ENDOCRINE DISORDERS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Acromegaly is most frequently diagnosed in:

1. Middle-aged adults
2. Newborns

3. Children ages 2 to 5

4. Adults age 65 and older

2. Grave’s disease is:
1. The most common cause of hypothyroidism
2. The most common cause of hyperparathyroidism

3. The most common cause of hyperthyroidism

4. The most common cause of adrenal insufficiency

3. Symptoms of Grave’s ophthalmopathy include all of the following except:
1. Bulging eyeballs
2. Dry, irritated eyes and puffy eyelids

3. Cataracts

4. Light sensitivity
4. An ACTH stimulation test is commonly used to diagnose:
1. Grave’s disease
2. Adrenal insufficiency and Addison’s disease

3. Cystic fibrosis

4. Hashimoto’s disease
5. All of the following are symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome except:
1. Severe fatigue and weakness
2. Hypertension and elevated blood glucose

3. A protruding hump between the shoulders

4. Hair loss
 6. Which of the following conditions is caused by long-term exposure to high
levels of cortisol?
1. Addison’s disease
2. Crohn’s disease

3. Adrenal insufficiency

4. Cushing’s syndrome
7. A “sweat test” or newborn screening may be used to detect:
1. Cystic fibrosis
2. Adrenal insufficiency

3. Grave’s disease

4. Hypothyroidism
8. Hashimoto’s disease is:
1. Chronic inflammation of the thyroid gland
2. Diagnosed most frequently in Asian-Americans and Pacific Islanders

3. A form of hyperthyroidism

4. A rare form of hypothyroidism

9. Persons at increased risk of developing Hashimoto’s disease include all of
the following except:
1. Persons with vitiligo
2. Asian-Americans

3. Persons with rheumatoid arthritis

4. Persons with Addison’s disease

10. All of the following statements about Hashimoto’s disease are true except:
1. Many patients are entirely asymptomatic
2. Not all patients become hypothyroid

3. Most cases of obesity are attributable to Hashimoto’s disease

4. Hypothyroidism may be subclinical

11. The most common benign tumor of the pituitary gland is a:
1. Glioma
2. Prolactinoma
3. Carcinoid tumor

4. Islet cell tumor

12. Symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) may include all of the
following except:
1. Pelvic pain
2. Acne, oily skin, and dandruff

3. Infertility

4. Weight Loss
13. Women with PCOS are at increased risk for all of the following except:
1. Pregnancy
2. Diabetes

3. Cardiovascular disease

4. Metabolic syndrome
14. All of the following organs may be affected by multiple endocrine
neoplasia type 1 except:
1. Parathyroid glands
2. Kidneys

3. Pancreas and Duodenum

4. Pituitary gland
15. What is the treatment for hyperparathyroidism?
1. Synthetic thyroid hormone
2. Desiccated thyroid hormone

3. Surgical removal of the glands

4. Calcium and phosphate

16. The most common causes of death in people with cystic fibrosis is:
1. Dehydration
2. Opportunistic infection

3. Lung cancer

4. Respiratory failure
 17. Untreated hyperthyroidism during pregnancy may result in all of the
following except:
1. Premature birth and miscarriage
2. Low birthweight

3. Autism

4. Preeclampsia
18. Short stature and undeveloped ovaries suggest which of the following
disorders:
1. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
2. Prolactinoma

3. Grave’s disease

4. Turner syndrome
19. Endocrine disorders may be triggered by all of the following except:
1. Stress
2. Infection

3. Chemicals in the food chain and environment

4. Cell phone use

20. An analysis of data from the Women’s Health Initiative questioned the use
of which therapy to prevent heart disease?
1. Synthetic thyroid hormone
2. Oral contraceptives

