VISION IAS

PT Test-27
(2453)

FULL
LENGTH
2018
 Syllabus
(COMPLETE SYLLABUS):
Indian Constitution, Political
System and Governance +
Geography + History of
India + Indian Economy &
Social Development +
Ecology & Environment +
General Science + Current
Affairs
FOR COURIER ENQUIRY CALL
Jiledar Book Shop
53/2 Old Rajinder Nagar
Mob.8527365510
 VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in

Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2018 – Test–2454

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the
answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rdof the allotted markswill be
deducted.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
1. Consider the following statements with 4. With reference to the recently approved
reference to Council for Advancement of ‘National Financial Reporting Authority
People’s Action and Rural Technology (NFRA)’, consider the following statements:
1. It will monitor and enforce the
(CAPART):
accounting and auditing standards in the
1. It is an autonomous body registered
country.
under the Societies Registration Act. 2. It will be headed by the RBI Governor.
2. It works as a nodal agency for Which of the statements given above is/are
coordinating the partnership between correct?
voluntary organizations and the (a) 1 only
Government. (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. It is chaired by the Union Minister for
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Rural Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are
5. Consider the following statements regarding
correct? Deccan riots:
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. It occurred in the regions which were
(b) 2 and 3 only under Zamindari system of taxation.
(c) 3 only 2. It was marked by social boycott against
the outsider moneylenders.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. It led to the passing of Deccan
Agriculturists Relief Act.
2. Which of the following are the possible
Which of the statements given above is/are
impacts of inflation? correct?
1. Government tax revenue may increase. (a) 3 only
2. Government liabilities may reduce. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. GDP may sharply increase. (c) 2 and 3 only

Select the correct answer using the code (d) 1, 2 and 3

given below.
6. With reference to the Cabinet, which of the
(a) 1 and 2 only
following statements are correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. It is defined in the Constitution of India.
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. Ministers of state may also be included
(d) 1, 2 and 3 in the Cabinet.
3. It is the highest decision-making
3. In which of the following regions of India authority in India's politico-

are you most likely to come across the administrative system.

Select the correct answer using the code
Clouded Leopard in its natural habitat?
given below.
(a) Kerala
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Maharashtra (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Uttarakhand (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Meghalaya (d) 1, 2 and 3

2 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

7. The term ecological efficiency refers to 10. Which of the following statements about
(a) the efficiency with which human beings Royal Indian Navy (RIN) mutiny are
consume natural resources. correct?
(b) the efficiency with which carbon is
1. It was started by the naval rating of
captured naturally.
HMIS Talwar at Bombay.
(c) the efficiency with which energy is
transferred from one trophic level to the 2. They protested against sentences given
next. to Indian National Army officers.
(d) the efficiency with which decomposition 3. It was supported by Gandhiji.
takes place in an environment. Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
8. Consider the following pairs: (a) 1 and 2 only
Types of drought Description (b) 2 and 3 only
Crop failure due to (c) 1 and 3 only
Agricultural
1. : lack of soil (d) 1, 2 and 3
drought
moisture.
productivity of a 11. Which of the following provisions is/are
Hydrological natural ecosystem
2. : provided under the Representation of the
drought falls due to a
People Act 1951?
shortage of water.
1. Allocation of seats in the Parliament
Long period of
Meteorological 2. Delimitation of constituencies
3. : inadequate
drought 3. Registration of political parties
rainfall.
Which of the pairs given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correctly matched? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

9. With reference to the election of Vice-

12. Which of the following statements is/are
President, consider the following statements:
correct with reference to ‘Vedic Religion’?
1. The nomination of a candidate must be
subscribed by at least 20 electors as 1. Doctrine of Samsara believed in
proposers and 20 electors as seconders. repeated passage of the soul from life to
2. Minimum age for qualification is same life.
as other members of Rajya Sabha. 2. Doctrine of Karma believed in the result
3. The President of India or any Union of deeds of one life affecting the next
Minister is not eligible for election as
life.
Vice-president.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
13. Consider the following statements with 16. Revolutionary activist Surya sen was
reference to Central Administrative Tribunal associated with which of the following?
(CAT): 1. Chittagong armoury raid
1. The Constitution empowers the 2. Abhinav Bharat society
President to establish CAT. 3. Non cooperation movement
2. The members of CAT are appointed by
Select the correct answer using the code
the Chief Justice of India.
given below.
3. The members have been given the status
(a) 1 and 2 only
of judges of High court.
(b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1 and 3 only
correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
17. With reference to ecology, the term
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only phytoremediation refers to
(a) use of plants to eliminate toxic waste
14. Which among the following were the aims from a polluted medium
of the New Economic Policy 1991? (b) addition of bacterial cultures to speed up
1. To control inflation in the economy rate of degradation.
2. To augment foreign exchange reserves (c) using sunlight to filter microrganisms
3. To deregulate industrial sector from water in soil.
Select the correct answer using the code (d) ex-situ waste treatment process that is
given below. performed in the upper soil zone.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 18. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) 1 and 2 only
solar minima:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Solar minimum is the period of least
solar activity in the 11 year solar cycle
15. Which among the following were associated
of the sun.
with Warren Hasting's tenure?
2. During this phenomenon the sun’s
1. Pitt's India Act, 1784
magnetic field weakens and cosmic rays
2. Abolition of dual system of
administration in Bengal that reach Earth’s upper atmosphere

3. The first Anglo-Maratha war increases.

Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements giving above is/are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
19. With reference to Flue Gas Desulfarization, 22. 'He was a great scholar and historian of
consider the following statements. Mughal period. He set a style of prose
1. It is used for removing sulfur dioxide writing and it was followed by many
from the exhaust gases of power plants.
generations. Many historical works were
2. It uses an electric charge to remove
written by him including Ain-i-Akbari and
impurities.
Which of the statements given above is/are Akbar Nama.'

correct? The above passage best describes who

(a) 1 only among the following scholars?
(b) 2 only (a) Abul Fazl
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Abul Faizi
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Utbi
(d) Naziri
20. Consider the following statements with
reference to Nilgiri Wood Pigeon:
1. It is found mostly in moist evergreen and 23. In the context of human physiology, the B-
moist deciduous forests of Western cells, T-cells and macrophages are related to
Ghats in India. (a) Circulatory system
2. It is classified as critically endangered (b) Endocrine system
by the IUCN.
(c) Nervous system
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Immune system
correct?
(a) 1 only
24. Consider the following statements with
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 reference to Global Human Capital Index:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The index captures the full human
capital potential profile of a country
21. Consider the following pairs:
among five distinct age groups.
Forts Kingdom
2. India ranks lowest among the BRICS
1. Golkonda Fort : Kakatiya Dynasty
countries.
2. Gwalior Fort : Tomar Dynasty
3. It is released by World Economic
Kumbhalgarh
3. : Khalji Dynasty Forum.
Fort
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the pairs given above is/are
correct?
correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
5 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
25. With reference to the 'Graded Surveillance 28. With reference to Mega Food Park scheme,
Measure', sometimes seen in news, consider
which of the following statements is/are
the following statements:
correct?
1. It is an initiative by Reserve Bank of
India. 1. It aims at providing a mechanism to link
2. Its objective is to alert and protect agricultural production to the market.
investors trading in any security showing
2. It is being implemented by Agricultural
abnormal price movements.
Which of the statements given above is/are Produce Market Committees (APMCs)
correct? in their respective states.
(a) 1 only
3. Mega Food Parks are given the status of
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Infrastructure to promote investment.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code

given below:
26. India recently became a member of the
Wassenaar Arrangement. What are the likely (a) 1 and 2 only
benefits that India would gain by becoming (b) 2 and 3 only
its member?
(c) 1 only
1. India will get access to critical dual-use
technology in space and defence sectors. (d) 1 and 3 only
2. Through it, India automatically became
the member of Australia group. 29. With reference to the history of ancient
Select the correct answer using the code
South India, consider the following
given below.
(a) 1 only statements regarding Pandya kingdom:
(b) 2 only 1. The Pandyas occupied the delta of the
(c) Both 1 and 2
Kaveri river and the adjoining region.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Under the Pandyas, the capital Madurai

27. Consider the following statements with and port city Korkai were great centres
regard to H-1B visas: of trade and commerce.
1. It allows US employers to employ
3. Pandyan kings sent embassies to the
foreign workers only on a temporary
basis. Roman emperor.
2. It is initially valid for 10 years but can Which of the statements given above is/are
be extended for another 5 years.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
6 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
30. With reference to the South Asia Wildlife 32. The term 'Letter Rogatory', which was
Enforcement Network (SAWEN), consider recently in news, refers to?

the following statements: (a) a formal request from one nation's court

1. It is an inter-governmental wildlife law to another sovereign nation for judicial

enforcement support body of South assistance in a case.

(b) a credit mechanism for importers from
Asian countries.
foreign branches of domestic banks
2. It works under the South Asian
(c) Letters from petitioners which the court
Association for Regional Cooperation
directly considers as judicial cases
(SAARC).
(d) Formal requests by asylum seekers to
3. India is a member of the SAWEN.
national governments
Which of the statements given above are
correct? 33. Which of the following can be included in
(a) 1 and 2 only the ‘Alternative Investment Funds’?
(b) 1 and 3 only 1. Venture Capital Fund
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. Infrastructure funds
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Mutual funds
Select the correct answer using the code
31. With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Khanij given below.
Kshetra Kalyan Yojana’, which of the (a) 1, 2 and 3

following statement is/are correct? (b) 2 and 3 only

1. It aims to mitigate the adverse impact of (c) 1 and 2 only

mining on the environment and health of (d) 1 and 3 only

people in mining districts.

34. With reference to Indian freedom struggle,
2. Only areas of fifth and sixth schedule of
consider the following events:
the Constitution are covered under the
1. Appointment of Simon commission
scheme.
2. Finalisation of Nehru report
3. It is being implemented by District
3. Belgaum Session of Indian National
Mineral Foundations.
Congress
Select the correct answer using the code What is the correct chronological sequence
given below. of the above events?
(a) 1 only (a) 1-2-3
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2-1-3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2-3-1

(d) 2 only (d) 3-1-2

7 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
35. Which among the following activities are 38. Which of the following correctly describes
prohibited within Coastal Regulation Zone? ‘High street banking’?
1. Expansion of existing industries (a) Exclusive banking for large corporate
2. Mining of sand entities.
3. Disposal of wastes and effluents (b) Widespread banking network/system
Select the correct answer using the code serving both retail and corporate sector.
given below. (c) Banking system focussed on hilly areas.
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Banking system exclusive for cross
(b) 2 and 3 only border transactions.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 39. Comprehensive Online Modified Modules
on Induction Training (COMMIT), recently
36. With reference to puppetry in India, consider launched by the government, is a
the following statements: (a) training programme for income tax
1. Puppetry was present during Harappan officials to smoothly run the new GST
times. system.
2. Natyashastra does not refer to the art of (b) programme for students of higher
puppetry. educational institutions to develop skills
3. Oldest written reference is found in in Artificial Intelligence.
Tamil Classic 'Silappadikaaram'. (c) new training programme for State
Which of the statements given above is/are Government officials to improve the
correct? public service delivery mechanism.
(a) 1 only (d) training programme for Self-Help
(b) 2 and 3 only Groups to promote entrepreneurship
(c) 3 only among them.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
40. In the context of economy, the term
37. Which among the following are the uses of 'Dearness Allowance' refers to:
heavy water? (a) an extra payment provided to employees
1. Preservation of Oral Polio Vaccines to meet project expenses
2. Coolant in nuclear reactors (b) a lump sum amount of money provided
3. Bleaching agent to an employee on retirement
Select the correct answer using the code (c) an amount of money that is added to a
given below. person's basic pay or pension because of
(a) 1 and 2 only rising prices and other costs
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) an amount of money that an individual
(c) 1 and 3 only or business must pay for an insurance
(d) 1, 2 and 3 policy
8 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
41. With reference to ecology, Gothenburg 44. Which of the following Tiger Reserves fall
Protocol refers to within the area known as the Terai Arc
(a) a protocol that aims to abate Landscape (TAL)?
Acidification, Eutrophication
1. Corbett Tiger Reserve
and Ground-level Ozone.
2. Panna Tiger Reserve
(b) a protocol that aims to protect the ozone
3. Kanha Tiger Reserve
layer by phasing out the production of
HCFCs. 4. Dudhwa Tiger Reserve

(c) a protocol for compensation for the Select the correct answer using the code
damage caused due to pil spill. given below.
(d) a protocol aimed towards management (a) 1 and 2 only
of plastic pollution. (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
42. Consider the following statements about
(d) 2 and 3 only
recently launched ASH Track mobile
application:
45. Which of the following musical forms is not
1. It provides for an interface between
associated with Carnatic music?
Thermal Power Plants and potential ash
users. (a) Gitam

