Q. 1.

Capacitive reactance is measured in:- (AMTH-P10-56)

(1) Ohms (2) Farads (3) Micro farads (4) Ohm Meter (AMTH-P10-56)

Q. 2.Capacitive Reactance is dependent upon:-

(1) Frequency (2) Capacitance (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Length, Area, Material & No of turns (AMTH-P10-56)

Q. 3. In a Inductor Amount of Induced EMF is directly proportional to:- (AMTH-P10-57)

(1) Rate of change of Flux in a inductor (2) Frequency (3) Voltage (4) Reactance

Q. 4. Inductance is the: - (AMTH-P10-58)

(1) Property to oppose any change in current thru it (2) Property to oppose any change in voltage thru it (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Resistance

Q. 5. Tick the factors affecting Inductance:- (AMTH-P10-58)

(1) No of Turns & Type of Core material (2) Both Area & Length of coil (3) Type of Core materia (4) As in 1, 2 & 3

Q. 6. The EMF induced in a circuit always act in such a direction that opposes the change in current :- (Eismin-P86)

(1) Bio savart Law (2) Coulomb Law (3) Lenz,s Law (4) Faraday,s Law

Q. 7. Time constant (T tau) in a Inductive circuit is:- (AMTH-P10-58) & (Eismin-P107)

(1) T=L/R. (2) T=L/RC (3) T=LxR (4) T=R/L

Q. 8. Which produces more Induced emf in a conductor when:- (Grobs-10thEd-P579)

(1) AC flows (2) Steady DC passes (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Same Value of Induced EMF

Q. 9.When Low Inductance is desired the Coil will have:- (Grobs-10thEd-P579) & (Eismin-P107)

(1) No core at all (2) Soft iron core (3) Hard steel core (4) None of All

Q. 10. Steady DC current:- (Grobs-10thEd-P579)

(1) is not affected by the inductance (2) affected by inductance like AC (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) AOA

Q. 11. Air core in inductors has:- (AMTH-P10-59)

(1) Low inductance with low eddy current & hysteresis losses (2) Low inductance with High eddy current & hysteresis losses (3) High inductance with Low eddy
current & hysteresis losses (4) Same value for any type of core
Q. 12. Inductance and Inductive reactance is represented by & symbolizes with letter respectively:- (AMTH-P10-59)

(1) L & H (2) mH & L (3) L & XL (4) XL & XC

Q. 13. When two inductors are in series the total inductance will be:- (AMTH-P10-59)

(1) L1 + L2 (2) 1/L1 +L2 (3) L1xL2/L1 +L2 (1) (4) both 2 & 3

Q. 14. Inductive reactance is equal to:- (AMTH-P10-60)

(1) 6.28xLxF (2) 1.73xLxF (3) 6.28xLxN (4) 3.14xLxF

Q. 15. An Inductive reactance is in Ohms then:-

(1) Frequency is in KHz & Inductance in milliHenry (2) Frequency is in Hz & Inductance in Henry (3) Frequency is in Hz & Inductance in Henry (4) Frequency is in
Hz & Inductance in microHenery

Q. 16. If the current is collected thru----- then it’s a AC generator and if collected by---- ,then it is a DC generator respectively:- AMTH-P10-133)

(1) Commutator – Slip ring (2) Slip ring- Commutator (3) Slip ring– Slip ring (4) Commutator –Commutator

Q. 17. The Generation of EMF is always AC for:- (AMTH-P10-131)

(1) AC Generator (2) DC Generator (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) NOA

Q. 18. The process of commutation is called: - (AMTH-P10-132)

(1) Rectification (2) Converting AC Voltage to DC (3) Transferring AC to Load (4) Both 1 & 2

Q. 19. The poles in generators are Laminated to reduce: - (AMTH-P10-134)

(1) EMF (2) Eddy current & hysteresis loss (3) hysteresis loss (4) All of above

Q. 20. Purpose of Magnetic Field Frame is :- (AMTH-P10-133)

(1) to provide magnetic path for poles (2) to give mechanical support to poles, coil and bearing (3) also called Yoke (4) AOA

Q. 21. In a Alternators the Armature consist of:- (AMTH-P10-134)

(1) Armature coil wound on coil (2) Armature coil wound on core & connected to commutator (3) Armature coil wound on core & connected to slip rings

(4) Armature core wound on copper coils & connected to Slip rings

Q. 22. Lap & Wave windings are used respectively for :- (AMTH-P10-135)

(1) High current, Low Voltage (2) Low current, Low Voltage (3) High current, High Voltage (4) None is correct
Q. 23. Purpose & use of using metal graphite brush is to :- (BLT-P 950 ) (AMTH-P10-142)

(1) Lubricate and support brush holder (2) Lubricate the commutator and conduct current better (3) To reduce the wear & tear of both commutator & brushes

(4) Both 2 & 3

Q. 24. Shifting of Brushes is unsatisfactory and inconvenient in Generator due to :- (AMTH-P10-136)

(1) Change in Load (2) Change in speed (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Commutation

Q. 25. The thickness of Brushes in generator is:- (BLT-P946)

(1) Equal to thickness of one commutator plus one mica insulation (2) Equal to thickness of one commutator plus both side mica insulation (3) Equal to thickness
of two commutator plus one mica insulation (4) NOA

Q. 26. In a Star connected winding in Generator there is one path for Line and phase current therefore:- (AMTH-P10-162)

(1) Line current = phase current (2) Line current = 1.73x phase current (3) Line current = 1.41x phase current (4) Line voltage = phase voltage

Q. 27. In a Delta network connection the line current:- (AMTH-P10-162)

(1) Vector sum of Phase currents (2) Vector sum of Line currents (3) Algebraic sum of phase currents (4) Zero

Q. 28. Delta connection winding is used where :- (AMTH-P10-162)

(1) High line current is required (2) High phase current is required (3 High line & phase voltage is required (4) High power output is desired

Q. 29. All the stator winding when connected in series in a single phase AC generator we get:- (AMTH-P10-162)

(1) High voltage output (2) High current output (3) Low voltage output (4) AOA

Q. 30. All the stator winding when connected in a Three phase AC generator is: - (AMTH-P10-162)

(1) 90 degree out of phase (2) 120 degree out of phase with each phase (3) Independent of each other (4) Both 2 & 3

Q. 31. Dynamically induced EMF is: - (BLT-P302)

(1) Field is stationary and conductors moving (2) Field is rotating and conductors stationary (3) Field is stationary and conductors also stationary (4) All of the
above

Q. 32. Dynamically induced EMF is equal to (B-Flux density) (L-Length of conductor) (A-Area of Conductor) (V- velocity of movement):-

(1) BxLxV (2) BxLxAxV (3) BxAx/L (4) AxLxV/B

Q. 33. What Energy stored in a in coil (Inductor):-

(1) Half the inductance (L) & Voltage (2) Half the inductance (L) & Square of current (3) Inductance x Induced emf (4) Flux x Velocity

Q. 34. Armature reaction has following effect that armature field: - (BLT-P302)

(1) Cross magnetize the main field (2) Demagnetize the main field (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) No effect on main flux

Q. 35. The process by which current is ------- in the short circuited coil while it crosses-------is called-------- respectively (1) Reversed-GNA-Commutation (2
Reversed-MNA-Commutation (3) Forwarded-MNA-Armature reaction (4) Crossing-GNA-Sparking

Q. 36. Armature reaction is reduced or minimized by use of:-

(1) Inter poles (2) Compensating windings (3) Carbon brush & shifting their position (4) Both 1& 2

Q. 37. Find Inductive Reactance XL of coil having 6 mH inductance at 41.67 KHz:-

(1) 1570 ohms (2) 570 ohms (3) 157 ohms (4) 1570 K-ohms

Q. 38. What is the value of Inductance in Henry, for coil having Inductive reactance 6280 Ohms & frequency of 1Kz:-

(1) 0.1 (2) 10 (3) 0.01 (4) 1

Q. 39. What is the value of Frequency in Hz, when 2.2 microfarad capacitor is & Capacitive reactance is 200 Ohms:-

(1) 361.7 (2) 3617 (3) 36.17 (4) 3.617

Q. 40. Find frequency in Hz while 10 microfarad capacitor having reactance of 100 ohms:-

(1) 159 (2) 1590 (3) 15.9 (4) 1.59

Q. 41. Synthetic material having property of ferromagnetic substance are called:-

(1) Ferrite (2) Soft iron (3) Iron Cobalt aluminium alloy (4) Iron

Attempt all questions. Each question carries equal marks [1x5=5]

Q. 1. Write short notes on all Factors affecting Inductance of coil.

Q. 2. Losses in a Inductors, Explain the type & reduction method.

Q. 3. Explain how Power loss occurs in a Inductor, write main points .

Q. 4. Explain Grasp rule (left hand) for the Inductor coil & electromagnet coil with core.

Q. 5. Write the factors affecting the output of a Inductor & its formulae.

91. The capacity of a battery (Ni-Cd)

1. Is measured in Kilovolt amperes

2. Is measured in ampere hours

3. Is based on minimum current which it delivers for a known period

4. Both (1) and (3) are correct

Ans: 2

92. The frequency of voltage generated by an alternator having 4 poles and rotating at 1800 rpm is:

1. 60 hertz

2. 7200 hertz

3. 120 hertz

4. 450 hertz

Ans: 1

93. An auto transformer is essentially a transformer

1. Where primary and secondary are not electrically isolated

2. Which is Current Transformer

3. Has Single winding

4. Both (1) and (3) are correct

Ans: 4

94. The period during which current and voltage changes take place in a circuit is called:

1. Varying
2. Permanent

3. Transient

4. Steady

Ans: 3

95. Mark the correct statement for shaded pole Induction Motor

1. Rotor rotates from shaded part to unshaded part

2. Rotor rotates from unshaded part to shaded part

3. As in (1) and has low starting torque

4. As in (2) and has high starting torque

Ans: 2

96. Advantage of photo diode over photo transistor is

1. Greater sensitivity

2. Faster switching

3. High current capacity

4. All the above are correct

Ans: 2

97. In an AC circuit, the effective voltage is:

1. Equal to the maximum instantaneous voltage

2. Greater than the maximum instantaneous voltage

3. Less than the maximum instantaneous voltage

Ans: 3

98. Gross mechanical power developed by the motor is maximum when

1. Back EMF is maximum

2. Back EMF is half of the applied voltage

3. Back EMF is equal to applied voltage

4. None of the above is correct

Ans: 2

99. Maximum torque developed by an induction motor:

1. Is Independent of rotor resistance

2. Varies inversely with square of applied voltage

3. Varies directly with stand still reactance

4. All the above are correct

Ans: 1

100. What is the operating resistance of a 30 watt light bulb designed for a 28 volt system?

1. 1.07 ohms

2. 26 ohms

3. 0.93 ohms

4. 62 ohms

Ans: 2

Q. 1. Action of commutator makes a generator a:- (AMTH-P10-131)

(1) DC Generator. (2) AC Generator (3) Alternator (4) Both 1 & 3

Q. 2. MTCS respectively, If the current is taken from loop by ---- it is called Alternator and if current is collected from loop by------- it is called DC Generator:-