3. Weight-loss drugs

4. Postmenopausal hormone replacement therapy

Answers and Explanations

1. A
Acromegaly results from benign tumors on the pituitary gland that produce excessive
amounts of growth hormone. Although symptoms may present at any age, the diagnosis
generally occurs in middle-aged persons. Untreated, the consequences of acromegaly
include type 2 diabetes, hypertension and increased risk of cardiovascular disease,
arthritis and colon polyps.
2. C
Grave’s disease is an autoimmune disorder characterized by an enlarged thyroid gland
and overproduction of thyroid hormones producing symptoms of hyperthyroidism such
as rapid heartbeat, heat intolerance, agitation or irritability, weight loss, and trouble
sleeping. It usually presents in persons age 20 to 40 and it is much more common in
women than in men.
3. C
Grave’s ophthalmopathy is an inflammation of tissue behind the eye causing the
eyeballs to bulge. In addition to the above-mentioned symptoms, Grave’s
ophthalmopathy may cause pressure or pain in the eyes, double vision, and trouble
moving the eyes. About one-quarter of persons with Grave’s disease develop Grave’s
ophthalmopathy. The condition is frequently self-limiting, resolving without treatment
over the course of a year or two.
4. B
The ACTH stimulation test measures blood and urine cortisol before and after injection
of ACTH. Persons with chronic adrenal insufficiency or Addison’s disease generally do
not respond with the expected increase in cortisol levels. An abnormal ACTH
stimulation test may be followed with a CRH stimulation test to pinpoint the cause of
adrenal insufficiency.
5. D
Cushing’s syndrome also may cause fragile, thin skin prone to bruises and stretch
marks on the abdomen and thighs as well as excessive thirst and urination and mood
changes such as depression and anxiety. Women who suffer from high levels of cortisol
often have irregular menstrual cycles or amenorrhea and present with hair on their
faces, necks, chests, abdomens, and thighs.
6. D
Cushing’s syndrome is a form of hypercortisolism. Risk factors for Cushing’s syndrome
are obesity, diabetes, and hypertension. Cushing’s syndrome is most frequently
diagnosed in persons ages 20 to 50 who have characteristic round faces, upper body
obesity, large necks, and relatively thin limbs.
7. A
Cystic fibrosis is the most common inherited fatal disease of children and young adults
in the United States. Cystic fibrosis is usually diagnosed by the time an affected child is
three years old. Often, the only signs are a persistent cough, a large appetite but poor
weight gain, an extremely salty taste to the skin, and large, foul-smelling bowel
movements. A simple sweat test is currently the standard diagnostic test. The test
measures the amount of salt in the sweat; abnormally high levels are the hallmark of the
disorder.
8. A
Hashimoto’s disease is the most common cause of hypothyroidism. It is an autoimmune
disease that produces chronic inflammation of the thyroid gland. More women are
affected than men and it is generally diagnosed in persons ages 40 to 60. When
treatment is indicated, synthetic T4 is administered.
9. B
Along with the above-mentioned groups, persons with type 1 diabetes and persons
suffering from pernicious anemia (insufficient vitamin b12) are at increased risk of
developing Hashimoto’s disease. Because it tends to run in families, there is likely a
genetic susceptibility as well. Environmental factors such as excessive iodine
consumption and selected drugs also have been implicated as potential risk factors.
10. C
Although weight gain may be a symptom of Hashimoto’s disease, the majority of obese
people have normal thyroid function; rarely is thyroid disorder the sole cause of obesity.
Other symptoms of Hashimoto’s disease include fatigue, cold intolerance, joint pain,
myalgias, constipation, dry hair, skin and nails, impaired fertility, slow heart rate, and
depression.
11. B
Prolactinomas can cause symptoms by releasing excessive amounts of prolactin into
the blood or mechanically by pressing on surrounding tissues. In women, symptoms
may include menstrual irregularities and infertility; in men erectile dysfunction and libido
may be impaired.
12. D
In addition to the above-mentioned symptoms, PCOS may cause menstrual
irregularities, thinning hair or male-pattern baldness, thick skin or dark patches of skin
and excessive hair growth on the face, chest, abdomen, thumbs and toes.
13. A
Women with PCOS produce excessive amounts of androgens and do not release ova
during ovulation, which seriously compromises their ability to conceive. Although
women with PCOS can become pregnant, often by using assistive reproductive
technology, they are at increased risk for miscarriage.
14. B
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1, also known as Werner’s syndrome, is a heritable
disorder that causes tumors in endocrine glands and the duodenum. Although the
tumors associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 are generally benign, they
can produce symptoms chemically by releasing excessive amounts of hormones or
mechanically by pressing on adjacent tissue.
15. C
When hyperparathyroidism requires treatment, surgery is the treatment of choice and is
considered curative for 95% of cases. Because untreated hyperparathyroidism may
elevate blood and urine levels of calcium and deplete phosphorus, bones and teeth may
lose the minerals needed to remain strong.
16. D
Declining pulmonary function is a hallmark of cystic fibrosis. Drugs such as Pulmozyme
(dornase alfa) and Zithromax (azithromycin) can slow the progression of lung disease
and mechanical physical therapy devices help CF patients to breathe more easily by
loosening and dislodging mucus. For some patients with severe lung damage, lung
transplantation is a treatment option.
17. C
In addition to the above-mentioned complications of uncontrolled hyperthyroidism in
pregnancy, expectant mothers may suffer congestive heart failure and thyroid storm,
which is life-threatening thyrotoxicosis with symptoms that include agitation, confusion,
tachycardia, shaking, sweating, diarrhea, fever, and restlessness.
18. D
Turner syndrome results from a chromosomal abnormality and occurs in an estimated 1
in 2,500 female births. It occurs more frequently in preterm pregnancies. Affected
women are shorter than average and are infertile because they lack ovarian function.
They also may have webbed necks, broad chests, arms that turn out from the elbow,
lymphedema of the hands and feet and skeletal, cardiac, and renal problems.
19. D
Endocrine function may be influenced by myriad factors. In addition to the above-
mentioned, there is evidence that exposure to naturally occurring and man-made
endocrine disruptors such as tributyltin, certain bioaccumulating chlorinated
compounds, and phytoestrogens is widespread and in susceptible individuals, may
trigger endocrine disorders.
20. D
The results of the Women’s Health Initiative study prompted the U.S. Food and Drug
Administration (FDA) to advise against using hormone therapy (estrogen-alone or
estrogen-plus-progestin) to prevent heart disease. When hormone replacement therapy
is used to treat moderate to severe hot flashes and symptoms of vulvar and vaginal
atrophy it should used at the lowest doses for the shortest duration needed to achieve
treatment objectives.
1. An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her
history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris.
Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A
stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute
hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat
hypoglycemia by ingesting:

A. 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate.
B. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
C. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate.
D. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.

