ITY Main Ph-6 - XII

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FIITJEE - JEE (Mains)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

ITY – PHASE – 6
BATCH – ITY1719
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360

 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.

Important Instructions:

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test
Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.

3. The test is of 3 hours duration.

4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4
(four) marks for correct response.

6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct response of each
question. ¼ (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question.
No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer
sheet.

7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instruction 6 above.

8. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and
Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager,
mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.

10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
with them.

11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :_____________________________________

Enrolment Number :_________________________________________________________

Batch :________________________ Date of Examination : ________________________

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SECTION - 1
PHYSICS

1. A resistance R and capacitance C are connected in series across a voltage V = 100 2 sin ( 314t ) . The
 π
current is found to be I = 5sin  314t +  . The resistance R in the circuit is
 4
(A) 5Ω (B) 10Ω
(C) 15Ω (D) 20Ω

2. A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic field which is directed into the C
plane of the paper. The magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate. The
A
directions of induced currents in wires AB and CD are
(A) B to A and D to C (B) A to B and C to D
B
(C) A to B and D to C (D) B to A and C to D
D

3. A circular loop is lying in X-Y plane with its centre at origin. A long straight wire Y

passing through origin carries a current i in negative z-direction The induced


current in the coil is :
(A) zero (B) Clockwise X

(C) Anti-clockwise (D) Alternating

4. Charging and discharging time constant of the circuit respectively


2R R
3L 2 L L L
(A) , (B) ,
5R R 3R 2 R R
L L 3L L L
(C) , (D) , E
2 R 3R 5R 2R

5. A horizontal magnetic field B is produced across a narrow gap between square


iron pole-pieces as shown. A closed wire loop of side l, mass m and resistance × × × × × × ×
R is allowed to fall with the top of the loop in the field. The terminal velocity × × × × × × ×
attained by the loop is given by × × × × × × ×
 Btl  × × × × × × ×
(A) gt (B) g 1 − t × × × × × × ×
 m  × × × × × × ×
mgR
(C) 2 2 (D) 0
Bl
mg

Space for Rough Work

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A solenoid has 2000 turns wound over a length of 0.30m. Its central section is 1.2 × 10−3 m . Around its
2
6.
central section a coil of 300 turns is wound. If an initial current of 2A in the solenoid is reversed in
0.25 sec., the e.m.f. induced in the coil is equal to
(A) 6 × 10−4 volt (B) 4.8 × 10−2 volt (C) 6 × 10−2 volt (D) 48 kV

7. A circular conducting loop of mass m is placed in a magnetic field B


perpendicular to its plane and connected to a battery as shown in the fig. The R
circuit is completed by a massless conductor along the diameter, rigidly fixed to −
x x x Ax x E
the loop. Point A slides over the loop. The loop is free to rotate about an axis
x x x x x
passing through O and perpendicular to the plane of the loop. Then angular O +
x x x x x
velocity of loop after long time will be (Assuming battery to be constant current L
x x x x x
source)
8E 2EBt E
(A) 2 (B) (C) 2 (D) None
LB mL LB

8. A square loop ABCD , carrying a current i , is placed near and coplanar Y D C


i
with a long straight conductor XY carrying a current I . L
(A) There is not net force on the loop. I
B
A
(B) The loop will be attracted by the conductor only if the current in the L
loop flows clockwise. L/2
(C) The loop will be attracted by the conductor only if the current in the X
loop flows anticlockwise.
(D) None of these

9. In the circuit shown, X is joined to Y for a long time, and then X is R2


joined to Z . The total heat produced in R2 is
L X Z
1 LE2 1 LE2 Y
(A) (B) R1
2 R12 2 R22 + S
E
1 LE 2 1 LE2 R2
(C) (D)
2 R1 R2 2 R13

10. Three identical coils A, B and C carrying currents are placed


coaxially with their planes parallel to one another. A and C
carry currents as shown in Fig. B is kept fixed, while A and C
both are moved towards B with the same speed. Initially, B
is equally separated from A and C. The direction of the I I
induced current in the coil B is A B C
(A) same as that in coil A
(B) same as that in coil B
(C) zero
(D) none of these

C = 500 μF
11. In the circuit shown in Fig., if both the bulbs B1 and B2
are identical, then B1
(A) their brightness will be the same
(B) B2 will be brighter than B1
(C) B1 will be brighter than B2 L = 10 mH B2
(D) only B2 will glow because the capacitor has infinite
impedance

~
220 V, 50 Hz

Space for Rough Work

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12. The magnetism of atomic magnet is due to -


(A) only spin motion of electrons (B) only orbital motion of electrons
(C) both spin and orbital motion of electrons (D) the motion of protons.