2. It is launched by Ministry of Coal. (b) Thumri

Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Javali
correct? (d) Suladi
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 46. Consider the following statements with
(c) Both 1 and 2
reference to Financial Action Task Force
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(FATF):
1. It was formed by the G-7 group of
43. With regard to Blockchain technology,
countries.
consider the following statements:
1. It is a digital public ledger that records 2. It aims to stop money laundering and
every transaction terrorist financing
2. It eliminates the need for a third party 3. Its guidelines are applicable only to
for conducting transactions countries and not individual investors or
3. Bitcoin is one of the popular application FIIs
of this technology.
Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 1,2 and 3

(c) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
9 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
47. Arrange the following ecosystems in the 50. With reference to the e-Courts Mission
decreasing order of their net productivity. Mode Project, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. Temperate Deciduous forest
1. Its objective is to enable electronic
2. Coastal Marsh movement of records from trial to appeal
3. Open Ocean courts.
2. It is being implemented by the Supreme
4. Desert
Court of India.
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.
(a) 1 only
(a) 2-1-3-4
(b) 2 only
(b) 1-2-4-3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1-2-3-4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) 2-1-3-4
51. 'The tribe constitutes a sizeable population
of tribes inhabiting in Himachal Pradesh. It
48. Which among the following are the is believed that these people migrated to the
advantages of Drip Irrigation? foothills of Himalayas from Central Asia,
Rajasthan and Gujarat. They mainly bear the
1. Less evaporation losses of water
traits of gypsy as they move down the
2. High efficiency in the use of fertilizers pasture with their flocks. The tribal
3. Reduced weed growth community believes in both Hinduism and
Islam.'
Which of the statements given above are
Which of the following tribes is being
correct? referred to in the above paragraph?
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) Damor
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Bhuniya
(c) Gaddi
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Lahaulas
(d) 1, 2 and 3
52. Under which of the following conditions can
49. What was the purpose with which Indian a person be disqualified for being elected
as a member of Parliament?
Independence Committee was set up in
1. Holding any office of profit
Berlin in 1915? 2. Voluntarily acquiring the citizenship of a
(a) to incite rebellion among Indian troops. foreign state
3. Defection under tenth schedule
(b) to agitate for the entry of eminent
Select the correct answer using the code
Indians into the British parliament. given below.
(c) to agitate for Indian political reforms in (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
the House of Commons.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) to create awareness for Khilafat issue. (d) 1, 2 and 3
10 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
53. In which among the following cases does the 56. Indian armed forces conducted Operation
Prime Minister advise the President? Cactus in order to
1. Proroguing of the sessions of the
Parliament (a) Save the Maldives government from a
2. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha coup in 1988
3. Appointment of Comptroller and
(b) Evacuate stranded Indians from Kuwait
Auditor General of India.
Select the correct answer using the code during the Iraq invasion in 1990
given below. (c) Liberate Goa from the Portuguese in
(a) 1 only
1961
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) To end civil war between LTTE and the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 government in Sri Lanka in 1987

54. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok

57. Which of the following subjects come under
Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. He is the guardian of powers and state list in the Constitution?
privileges of the members and the house 1. Trade unions
of Lok Sabha.
2. Agriculture
2. He is placed higher than all members of
the cabinet in the order of precedence. 3. Education
3. He cannot vote when a resolution for his Select the correct answer using the code
removal is under consideration of the
given below:
Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 3 only
correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
58. Consider the following pairs.
55. Consider the following pairs:
Important Bird Areas State
Sources Features borrowed
Government of 1. Ranganathittu : Kerala
1. : Office of Governor
India Act 1935
Madhya
British Procedure 2. Bhoj wetland :
2. : Pradesh
Constitution established by law
Advisory 3. Nalabana : Odisha
Canadian
3. : jurisdiction of
Constitution Which of the pairs given above are correctly
Supreme Court
Which of the pairs given above is/are matched?
correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
11 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
59. Article 370 of the Constitution of India 62. Which of the following are reasons for
provides special status to the state of Jammu frequent debris avalanches and landslides in
and Kashmir. Which of the following
provisions of the Indian Constitution is/are the Himalayas?
applicable to the state? 1. They are tectonically active.
1. President's rule 2. They are made up of mostly sedimentary
2. Fundamental duties
and unconsolidated rocks.
3. Special leave jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court 3. The slopes are very steep.
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only

60. Which of the following urban local bodies in (d) 3 only

states have been created by the acts of state
legislatures? 63. Consider the following statements in respect
1. Municipal Corporation
of the Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas:
2. Municipality
3. Town Area committee 1. The higher reaches of this region are
4. Township inhabitated by Lepcha Tribe.
5. Port Trust
2. Shivaliks in this region are important for
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. tea cultivation, timber and tourism.
(a) 1 and 4 only 3. This region has well distributed rainfall
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
throughout the year.
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Which of the statements given above are
correct?
61. With reference to National E-Mobility (a) 1 and 2 only
Programme, consider the following
(b) 2 and 3 only
statements:
1. It aims to provide an impetus to the (c) 1 and 3 only
entire e-mobility ecosystem. (d) 1,2 and 3
2. Implementation of the programme will
totally replace the existing fleet of petrol
and diesel vehicles with electric vehicles 64. With reference to river systems, 'Pirating
by 2030. stream' refers to:
3. It will be implemented by Energy (a) the river which follows the slope of the
Efficiency Services Limited.
Which of the statements given above is/are terrain.
correct? (b) the river which has captured the path of
(a) 1 only another stream.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) the river whose flow has been diverted
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) none of the above

12 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

65. Which of the following is not a purpose of 68. 'This is a soil which has high exchangeable
the Fundamental Duties? sodium and pH greater than 8.5. The soil is
(a) Promote a sense of discipline and
characterised by millions of vertical
commitment among the citizens.
channel/tubes called capillary tubes, which
(b) Helping courts in determining
constitutional validity of law. help to transport water to the surface during

(c) Ensuring political democracy. dry seasons.These soils are found in canal
(d) Serving as a warning against anti-social irrigated areas and in areas of high sub-soil
activities. water table. Parts of Andhra Pradesh, Uttar
Pradesh,Rajasthan and Maharashtra have
66. With reference to the United for Efficiency
this kind of soils.'
initiative, consider the followings
statements: Which of the following soils is described in
1. It is an inititative under the leadership of the above paragraph?
the International Renewable Energy (a) Alkaline soil
Agency. (b) Red soil
2. It supports the developing countries to
(c) Black soil
move their markets to energy-efficient
(d) Laterite soil
appliances and equipment.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 69. Which among the following was/were
(a) 1 only the reasons for the early India nationalists'
(b) 2 only indifference towards the working class
(c) Both 1 and 2
movement?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. They saw rapid industrialisation as the

67. With reference to rat-hole mining, consider panacea for the problems of Indian

the following statements: poverty.

1. It is a type of mining where long, narrow 2. Any demand for legislation to regulate
tunnels are dug for mineral extraction. Indian factories would eventually benefit
2. It is mainly seen in the Meghalaya
British manufacturers.
region.
3. They did not want any social division in
3. National Green Tribunal (NGT) has
banned rat hole mining due to the anti-imperialist movement.
environmental concerns. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above are given below.
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
13 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
70. Which of the following statements regarding 72. Consider the following pairs:

the Singh Sabha movement is/are correct? Type of climate Characteristics

More rainfall in
1. It opposed the modern education and 1. China type :
summer
western enlightenment.
Mediterranean Concentration of
2. :
2. It opposed the proselytising activities of type rainfall in winter
Hindu revivalists and Christian Adequate rainfall
3. British Type :
throughout the year
missionaries.
Which of the pairs given above is/are
3. It was an offshoot of Akali movement.
correctly matched?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 and 2 only
given below. (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 only
(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only 73. With reference to Minamata Convention,

consider the following statements.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It only addresses interim storage of
mercury and not its disposal once it
71. Consider the following statements with becomes waste.
reference to the different schools of 2. The convention includes a ban on new
mercury mines.
Buddhism:
3. India has refused to ratify the
1. Mahayana believed that each being had convention.
to find out his own salvation. Which of the statements given above is/ are
correct?
2. Hinayana believed that it was duty of
(a) 1 only
Bodhisattva to ensure that others find (b) 1 and 3 only
salvation. (c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Vajrayana believed that salvation could

be achieved through mysticism.

74. Which of the following is not a cause of
Which of the statements given above is/are urban flooding?
(a) extreme weather events like cloudbursts
correct?
(b) increased cloud formation due to air
(a) 1 only
pollution
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) illegal encroachments of wetlands and

(c) 3 only riverbeds

(d) poorly designed and ill maintained
(d) 1, 2 and 3
drainage systems
14 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
75. Consider the following statements regarding 78. Consider the following statements with
Home rule league movement established by reference to paid news:
Annie Besant:
1. It is an electoral offence which leads to
1. Through home rule leagues she
demanded the formation of linguistic disqualification of concerned MLA or
states. MP.
2. She started a newspaper 'Commonweal' 2. Press Council of India is responsible for
to propagate her message of Home Rule
checking and reporting Paid News.
Leagues.
Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Her league covered more areas than
Tilak's. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 3 only
79. The 'MeToo campaign' recently seen in the
76. In the context of capital market, which of the news refers to
following describes Short Selling?
(a) a social media campaign against sexual
(a) Placing the selling bid at a slightly
higher than the market price. harassment
(b) Selling the shares that are not owned by (b) a campaign for volunteers for Swachh
the seller at the time of selling them. Bharat scheme
(c) Selling the shares at lower than market
(c) physical activity programme for school
price to buy cheap shares of another
entity. kids
(d) Legal agreement to sell shares at (d) an online anti-corruption movement
predetermined price at a specified time
in the future. 80. Which among the following are
decomposers in an ecosystem?
77. Consider the following statements:
1. Fungi
1. More than fifty percent of coal reserves
of India are found in the sedimentary 2. Nektons
basins of Assam valley. 3. Algae
2. The alluvial plains of north India have
Select the correct answer using the code
rich deposits of economic minerals.
given below.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
81. What is the purpose of recently launched 84. In the context of ‘high powered money’,
'Phased Manufacturing Programme'? consider the following statements:
(a) To encourage Medium and Small 1. It represents the total liability of the
enterprises to indigenously build defence RBI.
equipments. 2. The total amount of money in the
(b) To promote indigenous manufacturing economy is equal to the volume of high
of Cellular mobile handsets.
powered money.
(c) To incentivize the industries to take up
Which of the statements given above is/are
Artificial Intelligence technology in
correct?
order to increase productivity of
(a) 1 only
manufacturing sector.
(b) 2 only
(d) To promote indigenously manufacturing
(c) Both 1 and 2
of electric and hybrid vehicle.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

82. e-Green Watch, an initiative by the

government, relates to 85. With reference to economy, consider the

(a) monitoring of various afforestation following statements regarding Repo Rate:

works being carried out using CAMPA 1. It is the rate at which Reserve Bank of
funds. India lends money to commercial bank.
(b) monitoring enforcement of laws and 2. Government securities are not accepted
regulations relating to wild flora and for this transaction.
fauna. 3. Increase in the repo rate reduces the
(c) promoting compliance to pollution money supply in the economy.
control standards by various industries. Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) checking illegal cross-border trade in correct?
endangered species. (a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
83. Which of the following correctly describes
(c) 1 and 3 only
the ‘prebiotics’?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Food ingredients that encourage the
growth of beneficial gut bacteria.
86. With reference to the medieval history of
(b) A type of antimicrobial drug used in the
India, the terms Malfuzat, Tazkiras and
treatment and prevention of bacterial
Maktubat refer to
infections.
(a) literary texts related to sufi movement.
(c) Preservatives added to food products to
prevent decomposition by microbial (b) architectural styles during Sultanate

growth. period.