2. A female adult client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being

noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the nurse formulates
the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis
statement for this client, which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add?

A. Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures

B. Related to exhaustion secondary to an accelerated metabolic rate
C. Related to edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces
D. Related to tetany secondary to a decreased serum calcium level

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3. Nurse Joey is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes
mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he’s impotent and
says he’s concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client’s care,
the most appropriate intervention would be to:

A. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality.

B. Provide time for privacy.
C. Provide support for the spouse or significant other.
D. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional.

4. During a class on exercise for diabetic clients, a female client asks the nurse
educator how often to exercise. The nurse educator advises the clients to exercise
how often to meet the goals of planned exercise?

A. At least once a week

B. At least three times a week
C. At least five times a week
D. Every day

5. Nurse Oliver should expect a client with hypothyroidism to report which health
concerns?

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A. Increased appetite and weight loss

B. Puffiness of the face and hands
C. Nervousness and tremors
D. Thyroid gland swelling
6. A female client with hypothyroidism(myxedema) is
receiving levothyroxine(Synthroid), 25 mcg P.O. daily. Which finding should nurse
Hans recognize as an adverse drug effect?

A. Dysuria
B. Leg cramps
C. Tachycardia
D. Blurred vision

7. A 67-year-old male client has been complaining of sleeping more, increased

urination, anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, and bone pain that interferes
with her going outdoors. Based on these assessment findings, nurse Richard would
suspect which of the following disorders?

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Hypoparathyroidism
D. Hyperparathyroidism

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8. When caring for a male client with diabetes insipidus, nurse Juliet expects to
administer:

A. vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic).

B. furosemide (Lasix).
C. regular insulin.
D. 10% dextrose.

9. The nurse is aware that the following is the most common cause of
hyperaldosteronism?
A. Excessive sodium intake
B. A pituitary adenoma
C. Deficient potassium intake
D. An adrenal adenoma

10. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated
hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine
would be most accurate in stating:

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A. “The test needs to be repeated following a 12-hour fast.”

B. “It looks like you aren’t following the prescribed diabetic diet.”
C. “It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months.”
D. “Your insulin regimen needs to be altered significantly.”

11. Following a unilateral adrenalectomy, nurse Betty would assess for hyperkalemia
shown by which of the following?

A. Muscle weakness
B. Tremors
C. Diaphoresis
D. Constipation

12. Nurse Louie is developing a teaching plan for a male client diagnosed with
diabetes insipidus. The nurse should include information about which hormone
lacking in clients with diabetes insipidus?

A. antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

B. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
C. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
D. luteinizing hormone (LH).
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13. Early this morning, a female client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening
rounds, nurse Tina assesses the client, who now has nausea, a temperature of 105° F
(40.5° C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of
these signs?

A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Thyroid crisis
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Tetany

14. For a male client with hyperglycemia, which assessment finding best supports a
nursing diagnosis of Deficient fluid volume?

A. Cool, clammy skin

B. Distended neck veins
C. Increased urine osmolarity
D. Decreased serum sodium level

15. When assessing a male client with pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal
medulla that secretes excessive catecholamine, nurse April is most likely to detect:

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A. a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg.

B. a blood glucose level of 130 mg/dl.
C. bradycardia.
D. a blood pressure of 176/88 mm Hg.

16. A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate

antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?
A. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered
B. Encouraging increased oral intake
C. Restricting fluids
D. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered

17. A female client has a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dl. During the physical
examination, nurse Noah expects to assess:

A. Trousseau’s sign.
B. Homans’ sign.
C. Hegar’s sign.
D. Goodell’s sign.

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18. Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus
has been effective?

A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day.

B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour.
C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg.
D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute.

19. Jemma, who weighs 210 lb (95 kg) and has been diagnosed with hyperglycemia
tells the nurse that her husband sleeps in another room because her snoring keeps
him awake. The nurse notices that she has large hands and a hoarse voice. Which of
the following would the nurse suspect as a possible cause of the client’s
hyperglycemia?

A. Acromegaly
B. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Deficient growth hormone
20. Nurse Kate is providing dietary instructions to a male client with hypoglycemia.
To control hypoglycemic episodes, the nurse should recommend:

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A. Increasing saturated fat intake and fasting in the afternoon.

B. Increasing intake of vitamins B and D and taking iron supplements.
C. Eating a candy bar if lightheadedness occurs.
D. Consuming a low-carbohydrate, high protein diet and avoiding fasting.

21. An incoherent female client with a history of hypothyroidism is brought to the

emergency department by the rescue squad. Physical and laboratory findings
reveal hypothermia, hypoventilation, respiratory acidosis, bradycardia, hypotension,
and nonpitting edema of the face and pretibial area. Knowing that these findings
suggest severe hypothyroidism, nurse Libby prepares to take emergency action to
prevent the potential complication of:

A. Thyroid storm.
B. Cretinism.
C. myxedema coma.
D. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

22. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an
oral antidiabetic agent. Nurse Jack explains that these medications are only effective
if the client:

A. prefers to take insulin orally.

B. has type 2 diabetes.
C. has type 1 diabetes.
D. is pregnant and has type 2 diabetes.

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23. When caring for a female client with a history of hypoglycemia, nurse Ruby
should avoid administering a drug that may potentiate hypoglycemia. Which drug fits
this description?

A. sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin)
B. mexiletine (Mexitil)
C. prednisone (Orasone)
D. lithium carbonate (Lithobid)

24. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences
secondary failure. Which of the following would the nurse expect the physician to
do?

A. Initiate insulin therapy.

B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

25. During preoperative teaching for a female client who will undergo subtotal
thyroidectomy, the nurse should include which statement?

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A. “The head of your bed must remain flat for 24 hours after surgery.”
B. “You should avoid deep breathing and coughing after surgery.”
C. “You won’t be able to swallow for the first day or two.”
D. “You must avoid hyperextending your neck after surgery.”

26. Nurse Ronn is assessing a client with possible Cushing’s syndrome. In a client
with Cushing’s syndrome, the nurse would expect to find:

A. Hypotension.
B. Thick, coarse skin.
C. Deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and dorsocervical area.
D. Weight gain in arms and legs.

27. A male client with primary diabetes insipidus is ready for discharge on
desmopressin (DDAVP). Which instruction should nurse Lina provide?

A. “Administer desmopressin while the suspension is cold.”

B. “Your condition isn’t chronic, so you won’t need to wear a medical identification bracelet.”
C. “You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal discharge or
blockage.”
D. “You won’t need to monitor your fluid intake and output after you start taking
desmopressin.”

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28. Nurse Wayne is aware that a positive Chvostek’s sign indicate?

A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypermagnesemia

29. In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing’s
syndrome, nurse Lyzette would expect a decline in:

A. Serum glucose level.

B. Hair loss.
C. Bone mineralization.
D. Menstrual flow.

30. A male client has recently undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor. Dr.
Wong prescribes corticotropin (Acthar), 20 units I.M. q.i.d. as a replacement therapy.
What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin?
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A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the

metabolic rate of target organs.
B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect
protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
D. It regulates the threshold for water resorption in the kidneys.

31. Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a female client
diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular
insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level
of 250 mg/dl for which he receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Vince should expect
the dose’s:

A. Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.

B. Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
C. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.
D. Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6 p.m.

32. A female client with Cushing’s syndrome is admitted to the medical-surgical unit.
During the admission assessment, nurse Tyzz notes that the client is agitated and
irritable, has poor memory, reports loss of appetite, and appears disheveled. These
findings are consistent with which problem?

A. Depression
B. Neuropathy
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hyperthyroidism

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33. Nurse Ruth is assessing a client after a thyroidectomy. The assessment reveals
muscle twitching and tingling, along with numbness in the fingers, toes,
and moutharea. The nurse should suspect which complication?

A. Tetany
B. Hemorrhage
C. Thyroid storm
D. Laryngeal nerve damage

34. After undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy, a female client develops

hypothyroidism. Dr. Smith prescribes levothyroxine (Levothroid), 25 mcg P.O. daily.
For which condition is levothyroxine the preferred agent?

A. Primary hypothyroidism
B. Graves’ disease
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Euthyroidism

35. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of
inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?

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A. Tetanic contractions
B. Neck vein distention
C. Weight loss
D. Polyuria

36. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in

an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse hypertensive crisis caused by
pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:
A. phentolamine (Regitine).
B. methyldopa (Aldomet).
C. mannitol (Osmitrol).
D. felodipine (Plendil).

37. A male client with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with primary

hyperaldosteronism. This diagnosis indicates that the client’s hypertension is
caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?

A. Adrenal cortex
B. Pancreas
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Parathyroid

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38. Nurse Troy is aware that the most appropriate for a client with Addison’s
disease?

A. Risk for infection

B. Excessive fluid volume
C. Urinary retention
D. Hypothermia

39. Acarbose (Precose), an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor, is prescribed for a female

client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. During discharge planning, nurse Pauleen would
be aware of the client’s need for additional teaching when the client states:

A. “If I have hypoglycemia, I should eat some sugar, not dextrose.”

B. “The drug makes my pancreas release more insulin.”
C. “I should never take insulin while I’m taking this drug.”
D. “It’s best if I take the drug with the first bite of a meal.”
40. A female client whose physical findings suggest a hyperpituitary condition
undergoes an extensive diagnostic workup. Test results reveal a pituitary tumor,
which necessitates a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The evening before the
surgery, nurse Jacob reviews preoperative and postoperative instructions given to
the client earlier. Which postoperative instruction should the nurse emphasize?

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A. “You must lie flat for 24 hours after surgery.”

B. “You must avoid coughing, sneezing, and blowing your nose.”
C. “You must restrict your fluid intake.”
D. “You must report ringing in your ears immediately.”

41. Dr. Kennedy prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a male
client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the
blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should
the nurse provide?

A. “Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals.”

B. “Glipizide may cause a low serum sodium level, so make sure you have your sodium
level checked monthly.”
C. “You won’t need to check your blood glucose level after you start taking glipizide.”
D. “Take glipizide after a meal to prevent heartburn.”

42. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-
to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and
bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?

A. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.

B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
D. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.
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43. When instructing the female client diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism about
diet, nurse Gina should stress the importance of which of the following?

A. Restricting fluids
B. Restricting sodium
C. Forcing fluids
D. Restricting potassium

44. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for a female client with
hyperthyroidism?