13. The magnetic susceptibility χ of a paramagnetic materials varies with absolute temperature T as
−1
(A) χ∝T (B) χ ∝ e
T
(C) χ ∝ T (D) χ = cons tan t .
14. A current of 2 ampere is passed in a coil of radius 0.5 m and number of turns 20. The magnetic
moment of the coil is-
2 2 2 2
(A) 0.314 A–m (B) 3.14 A–m (C) 314 A–m (D) 31.4 A–m

15. The resultant magnetic moment due to two current (i) carrying concentric coils of radius r, mutually
perpendicular to each other will be-

(A) 2iπr 2 (B) 2ir 2 (C) 2ir (D) 2πr 2

16. The area of cross-section of three magnets of same length are A, 2A and 6A respectively. The ratio of
their magnetic moments will be-
(A) 6 : 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 6 (C) 1 : 4 : 36 (D) 36 : 4 : 1

o
17. The value of angle of dip at a place on earth is 45 . If the horizontal component of earth's magnetic
–5
field is 5×10 Telsa then the total magnetic field of earth will be-

(A) 5 2 × 10−5 Tesla (B) 10 2 × 10−5 Tesla


(C) 15 2 × 10−5 Tesla (D) zero.

18. A current of 1 ampere is flowing in a coil of 10 turns and with radius 10 cm. Its magnetic moment will
be-
(D) µ0 A-m
2 2 2
(A) 0.314 A-m (B) 3140 A-m (C) 100 A-m2

Space for Rough Work

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19. In an electromagnetic wave the average energy density associated with magnetic field will be:
1 2 B2 1 1 q
(A) LI (B) (C) µ0B2 (D)
2 2µ0 2 2 B2

20. The displacement current flows in the dielectric of a capacitor


(A) becomes zero (B) has assumed a constant value
(C) is increasing with time (D) is decreasing with time

21. A charge q coulomb moves in a circle at n revolutions per second and the radius of the circle is r
meter. Then the magnetic field at the centre of the circle is
2πq 2πq
(A) × 10 −7 NA −1m−1 (B) × 10 −7 NA −1m−1
nr r
2πnq 2πq
(C) × 10−7 NA −1m−1 (D) × 10 −6 NA −1m−1
r r

22. A current I enters circular coil of radius R, branches into two parts
I
and then recombines as shown in the circuit diagram. The resultant
magnetic field at the centre of the coil is B

µ0I
(A) zero (B) I1
2R
90°
I = I1 + I 2
3  µ0I  1  µ0I  A
(C) (D)
4  2R  4  2R 
I2

23. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular current carrying conductor of radius r is Bc . The magnetic
field on its axis at a distance r from the centre is Ba . The value of Bc : Ba will be
(A) 1: 2 (B) 1: 2 2
(C) 2 2 : 1 (D) 2 :1

24. Two thin metallic strips, carrying current in the direction shown, cross
each other perpendicularly without touching but being close to each
other, as shown in the figure. The regions which contains some I II
points of zero magnetic induction are
(A) I and II (B) I and III
(C) I and IV (D) II and III
III IV

Space for Rough Work

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25. A neutron, a proton, an electron and an α − particle enter a


C
region of uniform magnetic field with the same velocities. The
magnetic field is perpendicular and directed into the plane of the A
paper. The tracks of the particle are labelled in the figure. The
electron follows the track B D
(A) D (B) C
(C) B (D) A

26. A proton moving with a constant velocity passes through a region of


space without any change in velocity. If E & B represent the electric
and magnetic fields respectively, this region of space may have :
(A) E = 0, B = 0 (B) E = 0, B ≠ 0
(C) E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0 (D) A, B, C all possible

27. When a metallic plate swings between the poles of a magnet


(A) no effect on the plate.
(B) eddy currents are set up inside the plate and the direction of the current is along the motion of the
plate.
(C) eddy currents are set up inside the plate and the direction of the current oppose the motion of the
plate.
(D) eddy current are set up inside the plate.