(d) Vaccine used to stimulate the production (c) units of land measurement during
of antibodies and provide immunity Mughal period.
against one or several diseases. (d) schools of music in western India.
16 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
87. Which among the following can be the 90. According to the new series with revised
effect(s) of El-Nino Southern Oscillation base year 2011-2012, which of the following
(ENSO) factors is/are considered while determining
1. Drought occurs in Australia. GDP at the market price?
2. Forest fires in Indonesia 1. Gross Value Addition at basic prices
3. Coral bleaching in Pacific Ocean. 2. Product taxes
Select the correct answer using the codes 3. Product subsidies
given below. Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below.
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
88. Which of the following are considered as
indirect farm subsidy? 91. Out ports refers to
1. Fertilizer subsidy (a) Collection centres where the goods are
2. Farm Loan Waiver brought from different countries for
3. Minimum Support Price (MSP) export.
4. Subsidised Crop Insurance (b) Ports which have only strategic
Select the correct answer using the code importance.
given below. (c) Ports that deal in the processing and
(a) 2 and 3 only shipping of oil.
(b) 3 and 4 only (d) Deep water ports built away from the
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only actual ports.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
92. Which among the following statements
89. With reference to Customs Union, consider is/are correct in reference to ‘Vijayanagara
the following statements: architecture’?
1. Members eliminate all trade barriers 1. It was influenced from Islamic style of
amongst themselves on trade and architecture.
services. 2. It was purely religious in nature.
2. Each member sets its own tariffs on 3. The pillars were commonly depicted
imports from non-members. with prancing horses.
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1 and 3 only
17 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
93. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 96. Technology Acquisition and Development
provides for Panchayati Raj Institutions. Fund Scheme aims at
According to its provisions, reservation is (a) facilitating fund in developing
mandatory for which of the following
innovative technologies for managing
group/s?
solid and liquid waste.
1. Scheduled Castes
(b) adopting ecofriendly technologies in
2. Other Backward Castes
3. Scheduled Tribes agriculture sectors.

Select the correct answer using the code (c) facilitating acquisition of Clean, Green
given below. and Energy Efficient Technologies, by
(a) 1 only Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises.
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) promoting corporate social responsibility
(c) 1 and 3 only
fund for establishing research parks.
(d) 1, 2 and 3

97. Sophia, seen recently in news, is

94. Which of the following countries is/are most
(a) the final satellite in a series of next
likely to have multiple time zones?
1. Countries that have large longitudinal generation communications satellites
stretch. launched by NASA.
2. Countries that have large latitudinal (b) the first humanoid robot to be sent into
stretch. space.
Select the correct answer using the code
(c) the first 360° camera to produce 360°
given below.
images, providing a realistic sense of
(a) 1 only
events or places.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) the first humanoid robot to be granted

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 citizenship of any country.

95. With reference to the 'Arogya 2017', which 98. With reference to stem cells, consider the
of the following statements is/are correct? following statements.
1. It was organised by the World Health 1. They develop into different types of
Organisation.
specialized cells in the human body.
2. It was first ever International conference
2. They are only found inside an embryo.
on AYUSH and wellness.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. correct?

(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
18 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
99. Subhash Chandra Garg committee recently 100. Which one of the following is a purpose of `
Vittiya Saksharata Abhiyan’, a scheme of
seen in news is related to: the Government?
(a) Providing financial assistance to NGOs
(a) development and regulation of financial and voluntary organizations towards
vocationalisation of Secondary
technology sector in India. Education.
(b) Providing financial assistance to
(b) rolling out 5th Generation technology in differently abled people for pursing
higher education.
India by 2020.
(c) Creating awareness among people about
digital economy and cashless modes of
(c) transparency in Corporate Governance.
transactions.
(d) Creating awareness among citizens to
(d) reforms in MSMEs sector.
pay tax regularly

Copyright © by Vision IAS

All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted
in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior
permission of Vision IAS.

19 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in

ANSWERS & EXPLANATION

GENERAL STUIDES (P) TEST – 2454 (2018)

Q 1.D
o Council for Advancement of People‘s Action and Rural Technology (CAPART) is an autonomous body
registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o It is launched for sustainable development of rural areas. It works as a nodal agency for catalyzing and
coordinating the emerging partnership between voluntary organizations and the Government. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
o It is chaired by the Union Minister for Rural Development. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 2.A
o Inflation is a sustained increase in the general price level of goods and services in an economy over a
period of time.Because of inflation, the government would get more tax revenue as prices increase (e.g. if
prices go up 10%, the government's tax receipts will increase 10%). Therefore, inflation helps
government automatically get more tax revenue.
o As the inflation rate increase, it will erode the actual value of interest accrued on the bond. The lender i.e.
buyers of bonds will get lesser value in return. And the government who is the borrower has to return
back the amount which is lesser in value than the originally anticipated value. See the example
below. Say the government borrowed Rs 1000. The government still only have to pay back 1,000 plus
interests. But, inflation has reduced the value of that Rs 1,000 bond (real value will decrease to say 900.)
Inflation means that repaying bondholders requires a smaller % of government total tax revenue – so it is
easier for government to pay back. The Government (borrower) is better off, bondholders (lender) are
worse off as a result of inflation.
o Inflation cannot be said to have a direct correlation with GDP growth. An increase in inflation means
that prices have risen. With an increase in inflation, there is a decline in the purchasing power of money,
which reduces consumption and therefore GDP decreases. High inflation can make investments less
desirable since it creates uncertainty for the future and it can also affect the balance of payments because
exports become more expensive. As a result, GDP decreases further. So it appears that GDP is negatively
related to inflation. However, there are studies indicating that there may also be a positive relationship.
The Phillips curve, for example, shows that high inflation is consistent with low rates of unemployment,
implying that there is a positive impact on economic growth and overall GDP.

Q 3.D
o Clouded Leopard is the state animal of Meghalaya. The smallest of the big cats, they are secretive and rare
in the wild, preferring to remain alone and hidden from view.
o Clouded leopards primarily live in lowland tropical rainforests, but can also be found in dry woodlands
and secondary forests. The causes of Clouded Leopard declines are attributed primarily to
 direct exploitation,
 range fragmentation, and
 reduction in habitat quality.

Q 4.A
o The Union Cabinet has recently approved the proposal for establishment of National Financial Reporting
Authority (NFRA). It is an independent regulator for the auditing profession, established under
Companies Act, 2013. Government has created one post of Chairperson (who shall be a person of
eminence and having expertise in accountancy, auditing, finance or law to be appointed by the Central
1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 Government), three posts of full-time Members and one post of Secretary for NFRA. Hence, statement 2
is not correct.
o NFRA will monitor and enforce the accounting and auditing standards in the country. The jurisdiction of
NFRA includes investigation of Chartered Accountants and their firms under section 132 of the Act . It
would extend to listed companies and large unlisted public companies, the thresholds for which shall be
prescribed in the Rules. The Central Government can also refer such other entities for investigation where
public interest would be involved. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Q 5.C
o Statement 1 is not correct: The Deccan riots occurred in Deccan region of western India which were
under Ryotwari system of taxation and not Zamindari system.
o The Deccan riot was the offshoot of a number of adverse circumstances. The excessive government land
revenue, slump in the international cotton prices at the end of the American Civil War etc made the
economic condition of the Deccan peasants extremely miserable. They were immersed in enormous debts.
The Marwari and the Gujarati moneylenders drew unjust tax and money from the peasants. The peasants
being illiterate unknowingly signed the bond without having a proper knowledge of what is there in the
bond. The civil courts invariably gave verdicts in favor of the exorbitant moneylenders
o Statement 2 is correct: The Deccan Riots of 1875 targeted conditions of debt peonage (kamiuti) to
moneylenders. The sole purpose of the rioters was to obtain and destroy the bonds, decrees, and other
documents in the possession of the moneylenders. Initially the movement was peaceful with peasants
resorting to social boycott of outside moneylenders. Later the movement turned into riots and the peasants
attacked moneylender houses and shops. The peasant uprising spread to most of the Taluks of the
Ahmednagar district.The Government of India put the Police assisted by the military into action in order
to put an end to the revolt. By June 1875 nearly a thousand peasants were arrested and the uprising was
completely suppressed.
o Statement 3 is correct: Finally the Government of India appointed the Deccan Riots Commission to
investigate into the causes of the uprising. The Deccan Agriculturists Relief Act of 1879 passed several
measures for the betterment of the Deccan peasants. The Act put restrictions on the alienation of the
peasants land and imposed some restrictions on the Civil Procedure Code. As a result the Peasant could
not be arrested and sent to the civil debtors jail owing to the failure of paying debts

Q 6.C
o Statement 1 is correct: The Cabinet did not find a place in the original text of the Constitution. It was
inserted in Article 352 of the Constitution in 1978 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act. At present,
Article 352 (3) defines the cabinet saying that it is ‗the council consisting of the prime minister and other
ministers of cabinet rank appointed under Article 75' but does not describe its powers and functions.
o Statement 2 is not correct: It includes the cabinet ministers only. Thus, it is a part of the council of
ministers which include cabinet ministers, minister of states and deputy ministers.
o Statement 3 is correct: The cabinet is the highest decision-making authority in India's politico-
administrative system while in the judicial system, it is the Supreme Court of India.

Q 7.C
o The percentage of usable chemical energy transferred as biomass from one trophic level to the next is
called ecological efficiency. Ecological efficiency depends on the proportion of assimilated energy
incorporated in growth, storage and reproduction.
o Lindman in 1942 defined these ecological efficiencies for the 1st time and proposed 10% rule e.g. if
autotrophs produce 100 cal, herbivores will be able to store 10 cal and carnivores 1 cal. However, there
may be slight variations in different ecosystems and ecological efficiencies may range from 5 to 35%.

Q 8.B
o Various types of droughts include
o Meteorological Drought: a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with mal-distribution of the
same over time and space.
o Agricultural Drought: Characterised by low soil moisture resulting in crop failures. Also known as soil
moisture drought.

2 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 o Hydrological Drought: A situation where the availability of water in different storages and reservoirs
like aquifers, lakes etc falls below what the precipitation can replenish.
o Ecological Drought: When the productivity of a natural ecosystem falls due to a shortage of water
leading to damages to the ecosystem

Q 9.A
o Statement 1 is correct: The nomination of a candidate for election to the office of Vice-President must
be subscribed by at least 20 electors as proposers and 20 electors as seconders (in case of President, its 50
electors as proposers and 50 electors as seconders). Every candidate has to make a security deposit of
15,000 in the Reserve Bank of India.
o Statement 2 is not correct: Minimum age for qualification for the office of Vice-President is 35 years,
while for the other members of Rajya Sabha, it is 30 years.
o Statement 3 is not correct: Election of Vice-President is provided under Article 66 of the Indian
Constitution. Under it, a person shall not be eligible for election as Vice-President if he holds any office of
profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State or under any local or other authority
subject to the control of any of the said Governments i.e. for the purposes of this article, a person shall not
be deemed to hold any office of profit by reason only that he is the President or Vice-President of the
Union or the Governor of any State or is a Minister either for the Union or for any State.

Q 10.A
o Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The RIN revolt started on Naval ratings of HMIS TALWAR on 18
February 1946. They protested against the:
 racial discrimination (demanding equal pay for Indian and white soldiers)
 unpalatable food
 abuse by superior officers
 arrest of a rating for scrawling, 'Quit India' on HMIS Talwar
 INA trials
 Use of Indian troops in Indonesia, demanding their withdrawal.
The next day ratings from Castle and fort Barracks joined the strike.
o In the second stage people in cities like Calcutta and Bombay joined the protest through meetings and
processions to express solidarity. The communist call brought lakhs of workers out of their factories.
Strikes by merchants, public transport system, shopkeepers brought whole city to halt.
o In third phase people in other parts of the country showed solidarity. Students boycotted classes.
Sympathetic token strike took place in military establishments in Madras, Vishakhapatnam, Delhi ,Cochin
etc.
o Statement 3 is not correct: Gandhiji did not support the revolt of RIN. He wrote in his periodical Harijan
that, if they mutinied for freedom of India they were doubly wrong, further he brought in Tilak's concept
of Swaraj and reiterated that, swaraj can't be obtained by what is going on now in Bombay, Calcutta and
Karachi.

Q 11.C
o Representation of the People Act of 1950 provides for the qualifications of voters, preparation of
electoral rolls, delimitation of constituencies, allocation of seats in the Parliament and state
legislatures and so on.
o Representation of the People Act of 1951 provides for the actual conduct of elections and deals with
administrative machinery for conducting elections, the poll, election offences, election disputes, by-
elections, registration of political parties and so on.