A. Risk for imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements related to thyroid hormone
excess
B. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to edema, skin fragility, and poor wound healing
C. Body image disturbance related to weight gain and edema
D. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess

45. A male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic

nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled
with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide(Tolinase). Which of the following is the most
important laboratory test for confirming this disorder?

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A. Serum potassium level

B. Serum sodium level
C. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
D. Serum osmolarity

46. A male client has just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. When
teaching the client and family how diet and exercise affect insulin requirements,
Nurse Joy should include which guideline?
A. “You’ll need more insulin when you exercise or increase your food intake.”
B. “You’ll need less insulin when you exercise or reduce your food intake.”
C. “You’ll need less insulin when you increase your food intake.”
D. “You’ll need more insulin when you exercise or decrease your food intake.”

47. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client, then monitors the client
for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely
with glucagon?

A. Oral anticoagulants
B. Anabolic steroids
C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
D. Thiazide diuretics

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48. Which instruction about insulin administration should nurse Kate give to a client?

A. “Always follow the same order when drawing the different insulins into the syringe.”
B. “Shake the vials before withdrawing the insulin.”
C. “Store unopened vials of insulin in the freezer at temperatures well below freezing.”
D. “Discard the intermediate-acting insulin if it appears cloudy.”

49. Nurse Perry is caring for a female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who
exhibits confusion, light-headedness, and aberrant behavior. The client is still
conscious. The nurse should first administer:

A. I.M. or subcutaneous glucagon.

B. I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%.
C. 15 to 20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate such as orange juice.
D. 10 U of fast-acting insulin.
50. For the first 72 hours after thyroidectomy surgery, nurse Jamie would assess the
female client for Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign because they indicate which
of the following?

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A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hyperkalemia

Answers and Rationale

1. Answer: B. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.

To reverse hypoglycemia, the American Diabetes Association recommends ingesting 10 to

15 g of a simple carbohydrate, such as three to five pieces of hard candy, two to three
packets of sugar (4 to 6 tsp), or 4 oz of fruit juice. If necessary, this treatment can be
repeated in 15 minutes. Ingesting only 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate may not raise the
blood glucose level sufficiently. Ingesting more than 15 g may raise it above normal,
causing hyperglycemia.

2. Answer: A. Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures

Poorly controlled hyperparathyroidism may cause an elevated serum calcium level. This, in
turn, may diminish calcium stores in the bone, causing bone demineralization and setting
the stage for pathologic fractures and a risk for injury. Hyperparathyroidism doesn’t
accelerate the metabolic rate. A decreased thyroid hormone level, not an increased
parathyroid hormone level, may cause edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into
the interstitial spaces. Hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia;
therefore, it isn’t associated with tetany.

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3. Answer: D. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional.

The nurse should refer this client to a sex counselor or other professional. Making
appropriate referrals is a valid part of planning the client’s care. The nurse doesn’t normally
provide sex counseling.

4. Answer: B. At least three times a week

Diabetic clients must exercise at least three times a week to meet the goals of planned
exercise — lowering the blood glucose level, reducing or maintaining the proper weight,
increasing the serum high-density lipoprotein level, decreasing serum triglyceride levels,
reducing blood pressure, and minimizing stress. Exercising once a week wouldn’t achieve
these goals. Exercising more than three times a week, although beneficial, would exceed
the minimum requirement.

5. Answer: B. Puffiness of the face and hands

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Hypothyroidism (myxedema) causes facial puffiness, extremity edema, and weight gain.
Signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism (Graves’ disease) include an increased appetite,
weight loss, nervousness, tremors, and thyroid gland enlargement (goiter).

6. Answer: C. Tachycardia

Levothyroxine, a synthetic thyroid hormone, is given to a client with hypothyroidism to

simulate the effects of thyroxine. Adverse effects of this agent include tachycardia. The
other options aren’t associated with levothyroxine.

7. Answer: D. Hyperparathyroidism

Hyperparathyroidism is most common in older women and is characterized by bone pain

and weakness from excess parathyroid hormone (PTH). Clients also exhibit hypercalciuria-
causing polyuria. While clients with diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus also have
polyuria, they don’t have bone pain and increased sleeping. Hypoparathyroidism is
characterized by urinary frequency rather than polyuria.

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8. Answer: A. vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic).

Because diabetes insipidus results from decreased antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin)

production, the nurse should expect to administer synthetic vasopressin for hormone
replacement therapy. Furosemide, a diuretic, is contraindicated because a client with
diabetes insipidus experiences polyuria. Insulin and dextrose are used to treat diabetes
mellitus and its complications, not diabetes insipidus.

9. Answer: D. An adrenal adenoma

An autonomous aldosterone-producing adenoma is the most common cause of

hyperaldosteronism. Hyperplasia is the second most frequent cause. Aldosterone secretion
is independent of sodium and potassium intake as well as of pituitary stimulation.

10. Answer: C. “It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months.”

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The glycosylated Hb test provides an objective measure of glycemic control over a 3-month
period. The test helps identify trends or practices that impair glycemic control, and it doesn’t
require a fasting period before blood is drawn. The nurse can’t conclude that the result
occurs from poor dietary management or inadequate insulin coverage.