(1) Slip rings, Commutator. (2) Commutator, Slip ring (3) Slip ring, Brush (4) Commutator, Brush (AMTH-P10-56)

Q. 3. MTCS in DC generator, Brushes are place at such a position when the :- (BLT-P890)

(1) Plane of rotating coil is at right angle to the plane of Lines of flux. (2) Plane of rotating coil is at parallel to the plane of Lines of flux (3) Plane of rotating coil
is at 120 degree to the plane of Lines of flux (4) Plane of rotating coil is at 0 degree to the plane of Lines of flux

Q. 4. MTCS in DC generator, rectification action of ------- the current becomes unidirectional in the external circuit :- (BLT-P890)
(1) Split Rings (2) Slip Rings (3) Commutators (4) Both 1 & 3 (BLT-P890)

Q. 5. Types of self excited DC generators are :- (BLT-P911)

(1) Series wound (2) Shunt wound (3) All 1, 2 & 4 (4) Compound wound

Q. 6. The compound generator has :- (BLT-P912)

(1) Stronger shunt field (2) Stronger series field (3) Equal field strength of shunt & series winding (4) All possible

Q. 7. In compound generator when series field aids the shunt field the generator is------- and if opposes the shunt field the generator is said to be--------. (BLT-P912)

(1) Differentially compounded, commutatively compounded (2) Under compounded, commutatively compounded (3) commutatively compounded
differentially compounded. (4) Differentially compounded, over compounded

Q. 8. When series field turns adjusted in such a way in compound wound generators, the rated voltage is greater than the No load Voltage the generators is said to be
(BLT-P912 & AMTH-P10-140)

(1) Over compounded. (2) Under compounded (3) Flat compounded (4) Differential Generator

Q. 9. Field coils of DC Generators are made of: - (Grobs-10thEd-P579) & (AMTH-P10-)

(1) Soft Iron (2) silicon steel (3) Copper. (4) Carbon

Q. 10. In DC generator the Pole shoes are fastened to the Pole core by:- (BLT-P)

(1) Riveted (2) counter sunk screw. (3) Nut & Bolts (4) Welding

Q. 11. Advantage of Brushless alternators are:- (Eismin-P220)

(1) Low maintenance cost Better performance at higher altitude since the sparking is absent as no brush or slip rings used (2) Cheap and small size alternators
(3) High stability and consistency in output since brush contact resistance is eliminated (4) Both 1 & 3.

Q. 12. A 4 Pole generator rotates at 1500 rpm what will be induced EMF frequency in Hz:- (BLT-P)

(1) 50. (2) 60 (3) 6 (4) 5

Q. 13. The Generators are rated by: - (AMTH-P)

(1) Capacity KW (2) Power in Kilo Volt Ampere (3) Amperes at Rated voltage. (1) (4) Impedance at Rated voltage

Q. 14. Pole pieces or shoes in Generators are a part of: - (BLT-P)

(1) Brush commutator assembly (2) Field coils assembly. (3) Armature assembly (4) Brush holders assembly
Q. 15. Which of the DC generator is not used in Aircraft application:-

(1) AC Generator (2) Compound wound (3) Brushless alternator (4) Series wound.

Q. 16. Armature reaction is proportional to: - (BLT-P)

(1) Strength of Field (2) No load voltage (3) Load current. (4) Speed of armature

Q. 17. Mark the statement which is not true for Inter poles uses to: - (BLT-P)

(1) Reduce field strength. (2) Counter act the field distortion (3) Overcome Armature reaction (4) Reduce arching at brushes

Q. 18. “Flashing the field” is done in a DC Generator to: - (Eismin-P206)

(1) Increase generator capacity (2) Remove excessive deposits from commutator and field winding (3) Restore correct polarity and residual magnetism to field
poles. (4) Demagnetize the field and armature flux

Q. 19. The Generator fails to show any No load voltage output even with correct rotation rpm and direction ,the probable cause for is: - (Eismin-P206)

(1) Loss of magnetic field strength (2) Reversed polarity of the residual magnetic field (3) Both 1 & 2. (4) Load not connected

Q. 20. Generator rating and performance data is punched/stamped on :- (AMTH-P10-140)

(1) Power bay where generator is located (2) On the generator body cover frame. (3) Aircraft manual (4) Engine bay panel where from the generator is
accessible

Q. 21. Differential compound generators are having same characteristics as that of :- (AMTH-P10-140)

(1) series wound (2) shunt wound (3) Constant current generator (4) Both 1 & 3 and used in arc welding process.

Q. 22. The influence of series field coils determines the generator: - (AMTH-P10-140)

(1) degree of compounding (2) Change in terminal voltage with increasing or decreasing load (3) Both 1 & 2. (4) Speed of armature

Q. 23. When compensating winding used along with inter poles we have to :- (AMTH-P10-137)

(1) Shift the brushes the new MNA to spark less commutation (2) Brush shifting is not required (3) Brush remains on GNA (4) Both 2 & 3.

Q. 24. Compensating winding is connected :- (AMTH-P10-137)

(1) in Parallel to armature winding (2) In series with armature winding (3) Both 4 & 2. (4) Embedded in field pole slots

Q. 25. In generator the inter poles winding are connected in:- (BLT-P950)

(1) Series with the armature winding (2) Parallel with the armature winding (3) Less Copper conductor turns with thick wire gauge (4) Both 1 & 3.
Q. 26. In generators, Inter poles are: - (BLT-P950)

(1) Small poles fixed on yoke between main field poles (2) with similar Polarity of the main poles ahead in the direction of rotation (3) with opposite polarity of
the main poles ahead in the direction of rotation (4) Both1 & 2.

Q. 27. In generators the purpose of com-poles is to: - (BLT-P950)

(1) Create reverse EMF and to neutralize reactance EMF (2) reduce sparking at commutator (3) neutralize cross magnetizing effect of armature reaction
(4) AOA.

Q. 28. Armature reaction in Generator is due to the :- (Eismin-P194) & (BLT_P938)

(1) Armature current. (2) Field current (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) current in Copper field winding

Q. 29. Magnetic neutral axis is the axis along which: - (BLT_P938)

(1) No induced EMF in armature conductor. (2) Max induced EMF in armature conductor (3) Medium EMF induced (4) AOA

Q. 30. In series generators Terminal voltage : - (AMTH-P10-138)

(1) Falls with increase in load (2) Increases with increase in load. (3) Remains constant (4) Increases with decrease in load

Q. 31. In parallel generators the Terminal voltage : - (AMTH-P10-139) & (BLT-P302)

(1) Falls with increase in load. (2) Increases with increase in load (3) remains constant (4) Increases with decrease in load resistances

Q. 32. Terminal voltage of self excited DC Generators is equal to: - (AMTH-P10-139)

(1) Induced voltage plus the voltage drop (2) Induced voltage minus the voltage drop in armature (3) Induced voltage minus the voltage drop plus resistance of
coils (4) NOA

Q. 33. The output of Series generator can be controlled by using:- (AMTH-P10-139) (BLT-P982)

(1) Resistance in series with armature winding (2) Resistance in series with field winding (3) Resistance in parallel with interpole winding (4) Resistance in
parallel with field winding.

Q. 34. The output of Parallel generator can be controlled by using: - (BLT-P982) (AMTH-P10-139)

(1) Resistance in series with armature winding (2) Resistance in series with field winding. (3) Resistance in parallel with interpole winding (4) Resistance in
parallel with field winding

Q. 35. In DC parallel wound Generator, field winding has: -- (BLT-P911) (AMTH-P10-139)

(1) Less no of turns with thin wire (2 Less no of turns with thick gauge of copper wire (3) More no of turns with thin dia. copper wire. (4) More no of turns of
wire with heavy wire gauge
Q. 36. In DC series wound Generator, field winding has: -- (BLT-P911) (AMTH-P10-138)

(1) Less no of turns with thin wire (2 less no of turns with thick gauge of copper wire. (3) More no of turns with thin dia. copper wire (4) more no of turns of
wire with heavy wire gauge

Q. 37. MTCS for the compound wound generators :- (BLT-P985) (AMTH-P10-139)

(1) Uses series winding with less no of turns with thick wire and shunt coils of more turns with small wire conductor. (2) Uses series winding with more no of turns
with thick wire and shunt coils of more turns with small wire conductor (3) Uses series winding with more no of turns with thin wire and shunt coils of more turns
with small wire conductor (4) Uses series winding with less no of turns with thick wire and shunt coils of less turns with thick wire conductor

Q. 38. MTCS for the compound wound generators uses: - (BLT-P985) (AMTH-P10-139)

(1)The series coils are mounted on com poles (2) the series and parallel coils are mounted on same poles. (3) The series coils are mounted on compoles &
parallel winding on field poles (4) the parallel coils are mounted on com poles & series winding on field poles

Q. 39.MTCS for Flat compounded generators :- (BLT-P985)

(1) When the output is equal to rated load as that of no load. (2) When the rated load voltage is greater than the no load voltage (3) When the output is equal
to rated load as that of no load (4) When the rated load voltage is less than the no load voltage

Q. 41. MTCS for Under compounded generators:- (BLT-P985)

(1) When the output is equal to rated load as that of no load (2) When the rated load voltage is greater than the no load voltage (3) When the output is
equal to rated load as that of full load (4) When the rated load voltage is less than the no load voltage.