28. Which one of the following characteristics is not associated with a ferromagnetic material?
(A) It is strongly attracted by a magnet
(B) It tends to move from a region of strong magnetic field to a region of low magnetic field
(C) Its origin is the spin of electrons
(D) Above the Curie temperature, it exhibits paramagnetic properties

29. A coil has self inductance L = 0.04 H and resistance R = 12 Ω , connected to 220 V, 50 Hz supply,
what will be the current flow in the coil?
(A) 11.7 A (B) 12.7 A
(C) 10.7 A (D) 14.7 A

30. Whenever a magnet is moved either towards or away from a conducting coil, an emf is induced, the
magnitude of which is independent of
(A) the strength of the magnetic field
(B) the speed with which the magnet is moved
(C) the number of turns is the coil
(D) the resistance of the coil

Space for Rough Work

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SECTION – 2
CHEMISTRY

1. Extraction of aluminium from oxide (Al2O3) is best done by :


(A) electrolytic reduction of Al2O3 (B) reduction of Al2O3 with carbon
(C) reduction of Al2O3 with sodium (D) reduction of Al2O3 with CO.

2. On adding few drops of dil HCl to freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide, a red coloured colloidal solution
is obtained. This phenomenon is known is –
(A) Peptisation (B) Dialysis (C) Protective action (D) Dissolution
3. Tetragonal crystal system has the following unit cell dimensions
(A)a = b = c and α = β = γ = 90° (B) a = b ≠ c and α = β = γ = 90°
(C) a ≠ b ≠ c and α = β = γ = 90° (D) a = b ≠ c and α = β = 90°, γ = 120°

4. Pick up the correct statement


(A) The ionic crystal of AgBr does not have Schottky defect
(B) The unit cell having crystal parameters, a = b ≠ c and α = β = 90°, γ = 120º is hexagonal
(C) In ionic compounds having Frenkel defect, the ratio r+/r– is high
(D) The coordination number of Na+ ion in NaCl is 4

5. An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point higher than either of the boiling points of the
two liquids when it
(A) shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law
(B) shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(C) shows no deviation from Raoult’s law
(D) is saturated

6. Pure Benzene freezes at 5.4°C. A solute of 0.223 g of phenyl acetic acid (C6H5CH2COOH) in 4.4 g of
benzene (Kf = 5.12 K kg mol–1) freezes at 4.47°C. From this observation, one can conclude that
(A) phenyl acetic acid exists as such in benzene
(B) phenyl acetic acid undergoes partial ionization in benzene
(C) phenyl acetic acid undergoes complete ionization in benzene
(D) phenyl acetic acid dimerizes in benzene

7. At certain temperature, the osmotic pressure of an aqueous solution of urea was found to be 405 mm.
How many times the solution should be diluted in order to exhibit the osmotic pressure of 81 mm at the
same temperature?
(A) 2 times (B) 4 times (C) 8 times (D) 5 times

Space for Rough Work

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8. In a normal spinel type structure, the oxide ions are arranged in ccp whereas 1/8 tetrahedral holes are
2+ 3+
occupied by Zn ions and 50% of octahedral holes are occupied by Fe ions. The formula of the
compound is
(A) Zn2Fe2O4 (B) ZnFe2O3 (C) ZnFe2O4 (D) ZnFe2O2

9. Which is not correct about the Schottky defects ?


(A) Both cations and anions are missing from their lattice sites without affecting the stoichiometry of
the compound
(B) Because of present of holes the lattice energy decreases
(C) The presence of holes causes the density of the crystal to decrease
(D) The defect increases the electrical conductivity of the solid due to migration of the ions into the
holes.

10. Equal volumes of 1.0 M KCl and 1.0 M Ag NO3 are mixed. The depression of freezing point of the
-1
resulting solution will be (Kf(H2O) = 1.86 K kg mol , 1 M = 1 m)
(A) 3.72 K (B) 1.86 K (C) 0.93 K (D) None of these

11. A sulphide ore is generally roasted to the oxide before reduction, because
(A) the enthalpy of formation of CO2 is more than that of CS2
(B) a metal sulphide is generally more stable than the metal oxide
(C) no reduction agent is found suitable for reducing a sulphide ore
(D) a sulphide ore cannot be reduced at all

12. In zone refining method the molten zone


(A) moves to either side
(B) contains the purified metal only
(C) contains more impurity than the original metal
(D) consists of impurities only

13. The chemical composition of ‘slag’ formed during smelting in the extraction of copper is
(A) Cu2O + FeS (B) FeSiO3 (C) CuFeS2 (D) Cu2S + FeO

14. Which of the following statements is not true ?


(A) Both physisorption and chemisorptions are exothermic
(B) Physisorption takes place with decrease of free energy whereas the chemisorptions occurs with
increase of free energy
(C) Physisorption requires low activation energy but the chemisorptions requires high activation energy
(D) The magnitude of chemisorptions increases and that of physisorption decreases with rise in
temperature

15. Addition of a small amount of NaCl to w/o emulsion


(A) causes an appreciable increase of conductivity
(B) causes a slight decrease of conductivity
(C) causes no change of conductivity
(D) leads to the formation of true solution

Space for Rough Work

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16. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?


(A) A metal that crystallizes in the fcc structure has coordination number 12.
a 3
(B) The distance between a tetrahedral void and an octahedral void in fcc structure is .
4
(C) In orthorhombic crystal system all axial angles are identical.
+
(D) Number of nearest neighbours of Cs ion in CsCl structure is 6.

17. The number of hydrogen atoms attached to P-atom in pyrophosphoric acid


(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) Zero

18. The simplest way to check whether a system is a colloid is by


(A) tyndall effect (B) Brownian movement
(C) electro dialysis (D) finding out particles size

19. Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent?


(A) HF (B) HCl (C) HBr (D) HI

20. The nearest neighbour distance in a bcc lattice is: (a = Edge length of unit cell)
2a 3a 3a
(A) a (B) (C) (D)
2 2 4
0
21. Total vapour pressure of a mixture of 1 mole ‘X’ ( Px = 150 torr) and 2 mole ‘Y’ ( Py0 = 240 torr) is 200
torr. In this case
(A) there is positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(B) there is negative deviation from Raoult’s law
(C) there is no deviation from Raoult’s law
(D) data inadequate

22. According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm, the amount of gas adsorbed on a given mass of
adsorbent is:
(A) inversely proportional to pressure at low pressure region
(B) directly proportional to pressure at low pressure region
(C) independent of pressure at low pressure region
(D) none of these is correct

23. Which of the following interhalogen compound does not exist?


(A) IF3 (B) IF6 (C) IF5 (D) IF7

24. XeF2 undergoes hydrolysis in the following manner:


2 XeF2 + 2H2O 
→ 2 Xe + 4HF + O2
Addition of which of the following compound, increases the rate of hydrolysis?
(A) HCl (B) AlCl3 (C) KOH (D) NaCl
o o
2+ 2-
25. Salt AB has a zinc blend structure. The radius of A and B ions are 0.7 A and 1.8 A respectively.
The edge length of the unit cell of AB is:
o o o o
(A) 2.5 A (B) 5.09 A (C) 5 A (D) 5.77 A

Space for Rough Work

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26. Which of the following two solutions are isotonic? (Assume complete dissociation of salts)
(A) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M NH2CONH2 (B) 0.2 M CaCl2 and 0.3 M KCl
(C) 0.2 M AlCl3 and 0.2 M NaCl (D) 0.1 M C6H12O6 and 0.1 M Al2(SO4)3

27. Which of the following is called electro-osmosis?


(A) The movement of positively charged colloidal particles towards cathode.
(B) The movement of negatively charged colloidal particles towards anode.
(C) The movement of the particles of dispersion medium towards respective electrode.
(D) The pH at which the colloidal particles do not move toward any electrode.