11. Answer: A. Muscle weakness

Muscle weakness, bradycardia, nausea, diarrhea, and paresthesia of the hands, feet,
tongue, and face are findings associated with hyperkalemia, which is transient and occurs
from transient hypoaldosteronism when the adenoma is removed. Tremors, diaphoresis,
and constipation aren’t seen in hyperkalemia.

12. Answer: A. antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

ADH is the hormone clients with diabetes insipidus lack. The client’s TSH, FSH, and LH
levels won’t be affected.

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13. Answer: B. Thyroid crisis

Thyroid crisis usually occurs in the first 12 hours after thyroidectomy and causes
exaggerated signs of hyperthyroidism, such as high fever, tachycardia, and extreme
restlessness. Diabetic ketoacidosis is more likely to produce polyuria, polydipsia, and
polyphagia; hypoglycemia, to produce weakness, tremors, profuse perspiration, and
hunger. Tetany typically causes uncontrollable muscle spasms, stridor, cyanosis, and
possibly asphyxia.

14. Answer: C. Increased urine osmolarity

In hyperglycemia, urine osmolarity (the measurement of dissolved particles in the urine)

increases as glucose particles move into the urine. The client experiences glycosuria and
polyuria, losing body fluids and experiencing fluid volume deficit. Cool, clammy skin;
distended neck veins; and a decreased serum sodium level are signs of fluid volume
excess, the opposite imbalance.

15. Answer: D. a blood pressure of 176/88 mm Hg.

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Pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamine,

causes hypertension, tachycardia, hyperglycemia, hypermetabolism, and weight loss. It isn’t
associated with the other options.
16. Answer: C. Restricting fluids

To reduce water retention in a client with the SIADH, the nurse should restrict fluids.
Administering fluids by any route would further increase the client’s already heightened fluid
load.

17. Answer: A. Trousseau’s sign.

This client’s serum calcium level indicates hypocalcemia, an electrolyte imbalancethat

causes Trousseau’s sign (carpopedal spasm induced by inflating the blood pressure cuff
above systolic pressure). Homans’ sign (pain on dorsiflexion of the foot) indicates deep vein
thrombosis. Hegar’s sign (softening of the uterine isthmus) and Goodell’s sign (cervical
softening) are probable signs of pregnancy.

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18. Answer: A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day.

Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria (up to 8 L/day), constant thirst, and an

unusually high oral intake of fluids. Treatment with the appropriate drug should decrease
both oral fluid intake and urine output. A urine output of 200 ml/hour indicates continuing
polyuria. A blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 126 beats/minute indicate
compensation for the continued fluid deficit, suggesting that treatment hasn’t been effective.

19. Answer: A. Acromegaly

Acromegaly, which is caused by a pituitary tumor that releases excessive growth hormone,
is associated with hyperglycemia, hypertension, diaphoresis, peripheral neuropathy, and
joint pain. Enlarged hands and feet are related to lateral bone growth, which is seen in
adults with this disorder. The accompanying soft tissue swelling causes hoarseness and
often sleep apnea. Type 1 diabetes is usually seen in children, and newly diagnosed
persons are usually very ill and thin. Hypothyroidism isn’t associated with hyperglycemia,
nor is growth hormone deficiency.
20. Answer: D. Consuming a low-carbohydrate, high protein diet and avoiding
fasting.

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To control hypoglycemic episodes, the nurse should instruct the client to consume a low-
carbohydrate, high protein diet, avoid fasting, and avoid simple sugars. Increasing saturated
fat intake and increasing vitamin supplementation wouldn’t help control hypoglycemia.

21. Answer: C. myxedema coma.

Severe hypothyroidism may result in myxedema coma, in which a drastic drop in the
metabolic rate causes decreased vital signs, hypoventilation (possibly leading to respiratory
acidosis), and nonpitting edema. Thyroid storm is an acute complication of hyperthyroidism.
Cretinism is a form of hypothyroidism that occurs in infants. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a
common chronic inflammatory disease of the thyroid gland in which autoimmune factors
play a prominent role.

22. Answer: B. has type 2 diabetes.

Oral antidiabetic agents are only effective in adult clients with type 2 diabetes. Oral
antidiabetic agents aren’t effective in type 1 diabetes. Pregnant and lactating women aren’t
prescribed oral antidiabetic agents because the effect on the fetus is uncertain.

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23. Answer: A. sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin)

Sulfisoxazole and other sulfonamides are chemically related to oral antidiabetic agents and
may precipitate hypoglycemia. Mexiletine, an antiarrhythmic, is used to treat refractory
ventricular arrhythmias; it doesn’t cause hypoglycemia. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, is
associated with hyperglycemia. Lithium may cause transient hyperglycemia, not
hypoglycemia.
24. Answer: B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.

Many clients (25% to 60%) with secondary failure respond to a different oral antidiabetic
agent. Therefore, it wouldn’t be appropriate to initiate insulin therapy at this time. However,
if a new oral antidiabetic agent is unsuccessful in keeping glucose levels at an acceptable
level, insulin may be used in addition to the antidiabetic agent.

25. Answer: D. “You must avoid hyperextending your neck after surgery.”

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To prevent undue pressure on the surgical incision after subtotal thyroidectomy, the nurse
should advise the client to avoid hyperextending the neck. The client may elevate the head
of the bed as desired and should perform deep breathing and coughing to help
prevent pneumonia. Subtotal thyroidectomy doesn’t affect swallowing.

26. Answer: C. Deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and dorsocervical area.

Because of changes in fat distribution, adipose tissue accumulates in the trunk, face
(moonface), and dorsocervical areas (buffalo hump). Hypertension is caused by fluid
retention. Skin becomes thin and bruises easily because of a loss of collagen. Muscle
wasting causes muscle atrophy and thin extremities.

27. Answer: C. “You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal
discharge or blockage.”

Desmopressin may not be absorbed if the intranasal route is compromised. Although

diabetes insipidus is treatable, the client should wear medical identification and carry
medication at all times to alert medical personnel in an emergency and ensure proper
treatment. The client must continue to monitor fluid intake and output and receive adequate
fluid replacement.

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28. Answer: A. Hypocalcemia

Chvostek’s sign is elicited by tapping the client’s face lightly over the facial nerve, just below
the temple. If the client’s facial muscles twitch, it indicates hypocalcemia. Hyponatremia is
indicated by weight loss, abdominal cramping, muscle weakness, headache, and postural
hypotension. Hypokalemia causes paralytic ileus and muscle weakness. Clients with
hypermagnesemia exhibit a loss of deep tendon reflexes, coma, or cardiac arrest.

29. Answer: A. Serum glucose level.

Hyperglycemia, which develops from glucocorticoid excess, is a manifestation of Cushing’s

syndrome. With successful treatment of the disorder, serum glucose levels decline.
Hirsutism is common in Cushing’s syndrome; therefore, with successful treatment,
abnormal hair growth also declines. Osteoporosis occurs in Cushing’s syndrome; therefore,
with successful treatment, bone mineralization increases. Amenorrhea develops in
Cushing’s syndrome. With successful treatment, the client experiences a return of
menstrual flow, not a decline in it.

30. Answer: C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic

actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.

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Corticotropin interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that
affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. It doesn’t decrease cAMP production. The
posterior pituitary hormone, antidiuretic hormone, regulates the threshold for water
resorption in the kidneys.

31. Answer: C. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.

Regular insulin, which is a short-acting insulin, has an onset of 15 to 30 minutes and a peak
of 2 to 4 hours. Because the nurse gave the insulin at 2 p.m., the expected onset would be
from 2:15 p.m. to 2:30 p.m. and the peak from 4 p.m. to 6 p.m.
32. Answer: A. Depression

Agitation, irritability, poor memory, loss of appetite, and neglect of one’s appearance may
signal depression, which is common in clients with Cushing’s syndrome. Neuropathy affects
clients with diabetes mellitus — not Cushing’s syndrome. Although hypoglycemia can cause
irritability, it also produces increased appetite, rather than loss of appetite. Hyperthyroidism
typically causes such signs as goiter, nervousness, heat intolerance, and weight loss
despite increased appetite.

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33. Answer: A. Tetany

Tetany may result if the parathyroid glandsare excised or damaged during thyroid surgery.
Hemorrhage is a potential complication after thyroid surgery but is characterized by
tachycardia, hypotension, frequent swallowing, feelings of fullness at the incision site,
choking, and bleeding. Thyroid storm is another term for severe hyperthyroidism — not a
complication of thyroidectomy. Laryngeal nerve damage may occur postoperatively, but its
signs include a hoarse voice and, possibly, acute airway obstruction.

34. Answer: A. Primary hypothyroidism

Levothyroxine is the preferred agent to treat primary hypothyroidism and cretinism, although
it also may be used to treat secondary hypothyroidism. It is contraindicated in Graves’
disease and thyrotoxicosis because these conditions are forms of hyperthyroidism.
Euthyroidism, a term used to describe normal thyroid function, wouldn’t require any thyroid
preparation.

35. Answer: B. Neck vein distention

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SIADH secretion causes antidiuretic hormone overproduction, which leads to fluid retention.
Severe SIADH can cause such complications as vascular fluid overload, signaled by neck
vein distention. This syndrome isn’t associated with tetanic contractions. It may cause
weight gain and fluid retention (secondary to oliguria).

36. Answer: A. phentolamine (Regitine).

Pheochromocytoma causes excessive production of epinephrine and norepinephrine,

natural catecholamines that raise the blood pressure. Phentolamine, an alpha-adrenergic
blocking agent given by I.V. bolus or drip, antagonizes the body’s response to circulating
epinephrine and norepinephrine, reducing blood pressure quickly and effectively. Although
methyldopa is an antihypertensive agent available in parenteral form, it isn’t effective in
treating hypertensive emergencies. Mannitol, a diuretic, isn’t used to treat hypertensive
emergencies. Felodipine, an antihypertensive agent, is available only in extended-release
tablets and therefore doesn’t reduce blood pressure quickly enough to correct hypertensive
crisis.

37. Answer: A. Adrenal cortex

Excessive secretion of aldosterone in the adrenal cortex is responsible for the client’s
hypertension. This hormone acts on the renal tubule, where it promotes reabsorption of
sodium and excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions. The pancreas mainly secretes
hormones involved in fuel metabolism. The adrenal medulla secretes the catecholamines —
epinephrine and norepinephrine. The parathyroids secrete parathyroid hormone.