Q 12.C
o Statement 1 is correct: Doctrine of samsara or transmigration believed in the repeated passage of the
soul from life to life. Thus, it linked all forms of life into a single system.
o Statement 2 is correct: Doctrine of Karma meant the result of the deeds of one life affecting the next. As
one behaved in the present life so one's status in the scale of existence would in future be exalted or
abased, and one's lot be happy or wretched. It provided a satisfactory explanation of the mystery of
suffering, which has troubled many thoughtful souls all over the world.
3 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
Q 13.C
o Article 323 A empowers the Parliament to provide for the establishment of administrative tribunals for the
adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public
services of the Centre, the states, local bodies, public corporations and other public authorities. The CAT
is a multi-member body consisting of a chairman and members. They are drawn from both judicial and
administrative streams.They are appointed by the President. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
o With the amendment in Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 in 2006, the members have been given the
status of judges of High Courts. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 14.D
o India agreed to the conditionalities of World Bank and IMF and announced the New Economic Policy
(NEP). The NEP consisted of wide ranging economic reforms. The thrust of the policies was towards
creating a more competitive environment in the economy and removing the barriers to entry and growth of
firms. This set of policies can broadly be classified into two groups: the stabilisation measures and the
structural reform measures.
o Stabilisation measures are short term measures, intended to correct some of the weaknesses that have
developed in the balance of payments and to bring inflation under control. In simple words, this means
that there was a need to maintain sufficient foreign exchange reserves and keep the rising prices under
control. On the other hand, structural reform policies are long-term measures, aimed at improving the
efficiency of the economy and increasing its international competitiveness by removing the rigidities in
various segments of the Indian economy. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
o The reform policies introduced in 1991 removed many of the restrictions in industrial sector. Industrial
licensing was abolished for almost all but few product categories. Many goods produced by small scale
industries were dereserved. In many industries, the market has been allowed to determine the prices.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 15.D
o Warren Hastings was the first de facto Governor-General of India from 1772 to 1785. In 1787, he
was accused of corruption and impeached, but after a long trial, he was acquitted in 1795.
o Pitt’s India act 1784 led to changes mainly in Company‘s Home government in London. It greatly
extended the control of the state over the company‘s affairs through Board of Control in England which
controlled the policy of the Court of Directors.
o When Warren Hastings assumed the administration of Bengal in 1772, he found it in utter chaos. The
financial position of the Company became worse and the difficulties were intensified by famine.
Therefore, Warren Hastings realized the immediate need for introducing reforms like abolition of
the Dual System. The East India Company decided to act as Diwan and to undertake the collection of
revenue by its own agents. Hence, the Dual System introduced by Robert Clive was abolished.
o The first Anglo-Maratha war occurred between 1776-82. Raghunath Rao solicited English help and
concluded with Bombay government the treaty of surat in 1775. In the Treaty of Purandar company
retained Salsette. Treaty of Salbai in May 1782, led to mutual restitution of each others territories
.England recognised Madhav rao Narayan as the Peshwa and gave up the cause of Raghunath Rao.

Q 16.C
o Surya sen had participated in Non Cooperation movement and had become a teacher in the national
school in Chittagong. He was imprisoned from 1926 to 1928 for revolutionary activity.
o Abhinav Bharat was founded by Vinayak Savarkar and his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar. It
worked for revolutionary and political activities. Surya Sen was not associated with it.
o The Chittagong armoury raid, also known as the Chittagong uprising, was an attempt on 18 April
1930 to raid the armoury of police and auxiliary forces from the Chittagong armoury by Surya Sen
and his men. Sen devised a plan to capture the two main armouries in Chittagong, destroy the telegraph
and telephone system, and disrupt movement of train between Chittagong and rest of Bengal.The
revolutionaries were able to dislocate telephone and telegraph communications and disrupting movement
of trains. They also took over the armoury along with its guns but unfortunately could not locate the
ammunition.The raid was quite successful. Later Surya sen was arrested and hanged in January 1934.
4 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
Q 17.A
o Phytoremediation is the direct use of living green plants for in situ, or in place, removal, degradation, or
containment of organic and inorganic contaminants in soils, sludges, sediments, surface water and
groundwater.
o Phytoremediation is:
 A low cost, solar energy driven cleanup technique.
 Most useful at sites with shallow, low levels of contamination.
 Useful for treating a wide variety of environmental contaminants.
 Effective with, or in some cases, in place of mechanical cleanup methods.

Q 18.C
o Solar minimum is the period of least solar activity in the 11 year solar cycle of the sun. During this
time, sunspot and solar flare activity diminishes, and often does not occur for days at a time. During
solar minimum, the effects of Earth‘s upper atmosphere on satellites in low Earth orbit changes
too. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Normally Earth‘s upper atmosphere is heated and puffed up by ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
Satellites in low Earth orbit experience friction as they skim through the outskirts of our atmosphere. This
friction creates drag, causing satellites to lose speed over time and eventually fall back to Earth. Drag is a
good thing, for space junk; natural and man-made particles floating in orbit around Earth. Drag helps keep
low Earth orbit clear of debris.
o During solar minimum, the sun‘s magnetic field weakens and provides less shielding from these cosmic
rays due to this the number of galactic cosmic rays that reach Earth‘s upper atmosphere increases during
solar minimum this can pose an increased threat to astronauts traveling through space. Hence, statement
2 is correct.

Q 19.A
o Statement 1 is correct: Flue gas desulfurization is commonly known as FGD and is the technology used
for removing sulfur dioxide (SO2) from the exhaust combustion flue gases of power plants that burn coal
or oil to produce steam for the turbines that drive their electricity generators.
o Statement 2 is not correct: The most common types of FGD contact the flue gases with an alkaline
sorbent such as lime or limestone. The major types of large-scale, power plant FGD systems include spray
towers, spray dryers and dry sorbent injection systems.
o Electrostatic precipitator, also called electrostatic air cleaner is a device that uses an electric charge to
remove certain impurities—either solid particles or liquid droplets—from air or other gases in
smokestacks and other flues.

Q 20.A
o Nilgiri Wood Pigeon
o IUCN status: Vulnerable
o Found in moist evergreen, semi-evergreen forest, and moist deciduous forest (Western Ghat and
Nandi Hill)
o Threat: hunted for food and sport, shifting cultivation, collection of timber, projects such as hydropower
plants and wind energy farms.
o Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Q 21.B
o The Golkonda fort is listed as an archaeological treasure on the official 'List of Monuments' prepared by
the Archaeological Survey of India. It was first built by the Kakatiya dynasty as part of their western
defenses along the lines of the Kondapalli Fort. The city and the fortress were built on a granite hill that is
120 meters (480ft.) high, surrounded by massive battlements. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
o Gwalior Fort is an 8th-century hill fort near Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh, central India. The fort consists
of a defensive structure and two main palaces, Gurjari Mahal and Man Mandir, built by Man Singh
Tomar. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
o Kumbhalgarh Fort is a Mewar fortress on the westerly range of Aravalli Hills, in the Rajsamand District
of Rajasthan state in western India. It is a World Heritage Site included in Hill Forts of Rajasthan. Built
5 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 during the course of the 15th century by Rana Kumbha and enlarged through the 19th century,
Kumbhalgarh is also the birthplace of Maharana Pratap, the great king and warrior of Mewar.
Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Q 22.A
o Many poets became very famous during Mughal Empire by the time of Akbar‘s reign. Abul Fazl was a
great scholar and historian of his period. He set a style of prose writing and it was followed by many
generations. Many historical works were written during this period. They include Ain-i-Akbari and
Akabar Nama authored by Abul Fazl. The leading poet of that period was his brother Abul Faizi. The
translation of Mahabharata into the Persian language was done under his supervision. Utbi and Naziri
were the two other leading Persian poets. Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q 23.D
o Human immune system consists of macrophages, T cells and B cells to carry out its function efficiently
and effectively.
o T cells are responsible for the cellular immunity, while B cells produce antibodies that circulate in the
blood stream and attach to foreign bodies to mark them for destruction.Macrophages act as scavengers,
getting rid of the worn out cells and debris. They are also responsible for producing the cytokines, which
are vital to the immune system.

Q 24.D
o The Global Human Capital Index is released by World Economic Forum.The report measures 130
countries against four key areas (capacity, deployment, development and know-how) among five distinct
age groups to capture the full human capital potential profile of a country. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are
correct.
o India has improved its rank by 2 places to 103 from 105 last year but still ranks last among G-20 and
lowest among BRICS countries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q 25.B
o Statement 1 is not correct: SEBI introduced the Graded Surveillance Measure to keep a tab on securities
that witness an abnormal price rise that is not commensurate with financial health and fundamentals of the
company such as earnings, book value, price to earnings ratio among others.
o Statement 2 is correct: The underlying principle behind the graded surveillance framework is to alert and
protect investors trading in a security, which is seeing abnormal price movements. SEBI may put shares of
companies under the measure for suspected price rigging or under the ambit of ‗shell companies‘. The
measure would provide a heads up to market participants that they need to be extra cautious and diligent
while dealing in such securities put under surveillance.

Q 26.A
o Statement 1 is correct: India will be able to more easily access dual-use technologies and materials and
military equipment that are prescribed for non-participating members.
o Statement 2 is not correct. Entry into the Wassenaar arrangement boosted the chances of entry into the
Australia Group and Nuclear Suppliers Group. It does not mean automatic membership into the Australia
group

Q 27.A
o Statement 1 is correct. H-1B visa is an employment-based, non-immigrant visa category for temporary
workers. The H-1B visa allows companies to hire highly-skilled foreign professionals working in areas
where there is a shortage of qualified American workers.
o Statement 2 is not correct. H-1B visas are valid for three years and can be renewed for another three
years although various exceptions remain to the period under the Immigration and Nationality Act.
o The foreign worker must possess at least a bachelor's degree or its equivalent and state licensure if
required to practice in that field.
o A change in the visa policy could affect India‘s services sector which is reliant on the outsourcing of
technology solutions, and whose business model involves coupling the development of technology in
India with a client-side design of the product.Indian companies like Infosys, Wipro, TCS will be
negatively affected if H-1B visas are reduced.
6 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
Q 28.D
o The Scheme of Mega Food Parks aims at providing a mechanism to link agricultural production to
the market by bringing together farmers, processors and retailers so as to ensure maximizing value
addition, minimizing wastage, increasing farmers‘ income and creating employment opportunities
particularly in rural sector. The Mega Food Parks Scheme is based on ―Cluster‖ approach and envisages
creation of state of art support infrastructure in a well-defined agri / horticultural zone for setting up of
modern food processing units along with well-established supply chain. Mega food park typically consist
of supply chain infrastructure including collection centers, primary processing centers, central processing
centers, cold chain and around 30-35 fully developed plots for entrepreneurs to set up food processing
units.
o The Mega Food Park project is implemented by a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) which is a Body
Corporate registered under the Companies Act. However, State Government, State Government
entities and Cooperatives are not required to form a separate SPV for implementation of Mega Food Park
project.
o With a view to promote investment in Mega Food Park, Ministry of Finance has covered Mega Food
Parks under Infrastructure category.

Q 29.C
o The Pandya kingdom occupied roughly the region of the modern districts of Tirunelveli, Ramnad and
Madurai in Tamil Nadu. The capital of the kingdom was Madurai. The Cholas occupied the delta of the
Kaveri river and the adjoining region. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
o Under the Pandyas, the capital Madurai and port city Korkai were great centres of trade and commerce.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o The Pandyan kingdom was very wealthy and prosperous. The traders profited from trade with the Roman
Empire. Pandya kings even sent embassies to the Roman emperor Augustus and Trojan. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.

Q 30.B
o Statement 1 and 3 are correct: South Asia Wildlife Enforcement Network (SAWEN) is an inter-
governmental wildlife law enforcement support body of South Asian countries namely - Afghanistan,
Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
o SAWEN was officially launched in January, 2011 in Paro Bhutan.
o It promotes regional cooperation to combat wildlife crime in South Asia. It focuses on policy
harmonization; institutional capacity strengthening through knowledge and intelligence sharing; and
collaboration with regional and international partners to enhance wildlife law enforcement in the member
countries. SAWEN operates its activities from the Secretariat based in Kathmandu, Nepal.
o Statement 2 is not correct: It does not work under South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
(SAARC).

Q 31.B
o The Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY) is being implemented by the District
Mineral Foundations (DMFs) of the respective districts using the funds accruing to the DMF (fund is
mandatorily contributed by miners under Mines and Minerals Amendment Act, 2015). The overall
objective of PMKKKY scheme will be (a) to implement various developmental and welfare
projects/programs in mining affected areas, and these projects/ programs will be complementing the
existing ongoing schemes/projects of State and Central Government; (b) to minimize/mitigate the adverse
impacts, during and after mining, on the environment, health and socio-economics of people in mining
districts; and (c) to ensure long-term sustainable livelihoods for the affected people in mining areas.
Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
o The scheme is covering all the districts of the country where the mines are located including areas under
fifth and sixth schedule of the Constitution. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q 32.A
o Letters rogatory are requests from courts in one country to the courts of another country
requesting the performance of an act which, if done without the sanction of the foreign court, could
constitute a violation of that country's sovereignty.

