DGCA- Paper -II

DGCA- Oct. 2010

Q1. In the 1 inch diameter size the NF thread specifies

1. 14 threads per inch 2. 12 threads per inch 3. 16 threads per inch
Q2. A/c bolts are almost manufactured in
1. Class 1 2. Class 2 3. Class 3 4. Class 4
Q3. Grip length of bolts is
1. Threaded portion of a bolt 2. Unthreaded portion of a bolt 3. None
Q4. Some threaded fasteners and rivets are identified as NAS. NAS stands fro
1. National army standard 2. National Aircraft standard 3. National aviation standard
Q5. AN3DD5A. 3 indicates
1. Dia in 3/16th of inch 2. Dia in 3/8th of inch 3. Length in 3/16th of inch 4. length in 3/8th of inch
Q6. Mark the correct statement regarding self locking nuts
1. Do not use self locking nuts at joint which subject either the nut or bolt to rotation
2. They are of all metal type
3. They are of fiber lock type 4. All the above
Q7. Control cables are made up of
1. Carbon steel 2. Stainless steel 3. Vanadium steel 4. Both 1 and 2 are correct
Q8. Mark the correct statement
1. Control cables has a high mechanical efficiency 2. Control cables can be set up without backlash
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct 4. None of the above are correct
Q9. Field rivets
1. 2117-T 2. 2014-T 3. 2024-T 4. All the above
Q10. Heat treatable rivets
1. 2117-T 2. 2024-T 3. 2024-T 4. Both 2 and 3 are correct
Q11. What is used for oil and gasoline hose, tank linins, gaskets and seals
1. Buna-N 2. Buna-S 3. Neoprene
Q12. Metal corrosion is the deterioration of the metal by
1. Chemical attack 2.Electrochemcial attack 3. Both 2 & 3 are correct
Q13. Most common agents causing direct chemical attack on A/c are
1. Spilled battery acid or fumes from batteries 2. Spilled solvents . Both 1 and 2 are correct
Q14. Appearance of Al alloys and Mg corrosion
1. Surface pitting and etching 2. Grey powdery deposit
3. White powder deposit 4. All are correct
Q15. Surface corrosion may be occurred by
1. Direct chemical attack 2. Electrochemical attack 3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
Q16. 44XX first digit indicates
1. Manganese 2. Molybdenum 3. Nickel
Q17. Common means of identifying fe metals
1. Spark test 2. AESI test 3. SAE test
Q18. Which of the following regarding Alclad is correct
1. Prevents contact with any corrosive agents 2. Protects the core electrolytic ally
3. Prevent any attack caused by scratching or from other abrasions 4. All the above are correct
Q19. Which of the following is used for fuselage skins, engine shrouds, firewalls
1. Aluminium 2. Magnesium 3. Titanium 4. Both 2 and 3 are correct
Q20. Correct statement regaring monel
1. High strength 2. High reistance to corrosion 3. Both 1 and are correct 4. None
Q21. Which of the following can be done to non fe metals
1. Case hardening 2. Tempering 3. Normalising 3. All the above
Q22. Effects of heat treatment on metals
1. Can be made harder 2. Can be made stronger 3. Can be made more resistance to impact 4. All the above
Q23. Mark the correct statement regarding hardness testing
1. Done to determine result of heat treatment 2. Makes the metal ductile
3. It doesn’t tell anything regarding properties of metal 4. All the above are correct
Q24. On which hardiness tester can the indications be directly indicated on dial
1. Brinell tester 2. Rockwell tester 3. Barcol tester 4. Both 2 and 3
Q25. The hydraulic ystem of transmitting forces is based on
1. Newton’s Law 2. Boyle’s Law 3. Charle’s Law 4. Pascal law
Q26. Factors affecting resistance
1. Length of conductor 2. Length of conductor and cross sectional area
3. Type of conductor, length of conductor and cross sectional area
Q27. Parallel cct def
1. A cct in which two or more elec resistances are connected across same voltage
2. A cct in which two or more elec resistances are connected across same current
Q28. Which device makes it possible to obtain more than one voltage from a ingle power source
1. Current divider 2. Voltage divider 3. Both 1 and 2 correct
Q29. Correct statement regarding lead acid batteries
1. Individual cells are connected in series 2. Individual cells are connected in parallel
3. As in 2 positive plate is of lead peroxide and negative plate of spongy lead
4. As in 2 positive plate is of lead peroxide and negative plate of spongy lead
Q30. During discharge of lead acid batteries
1. Acid content decreases and water content increases 2. Acid content increases and water content decreases
3. Electrolyte content doesn’t change
Q31. In P-N junction diode, holes flow from p-region to n-region due to