28. Which of the following is the common product of the hydrolysis of XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6?
(A) XeO3 (B) O2 (C) HF (D) XeOF4

29. Which of the following graph is correct for chemical adsorption?

x x
(A) (B)
m m

T T

(C) (D) x
x
m m

T
T

30. If a freshly formed precipitate of SnO2 is peptized by a small amount of NaOH, the colloidal particles
may be represented as:
2−
(B) [SnO2] SnO32 − : Na
+ +
(A) [SnO2] SnO2 : Na
+ - 4+ -
(C) [SnO2]Na : OH (D) [SnO2]Sn : OH

Space for Rough Work

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SECTION – 3
MATHS
sin2x
1. Evaluate dx
sin5x sin3x
(A) loge (sin5x sin3x) + C (B) loge (sin5x) − loge (sin3x) + C
loge (sin3x) loge (sin3x) loge (sin5x)
(C) +C (D) − +C
5 3 5

2. Evaluate I = (tan3 x − x tan2 x)dx


(tan x − x)2 (tan x + x)2
(A) +C (B) +C (C) tan2 x + C (D) tan2 x − x 2 + C
2 2
π /2
3.

0
ln tan x dx =

(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) None of these.

4. The value of the integral (x 2 + x)(x −8 + 2x −9 )1/10 dx is equal to :


5 2 5 6
(A) (x + 2x)11/10 + C (B) (x 2 + 1)11/10 + C (C) (x + 1)11/10 + C (D) None of these
11 6 7

dx
5. If n −1
= −[f(x)]1/ n + C , then f(x) is
x 2 (xn + 1) n

(A) (1 + xn ) (B) 1 + x −n (C) xn + x −n (D) None of these

sin x − cos x
π/2 2π π/2 1 1
6. I1 = dx, I2 = cos6 x dx, I3 = sin3 x dx, I4 = ln
− 1 dx , then :
0 1 + sin x cos x 0 −π / 2 0 x
(A) I2 = I3 = I4 = 0, I1 ≠ 0 (B) I1 = I2 = I3 = 0, I4 ≠ 0
(C) I1 = I3 = I4 = 0, I2 ≠ 0 (D) I1 = I2 = I4 = 0, I3 ≠ 0

7. Area of the region which consists of all the points satisfying the conditions
x − y + x + y ≤ 8 and xy ≥ 2 , is equal to
(A) 4(7 – ln8)sq. units (B) 4(9 – ln8)sq. units
(C) 2(7 – ln8)sq. units (D) 2(9 – ln8)sq. units

Space for Rough Work

ex f (a) f (a) I2
8. If f(x) = , I1 = xg[x(1 − x)]dx , I2 = g[x(1 − x)] dx , then the value of is :
1 + ex f ( − a) f ( − a) I1

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(A) – 1 (B) – 2 (C) 2 (D) 1

1 2n 2 2 1/ n
9. If L = lim
n →∞ n 4

i =1
(n + i ) , then ln L is equal to :

π
(A) ln2 + − 2 (B) 2 tan−1 2 − 4 + 2ln 5 (C) 2 tan−1 2 + 4 + 2ln5 (D) 2ln5 − 4 − 2 tan−1 2
2

d sin x dt
10. Number of solution of the equation = 2 2 in [0, π] is :
dx cos x (1 − t 2 )
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1

x 1 1
11. If f(t) dt = x + t 2 f(t) dt, then f(x) dx is equal to :
0 x −1

π π
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D) π
4 2

1 x −1 1

12. Let f(x) = and f(g(x)) = , then the value of g(f(x))dx is equal to :
x +1 x 2

(A) ln 2 (B) 1 + ln 2 (C) 2 + ln 2 (D) 1 – ln 2

1 2 2

13. Let f(x) be an even function of R such that f(x)dx = 8 f(x)dx = 12 , then the value of f(x)dx is
−1 −2 −1

equal to
(A) 12 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 6

π
2 2
14. The value of the definite integral ((1 − x sin 2x)ecos x
+ (1 + x sin 2x)esin x )dx is equal to :
0

(A) π (B) πe (C) π(e − 1) (D) π(e + 1)

15. Let f(x) be a continuous and periodic function such that f(x) = f(x + T) for all x ∈ R, T > 0 . If
a + 5T T a

f(x) dx = 19(a > 0) and f(x)dx = 2 , then f(x)dx is equal to


−2T 0 0

(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9

Space for Rough Work

16. The order of the differential equation whose general solution is given by
y = c1 cos(2x + c 2 ) − (c 3 + c 4 )ax + c5 + c 6 sin(x − c 7 ) is :
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 2
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x
17. A curve passing through (2, 3) and satisfying the differential equation ty(t)dt = x 2 y(x),(x > 0) is :
0

9 x 2 y2
(A) x 2 + y 2 = 13 (B) y 2 = x (C) + =1 (D) xy = 6
2 8 18
2
18. The equation to the orthogonal trajectories of the system of parabolas y = ax is :
x2 y2 x2 y2
(A) + y2 = c (B) x 2 + =c (C) − y2 = c (D) x 2 − =c
2 2 2 2

19. A function y = f(x) satisfies the condition f '(x)sin x + f(x)cos x = 1, f(x) being bounded when x → 0 . If
π/2
I= f(x)dx , then L
0

π π2 π π2 π
(A) <I< (B) <I< (C) 1 < I < (D) 0 < I < 1
2 4 4 2 2

dy x + y 1
20. Let y = f(x) satisfy the differential equation = , y(1) = 1 , then y is equal to :
dx x e
(A) 2e (B) 2/e (C) 0 (D) 1/e

21. Let y = f(x) be an invertible function such that x-intercept of the tangent at any point P(x, y) on y = f(x)
5
is equal to the square of abscissa of the point of tangency. If f(2) = 1, then f −1 equals
8
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7

22. The area bounded by the curve y = − − x and x = − − y , where x, y ≤ 0 :


(A) 1 (B) 1/3 (C) 2/3 (D) 4/3
2
23. Area bounded by the parabola (y - 2) = x – 1, the tangent to it at the point P (2, 3) and the x-axis is
equal to
(A) 1/9 sq. units (B) 1/6 sq. units (C) 1/3 sq. units (D) None of these

Space for Rough Work

24. Area enclosed by the curves y = ln x ; y = ln |x| ; y = |ln x| and y = |ln|x|| is equal to
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 10

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JEE MAINS
14

x2 y2 x y
25. Find the area of the region (x,y) : 2
+ 2 ≤ 1≤ +
a b a b
ab ab ab
(A) ( π − 4) (B) ( π − 2) (C) ( π − 2)ab (D) ( π − 2)
2 4 2
2 2 2
26. Find the area of the region common to the circle x + y = 16 and the parabola y = 6x.
2 4
(A) ( π + 3 ) (B) (4π + 3 ) (C) ( π + 3) (D) ( π − 3)
3 3

π /4
e x (x sin x )
27.
− π

/4
e2 x − 1
dx is equal to

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) e (D) none of these

If y = alog x + bx + x has its extremum values at x = – 1 and x = 2, then


2
28.
1 1
(A) a = 2, b = –1 (B) a = 2, b = − (C) a = – 2, b = (D) None of these
2 2
1 1 2 2
∫2 dx, Ι 2 = ∫ 2x dx, Ι3 = ∫ 2x dx and Ι 4 = ∫ 2x dx then
x3 4 3 4
29. If Ι1 =
0 0 1 1

(A) Ι1 = Ι 2 (B) Ι 2 > Ι1 (C) Ι3 > Ι 4 (D) Ι 4 > Ι3 , Ι1 > Ι 2


3
 d2 y 
 d2 y 
5  dx 2  d3 y
30. If m and n are order and degree of the equation  + 4. + = x 2 − 1, then
 dx 2  d3 y dx 3
dx 3
(A) m = 3, n = 3 (B) m = 3, n = 2 (C) m = 3, n = 5 (D) m = 3, n = 1

Space for rough work

MATHS :

1. D 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. C
8. C 9. B 10. D 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. D
15. B 16. C 17. D 18. A 19. A 20. C 21. C
22. B 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. B 27. A 28. B
29. D 30. B

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website: www.fiitjee.com
JEE MAINS
15

FIITJEE - JEE (Mains)


PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
ITY – PHASE – 6
BATCH – ITY1719

ANSWERS
PHYSICS :

1. D 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. A
8. B 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. C 14. D
15. A 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. C 21. C
22. A 23. C 24. C 25. A 26. D 27. C 28. B
29. B 30. D

CHEMISTRY

1. A 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. D
8. C 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. B
15. C 16. D 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. C 21. B
22. B 23. B 24. C 25. D 26. B 27. C 28. C
29. D 30. B

MATHS :

1. D 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. C
8. C 9. B 10. D 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. D
15. B 16. C 17. D 18. A 19. A 20. C 21. C
22. B 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. B 27. A 28. B
29. D 30. B

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