7 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 o Recently The Enforcement Directorate investigating the over Rs 110 billion PNB fraud case today
approached a Mumbai Court seeking issuance of Letters Rogatory (LRs) for obtaining information about
the overseas businesses and assets of diamantaire Nirav Modi.'It is an application for issuance of LR
under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) for recovery/seizure of proceeds of crime and
collection of documents, evidence lying in Hongkong, USA, UK, UAE, South Africa and
Singapore which are required in connection with the investigation.
o In the past, the CBI petitioned for a Letter Rogatory for the extradition of Warren Anderson(chairman of
Union Carbide)in relation to the Bhopal Gas tragedy.
o Letter of undertaking (LOU) is a credit mechanism mainly for importers, under which a bank can allow its
customer to raise money from another Indian bank's foreign branch in the form of a short-term credit.

Q 33.C
o Alternative investment funds (AIFs) are defined in Securities and Exchange Board of India (Alternative
Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012. It refers to any privately pooled investment fund, (whether from
Indian or foreign sources), in the form of a trust or a company or a body corporate or a Limited Liability
Partnership (LLP) which are not presently covered by any Regulation of SEBI governing fund
management (like, Regulations governing Mutual Fund or Collective Investment Scheme) nor coming
under the direct regulation of any other sectoral regulators in India-IRDA, PFRDA, RBI.
o Hence, in India, AIFs are private funds which are otherwise not coming under the jurisdiction of any
regulatory agency in India.
o Thus, the definition of AIFs includes venture Capital Fund, hedge funds, private equity funds,
commodity funds, Debt Funds, infrastructure funds, etc while, it excludes Mutual funds or collective
investment Schemes, family trusts, Employee Stock Option / purchase Schemes, employee welfare trusts
or gratuity trusts, ‗holding companies‘ within the meaning of Companies Act, 1956, securitization trusts
regulated under a specific regulatory framework and funds managed by securitization company or
reconstruction company which is registered with the RBI under Securitization and Reconstruction of
Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002.
o Hence, only option 1 and 2 are correct.

Q 34.D
o In 1927 Britishers to review the operation of constitutional system in India, appointed an all white
Statutory Commission (also known as SIMON COMMISSION) under John Simon. In early 1928 it
arrived in India which was strongly opposed throughout India.
o In August 1928, at an all parties conference in Lucknow, Nehru report was finalised under Motilal
Nehru.
o Belgaum session of Indian national Congress was held in December 1924. It was the only session
which was presided over by Mahatma Gandhi. It was a great step in promotion of the peasant
consciousness.

Q 35.D
o The Ministry of Environment and Forests had issued the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification on
19.2.1991 under the Environment (Protection) Act,1986, with the aim to provide comprehensive measures
for the protection and conservation of our coastal environment.
o The following activities are prohibited within CRZ:
 Setting up of new industries and expansion of existing industries
 Manufacture or handling oil storage or disposal of hazardous substances
 Setting up and expansion of fish processing units, Land reclamation, bunding or disturbing the natural
course of seawater
 Setting up and expansion of units or mechanism for disposal of wastes and effluents
 Discharge of untreated waste and effluents from industries, cities, or towns and other human
settlements.
 Dumping of city or town wastes for the purpose of land filling and the like.
 Port and harbour projects in high eroding stretches of the coast.
 Reclamation for commercial purposes (shopping, housing complexes. Hotels, entertainment activities)
 Mining of sand, rocks and other sub-strata material
 Drawl of groundwater and construction related thereto within 200 mts of HTL
 Construction activities

8 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

  Dressing or altering the sand dunes, hills, natural features including landscape changes for
beautification, recreation etc.
 Facilities required for patrolling and vigilance activities of marine/coastal police station.

Q 36.D
o India is said to be the home of puppets, but it is yet to awaken to its unlimited possibilities. The
excavation sites at Harappa and Mohenjo-daro have yielded puppets with sockets attached to them,
which suggest the presence of puppetry as an art form. The earliest reference to the art of puppetry
is found in Tamil classic 'Silappadikaaram' written around the 1st or 2nd century B.C.
o Natyashastra, the masterly treatise on dramaturgy written sometime during 2nd century BC to 2nd
century AD., does not refer to the art of puppetry but the producer-cum-director of the human theatre
has been termed as 'Sutradhar' meaning the holder of strings. The word might have found its place in
theatre-terminology long before Natyashastra was written but it must come from marionette theatre.
Puppetry, therefore, must have originated in India more than 500 years before Christ.
o Types of puppets include:
 String Puppets - Kathputli
 Shadow Puppets - Togalu Gobeyatta
 Glove Puppets - Pavakoothu
 Rod Puppets - Putul Nacch.

Q 37.A
o A pressurized heavy-water reactor (PHWR) is a nuclear reactor, commonly using unenriched natural
uranium as its fuel, that uses heavy water (deuterium oxide D2O) as its coolant and neutron moderator.
o Non-Nuclear Applications of heavy water include: Preservation of Oral Polio Vaccines, Deuterated
drugs for enhancement of biological efficacy, Deuterated optical fibers to enhance transmission
efficiency etc.
o Heavy water is not used as a bleaching agent. Hydrogen peroxide is the simplest peroxide and is used as
an oxidizer, bleaching agent and antiseptic.

Q 38.B
o High Street Bank is a term that originated in the U.K., which refers to large retail banks, which have
many branch locations. The term 'high street' indicates that these banks are major, widespread institutions,
such as those, which are found in the main commercial sector of a town or city.
o These banks serve both the retail and corporate entities. They typically offer a diverse selection of
banking services, such as savings, loans, fixed deposits etc.

Q 39.C
o COMMIT (Comprehensive Online Modified Modules on Induction Training)- It is a new training
programme for State Government officials. Its objective is to improve the public service delivery
mechanism and provide citizen centric administration through capacity building of officials. It has been
developed by DoPT in collaboration with United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). It will
supplement the existing ITP (Induction Training Program). Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q 40.C
o Dearness Allowance is an amount of money that is added to a person's basic pay or pension because of
rising prices and other costs. It is a cost of living adjustment allowance paid to Government
employees, Public sector employees (PSEs) and pensioners in India.

Q 41.A
o Gothenburg Protocol: It aims to abate Acidification, Eutrophication and Ground-level Ozone and is a
part of the Convention on Long Range Transboundary Air Pollution.
o Objective: To control and reduce emissions of sulphur dioxide(SO2), nitrogen oxides (NOx), ammonia
(NH4), volatile organiccompounds (VOCs), and Particulate Matter (PM) that are caused by human
activities.
9 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
Q 42.A
o The ministry of Power recenly launched the Fly Ash mobile application named ASH TRACK. The
application will enable better management of the ash produced by thermal power plants by providing an
interface between fly ash producers (Thermal Power Plants) and potential ash users such as – road
contractors, cement plants etc. The App gives plant-wise, utility-wise and State-wise ash utilization status
in the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
o It would allow effective monitoring and reviewing for increasing ash utilization. This would also help in
protecting environment in terms of reduction in fugitive emissions, saving of precious top soil and
conservation of land for sustainable development. Fly ash, the end product of combustion during the
process of power generation in the coal based thermal power plants, is a proven resource material for
many applications of construction industries and currently is being utilized in manufacturing of Portland
Cement, bricks/blocks/tiles manufacturing, road embankment construction and low-lying area
development, etc.

Q 43.D
o Statement 1 is correct: It is a digital public ledger that records every transaction. Once a transaction is
entered in the blockchain, it cannot be erased or modified. Each transaction is recorded to the ledger after
verification by the network participants, mainly a chain of computers, called nodes
o Statement 2 is correct: Blockchain removes the need for using a trusted third party such as a bank to
make a transaction by directly connecting the customers and suppliers.
o Statement 3 is correct: Bitcoin is one of the popular applications for the technology.The financial
industry is looking into potential uses of Blockchain.

Q 44.C
o The Terai Arc Landscape (TAL) is an 810 km stretch between the river Yamuna in the west and the river
Bhagmati in the east, comprising the Shivalik hills, the adjoining bhabhar areas and the Terai flood plains.
o It is spread across the Indian states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, and the low lying hills of
Nepal. The landscape boasts of some of India‘s most well-known Tiger Reserves and Protected Areas
such as Corbett Tiger Reserve, Rajaji National Park, Dudhwa Tiger Reserve, Valmiki Tiger Reserve
and Nepal‘s Bardia Wildlife Sanctuary, Chitwan National Park, and Sukhla Phanta Wildlife Sanctuary. In
total, the landscape has 13 Protected Areas, nine in India and four in Nepal, covering a total area of
49,500 km2, of which 30,000 km2 lies in India.
o These forests are home to three flagship species, the Bengal tiger (Panthera tigris), the greater one horned
rhino (Rhinoceros unicornis) and the Asian elephant (Elephas maximus).

Q 45.B
o South Indian music flourished in Deogiri the capital city of the Yadavas in the middle ages, and that after
the invasion and plunder of the city by the Muslims, the entire cultural life of the city took shelter in the
Carnatic Empire of Vijayanagar under the reign of Krishnadevaraya. Thereafter, the music of South India
came to be known as Carnatic Music. It has following musical forms -
 Varnam: The Varnam is a unique musical form in Carnatic Music. The Varnam is a beautiful
creation of musical craftsmanship of a high order, combining in itself all the characteristic features of
the raga in which it is composed. Practice in Varnam singing helps a musician to attain mastery in
presentation and command over raga, tala and bhava.
 Gitam: Gitam is the simplest type of composition. Taught to beginners of music, the gitam is very
simple in construction, with an easy and melodious flow of music. The music of this form is a simple
melodic extension of the raga in which it is composed.
 Suladi: Very much like the gitam in musical structure and arrangement, the Suladis are of a higher
standard than the gitam. The Suladi is a talamalika, the sections being in different talas. The sahitya
syllables are fewer than in the gitas and there is a profusion of vowel extensions. The theme is
devotional. Suladis are composed in different tempos vilambita, madhya and druta. Purandaradasa has
composed many Suladis.
 Svarajati: This is learnt after a course in gitams. More complicated than the gitas, the Svarajati paves
the way for the learning of the Varnams. It consists of three sections, called Pallavi, Anupallavi and
Charanam. The theme is either devotional, heroic or amorous. It originated as a dance form with jatis
(tala, solfa syllables like taka tari kita naka tatin gina tam) tagged on. But later, Syama Sastri, one

10 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 among the Musical Trinity, composed svarajatis without jatis, which are brilliant concert pieces, noted
for their musical value.
 Jatisvaram: Very similar to the svarajati in musical structure, this form- Jatisvaram-has no sahitya or
words. The piece is sung with solfa syllables only. It is noted for its rhythmical excellence and the jati
pattern used in it. This is a musical form belonging to the realm of dance music. In some Jatisvarams,
the Pallavi and Anupallavi are sung to jatis and the Charanas are sung to a mixture of svaras and jatis.
There are also Ragamalika Jatisvaram.
 Kirtanam: The Kirtanam had its birth about the latter half of the 14th century. It is valued for the
devotional content of the sahitya. Clothed in simple music, the kirtanam abounds in Bhakti bhava. It is
suited for congregational singing as well as individual presentation. The Talapakam composers of the
15th century were the first to compose kirtanas with the sections, pallavi, anupallavi and charanas.
Usually there are more than two charanas the music of all of them being the same. Composed in all
the important traditional ragas and set to simple talas, the kirtanas offer soul-stirring music of the
highest form of devotion. Bhadrachalam Ramadasa and Tyagaraja were prolific composers of
Kirtanam.
 Kriti: The Kriti is a development from the Kirtana. It is an highly evolved musical form. The pallavi,
anupallavi and charanam are the minimum and essential angas of a kriti. The pallavi is sung first,
followed by the anupallavi and ends with the pallavi. The charanam is sung next and linked with the
pallavi before ending. The Carnatic music world owes its debt of gratitude to the Musical trinity for
having made such a monumental contribution in the field of nibaddha sangeeta, in the form of kritis.
There are kritis in all the existing ragas and in all the principal talas. The kriti as a musical form has
many features in common with the Dhrupad of Hindustani music. Muthuswamy Dikshitar has
composed many kritis in the Dhrupad style.
 Pada: Padas are scholarly compositions in Telegu and Tamil. Though they are composed mainly as
dance forms, they are also sung in concerts, on account of their musical excellence and aesthetic
appeal. A padam also has the sections, pallavi, anupallavi and charana. The music is slow-moving and
dignified. There is a natural flow of music and, sustained balance between the words and the music is
maintained throughout. The theme is madhura bhakti, portrayed as bahir sringara and antar
bhakti. The pada, when sung, presents an epitome of the raga in which it is composed.
 Pallavi: This is the most important branch of creative music. It is in this branch of manodharma
sangeeta, that the musician has ample opportunities of displaying his or her creative talents,
imaginative skill, and musical intelligence. The term Pallavi is coined from the initial syllables of the
three words: Padam, meaning words; Layam, meaning time and Vinyasam, meaning variations.
 Tillana: The Tillana, corresponding to the Tarana of Hindustani music, is a short and crisp form. It
is mainly a dance form, but on account of its brisk and attractive music, it sometimes finds a place in
music concerts as a conclusion piece. It usually begins with jatis.
 Javali: A javali is a composition belonging to the sphere of light classical music. Sung both in
concert programmes and dance concerts, the javalis are popular because of the attractive melodies in
which they are composed. In contrast to the padas which portray divine love, javalis are songs which
are sensuous in concept and spirit. Javalis are composed in Telugu, Kannada and Tamil. This form
resembles the Thumris of Hindustani Music.
 Tanam: This is a branch of raga alapana. It is raga alapana in Madhyamakala or medium speed.
There is perceptible rhythm in this. The rhythmical flow of music, flowing in fascinating patterns,
makes tanam singing the most captivating part of raga exposition. The word 'Anantam ' is dexterously
used to merge with the musical patterns.
o Hindustani Music- Musical forms in Hindustani music -
 Khyal is one of the musical form in hindustani music. The khyal is always in medium speed. The
words are pronounced clearly and in an open and clear voice. The distinguishing characters are the
passages which are primarily based on alankars - that is. repetitive melodic motifs - and an almost
metronomic insistence of tala division.The style is very lyrical and full of finer tonal embroidery.
 Thumri and Tappa are popular types heard in concerts -
 The thumri is very lyrical in its structure and presentation. These forms are termed as 'semi' or 'light'
classical. Thumri is a love song and hence the textual beauty is very important. This is closely
coordinated with the musical rendition. And keeping in mind its mood a thumri is usually set
to ragas like Khamaj, Kaphi, Bhairavi and so on and the musical grammar is not strictly adered to.
There are two styles of thumri singing: the Poorab or Banaras which is fairly slow and staid and the
Punjab style which is more mercurial.