1. Higher concentration of holes in p-region 2. Potential difference across p and n region
3. Electron attracts the holes from p-region
Q32. Frequency of generator depends on
1. No of poles 2. As in 1 and r.p.m. c. 3. As in 2 and field strength
Q33. The opposition to the flow of current which inductances put in a circuit is called
1. Capacitive reactance 2. Inductive reactance 3.
Q34. Mark the correct statement
1. Diode is a two element tube 2. Triode is a three element tube
3. Pentode is a four element tube 4. Both 1 and 2 are correct
Q35. Which of the following is correct regarding transistors
1. It is an electronic device that is capable of performing most of the functions of vacuum tubes
2. It is very small
3. it requires no heater 4. All the above are correct
Q36. Which of the following is termed as open circuit
1. There is no direction connection between them 2. No current flows between these points
3. There is infinite resistance 4. All the above
Q37. Current flows from
1. Positive to negative 2. negative to positive
Q38. In Ni-Cad batteries maintenance
1. Separate room should be used for storage 2. As the electrolyte is corrosive care must be taken
3. Wire brush should not be used for cleaning 4. All the above
Q39. When a p-n junction diode is connected to a wire
1. No steady current flows 2. Steady current flows from anode to cathode
3. Steady current flows from cathode to anode
Q40. MTCS in case of a diode
1. Conducts when plate is made more positive than cathode 2. Reflects electrons when plate is less positive then cathode
3. Plate is made positive with respect to cathode 4. All the above
Q41. Measure the current flowing through the circuit
1. 1 amps 2. 2 amps 3. 5 amps 4. 10 amps
Q42. Calculate the voltage drop across resistors r1, r2 and r3
1. 5v, 10v, 15v 2. 10v, 20v, 30v 3. 1v, 10v, 30v
Q43. When charging current is applied to a Ni Cad battery
1. The negative plate lose oxygen and begin forming metallic cadmium
2. The positive plate lose oxygen and begin forming metallic cadmium
3. As in 2 the active material of the positive plates, nickel hydroxide, become more highly oxidized
4. As in 2 the active material of the positive plates, nickel hydroxide, become more highly oxidized
Q44. Convert 23 into binary number
1. 10111 2. 01001 3. 00111 4. 01010
Q45. Convert the following to hexa decimal F8E6
1. 63718 2. 63814 3. 63845
Q46. Space wave propagation frequency
1. Below 30MHz 2. Above 30MHz 3. Above UHF
Q47. MPI has proved extremely reliable for rapid detection of such defects located
1. On or near the surface 2. Inside the surface
Q48. Which of the following is correct regarding fatigue crack
1. It gives sharp, cla\ear paterns, generally uniform and unbroken hroughout their length with god buildup
2. It has heavy patterns and broken 4. Seldom have a buildup
Q49. Penetrate inspection is a NDT for
1. Defects open to the surface 2. Made of non porous material 3. All the above
Q50. The effectiveness of the magnetic particle inspection depends on
1. Flux density 2. Field strength 3. Both 1 and 2
Q51. Correct statement regarding chamosis leather
1. It is non conductive 2. It must be grounded and remain grounded 3. All the above
Q52. MTCS
1. Do not fuel or defuel an aircraft in a hanger 2. A person with foam extinguisher should stand
3. A person should sit in the cockpit to check fuel quantity gage 4. All the above are correct
Q53. MTCS
1. Fuel saturated clothes should be washed with hot water 2. Fuel saturated clothes should be dried thoroughly
3. Fuel saturated clothes creates dangerous fire hazard 4. All the above are correct
Q54. Which of the following is class B fire
1. As fires in wood, cloth, paper etc. 2. AS fires in flammable petroleum products
3. As fires in electrical equipment
Q55. Water should not be used on
1. Class B 2. Class C 3. Electrical equipment 4. Both 2 and 3 are correct
Q56. Which of the following is correct
1. 1 inch slack should be given to ropes 2. Rope should be tied to lift strut
3. No slack should be given to manila rope 4. All the above are correct
Q57. During fuelling operation of the aircraft
1. Towing vehicle should be grounded 2. Aircraft should be grounded
3. Aircraft and towing vehicle brought to equal potential by a wire through nozzle 4. All the above
Q58. Which of the following is a part of fire extinguisher periodic check list
1. Remove all external dust 2. Check for proper weight
3. No nozzle obstruction 4. All the above
Q59. Mallet is made up of
1. Rawhide 2. Hard rubber 3. Plastic 4. All the above