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38. Answer: A. Risk for infection

Addison’s disease decreases the production of all adrenal hormones, compromising the
body’s normal stress response and increasing the risk of infection. Other appropriate
nursing diagnoses for a client with Addison’s disease include Deficient fluid volume
and Hyperthermia. Urinary retention isn’t appropriate because Addison’s disease causes
polyuria.
39. Answer: A. “If I have hypoglycemia, I should eat some sugar, not dextrose.”

Acarbose delays glucose absorption, so the client should take an oral form of dextrose
rather than a product containing table sugar when treating hypoglycemia. The alpha-
glucosidase inhibitors work by delaying the carbohydrate digestion and glucose absorption.
It’s safe to be on a regimen that includes insulin and an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor. The
client should take the drug at the start of a meal, not 30 minutes to an hour before.

40. Answer: B. “You must avoid coughing, sneezing, and blowing your nose.”

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After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the client must refrain from coughing, sneezing,
and blowing the nose for several days to avoid disturbing the surgical graft used to close the
wound. The head of the bed must be elevated, not kept flat, to prevent tension or pressure
on the suture line. Within 24 hours after a hypophysectomy, transient diabetes insipidus
commonly occurs; this calls for increased, not restricted, fluid intake. Visual, not auditory,
changes are a potential complication of hypophysectomy.

41. Answer: A. “Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals.”

The client should take glipizide twice a day, 30 minutes before a meal, because food
decreases its absorption. The drug doesn’t cause hyponatremia and therefore doesn’t
necessitate monthly serum sodium measurement. The client must continue to monitor the
blood glucose level during glipizide therapy.

42. Answer: C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.

For this client, wet-to-dry dressings are most appropriate because they clean the foot ulcer
by debriding exudate and necrotic tissue, thus promoting healing by secondary intention.
Moist, transparent dressings contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.
Hydrocolloid dressings prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound
discomfort. Dry sterile dressings protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote
healing.

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43. Answer: C. Forcing fluids

The client should be encouraged to force fluids to prevent renal calculi formation. Sodium
should be encouraged to replace losses in urine. Restricting potassium isn’t necessary in
hyperparathyroidism.

44. Answer: D. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to thyroid
hormone excess

In the client with hyperthyroidism, excessive thyroid hormone production leads to

hypermetabolism and increased nutrient metabolism. These conditions may result in a
negative nitrogen balance, increased protein synthesis and breakdown, decreased glucose
tolerance, and fat mobilization and depletion. This puts the client at risk for marked nutrient
and calorie deficiency, making Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements the most
important nursing diagnosis. Options B and C may be appropriate for a client with
hypothyroidism, which slows the metabolic rate.

45. Answer: D. Serum osmolarity

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Serum osmolarity is the most important test for confirming HHNS; it’s also used to guide
treatment strategies and determine evaluation criteria. A client with HHNS typically has a
serum osmolarity of more than 350 mOsm/L. Serum potassium, serum sodium, and ABG
values are also measured, but they aren’t as important as serum osmolarity for confirming a
diagnosis of HHNS. A client with HHNS typically has hypernatremia and osmotic diuresis.
ABG values reveal acidosis, and the potassium level is variable.
46. Answer: B. “You’ll need less insulin when you exercise or reduce your food
intake.”

Exercise, reduced food intake, hypothyroidism, and certain medications decrease the
insulin requirements. Growth, pregnancy, greater food intake, stress, surgery, infection,
illness, increased insulin antibodies, and certain medications increase the insulin
requirements.

47. Answer: A. Oral anticoagulants

As a normal body protein, glucagon only interacts adversely with oral anticoagulants,
increasing the anticoagulant effects. It doesn’t interact adversely with anabolic steroids,
beta-adrenergic blockers, or thiazide diuretics.

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48. Answer: A. “Always follow the same order when drawing the different insulins
into the syringe.”

The client should be instructed always to follow the same order when drawing the different
insulins into the syringe. Insulin should never be shaken because the resulting froth
prevents withdrawal of an accurate dose and may damage the insulin protein molecules.
Insulin also should never be frozen because the insulin protein molecules may be damaged.
Intermediate-acting insulin is normally cloudy.

49. Answer: C. 15 to 20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate such as orange juice.

This client is having a hypoglycemic episode. Because the client is conscious, the nurse
should first administer a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as orange juice, hard candy, or
honey. If the client has lost consciousness, the nurse should administer either I.M. or
subcutaneous glucagon or an I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%. The nurse shouldn’t administer
insulin to a client who’s hypoglycemic; this action will further compromise the client’s
condition.
50. Answer: A. Hypocalcemia

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The client who has undergone a thyroidectomy is at risk for developing hypocalcemia from
inadvertent removal or damage to the parathyroid gland. The client with hypocalcemia will
exhibit a positive Chvostek’s sign (facial muscle contraction when the facial nerve in front of
the ear is tapped) and a positive Trousseau’s sign (carpal spasm when a blood pressure
cuff is inflated for a few minutes). These signs aren’t present with hypercalcemia,
hypokalemia, or hyperkalemia.

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Hide

    out of4

Quiz 2- questions and answers

Course:

Pharmacology In Nursing (NRSE 206)

Pharm
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