11 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

  The Tappa consists of the song uttered in fast note patterns. It is a difficult composition and needs
much practice. Both the Thumriand Tappa require special training as do the Dhrupad and Khyal
forms of singing. Ragas in which Tappa compositions are set remain same as in Thumri style.
 Hence, option (b) is not correct.

Q 46.A
o Statement 1 is correct: The Financial Action Task Force on Money Laundering (FATF) was established
by the G-7 Summit that was held in Paris in 1989.It currently has 37 members, while India has been a
member of the FATF since 2010.
o Statement 2 is correct: The Task Force was initially given the responsibility of examining money
laundering techniques and trends.In 2001, the development of standards in the fight against terrorist
financing was added to the mission of the FATF.
o Statement 3 is not correct: FATF guidelines are applicable not only for countries but also to individual
investors and FIIs.
o The FATF has two watchlists for countries who are at risk of money laundering and terrorist financing:
the 'Grey list' and the 'Blacklist'.Recently, Pakistan was added to the FATF's 'Grey list'.

Q 47.A
o Net productivity is the amount of energy trapped in organic matter during a specified interval at a
given trophic level less that lost by the respiration of the organisms at that level.
o Estimated Net Productivity of Certain Ecosystems (in kilocalories/m2/year)
 Tropical rain forest -15,000
 Coastal marsh- 12,000
 Temperate deciduous forest-5,000
 Ocean close to shore-2,500
 Tall-grass prairie- 2,000
 Open ocean- 800
 Desert- 500

Q 48.D
o Drip irrigation is sometimes called trickle irrigation and involves dripping water onto the soil at very low
rates (2-20 litres/hour) from a system of small diameter plastic pipes fitted with outlets called emitters or
drippers.
o Advantages of Drip Irrigation:
 Maximum use of available water.
 No water being available to weeds.
 Maximum crop yield.
 High efficiency in the use of fertilizers.
 Less weed growth and restricts population of potential hosts.
 Low labour and relatively low operation cost.
 No soil erosion.
 Improved infiltration in soil of low intake.
 Ready adjustment to sophisticated automatic control.
 No runoff of fertilizers into ground water.
 11.Less evaporation losses of water as compared to surface irrigation.
 Improves seed germination.
 Decreased to tillage operations.
o Disadvantages of Drip Irrigation:
o In spite of the fact that drip irrigation has so many potential benefits , they‘re a certain limitation also,
there are as follow:
 Sensitivity to clogging
 Moisture distribution problem
 Salinity hazards
 High cost compared to furrow.
 High skill is required for design, install and operation.
12 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
Q 49.A
o In 1915 Berlin Committee for Indian Independence also known as Indian Independence Committee
was established by Virendranath Chattopadhyay, Bhupendranath Dutta and Lala Hardayal with
the help of the German foreign office under 'Zimmerman Plan'.
o These revolutionaries mobilised Indian settlers abroad to send volunteers and arms to India to
incite rebellion among Indian troops there and to even organise an armed invasion of British India
to liberate our country. To work among Indian troops and the Indian prisoners of war, the Indian
revolutionaries in Europe sent missions to Baghdad, Persia, Turkey and Kabul and also to incite anti
British feelings among people of these countries.
o Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q 50.A
o The eCourts Integrated Mission Mode Project is one of the national eGovernance projects being
implemented in High Courts and district/subordinate Courts of the Country. The project has been
conceptualized on the basis of the ―National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of Information
and Communication Technology in the Indian Judiciary-2005‖ by the eCommittee of the Supreme Court
of India. The project is being implemented by National Informatics Centre (NIC). Hence, statement 2 is
not correct.
o The specific objectives of the Project include
 To make whole judicial system ICT enabled by putting in place adequate and modern hardware and
connectivity.
 Automation of workflow management in all courts.
 Electronic movement of records from taluka/trial to appeal courts. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 Installation of video conferencing (VC) facility and recording of witness through Video Conferencing.
 Connecting all courts in the country to the National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG) through WAN and
additional redundant connectivity.
 Citizen centric facilities such as electronic filing, e-payment and use of mobile applications in all
courts.
 Touch screen based kiosks in each court complex, full computerisation of State and district level
judicial and service academies and centres.

Q 51.C
o Gaddis belong to the class of the shepherds and their job is to look after goats and sheep. This is one of
the popular tribal communities in Mandi and can be even found in some areas of Bilaspur and Kullu.
However, a massive Gaddi tribes mainly dwell around Dhauladhar mountain range, Chamba, Bharmaur
and the areas near to Dharamshala.Gaddi Tribes constitute a sizeable population of tribes habitating in
Himachal Pradesh. It is believed that these people migrated to the foothills of Himalayas from
Central Asia, Rajasthan and Gujarat. It is also believed that some castes of Gaddi tribes ran away and
took shelter in hills because of the threat of Mughal ruler Aurangzeb in 17th century.The speciality of the
tribe lies in their nomadic nature. They mainly bear the traits of gypsy as they move down the pasture
with their flocks. One can discern nomadic traits in the tribe, but they are not simply vagabonds as they
have their own village to stay. Walking down to the pastures with the goats and sheep is a part of the
Gaddi tradition. The Gaddi Tribe is not concise. In fact the entire Gaddi society can be bifurcated into
sections like the Khatri, the Thakur, the Dhangar, the Brahmin, the Ranas and the Rajputs. These tribal
people pay true allegiance to religion and spiritualism. In fact, the Gaddis are believers of both
Hinduism and Islam.

Q 52.D
o Under the Constitution, a person shall be disqualified for being elected as a member of Parliament:
 if he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any
other office exempted by Parliament);
 if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court;
 if he is an undischarged insolvent;

13 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

  if he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under
any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state and;
 if he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament.
o The Constitution also lays down that a person shall be disqualified from being a member of Parliament if
he is so disqualified on the ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule.

Q 53.D
o Prime Minister enjoys the following powers:
 He advises the President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the
Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to President at any time. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
 He advises the President with regard to the appointment of important officials like Attorney General
of India, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, Chairman and members of the UPSC, election
commissioners, chairman and members of the finance commission and so on. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.

Q 54.A
o Statement 1 is correct: The Speaker is the head of the Lok Sabha, and its representatives. He is the
guardian of powers and privileges of the members, the House as a whole and its committees.
o Statement 2 is not correct: In the order of precedence, he is placed at seventh rank along with the Chief
Justice of India. He has a higher rank than all cabinet ministers, except Prime Minister or Deputy Prime
Minister.
o Statement 3 is not correct: The Speaker cannot preside over a sitting of Lok Sabha when a resolution for
his removal is under consideration. However, he can vote in the first instance when a resolution for his
removal is under consideration.

Q 55.C
o Sources of the Constitution and features borrowed:
 Government of India Act of 1935-Federal Scheme, Office of governor, Judiciary, Public Service
Commissions, Emergency provisions and administrative details.
 British Constitution- Parliamentary government, Rule of Law, legislative procedure, single
citizenship, cabinet system,prerogative writs, parliamentary privileges and bicameralism.
 US Constitution -Fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the
president, removal of Supreme Court and high court judges and post of vice-president.
 Irish Constitution -Directive Principles of State Policy, nomination of members to Rajya Sabha and
method of election of president.
 Canadian Constitution -Federation with a strong Centre, vesting of residuary powers in the Centre,
appointment of state governors by the Centre, and advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
 Australian Constitution- Concurrent List, freedom of trade, commerce and inter-course, and joint
sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
 Weimar Constitution of Germany-Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency.
 Soviet Constitution (USSR, now Russia)-Fundamental duties and the ideal of justice (social,
economic and political) in the Preamble.
 French Constitution- Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble.
 South African Constitution -Procedure for amendment of the Constitution and election of members of
Rajya Sabha.
 Japanese Constitution -Procedure established by Law.

Q 56.A
o A group of Sri Lankan militants from the People‘s Liberation Organisation of Tamil Eelam (PLOTE),
backed by some Maldivian nationals mounted a coup in the Maldives in November 1988, to overthrow the
then President Abdul Gayoom.At Gayoom's request, India responded with 'Operation Cactus' to save
the Maldives government.
14 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 o The airlift of Indians from Kuwait was carried out as part of rescue operations after Kuwait was invaded
by Iraqi forces in 1990. At least 1,75,000 Indians were evacuated taking the help of Air India and civil
aircraft.
o With 'Operation Vijay', India Army liberated Goa from Portuguese rule for over 450 years on 19
December 1961.The Kargil operation is also called 'Operation Vijay'.In 1987, Rajiv Gandhi and Sri
Lankan president, J.R. Jayewardene, signed a peace accord that provided the Tamils with an autonomous
province within a united Sri Lanka. India agreed to prevent Tamil separatists from using its territory and
agreed to send an Indian Peace-Keeping Force (IPKF) to disarm the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
(Tamil Tigers) and other Tamil forces.

Q 57.C
o Important subjects in state list: Public order; Police; Officers and servants of the high court, Prisons,
reformatories, borstal institutions and other such institutions; Local government;Public health and
sanitation; Pilgrimages, other than pilgrimages to places outside India; Intoxicating liquors;Relief of the
disabled and unemployable; Burials and burial grounds; Agriculture, including agricultural education and
research; Land, that is, right in or over land, land tenures and the collection of rents; Industries etc.
o Important subjects in concurrent list: Criminal Law, including all matters included in the Indian Penal
Code; Criminal procedure, including all matters included in the Code of Criminal Procedure; Preventive
detention for reasons connected with the security; Marriage and divorce; infants and minors; adoption;
wills, intestacy and succession; joint family and partition; Transfer of property other than agricultural
land; registration of deeds and documents; Contracts; Bankruptcy and insolvency; Trust and Trustees ;
Prevention of cruelty to animals; Forests; Protection of wild animals and birds ;Trade unions; industrial
and labour disputes ; Electricity etc.
o The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects to Concurrent List from State List, that is, (a)
education, (b) forests, (c) weights and measures, (d) protection of wild animals and birds, and (e)
administration of justice; constitution and organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and the
high courts.

Q 58.B
o Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary, also known as Pakshi Kashi of
Karnataka, is a bird sanctuary in the Mandya District of the state of Karnataka in India. It is the largest
bird sanctuary in the state. Recently, it was decided that will be pitched to be recognized as a Ramsar
wetland site of International importance.
o Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Bhoj wetland is situated in Bhopal district in Madhya Pradesh. The
wetland consists of two man-made lakes--the upper lake and the lower lake. The upper lake, the oldest
among large man-made lakes in central India, was created by king Bhoj in the 11th century by
constructing an earthen dam across the Kolans river
o Pair 3 is correctly matched: Nalbana Bird Sanctuary or Nalbana Island is the core area of the Ramsar
designated wetlands of Chilika Lake (Odisha). Lesser Flamingos, Flamingos, Grey herons, Egrets, Purple
herons, Storks, Spoonbills etc are found here.