Q60. Identify the figure

1. Prick punch 2. Stating punch 3. Center punch

Q61. Mark the correct statement regarding C.S.D.( common screw driver)
1. The CSD must fill atleast 90% of the screw slot
2. The CSD is used only where slotted head screws or fasteners are found on a/c
3. The CSD is classified by material of the blade
4. All the above are correct

Q62. Identify the figure

1. Ratchet handle 2. Speed handle 3. Extension handle

Q63. Wrench is made up of

1. Chrome vanadium steel 2. Stainless steel 3. High carbon steel
Q64. Identify the figure
1. Indide calipers 2. Outside calipers 3. hermaphrodite calipers
Q65. MTCS
1. hacksaw blades is mounted with teeth pointing forward 2. The pitch of a bladde indicates the number of teeth per inch
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
Q66. Identify the part of twist drill

1. Land 2.Flute 3. Heel

Q67. Least count of the given scale

1. 1/64 2. 1/32 3. 1/16+

Q68. Identify the figure

1. Straight peen hammer 2. Cross peen hammer 3. Ball peen hammer

Q69. Vernier micrometer reading

1. 0.2947 2. 02944 3. 0.2153

Q70. The tool having replaceable heads rotated with a handle to secure nuts and bolts is

1. T- handle wrench 2. Screw drivers grip 3. Speed handle 43. All the above
Q71. To drive out damaged rivets, punch is used
1. Drive or tapered punch 2. Prick punch
Q72. MTCS
1. Spirit level for lateral leveling placed on pilot seat 2. For longitudinal leveling sprit level placed on landing gear
3. For lateral and longitudinal leveling plumb is used 4. All the are correct
Q73. Which of the following is correct regarding brazing
1. Brazing requires less heat than welding 2. Brazing is not used for structural repairs on aircraft
3. Strength of brazed joints is not so great as welded joints
Q74. Which of the following is subjected to spot welding
1. CRS 2. Aluminium 3. Stainless steel
Q75. Wing strip is located
1. Inward 2. Outward 3. On the wing
Q76. Angle of attack
1. Is the angle between chord line of the wing and direction of relative wind
2. Is the angle between chord line of the wing and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
Q77. MTCS
1. Stall occurs at top surface of the wing 2. Stall occurs at lo surface of the wing
3. As in 1 4. As in 2
Q78 In straight and level flight
1. Lift is equal to total drag and thrust is equal to total weight
2. Lift is equal to total weight and thrust is equal to total drag in straight and level flight
Q79. Stall occurs at
1. Maximum lift 2. Minimum lift
3. As in 1 and wing separation takes place 4. As in 2 and wing separation takes place
Q80. Lift is caused by
1. Centre of pressure 2. Speed of aircraft 3. Velocity of air 4. All the above
Q81. Which causes lift force
1. Parasite drag 2. Profile drag 3. Induced drag 4. Both 2 and 3 are correct
Q82. Which of the following rare primary control surfaces
1. Aileron, spoilers and tabs 2. Slats, spoilers and elevators 3. Aileron, elevator and rudder
Q83. When an airflow changes from laminar to turbulent known as
1. Boundary layer 2. Transition point 3. Stagnation point
Q84. For high speed aircrafts, the shape of airfoil must be
1. Thinner aerofoil than slow speed aircraft 2. Thicker aerofoil than low speed aircraft
3. Thicker at trailing edges and leading edge only
Q85. The downward movement of the connecting rod which rotates the crankshaft occurs during
1. Intake stroke 2. Compression stroke 3. Power stroke 4. Exhaust stroke
Q86. Five events of a four stroke piston engine
1. Intake, ignition, power compression, exhaust 2. Compression, power, intake, ignition, exhaust
3. Intake, power, ignition, compression, exhaust 4. Intake, compression, ignition, power, exhaust
Q87. Brayton cycle of a jet engine
1. Thermodynamic cycle in various tage 2. Continous combustion cycle 3. All the above
Q88. MTCS
1. Turbojet engine requires shorter runway than turbo prop
2. Turbojet is high efcient at larger altitudes and heavier when compared to piston engine of same power
3. Turbofan requires shorter runway than turbojet
Q89. The air conditioning system used in aircraft are usually of
1. Axial flow type 2. Outward flow type 3. Inward flow type 4. Centrifugal type
Q90. Piston engine fires every
1. Tow revolutions of crankshaft 2. Four revolution of crankshaft 3. 3600 degrees
Q91. in variable flow meter
1. It adjusts the flow as per the engine requirement automatically 2. It varies the flow
3. As in 1 and output is controlled by pump
Q92. Aircraft hoes are colour coded to represent
1. Date of manufacture 2. Temperature limits 3. Pressure limits 4. All the above
Q93. Yellow colour in fluid lines indicates
1. Lubrication 2. Hydraulic 3. Both 1 and 2