of :
(a) wrongful restraint (b) abduction
(c) kidnapping (d) abetment
Series-A 34 SJU
179. , ,
?
(a) 404 (b) 406 (c) 407 (d) 409
180. ,
:
(a) (b) (c) - (d)
181. ‘’ -
- ‘’ :
(a) (b) (c) - (d)
182. ,
–
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) 20
183. ... 326-A
?
(a) , (b) ,
(c) , (d)
184. ‘’ ‘’ ,
‘’ ... –
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
185. , , :
(a) (b)
(c) (d) ...
186. :
(a) (b) 7 (c) (d)
187. ‘’ :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
188. ‘’ ‘’ - ( )
,
‘’ ?
(a) 166 (b) 166-A (c) 166-B (d) 167
189. ,
, :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
SJU 35 Series-A
190. Which one is not a theory of attempt for Section 511 of Indian Penal Code ?
(a) Proximity rule (b) Theory of impossibility
(c) Object theory (d) Durhum rule
191. Section 497 of Indian Penal Code is struck down by the Supreme Court in which of the
following case ?
(a) Navtejsingh Johar Vs. Union of India
(b) Joseph Shine Vs. Union of India
(c) Tahsean S. Poonawala Vs. Union of India
(d) Naz Foundation Trust Vs. Suresh Kumar Kaushal
192. Which one of the following is not the ingredients of the Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(a) Criminal act done by several person
(b) In the furtherance of common intention
(c) Meeting of the minds of those who involved in crime
(d) Similar intention of those who involved in the crime
193. The principle of Section 17 of the Transfer of Property Act is based on which one of the
following cases ?
(a) Girijesh Vs. Dattadin (b) Chamaru Sahu Vs. Sona Kuer
(c) Theluson Vs. Woodford (d) None of these
194. ‘A’ transfers property to ‘B’ in trust for ‘C’ and directs ‘B’ to give possession of the
property to ‘C’ when he attains the age of 25. ‘C’ has :
(a) contingent interest (b) vested interest
(c) both contingent and vested interest (d) No interest
195. The object of the principle of Lis-pendens is to :
(a) only maintaining the status-quo.
(b) only restraining further litigation.
(c) only restraining creation of new facts during litigation.
(d) All of these
196. Which one of the following is not a constructive notice ?
(a) Gross negligence regarding to a fact (b) Registration
(c) Actual possession (d) Definite knowledge
197. A lessee is not entitled to the right of marshalling under which one of the following
Sections of the T.P. Act ?
(a) Section 55 (b) Section 56 (c) Section 57 (d) Section 81
198. Which one of the following Sections provides statutory duties of a mortgagee in
possession under the Transfer of Property Act ?
(a) Section 78 (b) Section 76 (c) Section 77 (d) Section 79
199. Who among the following can not sale and purchase an actionable claim ?
(a) only judge (b) only legal practitioner
(c) only any judicial officer (d) All of these
200. Which one is not an exception of defamation under Section 499 of Indian Penal Code ?
(a) Public conduct of public servant
(b) Malicious statements
(c) Conduct of any person touching any public question
(d) Publication of reports of proceedings of court
___________
Series-A 36 SJU
190. 511 ... ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
191. ... 497 (struck down)
?
(a) (b)
(c) . (d)
192. 34 ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
193. 17 ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
194. ‘’ ‘’ ‘’ ‘’ ‘’
‘’ 25 ‘’ :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
195. :
(a)
(b) -
(c)
(d)
196. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
197.
?
(a) 55 (b) 56 (c) 57 (d) 81
198.
?
(a) 78 (b) 76 (c) 77 (d) 79
199. - ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
200. 499 ... ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
___________
SJU 37 Series-A
Space For Rough Work /
Series-A 38 SJU
Space For Rough Work /
SJU 39 Series-A