Q 59.C
o Statement 1 is correct: The State Emergency (President‘s Rule) is applicable to the state. However, this
emergency can be imposed in the state on the ground of failure of the constitutional machinery under the
provisions of state Constitution and not Indian Constitution. In fact, two types of Emergencies can be
declared in the state, namely, President‘s Rule under the Indian Constitution and Governor‘s Rule under
the state Constitution.
o Statement 2 is not correct: Part IV (Directive Principles of the State Policy) and Part IVA (Fundamental
Duties) of the Constitution are not applicable to J&K.
o Statement 3 is correct: The special leave jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the jurisdictions of the
Election Commission and the comptroller and auditor general are applicable to the state.

Q 60.B
o Municipal corporations are created for the administration of big cities . They are established in the states
by the acts of the concerned state legislatures, and in the union territories by the acts of the Parliament of
India.
15 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 o The municipalities are established for the administration of towns and smaller cities. They are also set up
in the states by the acts of the concerned state legislatures and in the union territory by the acts of the
Parliament of India.
o A town area committee is set up for the administration of a small town. It is a semi-municipal authority
and is entrusted with a limited number of civic functions like drainage, roads, street lighting and
conservancy. It is created by a separate act of a state legislature.
o A township is established by the large public enterprises to provide civic amenities to its staff and
workers who live in the housing colonies built near the plant.
o The port trusts are established in the port areas like Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and so on to manage and
protect the ports and to provide civic amenities. A port trust is created by an Act of Parliament.
o Hence, the answer is (b).

Q 61.B
o Recently, government has launched National E-Mobility Programme with aims to provide an impetus to
the entire e-mobility ecosystem including vehicle manufacturers, charging infrastructure companies, fleet
operators, service providers, etc. The Programme will be implemented by Energy Efficiency Services
Limited (EESL) which will aggregate demand by procuring electric vehicles in bulk to get economies of
scale. The per kilometer cost for an electric car is just 85 paisa against Rs 6.5 for normal cars and these
would also help us achieve autonomy from expensive petroleum imports. Though implementation of
programme will result in higher production of electric vehicle but it will not totally replace the existing
fleet of petrol and diesel vehicles by 2030. Rather Government is focusing on creating charging
infrastructure and policy framework so that by 2030 more than 30 per cent of vehicles are electricity
vehicles.
o Hence, statement 1 and 3 are correct and 2 is not correct.

Q 62.B
o Debris avalanches and landslides occur very frequently in the Himalayas. There are many reasons for this
o The Himalayas are tectonically active.
o They are mostly made up of sedimentary rocks and unconsolidated and semi-consolidated deposits.
o The slopes are very steep.
o Hence, all the statements are correct.

Q 63.C
o The Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas: They are flanked by Nepal Himalayas in the west and Bhutan
Himalayas in the east. Known for its fast-flowing rivers such as Tista, it is region of high mountain peaks
like Kanchenjunga, and deep valleys. The higher reaches of the region are inhabitated by Lepcha tribes.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.Shiwalik is a mountain range, it is the part of Himalayas innermost to
India. It is also the youngest of the Himalayas. This mountain range starts from Indus and extends in the
East West direction.On the other hand,the Dooars or Duars are the alluvial floodplains in northeastern
India that lie south of the outer foothills of the Himalayas and north of the Brahmaputra River basin.
Duars formed here and they are used for the development of tea gardens. Also, the regions economy is
dependent on three `T`s; Tea, Tourism and Timber. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
o This region has physical conditions such as moderate slope, thick soil cover with high organic content,
well distributed rainfall throughout the year and mild winters. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 64.B
o The natural diversion of the headwaters of one stream into the channel of another, typically resulting from
rapid headward erosion by the latter stream, it is called River capture. The river whose flow has been
diverted is known as Pirated stream and the river which has captured another river is Pirating
stream. The point where the pirated stream is diverted towards the pirating stream is the Elbow of
Capture. The dry portion just below the Elbow of capture is known as wind Gap or column.

Q 65.C
o Fundamental Duties serve as a warning against the anti-national and antisocial activities like burning the
national flag, destroying public property and so on. They serve as a source of inspiration for the citizens
and promote a sense of discipline and commitment among them. They create a feeling that the citizens are
not mere spectators but active participants in the realisation of national goals.

16 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 o They help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. In 1992, the
Supreme Court ruled that in determining the constitutionality of any law, if a court finds that the law in
question seeks to give effect to a fundamental duty, it may consider such law to be ‗reasonable‘ in relation
to Article 14 (equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save such law from
unconstitutionality.
o The purpose of the Fundamental Rights is to ensure political democracy in the country.
o Hence, statement (c) is the correct answer.

Q 66.B
o U4E is a global effort supporting developing countries and emerging economies to move their
markets to energy-efficient appliances and equipment.Under the leadership of the United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP), U4E brings together all key stakeholders active in the area of
product efficiency.
o U4E is a public-private partnership led by UNEP, the Global Environment Facility (GEF), the United
Nations Development Programme (UNDP), the International Copper Association (ICA), CLASP and the
Natural Resources Defense Council (NRDC) with the support of other international partners.
o U4E:
 Informs policy makers of the potential environmental, financial and economic savings of a transition
to high-efficiency products;
 Identifies and promotes global best practices in transforming markets;
 Offers tailored assistance to governments to develop and implement national and regional strategies
and projects to achieve a fast and sustainable market transformation.

Q 67.B
o Statement 1 and 2 are correct: In Meghalaya, there are large deposits of coal, especially in the Garo
hills, Khasi hills, and Jaintia hills. Coal mining in these regions is done by individuals/family members in
the form of a long narrow tunnel, known as ‗Rathole‘ mining.In most of the tribal areas of north-east
India, minerals are owned by individuals or communities
o Statement 3 is correct: In April 2014, the National Green Tribunal had banned rat-hole mining in
Meghalaya citing environmental concerns.The traditional and unscientific form of mining has led to
severe pollution and mining deaths.

Q 68.A
o Alkaline soil are soil which has high exchangeable sodium and pH greater than 8.5.Base generating
cations are more soluble in water than acid generating cations.
o In this soil, there are millions of vertical channels - pipes - these are called 'capillary tubes'. Whenever
there is a downpour, excess water runs underground through these capillary tubes. When it is dry, these
same tubes transport water to the surface. Trees have their roots in these capillary tubes - which also
contain threads of fungi which are hygroscopic (attracting water); and with their lateral roots, they soak up
capillary water when it is hot and dry. This is how a tree survives heat and drought. Therefore, Leaching
makes the soil acidic and arid conditions/capillary action relate Alkaline PH. These soils are found in
canal irrigated areas and in areas of high sub-soil water table. Parts of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,
Karnataka, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Punjab (side effects of improper or excess irrigation),
Rajasthan and Maharashtra have this kind of soils.

Q 69.A
o All the statements are correct.
o The reasons for the early India nationalists' indifference towards the working class movement. The early
nationalists saw rapid industrialisation as the panacea for the problems of Indian poverty and degradation
and were unwilling to countenance any measure which would impede this process.
o They felt that if they force the government to enforce legislation to regulate the factories, it would
eventually benefit the British manufacturers. As any hike in wage would make local manufacturing
uncompetitive.
o At that time anti-imperialist movement was in its very infancy and hence if the workers question was
raised then it creates division within the ranks of the Indian people ; which thereby weaken the common
struggle against British rule.
17 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
Q 70.B
o Statement 1 is not correct: Singh Sabha movement was founded at Amritsar in 1873. It worked for
modern education among Sikh community for western enlightenment.
o Statement 2 is correct: It opposed the proselytising activities of the Christian missionaries and Hindu
revivalists. It opened Khalsa schools and colleges throughout Punjab.
o Statement 3 is not correct: Akali movement originated from the Singh Sabha movement which worked
for liberation of Sikh gurdawaras from the control of corrupt mahants. Akalis launched non violent, non
cooperation movement against the Mahants in 1921 which led to passing of the Sikh gurdawaras Act in
1922.

Q 71.C
o Statement 1 is not correct: The Hinayanas believed that each being had to work out his own salvation,
unlike the assistance of Bodhisattva available under the Mahayana.
o Statement 2 is not correct: The Mahayanas under which the Bodhisattva was thought of as one who
would bide his time until even the smallest insect had reached the highest goal.
o Statement 3 is correct: The Vajra stands for magical power (thunderbolt, diamond) The followers of the
Vajrayana taught that salvation could be best attained by acquiring magical power(MYSTICISM).

Q 72.C
o All the pairs are correctly matched
o The China type of climate is characterized by warm, moist summers and cool, dry winters. South-east
monsoon brings heavy precipitation during summer months to most areas.
o The Mediterranean climate is characterized by a dry, warm summer with off-shore trade winds and
receive most of their precipitation in winter when the Westerlies shift equator-wards.
o The British type of climate is under permanent influence of Westerlies as well as the ocean and thus
receive adequate rainfall throughout the year.

Q 73.C
o The Minamata Convention on Mercury is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment
from the adverse effects of mercury. The Convention draws attention to a global and ubiquitous metal
that, while naturally occurring, has broad uses in everyday objects and is released to the atmosphere, soil
and water from a variety of sources.
o Statement 2 is correct. Major highlights of the Minamata Convention include a ban on new mercury
mines, the phase-out of existing ones, the phase out and phase down of mercury use in a number of
products and processes, control measures on emissions to air and on releases to land and water, and the
regulation of the informal sector of artisanal and small-scale gold mining.
o Statement 1 is not correct. The Convention also addresses interim storage of mercury and its disposal
once it becomes waste, sites contaminated by mercury as well as health issues.
o Statement 3 is not correct. The Union Cabinet has approved the proposal for ratification of Minamata
Convention on Mercury and depositing the instrument of ratification enabling India to become a Party of
the Convention.

Q 74.B
o Urban flooding is caused by three main factors – meteorological, hydrological and human factors.
Meteorological factors include heavy rainfall, cyclonic storms, and thunderstorms. Hydrological factors
include presence or absence of overbank flow channel networks and occurrence of high tides impeding
the drainage in coastal cities. Human factors include land use changes, surface sealing due to
urbanization (which increases run-off), occupation of floodplains and obstruction of flood flows, urban
heat island effect (which has increased the rainfall in and around urban areas), sudden release of water
from dams located upstream of citizen towns and the failure to release water from dams resulting in
backwater effect. The indiscriminate disposal of solid waste into urban water drains and channels is
a major impediment to water flow during the monsoon season.
o Indian cities are densely populated, and an urban flood affects a large number of people in a very small
area. In addition, an urban flood results in inundation and damage to vital infrastructure, and disruption to
roads and services, thereby affecting all walks of life.The outbreak of diseases is also a concern after a
major urban flood.
18 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 o A cloudburst is short-term extreme precipitation that takes place over a small area.The Intergovernmental
Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) has indicated that in future, there could be an increase in instances of
heavy rainfall in shorter spans of time due to climate change

Q 75.B
o Statement 1 is not correct: It was Tilak's league that demanded swarajya, education in vernacular and
formation of linguistic states. As far as organization skill is concerned, Tilak's Home Rule League
movement was more organized, and there were many volunteers who worked for Tilak.
o Statement 2 is correct: Annie Besant started two newspapers 'New India' and 'Commonweal' to
propagate her message of Home Rule League.
o Statement 3 is correct: While Tilak's Home League covered the area of Maharashtra (excluding Bombay
city), Karnataka, Central Province and Berar, Annie Besant's league had 200 branches and were spread to
other parts of India.

Q 76.B
o Short selling refers to the selling of securities that the trader does not own, borrowing them from a
broker, and using the cash as collateral.
o Short selling is motivated by the belief that a security's price will decline, enabling it to be bought back at
a lower price to make a profit. Short selling may be prompted by speculation, or by the desire to hedge the
downside risk of the same security.
o Since the risk of loss on a short sale is theoretically infinite, short selling is generally used by experienced
traders, who are familiar with the risks.

Q 77.D
o Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks.
Peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal, metallic minerals, mica and many other non-
metallic minerals. Over 97 per cent of coal reserves occur in the valleys of Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi
and Godavari. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
o Sedimentary rocks on the western and eastern flanks of the peninsula, in Gujarat, Mumbai High i.e. off-
shore region in the Arabian Sea and Assam have most of the petroleum deposits.
o New reserves have also been located in the Krishna-Godavari and Kaveri basins. Most of the major
mineral resources occur to the east of a line linking Mangaluru and Kanpur.
o The vast alluvial plains of north India are almost devoid of economic minerals. Hence, statement 2
is not correct.
o Rajasthan with the rock systems of the peninsula, has reserves of many non-ferrous minerals.