Q. 42. MTCS for Over compounded generators:- (BLT-P985)

(1) Used where length of feeder is small (2) Used where length of feeder is long (3) When the output voltage is to be maintained constatnt (4) 1,2 & 3
and Used as Generator and booster as well.

Q. 43. MTCS during Armature reaction in generators:- (BLT-P939)

(1) Demagnetising of main flux causes reduction in output of generators. (2) Demagnetising main flux causes sparking on commutators of generators (3)
Demagnetising Increases in voltage output (4) 1 & 2

Q. 44. MTCS during Armature reaction in generators:- (BLT-P939)

(1) Demagnetising causes increase in output of generators (2) Cross magnetising of main flux causes sparking on commutators of generators. (3) Increase
in voltage output (4) 1 & 2

Q. 45. Frequency (in Hz) out put of generators depends upon:- (AMTH-P10-49)

(1) No of Poles divided by 60 (2) No of pair of Poles multiplied by RPM (3) No of pair of Poles multiplied by Revolution per second. (4) No of Poles
multiplied by RPM divided by 30

Q. 46. MTCS Salient Pole generators/alternators:- (BLT-P1405)

(1) Known as Projected pole generator and used on Low to medium speed operation. (2) Used for high output with very high rotor speed (3) Have only 2
poles rotors (4) both 3 & 2

Q. 46. Magnetic neutral plane in generators:- (Eismin-Ch10-P194)

(1) Is the position where the armature winding are moving parallel to magnetic flux lines. (2) Is the position where the armature winding are moving right anglel
to magnetic flux lines (3) Parallel to Polar axis (4) both 1 & 2 may be correct

Q. 47. Compensating windings are used in Generator :- (Eismin-Ch10-P195)

(1) as independent to reduce power loss in small generators (2) Used along with interpoles to nullify armature reaction (3) Are embedded in the field
poles (4) Both 2 & 3.

Q. 48. Compensating winding & interpoles are used in Generator :- (Eismin-Ch10-P195)

(1) to reduce sparking at commutators & reduce voltage drop loss (2) Reduce radio interference (3) To improve efficiency of generator output (4) AOA.

Q. 49. When AC quantity reaches its maximum or zero value earlier than other,the AC is said to be :- (BLT-P460)

(1) Lagging (2) Leading. (3) In Phase (4) Either 1 or 2

Q. 50. When AC quantity reaches its maximum or zero value later than other,the AC is said to be :- (BLT-P460)

(1) Lagging. (2) Leading (3) In Phase (4) Either 1 or 2

Q. 51. One complete set of positive and negative values of alternating current,is known as :- (BLT-P457)

(1) Phase (2) Frequency (3) Time period (4) Cycle.

Q. 52. The Time taken by alternating quantity to complete one cycle,is called :- (BLT-P458)

(1) Phase (2) Frequency (3) Time period. (4) Cycle

Q. 52. The no of cycles per second in alternating quantity,is called :- (BLT-P458)

(1) Phase (2) Frequency. (3) Time period (4) Cycle

Q. 53. The maximum value of poistive and negative of an alternating quantity ,is known as :- (BLT-P458)

(1) Amplitude. (2) Frequency (3) RMS Value (4) DC

Q. 54. The phase of alternating quantity ,is the fraction of time period of that alternating current which has elapsed since the current last passed thru the zero
position of reference is known as :- (BLT-P459)

(1) Amplitude (2) Frequency (3) Phase. (4) AC

Q. 55. The RMS value of AC ,is also known as :- (BLT-P458)

(1) Effective value (2) Actual value (3) True Value (4) option 1 and Virtual value.

Q. 56. DC current will equal to ---------,is the RMS value of AC :- (BLT-P461)

(1) Imax divided by root 2. (2) Imax multiplied by root 2 (3) Imax divided by 0.707 (4) option 1 and Virtual value

Q. 57. RMS value of AC is that---------------------which when flows thru the identical circuit produces same heat as produced by-----------for the same circuit :- (BLT-
P461)

(1) Steady Direct current ,DC current (2) Steady Direct current ,Alternating current. (3) pulsating Direct current ,Pulsating AC current (4) Steady Direct current
,DC current

Q. 58. Average value of AC is expressed by that steady current which when flows thru the identical circuit, ------------- as -------------for the same time :- (BLT-P461)

(1) Transfer Same charge , transferred by AC current. (2) produces Same heat , produced by AC current (3) Transfer Same heat , transferred by DC current (4)
Transfer Same charge ,transferred by DC current

Q. 59. Average value of AC is ------------- :- (Grobs-Ch10-P452)

(1) 0.707 x Peak value (2) 0.707 x RMS value (3) 0.637 x Peak value. (4) 0.637 x Effective value

Q. 60. RMS value of AC is ------------- :- (Grobs-Ch10-P452)

(1) 0.707 x Peak value. (2) 0.707 x RMS value (3) 0.637 x Peak value (4) 0.637 x Effective value

Q. 61. Peak value of AC is --------------- :- (Grobs-Ch10-P452)

(1) 0.707 x Peak value (2) also known as Max. value (3) 1.414 x RMS value. (4) Both 2 & 3

Q. 62. The Time period is denoted by ----------- and is ------------- :- (Grobs-Ch10-P456)

(1) T, Reciprocal of Time (2) T, Reciprocal of Frequency. (3) F, Reciprocal of Time (4) Minutes and multiplied by frequency

Q. 63. The wavelength of sine wave is :- (Grobs-Ch10-P457)

(1) Length of time (2) Distance traveled by the wave in one cycle. (3) Both 1 , 2 and distance between peak to peak (4) the Crest to crest distance

Q. 64. The wavelength is denoted by :- (Grobs-Ch10-P457)

(1) Lambda (2) Phi (3) Theeta (4) Roh

Q. 66. Below formula is applicable to :- (Grobs-Ch10-P530)

(1) Xc=1/6.28xFxC and sine wave only. (2) Xc=1/6.28xFxC and square wave only (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Xc=1/3.14xFxC and sine wave only
Q. 67. The formula Xl= 2x3.14xFxL is applicable to ------ :- (Grobs-Ch10-P530)

(1) Sine wave only. (2) DC only (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Square wave only

Q. 68. The value of Xc in a circuit will determine ------ :- (Grobs-Ch10-P530)

(1) How much current Capacitor will allow for given value of applied voltage. (2) Capacity of Capacitor to store charge (3) How much voltage can be applied for
given value of current (4) NOA

Q. 69. The capacitive reactance in series will be :- (Grobs-Ch10-P530)

(1) Calculated as resistances in series. (2) Both 1 & 3 (3) Calculated as resistances in parallel (4) Calculated as Capacitances in series

Q. 70. The Inductive reactance in parallel will be :- (Grobs-Ch10-P530)

(1) Calculated as resistances in series (2) Both 1 & 3 (3) Calculated as resistances in parallel. (4) Calculated as Capacitances in parallel

Q. 71. The main purpose of Capacitive reactance is :- (Grobs-Ch10-P535)

(1) Block DC and provide low reactance for AC. (2) Both 1 & 3 (3) Block DC and provide High reactance for AC (4) Block AC and provide low reactance for DC

Q. 72. In the series CR circuit the Capacitive Current is :- (Grobs-Ch10-P550)

(1) more in resistance and less in capacitor (2) Less in resistance and more in capacitor (3) Same in resistance and capacitor as well. (4) Either 1 or 2

Q. 73. In the series CR circuit the frequency of wave is :- (Grobs-Ch10-P551)

(1) different for voltage and current in capacitor (2) different in resistance and capacitor (3) Same for voltage and current in capacitor. (4) either 1 or 2

Q. 74. When the values of alternating currents are out of phase :- (Grobs-Ch10-P553)

(1) They are added by algebraically (2) added by Pythagorean theorem. (3) Subtracted arithmetically (4) either 2 or 3

Q. 75. The resultant of the phaser addition of Xc and R in a RC series circuit is achieved by :- (Grobs-Ch10-P551)

(1) voltage triangle (2) impedance triangle. (3) Power triangle (4) either of 1 or 2 or 3

Q. 76. When the capacitors are connected in series they serve as :- (Grobs-Ch10-P552)

(1) Voltage divider . (2) Current divider (3) Power divider (4) both 1 or 2

Q. 77. The resultant of the phaser addition of Vc and Vr in a RC series circuit is achieved by :- (Grobs-Ch10-P553)

(1) Current triangle (2) Pythagorean theorem (3) Right angle triangle (4) Both 2 and 3.
Q. 78. MTCS, the Vc and Vr of a RC series circuit are :- (Grobs-Ch10-P553)

(1) In-phase (2) Out of phase by 90 degree. (3) Out of phase by 180 degree (4) In phase by 90 degree

Q. 79. MTCS, while calculating the applied voltage in RMS Value, the Vc and Vr of a RC series circuit, should also be :- (Grobs-Ch10-P553)

(1) Instantaneous value only (2) Peak value only (3) RMS value only. (4) either 1 or 2

Q. 80. The resultant of the phaser addition of Xc and R in a series RC circuit is their opposition in--------- called----------- respectively: - (Grobs-Ch10-P554)

(1) Ampere, Total current (2) Ohms, Impedance. (3) Resistance, Net Voltage drop (4) NOA

Q. 81. In a series RC circuit, more capacitive is the circuit: - (Grobs-Ch10-P555)

(1) More power loss across C and less voltage drop across C (2) More current across Resistance (3) More voltage drop across Capacitor. (4) Both1 & 2

Q. 82. MTCS, the Series LCR circuits has: - (Grobs-Ch10-P557)

(1) Common current and different voltage drop. (2) Common voltage and different current (3) Different voltage and different branch current (4) Both 3 & 2

Q. 83. MTCS, the Parallael LCR circuits has: - (Grobs-Ch10-P557)

(1) Common current and different voltage drop (2) Common voltage and different branch current. (3) Different voltage and different branch current
(4) Both 1 & 2

Q. 84. MTCS, in the parallel LCR circuits, the applied voltage is: - (Grobs-Ch10-P557)

(1) In phase with branch voltage. (2) 90 degree out of phase with branch voltage (3) Both 2 & 4 (4) 180 degree out of phase with branch voltage

Q. 85. MTCS,in the parallel LCR circuits ,if the branch currents are out of phase they have to be added : - (Grobs-Ch10-P558)

(1) with phase angle in account (2) algebraically with phaser voltage triangle (3) 1 and by phaser current triangle Pythagorean. (4) Both 1 & 2

Q. 86. MTCS, the parallel CR circuits the total current can be calculated : - (Grobs-Ch10-P559)

(1) by taking the square root of the sum of square of currents. (2) By taking the square root of the sum of current (3) by taking the algebric difference of square
of currents (4) by taking the square root of the product of square of currents

Q. 87. MTCS ,in the parallel CR ,LR or LC circuit if the phase angle “theta” is 45 degree (Tan theta) then : - (Grobs-Ch10-P559)

(1) Capacitive current is equal to resistive current (2) Inductive current is equal to resistive current (3) capacitive current is equal to Inductive current (4) All
condition are correct.

Q. 88. MTCS, in the parallel CR circuit if Xc is very small then : - (Grobs-Ch10-P560)

(1) it provides more leading capacitive current in the main line. (2) it provides less lagging capacitive current in the main line (3) it provides more lagging
capacitive current (4) AOA
Q. 89. MTCS, in non sinusoidal waveform : - (Grobs-Ch10-P560)

(1) Concept of reactance has to be used (2) Concept of reactance cannot be used. (3) Concept of resistance is used (4) NOA

Q. 90. While measuring voltage across capacitors use : - (Grobs-Ch10-P560)

(1) Digital Multi meter (DMM) with high internal R. (2) Analogue DC Volt meter (3) both 2 & 4 (4) Digital Multi meter (DMM) with Low internal R

Q. 91. Series connected capacitors serve as : - (Grobs-Ch10-P562)

(1) current divider (2) DC Voltage divider (3) both 2 & 4. (4) AC Voltage divider

Q. 92. Sine wave of voltage variation of capacitor voltage produces -------- wave of capacitor current : - (Grobs-Ch10-P562)

(1) Pulsating Sine wave (2) Cosine wave. (3) Square wave (4) Saw tooth wave

Q. 93. In a capacitive circuit Reactance Xc applies to : - (Grobs-Ed10-P564)

(1) Sine waveform only. (2) Asymmetrical waveform (3) Non sinusoidal waveform (4) AOA

Q. 94. In a pure series inductive circuit, inductive Reactance Xl equal to : - (Grobs-Ed10-P630)

(1) Sum of individual reactance. (2) half the sum of two reactance (3) one third of total resistance (4) NOA

Q. 95. The general use of inductor is to provide ----------------reactance for---------------- frequencies respectively: - (Grobs-Ch10-P630)

(1) Low, High (2) High, Low (3) Low, Low. (4) Minimum, Maximum

Q. 96. During high input frequencies the inductor will ---------------the current in the circuit: - (Grobs-Ed10-P631)

(1) Vary (2) Increase (3) Reduce. (4) Short circuit

Q. 97. In the Inductor the sine wave input of current produces: - (Grobs-Ed10-P633)

(1) Cosine wave of voltage. (2) Cosine wave of current (3) Sine wave of voltage (4) NOA

Q. 98. When the elements Inductor and resistance are in series the current is: - (Grobs-Ed10-P633)

(1) Different in each element (2) Same in each element. (3) More in Inductor and less in resistance (4) NOA

Q. 99. When the elements Inductor and resistance are in series the Inductive voltage drop (Vl) and Resistive voltage drop (IR) are : - (Grobs-Ed10-P649)

(1) In phase (2) Out of phase by 90 degree (3) two phaser have to be added by using Pythagorean theorem (4) Both 2 & 3.
Q. 100. When the elements Inductor and resistance are in series the current (I) thru the R and Resistive voltage drop (IR) are : - (Grobs-Ed10-P648)

(1) In phase (2) Out of phase by 90 degree (3) I and IR have phase angle of 0 degree (4) Both 1 & 3.

Q. 101. When the elements Inductor and resistance are in parallel the branch current are : - (Grobs-Ed10-P652)

(1) In phase with applied voltage in resistive branch and 90 degree out of phase in inductive branch (2) Out of phase by 90 degree with applied voltage in
resistive branch and 90 degree out of phase in inductive branch (3) In phase with applied voltage in resistive branch and inductive branch (4) AOA

Q. 102. When the elements Inductor and resistance are in parallel the applied voltages are : - (Grobs-Ed10-P652)

(1) In phase in resistive branch and 90 degree out of phase in inductive branch voltage (2) Out of phase by 90 degree with in resistive branch and 90 degree out
of phase in inductive branch voltage (3) In phase with applied voltage in resistive branch and inductive branch voltage as well. (4) AOA

Q. 103. When the elements Inductor and resistance are in parallel the inductive reactance(Xl) and Resistance (R) are equal : - (Grobs-Ed10-P655)

(1) Their branch current are equal (2) Branch current have -90 degree phase angle (3) Branch current have -45 degree phase angle (4) Both 1 & 3.

Q. 104. When the elements Inductor and resistance are in parallel, the Il and Ir have : - (Grobs-Ed10-P655)

(1) Equal current (2) different current with 90 degree out of phase. (3) Same branch current with -90 degree phase angle (4) different current with -45
degree phase angle

Q. 105. When the elements Inductor and resistance are in parallel : - (Grobs-Ed10-P655)

(1) The total line current is 180 degree out of phase with voltage (2) The total line current has -theta degree (Negative phase angle) with voltage depending
upon the value of reactance or resistance. (3) The total line current is 180 degree out of phase with voltage depending upon current (4) the total line current is
180 degree out of phase with induced voltage

Q. 106. When the elements Inductor and capacitor are in parallel : - (Grobs-Ed10-P715)

(1) The inductive current lags the parallel voltage by 90 degree (2) The Capacitive current leads the parallel voltage by 90 degree (3) Both 1 & 2. (4)
The inductive and capacitive current is in phase with the parallel voltage by

Q. 107. When the elements Inductor and capacitor are in parallel and Xc is greater than Xl : - (Grobs-Ed10-P715)

(1) The resultant current lags the parallel voltage by 90 degree. (2) The resultant current leads the parallel voltage by 90 degree (3) The resultant current is in
phase the parallel voltage (4) The resultant current lags the parallel voltage by 180 degree

Q. 108. When the elements Inductor and capacitor are in parallel and Xl is greater than Xc : - (Grobs-Ed10-P715)

(1) The resultant current lags the parallel voltage by 90 degree (2) The resultant current leads the parallel voltage by 90 degree. (3) The resultant current is in
phase the parallel voltage (4) the resultant current leads the parallel voltage by 180 degree

Q. 109. Power factor is : - (Grobs-Ed10-P722)

(1) The ratio Resistance to the Impedance (2) Cosine of angle of lead or lag (3) The ration of power to apparent power (4) AOA.
Q. 110. MTCS for Active component : - (BLT-P510)

(1) Are in phase with applied voltage. (2) Out of phase with applied voltage (3) either 1 or 2 (4) have Low voltage drop

Q. 111. MTCS for reactive component : - (BLT-P510)

(1) Circuit current is in phase with applied voltage (2) Circuit current is out of phase with applied voltage (3) Both 2 & 4. (4) Known as wattles component

Q. 112. Apparent power is : - (BLT-P511)

(1) The product of RMS value of circuit current and applied voltage. (2) The product of RMS value of circuit current, applied voltage and power factor (3) the
product of average value of circuit current and voltage (4) Known as useless power

Q. 113. Reactive power is : - (BLT-P511)

(1) The product of RMS value of circuit current and applied voltage (2) The product of RMS value of circuit current , applied voltage and sine (Phi) (3) Both 2
& 4. (4) Known as volt-ampere-reactive (VAR)

Q. 114. When Resonance occurs in series LCR circuit then : - (BLT-P540)

(1) Circuit possess minimum impedance (2) Circuit posses maximum impedance (3) Circuit posses minimum resistance (4) maximum applied voltage

Q. 115. When Resonance occurs in series LCR circuit, this circuit is also called : - (BLT-P540)

(1) Voltage resonance (2) Current resonance (3) Acceptor circuit (4) Both 1 & 3.

Q. 116. When Resonance occurs, the frequency at which it occurs is known as : - (BLT-P540)

(1) Resonant Voltage (2) Resonant frequency (3) Net reactance (4) Both 1 & 3.

Q. 117. When Resonance occurs in series LCR circuit the : - (BLT-P541)

(1) Net reactance is zero (2) Circuit impedance is minimum (3) Circuit current is maximum (4) AOA.

Q. 118. When Resonance occurs in series LCR circuit, the power dissipated is : - (BLT-P541)

(1) Maximum. (2) Normal (3) Minimum (4) same in all condition

Q. 119. In a series Resonance LCR circuit, the frequency can be calculated by = to : - (BLT-P589)

(1) 1/6.28 x under root LC. (2) 1/6.28 x under root LCR (3) 1/6.28 x square root LR (4) 6.28 x under root LC

Q. 120. When Resonance occurs in series LCR circuit, the LCR circuit is reduced to : - (BLT-P541)

(1) Pure resistive circuit. (2) Inductive circuit (3) Tank circuit (4) Balanced LC circuit
Q. 121. In a parallel Resonance LCR circuit, the frequency can be calculated by = to : - (BLT-P589)

(1) 1/6.28 x under root LC. (2) 1/6.28 x under root LCR (3) 1/6.28 x square root LR (4) 6.28 x under root LC

Q. 122. MTCS In a parallel Resonance LCR circuit : - (BLT-P589)

(1) Current is maximum (2) Current is minimum (3) Rejecter circuit (4) both 2 & 3.

Q. 123. MTCS In a parallel Resonance LCR circuit, the current circulates : - (BLT-P589)

(1) Between reactance’s is maximum (2) also called current resonance (3) between reactance is maximum (4) both 1 & 2.

Q. 124. MTCS the parallel Resonance LCR circuit forms the basis of : - (BLT-P589)

(1) Tuned circuits in electronics. (2) Voltage divider (3) current filter circuit (4) both 2 & 3

Q. 126. MTCS In a parallel Resonance LCR circuit the : - (BLT-P589)

(1) The line Current minimum but is in phase with applied voltage. (2) The line Current is maximum but in phase with applied voltage (3) the line Current is
minimum but out of phase with applied voltage (4) the line Current is minimum but is 180 degree out of phase with applied voltage

Q. 127. MTCS In a parallel Resonance LCR circuit, the power factor is : - (BLT-P589)

(1) 0 .5 (2) 1 (3) 0.3 (4) either option 1 or 3 depending upon frequency

Q. 128. MTCS during the parallel Resonance LCR tuned circuit the : - (Grobs-Ed10-P793)

(1) Line Current is the minimum, but reactance current is the maximum. (2) The line Current is maximum and reactance current is also maximum (3) The line
Current is minimum, but reactance current is minimum as well (4) The line Current is minimum but is 180 degree out of phase with applied voltage

Q. 129. In parallel Resonance LCR when R, C & L are parallel to each other, the : - (Grobs-Ed10-P793)

(1) LC circuit is called the tank circuit (2) Ability of LC circuit to supply sine wave form output (3) option 2 and is called the flywheel effect (4) AOA.

Q. 130. In parallel LCR when R, C & L are parallel, then above the resonant frequency, the : - (Grobs-Ed10-P793)

(1) Net line current is capacitive. (2) net line current is inductive (3) net line current is equal (4) AOA
-----------------------------------TRANSFORMER--------------

Q. 1. Transformer is a : - (BLT-P1116)

(1) Static device which transforms power from electric circuit to another (2) Dynamic device which transforms power from one electric circuit to another
(3) Option 1 and without change in frequency. (4 Option 2 and without change in frequency

Q. 2. Transformer is a : - (BLT-P1116)

(1) Static device which can lower or raise the voltage of a circuit (2) With change in frequency (3) Option 1 and without change in frequency. (4
NOA

Q. 3. Transformer is a device : - (BLT-P1116)

(1) Which transforms power from electric circuit to another (2) accomplishes this by electromagnetic induction (3) uses principle of Mutual induction
(4 AOA.

Q. 4. Transformer uses : - (BLT-P1116)

(1) High silicon content steel to minimize hysteresis loss (2) High silicon content steel to minimize eddy current loss (3) Option 1 and heat treated to increase
the high permeability. (4 Option 1 & 2

Q. 5. Lamination used in Transformer is : - (BLT-P1116)

(1) Varnish coated or oxide layered for insulation (2) Air gapped or paper layered for insulation (3) Option1 & of High silicon content steel. (4) AOA

Q. 6. Generally used types of Transformer are (Constructional) : - (BLT-P1117)

(1) Core type (2) Shell type (3) With different type legs combination as required (4 AOA.

Q. 7. Instrument Transformer are : - (BLT-P1239)

(1) Potential transformer (2) Voltage transformer (3) Current transformer (4) AOA.

Q. 8. Classification of Transformer (Medium of Cooling) : - (BLT-P1121)

(1) Oil filled self cooled, Oil filled water cooled (2) Air blast type (3) ONAN (Oil natural Air natural) (4) AOA.

Q. 9. Classification of Transformer (operational Voltage use) : - (BLT-P11)

(1) Power, RF (Radio frequency) transformer (2) Audio Frequency (AF transformer),Auto transformer (3) Oil cooled Power transformer ,Current
Transformers (4) Both 1 & 2.
Q. 10. The primary and secondary windings are interleaved to : - (BLT-P11)

(1) Prevent leakage of flux. (2) Increase leakage flux (3) Reduce eddy current loss (4) AOA

Q. 11. The main purpose of use of oil in transformer is to : - (BLT-P11)

(1) Cool down the transformer winding (2) Increase insulation level to desired limit which is not achieved by air (3) Both 1 & 2. (4) Increase the capacity,
reduce the weight and last long

Q. 13. In a transformer the energy is conveyed from primary to secondary winding through : - (BLT-P11)

(1) Oil (2) Air (3) magnetic flux. (4) NOA

Q. 14. The transformers are generally rated in : - (BLT-P11)

(1) KVA (2) KW (3) KVAR (4) Amperes

Q. 15. The size of a transformers core will depend upon : - (BLT-P11)

(1) Area of core (2) Frequency (3) Flux density of core material (4) Both 1 & 2.

Q. 16. The path of magnetic flux in a transformer should have : - (BLT-P11)

(1) High resistance (2) Low resistance (3) Low reluctance. (4) High reluctance

Q. 17. The transformers secondary voltage output is proportional to the : - (BLT-P11)

(1) No of turns in the secondary winding. (2) Frequency & no of turns (3) Frequency of secondary (4) Inductive reactance of secondary

Q. 18. The resistance between primary and secondary winding of a transformer will be : - (BLT-P11)

(1) 100ohms (2) zero ohms (3) infinity. (4) 10,000ohms

Q. 19. Which of the winding of a transformer will be of least cross sectional area (thinner diameter) : - (BLT-P11)

(1) Primary winding (2) High Voltage winding. (3) Secondary winding (4) Low voltage winding

Q. 20. MTCS below : - (BLT-P11)

1. The ratio of primary voltage to secondary voltage is known as transformation ratio.

2. A transformer having part of winding common to both primary and secondary circuit is known as Auto transformer.

(1) Only 1 is true (2) Only 2 is true. (3) Both 1 & 2 are true (4) neither 1 nor 2 is true

Q. 21. Which of the statement for transformer are true: - (Grobs-Ed10-P589)

(1) Steady DC can be stepped up and down (2) AC can be stepped up and down (3) Steady DC cannot be stepped up and down (4) Both 2 & 3

Q. 22. In transformer, MTCS : - (Grobs-Ed10-P589)

(1) The current ratio is inversely of the voltage ratio. (2) The current ratio equal voltage ratio (3) the current ratio is directly proportional of the voltage
ratio (4) Both 2 & 3

Q. 23. In general the Auto transformer there are : - (Grobs-Ed10-P593)

(1) Three terminals. (2) Four terminal (3) Two terminal (4) no limit terminal

Q. 24. In ideal transformer efficiency is the : - (Grobs-Ed10-P594)

(1) Ratio of Output voltage to input voltage (2) Ratio of Output power to input power. (3) Ratio input to output power (4) AOA

Q. 25. Ideal transformer, the percentage efficiency is the : - (Grobs-Ed10-P594)

(1) Ration of Output voltage to input voltage x 100 (2) Ratio of Output power to input power x 100. (3) Ration input to output power x 100 (4) AOA

Q. 26. The transformer has power rating in : - (Grobs-Ed10-P597)

(1) Volt Ampere. (2) Watt (3) VAR (4) Hertz

Q. 27. MTCS In any type of transformer : - (Grobs-Ed10-P597)

(1) Never apply more than the rated voltage to the primary (2) Both 1 & 3. (3) Never draw more current from the secondary (4) NOA

Q. 28. MTCS in any Transformer the : - (Eismin-P108)

(1) Primary voltage is 180 degree out of phase with secondary induced voltage. (2) Primary voltage is 90 degree out of phase with secondary induced voltage
(3) Primary voltage is in phase with secondary induced voltage (4) NOA

Q. 29. MTCS in any Transformer the : - (Eismin-P108)

(1) Primary current is 90 degree out of phase with primary voltage. (2) Primary current is 180 degree out of phase with primary voltage (3) Primary voltage is in
phase with secondary induced voltage (4) NOA

Q. 30. MTCS in any power Transformer the most important feature is that : - (Eismin-P109)

(1) The primary coil can be left connected to voltage source even when the secondary is not connected. (2) Primary coil cannot be connected to voltage source
unless the secondary is connected (3) primary coil cannot be connected to voltage source when the secondary is connected to load (4) NOA

Q. 31. MTCS in any Transformer if the secondary is not connected to the load : - (Eismin-P109)
(1) Very little current flows in the primary coil to maintain the magnetic field. (2) Large current flows in the primary coil to maintain the magnetic field (3)
Large current flows in the secondary coil to maintain the magnetic field (4) NOA

Q. 33. In a ideal Transformer the efficiency is : - (Grobs-Ed10-P594)

(1) 100 % . (2) 80% (3) 90% (4) 95%

Q. 34. In a practical very large Power Transformer the efficiency ranges to : - (Grobs-Ed10-P594)

(1) 85 % (2) 99% (3) 90% (4) Both 2 & 3.

Q. 35. In a practical power Transformer the efficiency ranges to : - (Grobs-Ed10-P594)

(1) 80 % (2) 99% (3) 90% (4) Both 1 & 3.

Q. 36. In step down Auto Transformer : - (Grobs-Ed10-P592)

(1) The primary input voltage is connected across the entire winding. (2) The secondary input voltage is connected across the entire winding (3) the primary
input voltage is connected in only part of winding (4) Both 2 & 3

Q. 37. MTCS in any Transformer: - (Grobs-Ed10-P594)

(1) The voltage rating of Primary and secondary windings are specified (2) The voltage rating of Primary and secondary windings are not required or specified
(3) Both primary and secondary voltages are printed on the template of all standard transformers (4) Both 1 & 3.

Q. 39. In any Transformer : - (BLT-P1151)

(1) The copper loss is dependent on current (2) The Iron loss is dependent on current (3) The core loss is dependent on Voltage (4) Both 1 & 3.

Q. 41. A Transformer is said to be fully loaded when : - (Grobs-Ed10-P595)

(1) The rated current is drawn from secondary. (2) The secondary load resistance is very high (3) Both 1 & 4. (4) the secondary is subjected to
maximum current output

Q. 42. A Transformer is a device which : - (AMTH-P10-69)

(1) Transfer power by altering the power (2) Adds power to circuit (3) transfer power without change in total energy. (4) Does not change voltage

Q. 43. A Transformer is a device which : - (AMTH-P10-69)

(1) has more power in secondary than primary (2) Has less power in secondary than primary (3) Has same power in both secondary and primary. .
(4) Has variable power both in secondary and primary
Q. 44. Transmission of power over long distance is achieved by using : - (AMTH-P10-69)

(1) Step down transformer (2) Step Up transformer. (3) Current transformer . (4) Potential transformer

Q. 45. MTCS When current transformers are connected in the circuit then : - (AMTH-P10-69)

(1) Secondary should be left open (2) Secondary should be connected to load always (3) Secondary should be short circuited if not in operation
(4) Both 2 & 3.

Q. 46. MTCS if current transformers left in open circuit while in operation : - (AMTH-P10-69)

(1) Secondary will develop dangerously very high voltage. (2) Secondary will develop very low voltage and not useable (3) Secondary will get short circuited
(4) NOA

Q. 47. Distribution of power for domestic utility is achieved by using : - (AMTH-P10-69)

(1) Step down transformer. (2) Step Up transformer (3) Current transformer (4) Potential transformer

Q. 48. MTCS, while making termination connection of Current transformer : - (AMTH-P10-69)

(1) Secondary needs to be connected to input only (2) Primary & secondary can be connected to either input or output as desired (3) Primary & secondary
cannot be interchanged. (4) NOA

Q. 49. Transformer total losses depend upon: - (BLT-P1151)

(1) Volt- Ampere rating (2) KW -True power (3) And Not on the phase angle (phi) between voltage and ampere (4) Both1 & 3.

Q. 50. The spiral core transformer is newest core construction and has: - (BLT-P1120)

(1) Rigid core, low weight & Low core loss (2) Rigid core, High weight & Low current loss (3) Low cost (4) Both1 & 3.

Q. 51. The expansion chambers in Transformer are: - (BLT-P1120)

(1) Breathers (2) Used to permit the expansion and contraction of oil (3) To trap the atmospheric moisture here itself (4) AOA.

Q. 52. The bushing are used in Transformer : - (BLT-P1121)

(1) To insulate the leads from the tank material (2) provide tight sealing (3) 1, 2 & 4. (4) Made of porcelain

Q. 53. The Auto Transformer may have: - (Grobs-Ed10-P595)

(1) Multiple tap on primary winding (2) Multiple tap on secondary winding only (3) Multiple tap on primary & secondary winding simultaneously (4)
AOA.

Q. 54. The Transformer current ratings generally specified : - (Grobs-Ed10-P595)

(1) For Primary winding only (2) For secondary winding only. (3) for current transformer only (4) NOA
Q. 56. In Transformer the ratio of number of turns in Secondary to the number of turns in Primary is called the: - (Grobs-Ed10-P590)

(1) Current ratio (2) Constant turn ratio (3) Transformer turn ratio. (4) Voltage ratio

Q. 57. In Transformer MTCS: - (Grobs-Ed10-P597)

(1) Under no circumstances the primary voltage be exceeded the rated voltage (2) Under no circumstances the secondary current be exceeded the rated output
current (3) Both 1 & 2 are correct. (4) One is correct and the primary current can be exceeded

Q. 58. In voltage Transformer, MTCS: - (Grobs-Ed10-P594)

(1) Under no circumstance secondary is short circuited (2) Under no circumstances the secondary is open circuited (3) Both primary and secondary can be open
circuited. (4) One is correct and the primary is open circuited

Q. 59. In Transformer MTCS: - (AMTH-P 10-67)

A. If the load is connected the current will produce a magnetic field and the induced EMF will tend to neutralize the magnetic field produced by Primary current,
reducing the primary Induced voltage and which will increase the Primary current

B. The induced EMF will tend to neutralize the magnetic field produce by Secondary current and reducing the secondary Induced voltage and which will increase the
Secondary current

(1) Statement A is only correct. (2) Both A & B are correct (3) Statement B is only correct (4) none of statement is correct

Q. 60. In Transformer MTCS: - (AMTH-P 10-67)

A. The transformers adds power to circuit and that is why power transmission over long distance is achieved by these devices by stepping up the voltage to reduce
the line loss

B. Transformer power by stepping up voltage for long distance power transfer without adding power to circuit

(1) Statement A is only correct (2) Both A & B are correct (3) Statement B is only correct. (4) None of stat

ACTIVE PASSIVE FILTERS

Q. 1. In Capacitor and Inductor MTCS: - (AMTH-P 10-115)

(1) Capacitor opposes change in Voltage (2) Capacitor opposes change in Current (3) Inductor opposes change in Current (4) Both 1 & 3.

Q. 2. In a filter for DC output, MTCS: - (AMTH-P 10-115)

(1) Capacitor is placed in parallel and inductor is in series with the load (2) Capacitor is placed in series with load and inductor is in parallel to load (3) Both
Capacitor and inductor is in parallel to load (4) Both 1 & 3
Q. 3. In a Low Pass filter : - (AMTH-P 10-116)

(1) Capacitor is placed in parallel and inductor is in series with the load (2) Capacitor is placed in series with load and inductor is in parallel to load (3) Both
Capacitor and inductor is in parallel to load (4) Both 1 & 3

Q. 4. In a Low pass filter MTCS: - (AMTH-P 10-116)

(1) Passes high frequency to output load (2) Passes low frequency to output (3) Passes only Steady DC (4) 1 & 3

Q. 5. An inductive Low pass filter uses: - (AMTH-P 10-116)

(1) Inductor in series with load (2) resistance in series with load (3) capacitor in parallel (4) both 2 & 3

Q. 6. An inductive Low pass filter: - (AMTH-P 10-116)

(1) Blocks the unwanted frequency (2) Short out the unwanted frequency (3) allows all frequency to pass (4) both 2 & 3

Q. 7. An high pass filter: - (AMTH-P 10-116)

(1) Attenuates the frequency lower than cut off frequency (2) Passes the unwanted frequency (3) Passes the high frequency (4) both 1 & 3

Q. 8. MTCS for Low cut filter: - (AMTH-P 10-116)

(1) Known as high pass filter (2) Known as Low pass filter (3) Attenuates the low frequency (4) both 1 & 3

Q. 9. An Band pass filter: - (AMTH-P 10-117)

(1) Combination of High cut and low cut filter (2) Combination of High pass and high cut (3) Combination of low pass and low cut (4) AOA

Q. 10. For Band stop filter MTCS: - (AMTH-P 10-117)

(1) Known as Band reject (2) Notch filter (3) Both 1 & 3 (4) NOA

Q. 11. The Notch filter is a: - (AMTH-P 10-117)

(1) Known as Band reject (2) Have narrow stop band range (3) Have wide band limiter range (4) Both 1 & 2

Q. 12. The Notch filter: - (AMTH-P 10-117)

(1) passes all frequencies above set range (2) Passes all frequencies below set range (3) both 1 & 2 (4) Uses wide band for blocking
 DC--- ELECTRIC MOTORS

Q. 1. The DC Motors are rated as per : - (Eismin-P 175)

(1) Horse Power (2) Ampere Hour (3) Voltage (4) Current

Q. 2. In aircraft The DC series Motors are used : - (Eismin-P 175)

(1) Engine starter (2) Landing gears (3) Flaps control (4) AOA

Q. 3. The principle of operation of DC Motors is : - (Eismin-P 175)

(1) Magnetism (2) Electro Magnetic Induction (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) NOA

Q. 5. The DC Motors use Right Hand Rule which states: - (Eismin-P 175)

(1) Thumb for Direction, index finger for Current and middle finger for Field (2) Thumb for Direction, index finger for Field and middle finger for Current
(3) Thumb for Direction, index finger for Current and middle finger points North Pole (4) Thumb points North Pole, index finger for Current and middle finger for
Field

Q. 6. In DC Motors back EMF is produced in : - (Eismin-P 176)

(1) Armature (2) Stator field (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) No back emf in DC motors

Q. 7. In DC Motors the : - (Eismin-P 177)

(1) Armature resistance is very high (2) Armature resistance is low (3) Back EMF is Low during start (4) Both 2 & 3

Q. 8. Generally the DC Motors : - (Eismin-P 177)

(1) Must be started with resistance starter to limit the current (2) Can be started without the need of starter (3) Must not be started without mechanical load
(4) NOA

Q. 9. The DC series Motors has : - (Eismin-P 177)

(1) High starting torque (2) High starting speed (3) low starting current (4) AOA

Q. 10. The DC series Motors needs to be : - (Eismin-P 177)

(1) Started with No load (2) Started with High Load (3) Avoid Run away condition (4) Both 2 & 3

Q. 11. MTCS for the DC series Motors : - (Eismin-P 177)

(1) High starting current flows thru field and armature during the start (2) Low current flows thru field and armature during the start (3) 1 is correct and also
leads to high starting torque (4) 1 & 2 is correct and results in Low starting torque

Q. 12. MTCS for the DC shunt Motors: - (Eismin-P 177)

(1) Shunt field has high resistance (2) Counter EMF does not react with Field current (3) 1, 2 correct and Armature has low resistance (4) 1 & 2 only

Q. 13. MTCS for the DC shunt Motors: - (Eismin-P 177)

(1) Has Low starting torque (2) High speed with low starting torque (3) Has Low speed with low starting torque (4) 1 is correct having constant speed at
varying loads

Q. 14. DC shunt Motors is also called: - (Eismin-P 177)

(1) High starting torque motor (2) Constant speed motor (3) Power factor motor (4) Both 1 & 2

Q. 15. MTCS for the DC compound wound Motors: - (Eismin-P 178)

(1) High starting torque with No load starting ease (2) Can runaway at no load (3) 1 is correct and Armature speed is constant as well (4) Both speed and
Torque varies with change in load drastically

Q. 16. MTCS for the DC reversible Motors: - (Eismin-P 180)

(1) Field has large size of conductor (2) Uses double pole switch and has double field winding (3) 1, 2 correct and used on landing gear or wing flaps operation
(4) Both 1 & 2 and has low starting torque

Q. 17. Most of the DC reversible Motors: - (Eismin-P 181)

(1) Uses disc brakes (2) May use magnetic clutch to engage or disengage mechanism from motor operation (3) 1, 2 correct but may use limit switches to cut off
power to motor when limit is reached (4) NOA

Q. 18. The Starter Generator: - (Eismin-P 197)

(1) Uses two series and shunt field winding (2) Has only one armature winding (3) 1 & 2 both are correct (4) 1 is correct and Has two set of armature
winding

Q. 19. MTCS for the Starter Generator: - (Eismin-P 197)

(1) Uses two set of winding series and shunt field (2) Series winding is used for starting (3) 1 is correct but both series ,shunt winding used during starting of
engine (4) 1 & 2 are correct and series winding has low resistance

Q. 20. MTCS for the Starter Generator: - (Eismin-P 197)

(1) Uses two set of winding series and shunt field (2) Shunt winding is used for generator mode (3) 1 is correct but both series, shunt winding used in Generator
mode (4) 1 & 2 are correct and shunt winding has high resistance

Q. 21. MTCS for the Starter Generator advantage: - (Eismin-P 198)

(1) Reduces Weight of aircraft (2) Size is compact thus saving on space (3) It is reliable and have high starting torque (4) 1 & 2 are correct

Q. 22. The starter is used in DC motors : - ()

(1) To reduce the back EMF (2) Because it is not self starting (3) To limit the armature current during starting (4) Because it has high starting torque

Q. 23. The series wound motor normally requires: - ()

(1) More current at high RPM (2) Low current at low RPM (3) More current at low RPM than high RPM (4) Same current at all RPM

Q. 24. Some of DC motors uses two sets of field winding in reverse direction for: - (Eismin-P 197)

(1) Speed control in clockwise direction only (2) Operate motor in either direction (3) Torque controlling (4) Alternate use in case of failure of one winding

AC MOTORS

Q. 01. The induction Motor is: - (AMTH-P 10-153)

(1) Self starting with Zero torque (2) Self starting with low torque (3) Self starting with very high torque (4) Non Self starting

Q. 02. Name the two general types of AC Motor used in aircraft is: - AMTH-P 10-153)

(1) Induction motor and Synchronous motor (2) Capacitor start & Capacitor start capacitor run (3) The shaded pole and Universal motor (4) Both 1 & 2

Q. 03. The AC Motor is preferred over DC Motor for the main reasons: - AMTH-P 10-153)

(1) They are cheap and have almost constant speed (2) They are maintenance free as they do not use commutators or brushes or slip rings (3) Very sturdy in
operation, high power factor and small in size (4) Both 1 & 2

Q. 04. The AC induction Motor used in aircraft: - AMTH-P 10-153)

(1) Operates at speed range 6000 to 24000 rpm (2) Operates at speed range 0 to 240 rpm (3) Operates at speed range 600 to 2400 rpm (4) Has high
variable speed range

Q. 05. The single phase AC Induction Motor has: - (AMTH-P 10-155)

(1) Single stator winding and generates rotating magnetic field (2) Single stator winding and merely generates pulsating magnetic field (3) Double stator
winding and rotating magnetic field (4) Has three set of phase winding with pulsating field

Q. 06. The shaded pole Induction Motor has: - (AMTH-P 10-155)

(1) Bisected pole, low starting torque & self starting (2) Salient pole and generates slight rotating magnetic field (3) Carries a copper ring in one half
section of salient pole (4) AOA

Q. 07. In the shaded pole Induction Motor purpose of shaded ring: - (AMTH-P 10-155)

(1) Causes the magnetic field to lag behind the un shaded portion (2) Causes net effect to generates slight rotating magnetic field (3) Produces rotating
magnetic field ,high torque ,self starting without the need of extra winding (4) Both 1 & 2

Q. 08. In the shaded pole Induction Motor has: - (AMTH-P 10-155)

(1) Exceedingly low torque (2) Low power factor (3) Low torque, high power output with high power factor (4) Both 1 & 2

Q. 09. For the shaded pole Induction Motor reversal of direction is: - (AMTH-P 10-155)

(1) Done by reversing one of the connection lead (2) Not possible to reverse direction (3) By using double pole switch (4) NOA

Q. 10. In the three phases Induction Motor reversal of direction is: - (AMTH-P 10-157)

(1) Done by swapping of the all phase (2) Not possible to reverse direction (3) By interchanging two phases only (4) NOA

Q. 11. In the three phases Induction Motor if one of the phase is broken or has no power the motor: - (AMTH-P 10-157)

(1) Stop (2) Keep running at full load (3) Keep running but will deliver one third of power output (4) Burn out if allowed to run

Q. 12. In the Two phases Induction Motor if one phase is broken, the motor: - (AMTH-P 10-157)

(1) Stop immediately (2) Keep running at full load (3) Keep running but will deliver half the power output (4) Burn out if allowed to run without load

Q. 13. MTCS for the Two phases and Three phase Induction motor: - (AMTH-P 10-157)

(A) If one of the phases is broken, the three phase induction motor will start if started

(B) If one of the phases is broken, the two phase induction motor will not start if started

(1) Statement A is correct (2) Statement B is wrong (3) Statement A is wrong but Statement B is correct (4) Both are wrong

Q. 14. In the Synchronous motor uses: - (AMTH-P 10-157)

(1) AC only (2) DC only (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Capacitor and commutators to make it synchronous

Q. 15. In the Synchronous motor: - (AMTH-P 10-158)

(1) Self starting only (2) Not self starting (3) Needs external mechanical means to bring it to synchronism (4) Both 2 & 3

Q. 16. In the AC Series motor is: - (AMTH-P 10-159)

(1) A induction motor (2) the Synchronous motor (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) AC series motor, single phase

Q. 17. The fractional AC Series motor is also known : - (AMTH-P 10-160)

(1) Universal motor (2) DC motor (3) Used on small fans, grinders, drill and many more (4) Both 1 & 3

ELECTRICAL BASIC FUNDAMENTALS

Q. 1. The flow of current in solid is due to: -

(1) Electrons. (2) Protons (3) Atoms (4) Neutron

Q. 2. Which of the two statements given below: -

A: The property of electricity that opposes the flow of current is known as capacitance.

B: Generator is electrical machine which convert mechanical energy in to electrical energy.

(1) A is correct only (2) B is correct. (3) B is correct by A is also correct (4) A & B are wrong

Q. 3. The transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without electrical connection is: -

(1) Self induced back EMF. (2) Not possible (3) Induction (4) Radiation with arching at winding

Q. 4. The Ohms law is not applicable to: -

(1) Vacuum tubes. (2) Carbon resistor (3) All metal conductor (4) High voltage circuit

Q. 5. Regarding Ohms law which statement is true: -

(1) Current in a circuit is proportional to voltage. (2) Voltage in a circuit is inversely proportional to current (3) Power is double when current is doubled
(4) Current multiplied by voltage is equal to resistance
Q. 6. The tendency of induced current is to oppose the cause of its production:-

(1) Kirchhoff law (2) Lenz’s Law. (3) Fleming rule (4) Coulombs Law

Q. 7. The Kirchhoff current law is applicable to:-

(1) Whole circuit (2) Junctions in a network. (3) Electronic circuits only (4) Closed loop in a network,

Q. 8. The Kirchhoff Voltage law is applicable to:-

(1) IR Drop, (2) Junctions voltage only, 3) Battery EMF, (4) Both 1 & 3

Q. 9. According to the Kirchhoff Voltage law, the algebraic sum of IR Drop and Battery EMF in a mesh network is always:-

(1) Zero. (2) Positive 3) Negative (4) equal to RMS value

Q. 10. The Earth is chosen as a place common reference point of zero electrical potential because it:-

(1) is non conducting, (2) is easily available, 3) keep on gaining and loosing charge potential, (4) Has almost constant potential

Q. 11. What remains constant inside a conducting sphere:-

(1) Potential, (2) Charge , 3) Electric intensity. (4) Electric flux,

Q. 12. Piezo electricity is produced by:-

(1) The vibration of quartz crystal. (2) The vibration of ceramic 3) Ultrasonic waves (4) AOA

Q. 13. The property of a conductor due to which it passes the electric current is called:-

(1) Resistance (2) Conductance, 3) Inductance (4) Reluctance

Q. 14. Substance having large numbers of free electrons with low resistance is called:-

(1) Insulator (2) Conductor 3) Semi conductor, (4) Inductor

Q. 15. Resistance to the flow of AC in a coil is known as:-

(1) Resistance & reluctance (2) Capacitive reactance, 3) Inductance, (4) Inductive reactance

Q. 16. Which of the substance is a insulator:-

(1) Gold (2) Silver, Iron 3) Paper (4) Silicon with copper
Q. 17. A good electrical conductor is one which has:-

(1) Low reluctance (2) Low conductance 3) Low free electrons (4) Minimum voltage drop.

Q. 18. In a straight conductor, Resistance is not affected by:-

(1) Length (2) Material 3) Temperature (4) shape of the Cross section,

Q. 19. The purpose of using insulating material around a conductor is to :-

(1) Store high value current (2) Conduct large induction 3) Prevent short circuit between conducting wires (4) Prevent open circuiting

Q. 20. In a straight conductor, Resistance decreases when:-

(1) Length or cross section area is reduced (2) Length or cross sectional area is increased (3) Length is increased and cross sectional area is reduced
(4) Length is reduced and cross sectional area is increased

Q. 21. Which of the material has a nearly zero temperature coefficient of resistance:-

(1) Carbon (2) Porcelain 3) Copper (4) Manganin

Q. 22. Skin effect on conductor:-

(1) Increases the resistance (2) Increases when cross sectional area is less 3) Depends upon hold up frequency (4) AOA

Q. 23. The production of heat in a conductor when current flows, is due to:-

(1) Reactance (2) Resistance 3) Capacitance (4) Impedance

Q. 24. Higher the self induced EMF of a coil:-

(1) Lower the EMF induced in it (2) Greater the flux produced by it 3) lesser ampere turns (4) Longer the delay in establishing the steady current
thru it

Q. 25. Direction of induced EMF can be found by:-

(1) Fleming right hand rule (2) Lenz’s law 3) Kirchhoff’s voltage law (4) Faradays first law

Q. 26. The strength of electromagnet is Not determined by :-

(1) The size of wire in the coil (2) No of turns in the coil 3) The material of the core (4) The amount of current flowing thru the coil

Q. 27. Which of the statement is true for series and parallel DC circuits:-
(1) The Elements have individual current (2) Currents are additive 3) Voltages are additive (4) Powers are additive

Q. 28. The basic advantage of using AC power for large aircrafts:-

(1) The AC system operates at lower voltage than DC, thus use more current (2) The AC system operates at high voltage than DC, thus use more current
3) The AC system operates at Low voltage than DC, thus use less current (4) The AC system operates at high voltage than DC, thus use less current

Q. 29. For AC frequency of 200 Hz the time period shall be:-

(1) 0.5 sec (2) 0.005 sec 3) 0.0005 sec (4) 0.05 sec

Q. 30. If RMS value of sine wave is 100 Volts, then it has peak value of:-

(1) 70.7 Volts (2) 141.4 Volts 3) 150 Volts (4) 182 Volts

Q. 31. Two waves of the same frequency have opposite phase difference when the phase angle between them is:-

(1) 90 degree (2) 180 degree 3) 0 degree (4) 360 degree

Q. 31. When power factor of a circuit is unity, its reactive power is:-

(1) Maximum (2) Zero 3) Always negative (4) NOA

Q. 32. Unless otherwise specified, any value given for current or voltage in an AC circuit is assumed to be:-

(1) Average value (2) Effective value 3) Instantaneous value (4) Maximum value

Q. 33. Out of these two statements:-

(A) All electrical devices that have high resistance will use more power than one with low R having same supply voltage.

(B) If one of three bulbs in a parallel lighting circuit is removed, the total resistance of the circuit becomes greater.

(1) Only B is true (2) only A is true 3) Both A & B are true (4) None of the statement is true

Q. 34. In a series resonant circuit, increasing Inductance to twice its value and reducing capacitance to its half value will:-

(1) Change the resonant frequency (2) Change impedance of the circuit at resonant frequency 3) Change maximum value of current at resonance
(4) Increase the selectivity of the circuit

Q. 35. Inductance affects the DC flow:-

(1) At the time of turning ON only (2) At the time of turning ON and turning OFF 3) At the time of turning OFF only (4) At all time of operation

Q. 36. The time required for establishing a steady state current in a circuit consisting of resistance connected in series with a suitable reactor Inductor:-
(1) Depends on the ratio of Inductance to resistance (2) At the time required to saturate the inductor coil & core 3) 63% Time to charge the capacitor
(4) AOA

Q. 37. The parallel Resonance a LCR circuit will have : -

(1) Current is maximum (2) Minimum Current (3) Rejecter circuit (4) both 2 & 3.

Q. 38. Average value of AC is expressed by that steady current which when flows thru the identical circuit ------------- as -------------for the same time :-

(1) Transfer same charge, transferred by AC current. (2) Produces same heat, produced by AC current (3) Transfer Same heat, transferred by DC current (4)
Transfer Same charge, transferred by DC current

Q. 39. Find the current taken by a 300 watt power bulb rated for 200 volt, when bulb is connected to 200 volt AC at 50 Hz : -

(1) .05 Amp (2) 1.5 Amp (3) 0.5 Amp (4) 2.5 Amp

Q. 40. Find the Power drawn by the circuit connected to 20 KVA AC supply having power factor lagging at 0.8 : -

(1) 1600 W (2)0.16 KW (3) 16 KW (4) 11.6 KW

Q. 41. What is capacitive reactance of 400 Hz circuit with a capacitance of 50 MFD? : -

(1) 8 Ohms (2) 0.8 Ohms (3) 2 Ohms (4) 20 Ohms

Q. 42. While calculating power in reactive inductive circuit the true power is: -

(1) More than apparent power (2) Less than apparent power (3) Always have leading power factor (4) Always less than reactive power (VAR)

Q. 43. Three unequal impedances are connected in a Star connected to 3 phase system, the sum of three lines current will be: -

(1) Zero (2) Equal to each line current (3) One third of line current (4) Three time the phase current

Q. 44. When one lamp is connected to 3 phase four wire 230/440 Volt AC supply and now if the three phase Delta motor is switched ON across the same supply, the
neutral current will be : -

(1) Increased (2) Decreased (3) Remained unchanged (4) cannot predict the outcome

Q. 45. In a Delta connected Load, if one of the resistor is disconnected from the circuit, the Power will become: -

(1) Zero (2) One third (3) Three times (4) Two third

Q. 46. When phase sequence at the 3 phase load is reversed: -

(1) Phase current change in Magnitude but not in phase angle (2) Phase current changes angle but not magnitude (3) Total Powers
consumed is changed (4) Both 1 & 3

Q. 47. Which of the DC motor has the Highest No- load speed: -

(1) Series (2) Shunt (3) Cumulative compound (4) Differentially compound

Q. 48. Out of these two statements:-

(A) In a three phase system, the KVA is directly proportional to the current.

(B) When the power factor is Low current required for given power is very high.

(1) Only B is true (2) Only A is true (3) Both A & B are true (4) None of the statement is true

Q. 49. In DC Motors back EMF is produced in : -

(1) Armature (2) Stator field (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) No back emf in DC motors

Q. 50. MTCS for the DC series Motors: -

(1) High starting current flows thru field and armature during the start (2) Low current flows thru field and armature during the start (3) 1 is correct and also
leads to high starting torque (4) 1 & 2 is correct and results in Low starting torque

Q. 51. The Starter Generator: -

(1) Uses two different series and shunt field winding (2) Has only one armature winding (3) 1 & 2 both are correct (4) 1 is correct and Has two set
of armature winding as well

Q. 52. The DC Series wound motor generally requires: -

(1) More current at high RPM than Low RPM (2) More current at Low RPM than High RPM (3) Same current at all RPM level (4) NOA

Q. 53. If the supply voltage of a DC Motor is increased, which of the following will decrease: -

(1) Starting current and speed (2) Operating speed RPM (3) Starting torque (4) Full load current

Q. 54. The Flashing of Field is done in a Generator in order to: -

(1) Increase the Generator capacity (2) Remove Magnetic effect and excessive deposits of carbon (3) Restore correct polarity and residual magnetism of
field poles (4) De-magnetize the rotor and restore proper resistance of field winding

Q. 55. The AC Motors used to produce relatively High starting torque are of the type: -

(1) Shaded pole Motor (2) Three phase induction and Repulsion motors (3) 1 phase induction and AC shunt motors (4) Single phase Induction
motor and capacitor start motor
Q. 56. The output of Parallel generator can be controlled by using: -

(1) Resistance in series with armature winding (2) Resistance in series with field winding (3) Resistance in parallel with inter-pole winding (4) Resistance in
parallel with field winding

Q. 57. MTCS for the compound wound generators :-

(1) Uses series winding with less no of turns with thick wire and shunt coils of more turns with small wire conductor (2) Uses series winding with more no of
turns with thick wire and shunt coils of more turns with small wire conductor (3) Uses series winding with more no of turns with thin wire and shunt coils of
more turns with small wire conductor (4) Uses series winding with less no of turns with thick wire and shunt coils of less turns with thick wire conductor

Q. 58. MTCS for Under compounded generators:-

(1) When the output is equal to rated load as that of no load (2) When the rated load voltage is greater than the no load voltage (3) When the output is
equal to rated load as that of full load (4) When the rated load voltage is less than the no load voltage

Q. 59. Power factor in compound generator power rating is the ratio of: -

(1) Apparent power to Effective power (2) Effective power to apparent power (3) Apparent power to Reactive power (4) Reactive power to Effective
power

Q. 60. Radio interference in a generator is reduced by filter suppressor such as: -

(1) High L, Low R connected in series and capacitor to earth (2) High R, Low L connected in series and capacitor to earth (3) High R, High Z and capacitor in
series (4) High R, Low L and capacitor in series

Q. 61. The power factor of a single phase AC induction motor is usually: -

(1) Leading (2) Lagging (3) Leading range 0.8 to 1 (4) Always leading

Q. 62. In AC induction motor the torque is: -

(1) Directly proportional to slip (2) Directly proportional to synchronous speed (3) Directly proportional to square root of slip (4) Inversely
proportional to slip

Q. 63. In AC induction motor the torque developed is least dependent on: -

(1) Rotor EMF (2) Rotor Power factor (3) Rotor current (4) Shaft diameter

Q. 64. In AC induction motor the rotor poles are: -

(1) Equal to stator poles (2) Half the stators poles (3) Double of the stator poles (4) No poles required

Q. 65. In case of 3 phase AC induction motor the term Plugging means: -

(1) Reversing the direction of motor (2) Interchanging two supply phases for quick stoppages (3) Increasing the starting torque for heavy loads (4)
Putting the motor direct on line starter and locking the rotor due to harmonics
Q. 66. In AC induction motor which of the following will give relatively high starting torque:-

(1) Capacitor start motor (2) Capacitor run motor (3) Shaded pole motor (4) Split phase motor

Q. 67. Out of these two statements:-

(A) Induction motor is simply a rotating transformer whose magnetic is separated by air gap.

(B) Starting torque of the Induction motor is proportional to the square of the applied voltage.

(1) Only B is true (2) only A is true (3) both A & B are true (4) None of the statement is true

Q. 68. MTCS for the Two phases and Three phase Induction motor: - (AMTH-P 10-157)

(A) If one of the phases is broken, the three phase induction motor will start if started

(B) If one of the phases is broken, the two phase induction motor will not start if started

(1) Statement A is correct (2) Statement B is wrong (3) Statement A is wrong but Statement B is correct (4) Both are wrong

Q. 69. The fractional AC Series motor is also known : - (AMTH-P 10-160)

(1) Universal motor (2) DC motor (3) Used on small fans, grinders, drill and many more (4) Both 1 & 3

Q. 70. The AC induction Motor used in aircraft: - AMTH-P 10-153)

(1) Operates at speed range 6000 to 24000 rpm (2) Operates at speed range 0 to 240 rpm (3) Operates at speed range 600 to 2400 rpm (4) Has high
variable speed range

Q. 71. The output frequency of AC Generator depends upon : - (AMTH-P 10-160)

(1) Speed of rotation and strength of Field (2) Number of poles and strength of field (3) Speed of rotation and number of field poles (4) AOA

Q. 72. When the flux density in the field of DC Generator increases along with an increase in the current flow to the system circuit the : - (AMTH-P 10-160)

(1) Generator voltage will decrease (2) The Generator will saturate and no output given (3) Force required in running the Generator will reduce (4)
Force required in running the Generator will Increase

Q. 66. In a single phase AC induction motor, if the capacitor is short circuited the motor will:-

(1) Not start (2) Burn out (3) Run very slowly in same direction (4) Run in opposite direction