Anatomy 2A Lab Manual 2016-2017
Anatomy 2A Lab Manual 2016-2017
Anatomy 2A Lab Manual 2016-2017
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b. Mediastinum
c. Pericardial cavity
2. Abdominal cavity
3. Pelvic cavity
4. Cranial cavity
7. Nasal cavity―
QUESTIONS
1. Cavities #1, #2 and #3 in the table above belong to what larger cavity?
2. Cavities #2 and #3 in the table above are cavities within what larger cavity?
4. Name the cavity that each of the following would be found in:
c. Heart g. Eye
d. Liver h. Lung
6
7
10
2. Umbilical
3. Hypogastric
4. Right hypochondriac
5. Left hypochondriac
6. Right lumbar
7. Left lumbar
Label the regions on the diagram below. NOTE: These numbers do not correspond with the numbers in
the table above.
1 5
2 6
3 7
9 8
PART F—QUESTIONS
1. A patient experiences pain or injury to the right hypochondriac region. Which organ is most likely to be
affected?
5. A deep stab wound in the umbilical region would most likely damage what organs?
6. In order to view the lateral aspect of the heart you would need to make a _____________cut or plane of
section.
7. What would you call the section you named in question 6 above when it is through the midline? If it were
lateral to the midline?
8. Through what plane would one make a cut to visualize both lungs, the heart, spinal cord and ribs?
9. To view the anterior surface of both kidneys you would make a cut through what plane?
7. The serous membrane covering the surface of the lungs is the __________________________ pleura.
8. The layer of serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity is the __________________________
peritoneum.
PREFIX/SUFFIX SENTENCE
1. brachi
2. epi
3. endo
4. peri
5. hypo
6. hyper
7. chondr
8. cephal
9. cardio
11. pleur
12. para
13. a
14. hemi
15. ectomy
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11 3
12
4
5
13 6
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15 7
2. Place the slide you are viewing under the stage clips and adjust the slide into position. Turn the revolving
nosepiece until the low- power objective clicks into place. Use the coarse adjustment to move the stage as
close as possible to the objective without hitting the slide (do this while you are watching and not while
you are looking through the ocular!).
3. Look through the oculars. One ocular is adjustable, allowing people who wear glasses to adjust the
magnification to suit each eye, eliminating the need to wear glasses while viewing. Adjust the lighting to
give the best image possible by using the diaphragm lever below the stage.
4. While looking through the oculars, use the coarse adjustment knob to slowly move the stage in a
downward direction until the object comes into focus. Complete the focusing with the fine adjustment
knob. Adjust the light again if needed. The thicker the section of material you are viewing, the more
lightly you will need. If the field of vision is dim or dark, adjust the diaphragm for more light. If the field is
bright and the object is washed out, adjust the diaphragm for less light.
5. If the high-power objective is needed, you may carefully swing the objective into position once the
microscope has been focused on low-power. You may need to move the slide to center the object being
viewed and readjust the light (more light may be needed on a higher magnification). Use only the fine
adjustment to focus the object. The coarse adjustment should not need to be used when changing
objectives.
6. After using the microscope, remove the slide, rotate the revolving nosepiece until the lowest power
objective is in position, and crank the coarse adjustment knob to lower the stage away from the
objectives. Clean the stage, cover the microscope and return it to the cabinet.
QUESTIONS
1. How do you determine total magnification when using the 4X, 10X and 40X objectives with a 10X
ocular? Give the total magnification for each.
2. Why don’t you have to use coarse adjustment when focusing on high power?
3. If you are viewing an object and the object appears faint and washed out and the background is bright,
what should you do to make the object more visible?
6. Why should you always move the stage downward, away from the objective while focusing?
2. Now, try a prepared slide with a smaller object such as the sperm slide (obtain this slide from the tray your
instructor has put out. This slide is NOT in your slide box).
Focus it first on low-power, then move it to high. Be sure to use the diaphragm and adjust the light.
Too much light will make the sperm invisible.
a. Draw what you see on high power.
Methylene blue
KimWipe
5. Focus your slide on low power. Look for cells that aren’t too clumped. Find a cell that is not folded or
bunched with others and center it in the field of vision.
6. Now, move the high-power objective into place. Use only the fine adjustment if needed. Remember to
adjust the light.
QUESTIONS
a. What structures are visible on the cell on high-power?
7. Remove the slide when finished and put the slide the GLASS DISPOSAL BOX in your lab.
2. Observe the onion cells first on low and then high power.
QUESTIONS
a. What differences can you see between the onion (plant) cell and the cheek (animal) cell?
c. Name the structures that differ between plant and animal cells and describe the differences.
PREFIX/SUFFIX SENTENCE
1. cyt, cyto
2. viscos
3. elle
4. stasis
5. inter
6. intra
7. macro
8. mega
9. micro
10. mito
11. mono
12. hetero
14. sub
15. supra
NOTE
When converting to a smaller unit, the number increases so move the decimal point will to the right.
When converting to a larger unit, the number will decrease so move the decimal point to the left.
3. What instrument would you use to measure about ⅓ cup of fluids in the metric system? ____________
4. What units would be used to measure if a large amount of fluid (to fill a swimming pool)?
____________
5. What units would the measurement be in if you were measuring a small amount of fluids (a full
eyedropper)? __________________
1. Assume the marks on the diagram above designate mm. What would the size of the field of vision be on
the diagram above?
2. Place a metric ruler under each objective lens on your own microscope and measure the fields of view.
The space between each visible line is equal to one millimeter. Record the measurement below:
4X =
10X =
40X =
3 mm
a. To find the length of one cell in the field of vision above, you would first visualize and estimate how
many cells would fit across the length of the field of vision. In this case, approximately 6 cells fit across
the length of the field. The length of one cell can be calculated using the following formula:
diameter of field
= size of cell
# cells visible
b. If you plug in the proper numbers, you will find the answer by calculating:
3 mm
The answer is:_________________mm
6 cells
c. Now calculate the height of one cell using the same method (show your work):
4. Find the slide of 3-colored strings in your slide box and focus it in on low-power (10X) on your microscope.
a. Use the method you have just learned to estimate the width of one string (pick one of the colored
strings and estimate how many times it will fit across the field of vision).
2. 10 cells are visible across the width of the microscope field using the 4X objective lens, and 4 cells are
visible along its length. Calculate the dimensions of the cell in both millimeters and microns.
(mm) (µ)
WIDTH OF CELL
1 L = 0.264 gal
1 liter (L) = 1000 mL 1 qt. = 0.946 L
1 L = 1.057 quarts (qt)
VOLUME
1 qt. = 946 mL
(LIQUIDS & GASES) 1 mL = 0.034 fluid oz.
= 0.001 L 1 pint = 473 mL
1 milliliter (mL) 1 mL = ¼ teaspoon (tsp)
= 1 cm3 1 fluid oz. = 29.27 mL
1 mL = 15-16 drops (gtt.)
1 tsp. = 5 mL
1 microliter (µL) = 0.000001 L
1
1 second (s) = minute (min)
TIME 60
1 millisecond (ms) = 0.001 s
9 5
TEMPERATURE Degrees Celsius (°C) °F = °C + 32 °C = (°F - 32)
5 9
Extracellular Fluid
3 1
5 2
Cytoplasm
2. Will glucose be able to diffuse freely past structure #2 in the diagram on page 24? Explain why or why not.
3. Give two possible functions for proteins such as protein #3 in the diagram on page 24.
4. What are some possible functions of structure #4 in the diagram on page 24?
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15
14 2
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11 4
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ORGANELLE FUNCTION
The cellular material:
Contains:
CYTOPLASM
Cytosol―
Site of:
MITOCHONDRIA
System of:
Externally covered with:
ROUGH ENDOPLASMIC
RETICULUM
ER without:
SMOOTH ENDOPLASMIC
RETICULUM
RIBOSOMES
VACUOLES
LYSOSOMES
PEROXISOMES
A network of:
CYTOSKELETON
MICROTUBULES
MICROFILAMENTS
CILIA
FLAGELLA
Controls:
NUCLEUS
NUCLEAR ENVELOPE
NUCLEOLUS Produces:
DNA +
CHROMATIN
A selectively:
PLASMA MEMBRANE
1 2
5
(entire structure in box)
3. The rungs of the DNA ladder is composed of _____________________ pairs that are bonded together
by a ______________________________.
8. The genetic code of an organism is determined by the nitrogenous base sequence of a DNA molecule.
A segment of DNA that carries the code or instructions for the construction of polypeptide is called a
______________________.
9. Prior to cell division, the DNA in the nucleus must _______________________ to ensure the cell being
produced has an identical copy of DNA.
4. Give the full names of each of the following types of RNA. Briefly describe the function of each:
a. rRNA−
b. mRNA−
c. tRNA−
2. How long did it take for the dye to completely diffuse in the hot water? In the cold water?
QUESTIONS
1. All 4 wells contained dyes with a concentration of 0.02 M. Which one had the fastest rate of
diffusion? Why? Explain the results.
2. What factor caused the difference in the rates of diffusion in all the wells?
2. What factor caused the difference in the rate of diffusion between the wells?
OSMOSIS
PART A—THISTLE TUBE OSMOMETER
1. Set up the osmometer as follows:
a. Cut a 4-inch piece of dialysis membrane tubing and soak it in a dish containing distilled
water (dH2O) until it is soft and pliable.
b. Open the tubing with your fingers.
c. With scissors, cut dialysis membrane along one edge in order to make ONE long piece of
membrane.
d. Have one person fill the bulb of the tube with molasses while the other person closes off
the stem of the thistle tube with his/her finger.
e. Place the wet dialysis membrane over the bulb of the thistle tube and secure it TIGHTLY
in place by winding rubber bands over the bulb several times. Make sure that the syrup will not
leak through the sides!
f. Invert the tube and allow the syrup in the stem of the thistle tube to settle in the bulb before
MARKING the level of the syrup with a grease pencil.
g. Fill the plastic cup half full with distilled water and lower the thistle tube bulb in the cup. (SEE
diagram)
QUESTIONS
1. What happened to the level of the molasses?
3. Why didn’t the molasses leave the thistle tube and enter the water in the beaker?
4. If the thistle tube were a cell and the water in the beaker were the solution surrounding the cell:
a. Is the solution isotonic, hypotonic, or hypertonic? Explain.
c. How long would water move into the cell? What might result from this?
7. Observations
QUESTIONS
1. Which group of plugs gained volume? Explain.
3. What type of solution was the 10% salt solution? The distilled water?
4. How did the rigidity of the plugs in the two solutions compare? Why the difference?
QUESTIONS
1. Which slide contained cells in a hypertonic solution? Hypotonic? Isotonic?
b. hemolysis–
PART D—DIALYSIS
1. Cut approximately 15 cm (6- inch) of dialysis tubing and soak in dishpan filled with distilled water to
soften.
2. Remove the tubing from the water; fold over one end and tie off with string.
3. Slip the stem of a funnel into the open end of the bag and fill the bag
approximately half full with the solution labeled “Dialysis Solution.”
Contents of test solution in dialysis tubing:
4. Remove the funnel; fold and tie off the open end of the bag.
5. Place the dialysis tube ‘sausage’ into a beaker of distilled water and let sit for 30
minutes.
6. After 30 minutes, test the water in the beaker for the following substances to
determine if they have left the tubing and entered the water. Record your
results in the table.
a. Test for NaCl
i. Place several mL of water from the beaker in a test tube.
ii. Add several drops of silver nitrate solution (AgNO3).
iii. Formation of a white, cloudy precipitate indicates the presence of NaCl.
Glucose
Starch
Albumin
QUESTIONS
1. Define dialysis–
2. Which of the four substances left the dialysis tube and entered the water?
4. What physical characteristic of albumin affected its ability to pass through the membrane?
FILTRATION
PART A—FILTRATION OF AN UNKNOWN SOLUTION
1. Assemble the filtration apparatus shown on diagram.
2. Fold a piece of filter paper per diagram.
Starch
Charcoal
Copper sulfate
QUESTIONS
1. Name three things that will determine whether a substance will pass through a filtration membrane.
S
(name of stage)
Events:
G1 G2
(name of stage) (name of stage)
Events: Events:
STAGE:
MAJOR EVENTS:
STAGE:
MAJOR EVENTS:
STAGE:
MAJOR EVENTS:
MAJOR EVENTS:
STAGE:
MAJOR EVENTS:
PART C—TERMINOLOGY
Learn the following terms:
interphase centromere
karyokinesis kinetochore
cytokinesis microtubules
centrioles spindle fibers/ mitotic spindles
chromatin poles
chromatids cleavage furrow
chromosomes
QUESTIONS
1. The enzyme _______________ causes the DNA helix to
begin to ___________________.
PART A—TRANSCRIPTION
Fill in the steps of transcription below and answer the following questions.
QUESTIONS
1. The enzyme ________________________ binds to the DNA molecule causing the DNA helix
to_____________________.
2. The two strands of DNA __________________ exposing the DNA nucleotides. One DNA strand, called the
_________________ strand, will serve as the template for construction of a complementary
__________________ molecule. _____________________ is also the enzyme responsible for bonding
mRNA nucleotides to the DNA template.
3. For each triplet (three base sequence on the DNA template), a complementary three base mRNA segment
called a _______________will be formed on the mRNA.
4. Before it can be used, the new mRNA strand must be edited. Noninformational regions called
___________________ must be removed. The remaining informational pieces called
____________________ are spliced together to form a
functional mRNA strand.
5. The mRNA will leave the nucleus and carry the code to the
___________________ of the cell where it will attach to a
___________________.
8. In a diagram, how can you distinguish a newly forming mRNA strand from the DNA template?
PART B—TRANSLATION
Fill in the blanks below and answer the following questions.
Label the diagram.
QUESTIONS
1. The mRNA molecule attaches to a ___________________.
2. A new type of RNA called ______________ is used to bind amino acids and carry them to the mRNA on
the ribosome.
3. There are many different types of tRNA. Each type binds to a specific amino acid. The amino acid is bound
to one end of the tRNA while the other end contains a three base sequence called an
___________________.
4. The anticodons of the tRNA form ________________ bonds with the complementary codons on the
_________________.
5. As successive amino acids are brought to their proper positions by the tRNA, ______________________
bonds are formed between them and the formation of a _________________________ begins.
6. Where does the process of translation occur?
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7
2 4
3
1
STUDY THE BASIC TISSUE TYPES, CLASSIFICATION OF EPITHELIAL TISSUES AND EPITHELIAL TISSUE TYPES LISTED IN BOXES
A, B AND C BELOW.
PART B—CLASSIFICATION
1. Often named by shape
a. Squamous
b. Cuboidal
c. Columnar
2. Named by layers
a. Simple
i. Pseudostratified
b. Stratified
i. Transitional
Specific location:
Specific location:
Specific location:
Specific location:
Specific location:
3. Transitional epithelium
TISSUE LOCATIONS FUNCTION & NOTES DRAWING
2. What epithelial tissues did you observe which had goblet cells?
3. What are cilia? What is their function? Give an example of where in the body ciliated cells are located.
4. What are microvilli? What is their function? Give an example of where in the body microvilli are located.
5. What is the difference between the two pictures shown under simple squamous epithelium?
7. What is the difference between simple and stratified epithelial tissues relative to the basement
membrane?
8. How can you tell the difference between stratified squamous and transitional epithelium?
10. What other simple and stratified epithelial types can you name?
11. Name the type of tissue that membranes such as visceral and parietal serous membranes are composed
of.
2
PART D—CONNECTIVE TISSUE TYPES
1. Areolar (loose)
2. Adipose 3
3. Reticular
4. Dense regular 6
5. Dense irregular
6. Elastic connective tissue
5
4
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 2A—REBECCA LOOMIS Page 57
PART E—LOOSE CONNECTIVE TISSUE
2. Identify the various types of cells that can be found in connective tissue and give a function for each.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
ii.
iii.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
PART C—QUESTIONS
1. What are lacunae?
2. What are glycosaminoglycans and what is their significance? Give two examples of GAG’s.
1. Hyaline cartilage
TISSUE LOCATIONS NOTES &FUNCTION DRAWING
2. Elastic cartilage
TISSUE LOCATIONS NOTES &FUNCTION DRAWING
3. Fibrocartilage
TISSUE LOCATIONS NOTES &FUNCTION DRAWING
PART F—TERMS
1. Lacuna−
2. Osteoblasts−
3. Osteocytes−
4. Osteoclasts−
5. Lamellae−
7. Haversian canal−
8. Volkmann’s canal−
9. Canaliculi−
2. What is periosteum?
10. What is the difference between the organic and inorganic matrix in bone?
11. Medically speaking, what happens to an individual who has abnormalities in the relative amounts of
organic and inorganic matter?
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3
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10
4
5
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12
Haversian system
Haversian canal
Haversian canal
Volkmann’s canal
spongy bone
trabecula
concentric lamella
v. Stratum corneum
b. Cells
i. Keratinocytes
aa. Keratin 3
ii. Dendritic (Langerhans) cells
iii. Tactile (Merkel) cells
iv. Melanocytes
c. Epidermal peg
2. DERMIS 4
a. Layers
5
i. Papillary
aa. Dermal papillae
bb. Meissner’s corpuscles
ii. Reticular
aa. Dense irregular connective tissue
bb. Sudoriferous (sweat) glands
cc. Sebaceous (oil) glands
b. Appendages
i. Hair
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2
7
8
3
9
10
11
12
15
13
14
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
11. What are the differences in melanin and melanin producing cells between light and dark skin?
Epidermis
epidermal peg
sebaceous gland
Dermis
hair follicle
Hypodermis
eccrine sweat
gland
2. Epiphysis−
4. Compact bone−
5. Medullary cavity−
6. Red marrow−
7. Yellow marrow−
8. Endosteum−
9. Periosteum−
QUESTIONS
1. What are the two types of bone formation?
PART B—DIAGRAMS
Label the indicated structures on the diagram.
4 5
2
8
9
8
3. Zone of hypertrophy
ZONE NOTES DRAWING
QUESTIONS
1. What type of cartilage is present on the articulating surfaces of movable joints?
CARTILAGE BONE
Nerves
Blood vessels
Lymph channels
Matrix type
epiphyseal plate
Proximal Epiphysis
spongy bone
periosteum
medullary cavity
nutrient artery
compact bone
yellow marrow
periosteum
compact bone
spongy bone
Distal Epiphysis
PART A—VERTEBRAE
OBJECTIVE
Be able to identify each vertebrae type.
Know the number of each type.
Distinguish each type of verterbrae.
What does each vertebrae articulate with?
What does C1 specifically articulate with?
1. In the table below, list the regional vertebral characteristics that will allow you to distinguish one
vertebra from the other.
5
6
8 7
3. ATLAS (C1) 6
5
IDENTIFY and LEARN the following structures.
LABEL them in the diagram.
2
• Anterior arch
3
• Posterior arch
4
• Superior articular facet
1
• Inferior articular facet
4. AXIS (C2) 1
3
6
5
PART A—QUESTIONS
1. What features make the cervical vertebrae unique?
2. What blood vessel is closely associated with the cervical vertebrae? How?
• Manubrium 4
• Gladiolus (body)
• Xiphoid process 5
• Clavicular notch 6
• Jugular (interclavicular) notch
• Sternal angle
• Costal facets
7
QUESTIONS
1. What is the clinical significance of the xiphoid process and the body?
1
2
QUESTIONS
1. Can you distinguish between the sternal and vertebral ends of each rib? How?
3. Can you clearly describe how the ribs articulate with the thoracic vertebrae?
6. As a group, what are the first seven pairs of ribs called? Why?
9. Which of the two figures in the previous page represents a RIGHT rib?
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6
7 8
10 9
12 11
14 13
15 16
17
19
18
20
21
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6
7
8
10
9
11
12
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15 13
16
17
18
19
20
21
1
2
3
4
5
6
2
5 3
4
7
6
10
8
11
12
15
13
16
14
1
2 3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
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POSTERIOR VIEW
1
2
IDENTIFY and LEARN the following structures.
LABEL them in the diagram.
ETHMOID
• Perpendicular plate
• Crista galli
• Cribriform plate 3
4
• Superior nasal concha
• Middle nasal concha
ANTERIOR VIEW
7. ADDITIONAL SKULL BONES—TEMPORAL
IDENTIFY and LEARN the following structures.
LABEL them in the diagram below.
TEMPORAL
• Mastoid process • External acoustic meatus
• Styloid process • Internal acoustic meatus
• Zygomatic process • Carotid canal
• Foramen lacerum • Jugular foramen
• Stylomastoid foramen • Mandibular fossa
4
3
5 3
6
9
10
11 12
MAXILLA
• Palatine process
2
• Alveolar process
• Infraorbital foramen
PALATINE
• Horizontal plate
1
8
9
7
3
4. Looking at the skull from above with the calvarium removed, what bone can be seen protruding through the
frontal bone?
10. Name four foramina that are clustered together in the sphenoid bone?
• Acromial end
• Sternal end
B
2
SUPERIOR VIEW
2. SCAPULA
IDENTIFY and LEARN the following structures.
LABEL them in the diagrams below. **Labels on the diagram do not correspond with the list below**
1
6 15
14
5
13
2
12
11
3 4
7
16 10
8
17
9
1
2
4
3
5
6
8 7
10 9
11
15 14
12 13
16
4
1
2 3
5
7 (bone)
(bone)
10
11
12
3. HAND
IDENTIFY and LEARN the following bones.
LABEL them in the diagram below.
CARPALS (WRIST) METACARPALS 1-5 (PALM)
• Capitate • Lunate PHALANGES 1-5 (FINGERS)
• Trapezoid • Triquetrum • Proximal
• Trapezium • Pisiform • Middle
• Scaphoid • Hamate • Distal
2
3
6
5 7
8
9 10
11
12
QUESTIONS
1. Indicate whether the figure above is a LEFT or RIGHT hand. How can you tell?
2
3
(bone)
5
7
6 4
9 8
10
11
13 12
(bone)
17
(bone) 15
14
16
18
QUESTIONS
1. Indicate whether the figure above is a LEFT or RIGHT os coxa. How can you tell?
1 4
5
2 3 6
7
16 10
11 12 13
15
14
QUESTIONS
1. Indicate whether the figure above is a LEFT or RIGHT femur. How can you tell?
2
3
4
7 6
QUESTIONS
1. Indicate whether the figure above is a LEFT or RIGHT leg. How can you tell?
1
2
3
6
5
7
9
8
10
11
QUESTIONS
1. Indicate whether the figure above is a LEFT or RIGHT foot. How can you tell?
1. VIEW 2. VIEW
QUESTIONS
1. Indicate whether the figure above is a LEFT or RIGHT patella. How can you tell?
QUESTIONS
1. To which bone does the hyoid bone directly articulate?
1 2
(covering)
4
(covering)
(#5 enlarged) 6
(covering)
7
(#3 enlarged)
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 2A—REBECCA LOOMIS Page 108
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11
10
12 13
14 15 16
17
18
19
22
23
25
24
QUESTIONS
1. What is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
8. What chemical reaction allows the myosin head to return to its high-energy state or its “cocked” position?
2
4 3
5
6
7
8
9 10
11
12
13
15 14
16
17 18
20 19
21
22
23
25
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35
36
38 37
39
41 40
42
43
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Orbicularis oculi Frontal and maxillary bones Tissue of eyelids Closes eyes as in blinking
Zygomaticus Zygomatic bone Skin and muscle at corner of mouth Raises corners of mouth (smiling)
Orbicularis oris Maxilla and mandible Skin and muscle around mouth Closes and puckers the lips
Closes jaw
Temporalis Temporal bone Mandible (coronoid process)
Elevates and retracts mandible
Closes jaw
Masseter Zygomatic bone (arch) Mandible (ramus)
Elevates mandible
Sternum (manubrium) Rotates head to opposite side (one)
Sternocleidomastoid Temporal bone (mastoid process)
Clavicle Flexes head (both)
Levator scapulae Vertebrae (upper cervical) Superior scapula Elevates and adducts scapula
Rhomboid major
Vertebrae (C7–T5) Scapula (medial border) Stabilizes and adducts scapula
Rhomboid minor
Pulls scapula downward and forward
Pectoralis minor Ribs (3-5) Scapula (coracoid process)
(abduct)
Serratus anterior Ribs (upper 8) Scapula (anterior vertebral border) Pulls scapula against the chest wall
*Collectively they are referred to as the rotator cuff muscles and are a common site for shoulder injury.
Vertebrae (lumbodorsal fascia) Humerus (intertubercular Adducts, extends and medially rotates
Latissimus dorsi
Iliac crest & ribs (lower 4) sulcus) arm at shoulder joint
Brachialis Humerus (anterior shaft) Ulna (coronoid process) Flexes forearm at elbow
Tendinous intersection:
**All 4 muscles above work to compress the abdominal wall and the contents within
Gluteus medius Ilium (lateral surface) Femur (greater trochanter) Abducts and rotates thigh medially
Gluteus minimus Ilium (lateral surface) Femur (greater trochanter) Abducts and rotates thigh medially
Adductor brevis
(Humans) Pubis (inferior ramus) Femur (linea aspera) Adducts, flexes and rotates thigh medially
Adductor femoris (Cat)
Pectineus Pubis (superior ramus) Posterior femur Adducts, flexes and rotates thigh medially
Perimysium
Epimysium
FASCICLE
MUSCLE FIBER
Fascicle
MYOFIBRIL
Endomysium
Myofibril
Myosin filament
(thick)
SARCOMERE
THIN FILAMENT
Head
Tail
Myosin molecule
Portion of thick
filament
MYOFIBRIL
MUSCLE FIBER
Actin filament
Myosin filament
I I
b d b d
Z line Sarcomere Z line
A band
Z line
H zone
Actin filament
RELAXED
Myosin filament
Z line Z line
M line
CONTRACTED
Nucleus
Myofibril Sarcolemma
Sarcoplasm
Sarcoplasm
Triad
T-tubule
Synaptic vesicles
Ca2+ ions
Sarcoplasmic
reticulum
Nerve impulse
STEP 1
Action potential travels along the axon
3 STEP 3
2+
Ca ions promote fusion of synaptic vesicles with
axon terminal membrane
4 STEP 4
Synaptic vesicles release acetylcholine (ACh) into the
synaptic cleft by exocytosis
Ach diffuses across synaptic cleft and binds to Ach
receptors on the motor end plate
Depolarization of
motor end plate
STEP 5
Binding of ACh to ACh receptors on sarcolemma opens chemically-gated Na+
channels
Na+ ions diffuse rapidly into the cell at the motor end plate
Change in membrane potential (voltage); interior becomes slightly less
negative
RMP decreases = depolarization of sarcolemma at motor end plate
+ +
h l h i i i i i l
Depolarization
wave
STEP 6
Propagation of action potential along sarcolemma as the local
depolarization wave spreads to adjacent areas of sarcolemma,
opening Na+ voltage-gated channels
7 STEP 7
Immediately after the depolarization wave passes,
repolarization wave quickly follows
Na+ channels close and K+ channels open
Na+ influx stops and K+ diffuses out of cell
This restores the internal negativity of sarcolemma
(polarized state)
Repolarization occurs in the same direction as
depolarization
8 STEP 8
Action potential travels down the T-tubules
9 STEP 9
Action potential triggers terminal cisternae to
release Ca2+ ions into the sarcoplasm
Ca2+ ions
Troponi
Thin filament
Tropomyosin Myosin head
Thick filament
RELAXED STATE
Low levels of intracellular Ca2+
Tropomyosin blocks myosin binding sites on actin
Prevents attachment of myosin heads
Action potential
1
STEP 1
Action potential triggers the release of Ca2+
from terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic
reticulum
STEP 2
2+
Ca ions bind to troponin
Troponin changes shape
Moves tropomyosin away from actin’s binding
sites (removes blocking action of tropomyosin)
4 STEP 4
Myosin head pivots, changing from its high-
energy configuration to its bent, low-energy
configuration = power stroke
ADP + Pi (inorganic phosphate) are released
Bending pulls on thin filament, sliding it
Low energy toward the center of sarcomere (toward M
line)
5 STEP 5
New ATP molecule binds to myosin head
Causes myosin head to detach from actin
Trapezius
Cleidomastoid
Pectoralis
Major
ANTERIOR VIEW
Pectoralis major
Pectoralis minor
Brachioradialis
Flexors
External oblique
ANTERIOR VIEW
Biceps brachii
Subscapulari
Brachialis
Teres major
Latissimus dorsi
Rectus abdominis
External oblique
ANTERIOR VIEW
Subscapularis
Coracobrachialis
Biceps brachii
Flexors
Teres major
Triceps brachii
(long head)
Triceps brachii
(medial head)
ANTERIOR VIEW
Trapezius
Deltoid
Sternomastoid
Latissimus dorsi
Triceps brachii
(long head)
Triceps brachii
(lateral head)
LATERAL VIEW
Brachioradialis Trapezius
Extensors
Infraspinatus
Teres major
Triceps brachii
(long head)
Latissimus dorsi
POSTERIOR VIEW
Brachialis
Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Extensors
Rhomboid major
Teres major
POSTERIOR VIEW
Sartorius
Gracilis
Semitendinosus
Gastrocnemius
Flexor digitorum longus
Tibialis anterior
ANTERIOR VIEW
Adductor femoris
Semimembranosus
Semitendinosus
Gastrocnemius
Soleus
Tibialis anterior
MEDIAL VIEW
Iliotibial tract
Biceps femoris
Semitendinosus
Gastrocnemius
POSTERIOR VIEW
Gluteus maximus
Vastus lateralis
Semitendinosus
Extensor digitorum
Gastrocnemius
Soleus
POSTERIOR VIEW
Sartorius
Vastus lateralis
Gluteus
maximus (cut)
Adductor magnus
Biceps femoris
(cut)
Semimembranosus
Semitendinosus
POSTERIOR VIEW
5
6
INTERNAL STRUCTURES
• Sclera • Iris • Optic nerve
• Choroid • Pupil • Scleral venous sinus (Canal of Schlemm)
• Retina • Anterior segment • Macula lutea/Fovea centralis
• Conjunctiva Anterior chamber • Lacrimal apparatus
• Cornea Posterior chamber Lacrimal gland
• Optic nerve • Posterior segment Lacrimal canaliculi
• Lens • Ora serrata Lacrimal puncta
• Ciliary body • Vitreous humor Lacrimal sac
• Ciliary zonule (suspensory
ligament • Optic disc Nasolacrimal duct
1
15
14
13
2
3
12
11
4
10
9
8
6
7
2
3
6
8
+
2. What is presbyopia?
5a. Explain why it is difficult to see when you first enter a darkened movie theatre.
6. What is the anatomical relationship of the optic chiasm to the sella turcica and what is the clinical significance
of this relationship?
7. Explain anatomically why your eyes often water and become irritated after you develop an infection of the
throat.
9. Explain why cones are able to detect color while rods cannot.
Caruncle
Eyelashes
LACRIMAL APPARATUS
Lateral lacrimal canaliculi
Lacrimal ducts
Lacrimal sac
Bulbar (ocular)
conjunctiva
Nasolacrimal duct
Palpabral conjuctiva
Ora serrata
Fovea centralis
POSTERIOR CHAMBER
Macula lutea Iris
Cornea
Lens
Central vein
ANTERIOR CHAMBER
Optic disc
Ciliary body
Superior rectus
Trochlea
Medial rectus
Inferior rectus
Lateral rectus
Inferior oblique
Inferior rectus
Photoreceptor layer
Cone
Rod
Pigmented layer
OUTER EAR
• Pinna • External auditory canal
MIDDLE EAR
• Tympanic membrane • Incus
• Oval (vestibular) window • Stapes
• Round (cochlear) window • Tensor tympani muscle
• Pharyngotympanic tube • Stapedius muscle
• Malleus
INNER EAR
• Bony labyrinth • Cochlea
Perilymph Scala vestibuli
• Membranous labyrinth Scala tympani
Endolymph Scala media (cochlear duct)
• Vestibule Organ of Corti
Saccule and Utricle Tectorial membrane
Macula Basilar membrane
Otolith Hair cells
Otolithic membrane • Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
Hair cells Vestibular branch
Hair bundle Cochlear branch
• Semicircular canals
Ampulla
Crista ampullaris
Cupula
Hair cells
6 5
8
7
10
11
12
17
18 19
20
22
23
24 25
1
3
4 5
2. What other structures detect dynamic equilibrium? Where are they found and how many total do we have?
4. What nerve carries information regarding equilibrium to the brain? (Be specific)
5. What are hair cells? What happens when the hairs on the hairs cells bend?
6. What is the function of the Organ of Corti? In which canal does it reside?
7. Explain the function of the round window. It is found at the end of which canal?
8. What is the function of the Tensor Tympani and the Stapedius muscles? In which region of the ear are they
found?
Incus
Semicircular canals
Pinna
Stapes
Cochlea
External auditory
canal
Pharyngotympanic
(auditory) tube
Malleus
Tympanic membrane
Lobule
MALLEUS INCUS
STAPES
Tensor tympani muscle
Tympanic membrane
Pharyngotympanic
(auditory) tube
Semicircular canals
Vestibule
Cochlea
Oval window
Round window
MEMBRANOUS LABYRINTH
Endolymph
Membranous labyrinth
Utricle
Vestibule
Endolymphatic duct Saccule
Vestibular branch
Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
Cochlear branch
Cochlea
Crista ampullaris
Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
INNER MEMBRANOUS
LABYRINTH
Macula of utricle
Macula of saccule
Cochlea
Endolymphatic duct
Otoliths
Otolithic membrane
Cupula
Supporting cells Stereocilia (gelled mass)
Hair cells
Stereocilia Receptor cells
Vestibular
Vestibular nerve fibers
nerve fibers
Scala tympani
Tectorial membrane
Stereocilia (hairs)
Supporting cells
Organ of Corti
Basilar membrane
6. Orbital cavity―located in the anterior of the skull and contains the eyes
7. Nasal cavity―located within and posterior to the nose in the skull and is part of the respiratory system
8. Oral (buccal) cavity―located in the skull and contains the teeth and tongue; part of digestive system
LAB 2
PART A DIAGRAM (P. 12)
1. Ocular 9. Revolving nosepiece
2. Microscope body or frame 10. Objective
3. On/Off switch 11. Stage clip
4. Light intensity knob 12. Stage
5. Y-axis stage control knob 13. Iris diaphragm lever
6. Coarse focus adjustment knob 14. Condenser
7. Fine focus adjustment knob 15. Illuminator
8. X-axis stage control knob
LAB 3
PART A CONVERSIONS (P. 19) PART B CONVERSIONS (P. 19) PART C CONVERSIONS (P. 19)
1. 3450 mm 1. 1000 mL 1. 154.35 lbs
2. 160,000 m 2. 150 mL 2. 300,000 mg
3. 2.5 mm 3. 1800 mL 3. 4 mg
4. 110,000,000 nm 4. 200 injections 4. 88.45 kg x 2 = 176.9 mL
5. 0.001 m 5. 520,000 mg
6. 0.0002 mm 6. 0.00425 g
7. 0.1 nm
PART D QUESTIONS (P. 20) PART E QUESTIONS (P. 20) PART E QUESTIONS (P. 21)
1. 0.039 in 2a. ≈4 mm 3b. 0.5 mm
3 mm
2. 1000 2b. ≈2 mm 3c. = 0.272 mm
11 cells
3. Graduated cylinder 2c. ≈0.5 mm 4. Depends on individual slides
4. kL
5. mL
LAB 5
PART A DIAGRAM (P. 30)
1. Phosphate 4. Deoxyribose sugar
2. Hydrogen bonds 5. Nucleotide
3. Nitrogenous base
LAB 7
PART A DIAGRAM (P. 45)
1. S = Synthesis 5. 3rd phase = Anaphase
2. G2 = Gap 2 6. 4th phase = Telophase
3. 1st phase = Prophase 7. G1 = Gap 1
4. 2nd phase = Metaphase
LAB 8
PART A QUESTIONS (P. 48)
1. DNA helicase, uncoil or unwind
2. Separate; nitrogenous bases
3. New DNA strand
4. DNA polymerase, nitrogenous bases
5. DNA ligase
6. Two double-stranded DNA molecules
LAB 9
PART A QUESTIONS (PP. 49-50)
1. RNA polymerase; unwind 5. Cytoplasm; ribosome
2. Separate; template; mRNA; RNA polymerase 6. DNA cannot leave the nucleus
3. Codon 7. A template for construction of a protein
4. Introns; exons 8. RNA has uracil as a base instead of thymine
LAB 10
PART F QUESTIONS (PP. 55-56)
1. Mucus producing, single-celled glands
2. Simple columnar and pseudostratified ciliated columnar
3. Tiny projections on cell surfaces that move substances; found in upper respiratory tract, fallopian
tubes
4. Tiny, fuzzy projections on the free surfaces of some epithelial cells, such as cells lining digestive system;
increase surface are for absorption
5. Answers vary
6. Protein fibers formed from underlying connective tissue to reinforce the epithelial tissue. Helps to
keep E.T. from overstretching or tearing.
7. Simple, one layer of cells above the basement membrane; stratified–many cell layers above the
membrane
8. Stratified squamous tissue cells are flat at the apical surface, whereas transitional tissue cells may be
cuboidal at the apical surface
9. Simple columnar–nucleus near the basement membrane; simple cuboidal–centrally located nucleus;
pseudostratified ciliated columnar–scattered nuclei giving the appearance of stratification
10. Stratified cuboidal
11. Simple squamous epithelium (mesothelium) on a connective tissue base
12. Diffusion, filtration, protection
LAB 11
PART A-D DIAGRAM (P. 57)
1. Fibroblast on a collagen fiber 4. Reticular fiber
2. Mast cell 5. Fibroblast
3. Collagen fiber 6. Elastic fiber
LAB 12
PART C QUESTIONS (PP. 62-63)
1. Small spaces surrounding chrondrocytes and osteocytes.
2. Polysaccharides attached to proteoglycans; produced by blast cells to thicken the matrix. Examples:
chondroitin sulfate, hyaluronic acid.
3. Yes
4. No. The fibers are not visible in hyaline cartilage.
LAB 13
PART A DIAGRAM (P. 68)
1. Stratum corneum 4. Stratum basale (germinativum)
2. Stratum granulosum 5. Papillary layer of dermis
3. Stratum spinosum
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 2A—REBECCA LOOMIS Page 171
PART B DIAGRAM (P. 69)
1. Hair shaft 9. Eccrine Sudoriferous (sweat) gland
2. Epidermis 10. Pacinian corpuscle
3. Dermis 11. Arrector pili muscle
4. Hypodermis (subcutaneous) 12. Cutaneous plexus
5. Epidermal peg 13. Hair follicle
6. Dermal papilla 14. Adipose tissue
7. Meissner’s corpuscle 15. Sebaceous gland
8. Free nerve endings
LAB 15
PART A2 VERTEBRAL LANDMARKS DIAGRAM (P. 82)
1. Spinous process 6. Pedicle
2. Lamina 7. Demifacet
3. Facet (transverse costal) 8. Vertebral foramen
4. Transverse process 9. Body
5. Superior articular process
LAB 16
PART B DIAGRAMS (PP. 108-110)
1. Muscle 10. T-tubule 19. Sarcomere
2. Epimysium 11. Muscle fiber 20. Troponin complex
3. Fascicle 12. Sarcoplasmic reticulum 21. G actin
4. Perimysium 13. Terminal cisternae 22. Tropomyosin
5. Muscle fiber (cell) 14. I band 23. Thin (actin) filament
6. Endomysium 15. A band 24. Myosin head
7. Nucleus 16. Z disc 25. Thick (myosin) filament
8. Myofibril 17. H band
9. Myofibril 18. M line
LAB 17
PART A DIAGRAM (P. 141)
1. Superior oblique 4. Lateral rectus
2. Superior rectus 5. Inferior rectus
3. Medial rectus 6. Inferior oblique
NORMAL COLOR VISION: “12” NORMAL COLOR VISION: “8” NORMAL COLOR VISION: “5”
RED-GREEN COLOR BLINDNESS: “12” RED-GREEN COLOR BLINDNESS: “3” RED-GREEN COLOR BLINDNESS: “2”
TOTAL COLOR BLINDNESS: “NOTHING” TOTAL COLOR BLINDNESS: “NOTHING” TOTAL COLOR BLINDNESS: “NOTHING”
Red and green deficiencies occur with the most frequency and red deficiency is known as protanopia while green
deficiency is known as deuteranopia.