Q 78.D
o As per Press Council of India, paid news refers to propaganda in favour of a candidate masquerading as
news reports or articles for a price in cash or kind as consideration. It is considered a ―grave electoral
malpractice‖ on the part of candidates to circumvent expenditure limits. Paid news is not an electoral
offence yet. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
o It misleads the public and hampers the ability of people to form correct opinions. It also causes undue
influence on voters and thus affects their Right to Information. The Election Commission has appointed a
Media Certification & Monitoring Committee (MCMC) at District and State level for checking Paid
News. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q 79.A
o The #MeToo campaign is a campaign that started on social media against sexual harassment.Women
around the world openly started sharing personal incidents of sexual harassment and sexual misconduct.
o Time magazine named The Silence Breakers(the men and women who shared their experiences) from the
#MeToo movement the Person of the Year 2017

Q 80.A
o Option 1 is correct. A decomposer is an organism that decomposes, or breaks down, organic material
such as the remains of dead organisms. Decomposers include bacteria and fungi. These organisms carry
out the process of decomposition, which all living organisms undergo after death. Decomposition is an
important process because it allows organic material to be recycled in an ecosystem.

19 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 o Option 2 is not correct: Nektons are the animals that can swim and navigate at will. Eg. fishes. They are
heterotrophs which feed directly or indirectly on autotrophs
o Option 3 is not correct: Algae are not decomposers.Most types of algae are classified as producers
within an ecosystem because they are able to produce their own food. Similarly, viruses invade other
organisms, and they're not decomposers. Viruses can only replicate themselves by infecting a host cell and
therefore cannot reproduce on their own.

Q 81.B
o Government has recently notified Phased Manufacturing Programme (PMP) for promoting the
growth of domestic manufacturing of Cellular mobile handsets. The overall aim of the scheme is to
impose duties (differential duty regime) and give tax reliefs and incentives on select products involved in
the manufacturing of cellular handsets. It is called a phased manufacturing programme because it will give
fiscal benefits to domestic manufacturing of the various components of cellular handsets in different
fiscals.

Q 82.A
o Since the primary function of Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning
Authority (CAMPA) is the regeneration of vegetation cover and promoting afforestation as a way of
compensating for forest land which is diverted to non-forest uses. It, therefore, calls for an information
system so as to collect and present information to monitor and track how well CAMPA funds are
achieving this end.
o In view of the above background, e-Green Watch is developed as an integrated & online system that will
be completely transparent, reliable and accountable. It will also present the data in real time and shall be
accessible to all stakeholders and public at large.Scope of the project e-Green Watch extensively
relates to online monitoring of various afforestation works being carried out using CAMPA funds.

Q 83.A
o Prebiotics are non-digestible substances, found in fibre. They serve as food for probiotic bacteria and
stimulate their growth in the large intestine.
o They pass through the small intestine only partially digested, and so once they reach the colon, they are
able to be fermented by the bacteria there. We must eat prebiotics in order to encourage the growth of
beneficial gut bacteria (probiotics).

Q 84.A
o The total liability of the monetary authority of the country, RBI, is called the monetary base or high
powered money. It consists of currency (notes and coins in circulation with the public and vault cash of
commercial banks) and deposits held by the Government of India and commercial banks with RBI.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o The total amount of money stock in the economy is much greater than the volume of high powered
money. Commercial banks create this extra amount of money by giving out a part of their deposits as
loans or investment credits. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q 85.C
o Repo rate is the rate at which the central bank of a country (Reserve Bank of India in case of India)
lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds. Repo rate is used by monetary
authorities to control inflation. In the event of inflation, central banks increase repo rate as this acts
as a disincentive for banks to borrow from the central bank. This ultimately reduces the money
supply in the economy and thus helps in arresting inflation.
o Repurchase Options or in short Repo, is a money market instrument, which enables collateralised short
term borrowing and lending through sale/purchase operations in debt instruments. This is an instrument
used by the Central Bank and banking institutions to manage their daily / short term liquidity. 'repo' means
an instrument for borrowing funds by selling securities with an agreement to repurchase the securities on a
mutually agreed future date at an agreed price which includes interest for the funds borrowed.
o The securities transacted here can be either government securities or corporate securities or any
other securities which the Central bank permits for transaction. Non-sovereign securities are used in
many global markets for repo operations. Unlike them, Indian repo market predominantly uses sovereign
securities, though repo is allowed on corporate bonds and debentures.

20 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 86.A
o Malfuzats are the texts containing the conversations of sufi saints.
o Maktubats are collections of letters written by sufi masters, addressed to their disciples.
o Tazkiras are the biographical accounts of sufi saints.

Q 87.D
o The El Nino event is closely associated with the pressure changes in the Central Pacific and Australia.
This change in pressure condition over Pacific is known as the southern oscillation.The combined
phenomenon of southern oscillation and El Nino is known as ENSO. In the years when the ENSO is
strong, large-scale variations in weather occur over the world.
 The arid west coast of South America receives heavy rainfall.
 Drought occurs in Australia and sometimes in India and floods in China.
 Dry conditions lead to forest fires in Indonesia.
 4.Failure of South East Monsoon.
 Excessive rainfall and substantial fall in fish catch near Peruvian coast.
 Storms to develop in the Gulf of Mexico, bringing heavy rains to much of the southern United States.
 Rise in normal temperature in Northwestern parts of Canada and alaska.
 Rise in winter normal temperature in eastern USA.
 Coral bleaching in Pacific Ocean.

Q 88.C
o Indirect farm subsidies: those that do not hold a predetermined monetary value or involved actual cash
outlays. They can include activities such as price reductions for required goods or services that can be
government-supported They include cheaper credit facilities, Subsidised Loans, crop insurance, farm
loan waivers, reduction in irrigation and electricity bills, fertilizers, seeds and pesticides subsidy as
well as the investments in agricultural research, environmental assistance, farmer training etc.
o Direct farm subsidies: Whenever a subsidy takes the form of a cash payment or grant to a recipient, it is
typically considered a direct subsidy. It is provided to farmers in order to make their products more
competitive in the global markets. Direct farm subsidies are helpful as they provide a purchasing power to
the farmer and can significantly help in raising the standards of living of the rural poor. Minimum
Support Price (MSP) is regarded as a direct subsidy.

Q 89.A
o Customs union is a form of trade integration between a number of countries in which members
eliminate all trade barriers amongst themselves on goods and services, and establish a uniform set of
barriers against trade with the rest of the world, in particular a common external tariff. The aim of a
customs union is to secure the benefits of international specialisation and international trade, thereby
improving members' real living standards.

Q 90.D
o According to the new series with revised base year 2011-2012, the official GDP will be calculated as
such:
 GVA at factor cost + (Production taxes - Production subsidies) = GVA at basic prices
 GDP at market prices = GVA at basic prices + Product taxes- Product subsidies
 GDP of India → GDP at market price adjusted for inflation

Q 91.D
o Out Ports are deep water ports built away from the actual ports. These serve the parent ports by
receiving those ships which are unable to approach them due to their large size. Classic combination, for
example, is Athens and its out port Piraeus in Greece.

Q 92.D
o Statement 1 is correct: The courtly architecture of Vijayanagar was generally made of mortar mixed
with stone rubble and often shows secular styles with Islamic-influenced arches, domes, and vaults. Thus,
some of the beautiful monuments in Hampi are made out of a brilliant mix of the Hindu and Islamic style
of architecture, popularly called as the Indo-Sarasanic architecture.

21 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 o Statement 2 is not correct: By and large Hampi‘s architecture falls in three categories: Civil, Military
and Religious. Palaces and irrigation works of Vijayanagara are examples of secular work.
o Statement 3 is correct: A prominent feature of the Vijayanagara style is the profusion of strong yet
delicate carving which adorns the pillared halls, the many columns of which are so decorated that they
become sculptures in their own right. Prancing horses were commonly seen with vigorous and energetic,
leap from the stone with leogryphs(part lionpart giraffe) and other fantastic monsters.

Q 93.C
o The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for the reservation of seats for scheduled castes
and scheduled tribes in every panchayat (i.e., at all the three levels) in proportion of their population to the
total population in the panchayat area. Further, the state legislature shall provide for the reservation of
offices of chairperson in the panchayat at the village or any other level for the SCs and STs. It is a
compulsory provision. Hence, options 1 and 3 are correct.
o The act provides for the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women
(including the number of seats reserved for women belonging the SCs and STs). Further, not less than
one-third of the total number of offices of chairpersons in the panchayats at each level shall be reserved
for women. It is a compulsory provision.
o The act also authorises the legislature of a state to make any provision for reservation of seats in any
panchayat or offices of chairperson in the panchayat at any level in favour of backward classes. It is an
optional provision. Hence, option 2 is not correct.

Q 94.A
o A time zone is a region or area that observes the same standard time. The world is divided longitudinally
into time zones, with each hour difference roughly 15 degrees apart. Due to some countries have half hour
time zones, there are more than 24 times zones in the world. The starting point at which Coordinated
Universal Time (UTC) starts is the Prime Meridian (zero degrees longitude). The International Date Line
(IDL), located at 180 degrees longitude delineates one day from the next; time incrementally advances as
one travels west of the IDL. Hence, longitudinal stretch of a country determines the number of time
zones.

Q 95.B
o Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct: In December, 2017, the First Ever International
Conference on AYUSH and Wellness ‗Arogya 2017‘ was jointly organized by Ministry of AYUSH and
Ministry of Commerce and Industry of Government of India including Pharmexcil in partnership with
FICCI in Delhi to showcase the strength and scientific valuation of traditional system of medicine. Nearly
1500 delegates from India and 60 countries participated in ‗Arogya 2017‘. ‗Arogya 2017‘ was used as a
platform to share the traditional medicine knowledge of India with humanity across the world.

Q 96.C
o Ministry of Commerce & Industry has launched Technology Acquisition and Development Fund (TADF)
Scheme under National Manufacturing Policy. TADF is a scheme to facilitate acquisition of Clean, Green
& Energy Efficient Technologies, in form of Technology / Customised Products / Specialised Services /
Patents / Industrial Design available in the market available in India or globally, by Micro, Small &
Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
o The scheme would facilitate acquisition of clean & green technologies by micro, small and medium
units across the sectors and thus, bridge the technological gap at an affordable cost.
o The scheme is conceptualised to catalyse the manufacturing growth in MSME sector to contribute to the
national focus of ―Make in India‖. The scheme would be implemented through Global Innovation and
Technology Alliance (GITA), a joint venture company.

Q 97.D
o Sophia is a social humanoid robot developed by Hong Kong-based company Hanson Robotics. In October
2017, the robot became a Saudi Arabian citizen, the first robot to receive citizenship of any country.
o In November 2017, Sophia was named the United Nations Development Programme's first ever
Innovation Champion, and the first non-human to be given any United Nations title.
22 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
Q 98.A
o A stem cell is essentially the building block of the human body. Stem cells are capable of dividing for
long periods of time, are unspecialized, but can develop into specialized cells.
o The earliest stem cells in the human body are those found in the human embryo. The stem cells inside an
embryo will eventually give rise to every cell, tissue and organ in the fetus's body.
o Unlike a regular cell, which can only replicate to create more of its own kind of cell, a stem cell is
pluripotent. When it divides, it can make any one of the 220 different cells in the human body. Stem cells
also have the capability to self-renew -- they can reproduce themselves many times over.
o However stems cells are not only found in human embryo. Hematopoietic stem cells are a type of adult
stem cell found in bone marrow of an adult human being. They make new red blood cells, white blood
cells, and other types of blood cells. Doctors have been performing stem cell transplants, also known as
bone marrow transplants, for decades using hematopoietic stem cells in order to treat certain types of
cancer.

Q 99.A
o The Centre has set up a steering committee under the chairmanship of the Economic Affairs
Secretary Subhash Garg to look into the development and regulation of the fintech sector in India.
The objective of the panel is ―to consider various issues relating to development of fintech space in India
with a view to make fintech-related regulations more flexible and generate enhanced entrepreneurship in
an area where India has distinctive comparative strengths vis-à-vis other emerging economies. The panel
will also focus on how fintech can be leveraged to enhance financial inclusion of Micro, Small and
Medium Enterprises.

Q 100.C
o Vittiya Saksharata Abhiyan has been launched to encourage people to adapt to a digital economy
and cashless modes of transcation.
o The main purpose of this campaign is to create awareness and to encourage the people and to motivate
them to go digital. The Ministry of Human Resource Development also appealed to higher education
institutes to receive nothing in cash (fee/fines/deposits) and pay nothing in cash (wages/salaries/vendor
payments) and develop a cashless campus (covering shops/canteens/services). It was launched by
Ministry of Human Resource Development.

Copyright © by Vision IAS

All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted
in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior
permission of Vision IAS.

23 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS