COMPUTER FUNDAMENTAL QUESTIONS

1._____is a device converting computer digital signals to analog signals for transmission over copper telephone wires
and then back to digital signals.

A. Fax Machine B. Telegram C. Telephone D. Modem*

2. What is the most widely used 7-bit alphanumeric code?

A. ASCII * B. EBCDIC C. Straight Binary Code D. Gray Code

3.What is a computer programming language in which groups of 1s and 0s are used to represent instructions and the
only language a computer actually understood?

A. Machine Language* B. Application Software C. High-level Language D. FORTHAN

4. An area of memory that holds the ASCII characters that are being displayed on a monitor is called?

A. space B. start bit C. terminal D. screen image*

5.Processors with more than two registers for arithmetic and logical operations are classified as:

A. specific register processors B. general register processors *

C. accumulator based D. serial register processors

6. What refers to the debugging method in which the program is executed one instruction at a time and the register
contents can be examined after each step?

A. Text editing B. Syntax analyzing C. Trace* D. Stacking

7. In a computer system, ______ is a hardware unit where the control keys are located.

A. CPU B. Keyboard C. I/O section D. Console*

8. Which of the following is an instruction that causes data to be brought from memory into an accumulator register?

A. LOAD* B. LOOP C. FETCH D. JUMP

9. What term is used to describe storing of data into a memory?

A. Writing* B. Loading C. Reading D. Memorizing

10. What register holds the data being written into or read out of the addressed memory location?

A. Hold register B. Memory address register

C. Memory data register* D. Access register

11. What does “CMOS” means?

A. Complementary Main-Oxide Semiconductor B. Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor*

C. Complements Main-Oxidation Semiconductor D. Computer Metal-Oxide Semiconductor

12. _____a system software that translate a program written in a computer language by a computer programmer
(such as BASIC) into the language (machine language) that the computer understand.

A. Driver B. Transfer program C. Language Translator* D. RAM

13. What do you call a translated program in machine language?

A. A source program B. An object program* C. A machine program D. A users’ program

14. Which one is the portion of an instruction is sent from memory to the instruction register?

A. LOAD B. ACCUMULATE C. EXECUTE D. FETCH*

15.What is that part of a computer instruction that defines what type of operation the computer is to execute on
specified data?

A. Machine language B. Mnemonic C. Assembly language D. Op code*

16.A digital circuit is also known as:

A. arithmetic circuit B. logic circuit* C. electronic circuit D. sequential circuit

17. What does “TTL” means?

A. Transistor Transistor Logic* B. Transformer Tapped Logic

C. Transistorized Transmission Logic D. Transmit Time Logic

18. Which computer port is commonly used in order to speed up the transfer of the computer data?

A. Parallel port*B. Serial port C. Video port D. Modem port

19. Which device puts data on the data bus during a write operation?

A. ALU B. CPU* C. Keyboard D. Accumulator

20. What is an instruction mnemonic?

A. A short abbreviation for the operation*

B. A binary code that represents the operation to be performed by the CPU.
C. A technical term sometimes added to an IC’s description.
D. A representation of a quantity that varies in discrete steps.

21. What is the term used to describe the moving of software from another computer to your own computer?

A. Surfing B. Downloading* C. Uploading D. Accessing

22. What abbreviation represents the op code of a computer instruction?

A. ASCII* B. Mnemonic C. Oclets D. Algorithm

23. Which of the following is the busiest bus and the one that carries that actual data?

A. Address bus B. Data bus* C. Control bus D. Microprocessor

24.HTTP:// is an identifier that appears at the beginning of most Web page. What does HHTP stands for?

A. Hypertext Time Protocol B. Hypertime Text Protocol

C. Hypertext Transmission Process D. Hypertext Transfer Protocol*
25. A megabyte is exactly ___________ bytes.

A. 1,000,000 B. 999,999 C. 1,000,001 D. 1,048,576*

26. What is the term for a computer or software that requests information from another computer of server?

A. Host B. Workstation C. Client* D. All of the choices

27. A software that translates a program written in a high-level language into low-level instruction before the
program is executed is called _______?

A. Compiler * B. Assembler C. Integrator D. Interpreter

28. The term “bus” refers to:

A. the physical path along which the signal travels* B. the logical path
C. both the physical path and the logic path D. the microprocessor peripheral that executes data
29. What computer memory is used during the first cycles of data processing activity?

A. Read only memory* B. Cache memory C. Hard drive memory D. Program memory

30. A parity bit is also called ______ is an extra bit attached to the end of a byte for purposes of checking for accuracy.

A. chip size* B. check bit C. silicon type D. RAM capacity

31. Which of the following belongs to a class of codes called the minimum-change codes, in which only one bit in the
code group changes when going from one step to the next?

A. Morse code B. BCD code C. Excess-3 code D. Gray code*

32. What does “ DTML” means?

A. Diode Transistor Macro Logic B. Diode Transistor Minimum Logic

C. Diode Transistor Maximum Logic D. Diode Transistor Micro Logic *
33. All are basic operation in Boolean Algebra except:

A. Logical addition B. Logical subtraction* C. Logical multiplication D. Logical complementation

34. What type of database contains records in an organized structured format?

A. Hierarchical database* B. Relational database C. Ordered database D. Sequential database

35. In what slot does the CD drive will be connected to the mother board of the computer?

A. PCI slot B. IDE slot* C. ISA slot D. AGP slot

36. ________two way parallel path connecting processors and memory containing addresses.

A. Buffer B. Cache memory C. Control bus D. Address bus*

37. What is the smallest changeable data unit?

A. Bit* B. Byte C. Nibble D. Word

38. The command line in basic programming is always started by which of the following?

A. Integer* B. Alphanumeric character C. Machine code D. Clear command

39. What program is executed on several different computers to compare their speed and performance?

A. Compiler B. Assembler C. Diagnostic program D. Benchmark*

40.A computer or software on the network that supplies the network with data and storage is called __?

A. server * B. mainframe C. host D. workstation

41. Which of the following has a function of directing memory and I/O devices transfers?

A. Address bus* B. Data bus C. Control bus D. Device bus

42. What do you mean by the acronym “DCTL”?

A. Diode Capacitor Transistor Logic B. Diode Coupled Transistor Logic

C. Direct Connected Transistor Logic D. Direct Coupled Transistor Logic*

43. What register holds the current instruction during its execution?

A. Instruction register* B. Pushdown register C. Program register D. Execution register

44. A BCD code has how many bits per number?

A. 2 B. 4 * C. 8 D. 16

45. A non-impact printer that forms images with little dots and produces high quality images.

A. Card printer B. Dot-matrix printer C. Computer printer D. Ink jet printer*

46. A nibble is composed of how many bits?

A. 2 B. 4 * C. 6 D. 8

47. The term “firmware” is used to describe programs stored in which of the following memory hardware?

A. ROMs and EPROMs* B. RAMs and ROMs C. PROMs and EPROMs D. PROMs and ROMs

48. In digital codes, how do you identify codes running from 0 to or run from 0-7?

A. Base 10 B. Octal C. Binary* D. Gray

49. Text editors and formatters belong to which area of computing?

A. Compilers B. Accounting C. Assembling* D. Word Processing

50. What refers to characters that can be displayed or printed, including numerals and symbols?

A. Control characters
B. Alphanumeric data
C. Binary characters*
D. Alphanumeric control
51. What refers to the manner in which alphanumeric data and control characters are represented by sequences of
bits?
A. Controlling B. Processing C. Coding D. Transforming
52. What type of file has a record of web site activity?
A. Cookie file B. Java file C. HTTP file* D. HTML file
53. What memory in a computer is used to hold the computer’s start up routine?
A. RAM B. CMOS C. ROM * D. SDRAM
54. What term is used to describe retrieval of data from a memory?
A. Unloading B. Downloading* C. Reading D. Accessing
55. A state of the art technology dwsigned to provide supervisory control and data acquisition capability for
industrial, commercial and utility power substation and systems.
A. Monitor B. Cobol* C. SCADA D. IBM PC
56. What is a technique used to ensure that the bits within a memory byte are correct?
A. Handshaking B. Parity C. Swapping* D. Processing
57. What is a term for a sequence of computer instructions that performs some functions?
A. Algortithm* B. Machine language C. Program D. Assembly language
58. The executable program is kept on disk or tape, it is normally referred as _______?
A. software* B. firmware C. hardware D. all of he choices
59. What do you call a network where people can retrieve information, communicate, entertain or do business from
the comfort of a PC?
A. Internet* B. Web site C. Facsimile D. E-mail
60. What refers to one or more integrated circuits that contain permanent instructions that the computer uses during
boot process?
A. CMOS B. ROM C. RAM D. Boot Sector*
61. Which of he following is used to capture real and moving objects and displays it into a computer?
A. Scanner* B. Video player C. Electronic recorder D. Digital Camera
62. Which of the following is related to a monitor?
A. Video display* B. Screen C. Monochrome monitor D. RGB Monitor
63. What is a network with continuous loop communication?
A. Star network B. Ring network C. Cascaded network* D. Local network
64. A computer that interacts with a television set Is called?
A. Personal computer* B. Net computer C. Personal digital assistant D. Telecomputer
65. Section of information that may be stored in more than one file is ______?
A. Databank B. Database C. Dataware D. Data module*
66. A boot disk that contains operating system files plus antivirus software is called?
A. boot disk B. rescue disk C. reserve disk D. restore disk*
67. What do u call viruses designed to corrupt antivirus softwares?
A. Anti-antivirus B. Antivirus eradicator C. Worm* D. Retro viruses
68. What do you call a communication network covering a geographical area the size of a city or suburban?
A. Local area network B. Wide area network
C. Metropolitan area network* D. Multi-level network
69. What is a large computer called?
A. A laptop computer B. A mega computer*
C. A main frame computer D. A desktop computer
70. What is used to translate high level statements into machine language?
A. Macros B. Assembler C. Compiler or interpreter D. Loader*
71. What is RS 232C?
A. An interface standard* B. A type of computer memory
C. A type of computer hard disk D. A computer cable connecting the hardwares.
72. A term that refers to the physical equipment or components of an electronic data processing system?
A. Software B. Central processing unit C. Firmware D. Hardware*
73. What refers to a technique where each user of a computer takes turns, under the control of the operating system,
using the entire computer main memory for a certain length of time?
A. Multitasking B. Time-sharing* C. Handshaking D. Batch processing
74. A computer virus that infects the macros that are attached to documents and spreadsheets is called ________?
A. Micro virus* B. File virus C. Document virus D. Spread sheet virus
75. In computer work, an antivirus is
A. a software full of virus in order to minimize a software against a specific defect.
B. a specific virus that protects a program from other unprecedented attacks by other virus
C. a software that scans a computer system to detect viruses or other harmful software*
D. a vaccine injected by the operator into the hard disk of a computer to remove interference
76. What do you call a microscopic plate of silicon that contains thousands of micro miniature electronic circuit
components?
A. Integrated transistor B. Memory C. Central processing unit D. Microchip*
77. What code is a 7-bit code that allows only 128 different combinations and commonly used in microcomputers?
A. EBCDIC B. ASCII* C. Baudot code D. Hollerith code
78. All data processing system involve the following operations regardless of the kind of data processed or the kind of
device or equipment used. Which of the following are these?
A. Analyzing, logic determination and coding B. Input, processing and output*
C. Input, storage and processing D. Processing, storage and distribution
79. What refers to a computer-base system in which a telephone message is recorded in digital form and then
forwarded to others?
A. Voice mail * B. Answering machine C. Teleconference D. Audio conference
80. It refers to the rate at which data is sent over communication lines. Which one?
A. Propagation rate B. Uploading rate C. Baud rate* D. Attenuation rate
81. What holds data and instruction for further manipulation in the ALU?
A. Register B. Accumulator* C. Control bus D. Data bus
82. Which of the following refers to a round piece of plastic that stores data and program as a magnetized spot?
A. Digital disk B. Hard disk C. Floppy disk* D. None of these
83. It is a very powerful small component of a computer.
A. Diode B. Triode C. Chip* D. Internet
84. What do you call a device that provides the computer with electricity if there is a power failure?
A. Uninterruptible power supply (UPS)* B. Automatic transfer switch (ATS)
C. Power supply rectifier D. Power inverter
85. What type of database stores all information in the equivalent of a matrix?
A. Hierarchical database B. Relational database* C. Ordered database D. Sequential database
86. What type of computer accepts input in handwriting on a screen?
A. Stylus computer B. Pen-based computer* C. Touch-screen computer D. All of the choices
87. A megabyte is a computer term which means
A. a thousand kilobytes* B. a million kilobytes
C. a group of characters that can fill a computer storage D. a hundred thousand bytes
88. What is storage capacity of a 3 ½ “ floppy disk?
A. 1.44 MB* B. 1.8 MB C. 1.25 MB D. 1.5 MB
89. What is used to gain access to internet?
A. Gopher B. Web page C. Password D. Browser*
90. Which one is not a data communication equipment?
A. Modem B. Data auxiliary set C. Personal computer* D. None of these
91. Which of the following devices merges signals?
A. Oscillator B. Multiplexer* C. Demodulator D. Demultiplexer
92. Which one is not required in video conferencing through a PC?
A. Microphone B. Digital camera C. Speakers D. Screen filter*
93. What do you call a collection of fields?
A. File B. Record* C. Document D. Database
94. What device is used in converting a computer digital signal to analog signals for transmission over telephone
wires?
A. Modem* B .Network hub C. Digital switch D. Demodulator
95. The Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code (EBCDIC) uses how many bits for each character?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 8* D. 16
96. In a network of computers, what do you call the computer wherein commonly used files are stored and accessed?
A. Network computer B. Host computer C. File server* D. PC
97. The digital system usually operates on _______ system?
A. decimal B. hexadecimal C. binary* D. octal
98. Which one refers to a way of sending and receiving mails between two more people through the global computer
network?
A. Electronic mail* B. Express mail C. Facsimile D. Internet
99. What is another term for memory?
A. Tape storage B. Disk storage C. Primary storage* D. Secondary storage
100. It is the computerized data gathering, monitoring and switching equipment.
A. Supervising control B. Remote control C. SCADA* D. Control and monitoring system
101. What refers to the process of sending a copy of a file from a local computer to a remote computer?
A. Downloading B. Electronic mail C. Uploading* D. Routing
102. AN individual computer can be interconnected to a network of computers using which of the following?
A. Interface B. Serial port C. Modem D. Network hub*
103. ________is a device converting computer digital signals to analog signals for transmission over copper telephone
wires and then back to digital signals.
A. Fax machine B. Modem* C. Telegram D. Telephone
104. Maximum capacity of a recordable compact disc.
A. 1Gbytes B. 10 Gbytes C. 650 Mbytes* D.100 Mbytes
105. Which of the following is a binary coding commonly used in computers?
A. Baudot B. ASCII* C. BCD D. EBCDIC
106. Which one is used in the screen of a laptop computer?
A. LCD* B. CRT C. JRT D. RSC
107. For PC to PC communications, a data terminal equipment is directly connected to
A. DDE Equipment B. Telephone line C. ATE equipment D. DCE Equipment*
108. Which computer slot provides a high speed data pathway that is primarily used for graphics cards?
A. ISA B. PCI C, AGP* D. IDE
109. Octal coding involves grouping the bits in ___?
A. 6’s B. 9’s C. 1’s D. 3’s*
110. What is used to translate as assembly language code into machine language?
A. Assembler* B. Loader C. Compiler D. Interpreter
111. What is a network with a host computer called?
A. Star network* B. Ring network C. Mesh network D. Local Network
112. It refers to a device that demodulates signals transmitted over data communication facilities.
A. Facsimile machine C. Modem*
B. Communication hub D. Cellular phone
113. What does ‘DTL’ means?
A. Data Terminal Load
B. Data Terminal Logic
C. Diode Transistor Load
D. Diode Transistor Logic*
114. A process of notifying network that you are using a specific computer called ______?
A. log-in* B. booting C. password D. log-out
115. What is another term for operating system (OS)?
A. Start-up program B. Computer program C. Monitor program* D. All of the choices
116. If the program is placed in ROM or EPROM, it referred to as _____.
A. software B. firmware* C. hardware D. software and firmware
117. What is the smallest type of computer in terms of their physical sizes?
A. Minicomputer B. Mainframe C. Maxicomputer D. Microcomputer*
118. Which of the following is a volatile memory?
A. RAM B. ROM C. PROM D. EPROM
119. What code results when each digit of a decimal number is represented by its binary equivalent?
A. Morse code B. Gray code C. Binary-coded decimal* D. Straight binary code
120. A byte is composed of how many bits?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8*
121. What is the meaning of SCADA?
A. System Coordinated Area Distribution Area C. Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition*
B. System Control and Data Acquisition D. Super Computer and Deck Accessibility
122. What memory contains the BIOS that is read in when the computer is first started?
A. Cache memory B. Virtual memory C. OS memory* D. Video memory

ENGINEERING ECONOMICS QUESTIONS

1. What do you call the market situation whereby there is only buyer of an item for which there are no goods
substitutes?
A. Monopsony* B. Monopoly C. Oligopoly D. Oligopsony

2. What is method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage of the
depreciated book value at the beginning of the year to which the depreciation applies?
A. Straight line method C. SYD method
B. Sinking fund method D. Declining balance method*

3. What refers to the ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time and usually expressed
as a percentage of the principal
A. Return of investment C. Yield
B. Interest rate* D. Rate of return

4. What is defined as the future value minus the present value?

A. Yield B. Rate of return C. Capital D. Discount*

5. What do you call the worth of property as shown in the accounting records?
A. Use value B. Book value* C. Fair value D. Scrap value
6. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?
A. Sole proprietorship C. Corporation*
B. Partnership D. Enterprise

7. What is an example of intangible asset?

A. Cash B. Investment in subsidiary companies C. Furniture D. Patents*

8. A profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of obligations to financial
contributors and claims of others based on profit knows as _____.
A. Yield B. economic return* C. earning value D. gain

9. What refers to the lessening of the value of a n asset (eg. natural sources, such as coal, oil, etc.) due to the
decrease in the quantity available?
A. Inflation B. Depletion* C. Depreciation D. Incremental cost

10. ___________ is the element of value which a business has earned through the favorable consideration and
patronage of its customers arising from its well-known and well conducted policies and operations.
A. Status of company C. Known owners
B. Big income D. Goodwill*

11. The amount of property on which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property when neither one
os under compulsion to buy or sell is called ________.
A. Fair value B. Market value* C. Goodwill value D. Book value

12. Which is not an essential element of an ordinary annuity?

A. The amounts of all payments are equal
B. The payments are made at equal interval of time
C. The first payment is made at the beginning of the first period.*
D. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.

13. What is defined as the certificate of indebtedness of corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years
and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a corporation?
A. Bond* B. T-bills C. Stock D. All of the choices

14. What do you call the increase in the value of a capital asset?
A. Profit B. Capital gain* C. Capital expenditure D. Capital shock

15. In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,

` A. the partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
B. the partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be used to pay the liabilities
C. the partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership*
D. the partners may sell stock to generate additional capital

16. What refers to a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security?
A. Bond B. Bank note C. Coupon* D. Check

17. What type of bond is issued jointly by two or more corporations?

A. Mortgage bond B. Joint bond* C. Tie-up bond D. Trust bond

18. What type of bond whose guaranty is in line on railroad equipment, freight and passenger cars, locomotives,
etc?
A. Railroad bond C. Equipment bond
B. Equipment obligation bond D. Equipment trust bond

19. Type of bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest and the date when such interest is to be
paid is _____ bond.
 A. Registered B. coupon* C. mortgage D. collateral trust

20. A bond without any security behind them except a promise to pay by the issuing corporation called _______.
A. joint bond B. debenture bond* C. trust bond D. common bond

21. What type of bond where the corporation’s owners name are recorded and the interest is paid periodically to
the owners with their asking for it?
A. Preferred bond C. Incorporators bond
B. Registered bond* D. All of the choices

22. What represents the ownership of stockholders who have a residual claim on the assets of the corporation
after all other claims have been settled?
A. Authorized capital stock C. Incorporator stock
B. Preferred stock D. Common stock*

23. What stock represents ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock?
A. Authorized stock C. Incorporator’s stock
B. Preferred stock* D. Presidential stock

24. What refers to the place where sellers and buyers come together?
A. Department store B. Market* C. Mall D. Business center

25. Savage value is sometimes known as ______.

A. Scrap value B. Going value C. Junk value D. Second-hand value*

26. What do you call the reduction in the money value of a capital asset?
A. Capital expenditure B. Capital loss* C. Loss D. Deficit

27. What refers to the negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit?
A. Time deposit B. Bond C. Capital gain certificate D. Certificate of deposit

28. What do you call any particular raw material or primary product such as cloth, wool, flour, coffee, etc?
A. Utility B. Necessity C. Commodity* D. Stock

29. ________ denotes the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of the others. This term usually
applies to the floating exchange rate.
A. Currency appreciation C. Currency devaluation*
B. Currency depreciation D. Currency float

30. The deliberate lowering of the price of a nation’s currency in terms of the accepted standard (Gold, American
dollar or the British pound) is known as ______.
A. dividend* B. return C. share of stock D. equity

31. What refers to the residual value of a company’s assets after all outside liabilities (shareholders excluded)
have been allowed for?
A. Dividend B. Equity* C. Return D. Par value

32. Refers to a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first payment is made after
several periods from the first period.
A. Deferred annuity* C. Ordinary annuity
B. Annuity due D. Perpetuity

33. Which one refers to an annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning from the
first period?
A. Deferred annuity C. Ordinary annuity
B. Annuity due* D. Perpetuity
34. What type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each period starting from the first period?
A. Deferred annuity C. Ordinary annuity*
B. Annuity due D. Perpetuity

35. What refers to the cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event, based on the earning
power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will earn?
A. Present worth factor C. Time value of money*
B. Interest rate D. Yield
36. What refers to the function of interest rate and time that determines the amulative amount of a sinking fund
resulting from specific periodic deposits?
A. Sinking fund factor* B. Present worth factor C. Capacity factor D. Demand factor

37. What refers to the value of an asset which a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller, will
determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties?
A. Book value B. Market value C. Fair value* D. Franchise value

38. What refers to the value of an intangible item which arises from the exclusive right of a company to provide a
specified product and service in a certain region of the country?
A. Company value B. Going value C. Goodwill value D. Franchise value*

39. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given time and place is
known as __________
A. supply* B. demand C. necessity D. utility

40. The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at a given time and place is known as ___
A. supply B. demand* C. necessity D. utility

41. What market situation exists where there are few sellers and few buyers?
A. Oligopoly B. Oligopsony C. Bilateral oligopoly* D. Bilateral oligopsony

42. A market situation exists where there is only one buyer and only one seller?
A. Monopsony B. Monopoly C. Bilateral monopsony D. Bilateral monopoly*

43. Capitalized cost of any structure or property is computed by which formula?

A. First cost + interest of first cost B. Annual cost + interest of first cost
C. First cost + cost of perpetual maintenance* D. Fist cost + salvage value

44. The flow back of profit plus depreciation from a given project is called ____________?
A. capital recovery B. cash flow* C. economic return D. earning value

45. What refers to the interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of the interest
earned by an investment?
A. Economic return B. Yield C. Rate of return* D. Return of investment

46. The difference between the present and future worth of money at some time in the future.
A. Discount* B. Deduction C. Inflation D. Arithmetic progression

47. It is the present worth of its probable future net earnings.

A. Total fair value B. Total market value C. Going concern value D. Earning value*

48. The simplest and extensively employed method in computing depreciation.

A. Sinking fund method B. Sum of integers method C. Straight line method* D. Fixed percentage method

49. Is an artificial being created by operation of law, having the right of succession and the process, attributes
and properties expressly authorized by the law or incident to its existence.
 A. Corporation* B. Property C. Partnership D. Organization

50. The first cost to be incurred if the piece of equipment now in place had been bought for a second hand dealer
or some other business.
A. Material cost B. Fixed cost C. First cost D. In-place value*

51. When of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing the other factors of
production will result in a less than proportional increase in output.
A. Law of demand B. Law of supply and demand C. Law of supply D. Law of diminishing return*

52. The original record of a business transaction is recorded in this book.

A. Work book B. Journal* C. Ledger D. Account book

53. The process of determining the value or worth of a physical property for specific reason.
A. Investment B. Valuation C. Economy D. Depletion

54. All the proceeds which are received by the business as a result of the sale of goods.
A. Net income B. Gross income* C. Net revenue D. Total sales

55. It is the price a buyer is willing to pay a willing seller for the stock.
A. Bond value B. Scrap value C. Market value* D. Stock value

56. Is the claim of anyone to ownership?

A. Proprietorship B. Assets C. Equity* D. Liability

57. Amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

A. Interest* B. Rate of interest C. Simple interest D. Principal

58. Cash money and credit necessary to establish and operate an enterprise.
A. Capital* B. Funds C. Assets D. Liabilities
59. The uncovered depreciation results due to poor estimates as to the life of the equipment.
A. Sunk cost* B. Economic life C. In-place value D. Annuity
60. Share of participation.
A. Franchise B. Partnership C. Stock* D. Corporation
61. A form of business organization in which a person conducts his business alone and entirely for hiw own
profit, being solely responsible for all its activities and liabilities.
A. Sole proprietorship* B. Entrepreneurship C. Partnership D. Stockholders

62. An aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose of conducting a business and recognized by law as a
fictitious person is called.
A. Partnership B. Investors C. Corporation* D. Stockholders

63. All are classified under direct labor expenses EXCEPT?

A. Inspection cost B. Testing cost C. Assembly cost D. Supervision cost*

64. What is another term for “current assets”?

A. Fixed assets B. Non-liquid assets C. Liquid assets* D. Cash
65. In SYD method of computing depreciation, what is the formula in computing the sum-of-years digit with n as
the number of useful years of the equipment?
A. n(n-1)/2 C. n(n-1)
B. n(n+1)/2 D. n(n+1)

66. The present worth of cost associated with an asset for an infinite period of time is referred as:
A. Annual cost B. Increment cost C. Capitalized cost* D. Operating cost

67. A secondary book of accounts, the information of which is obtained from the journal.
 A. Infinite cost B. Life cycle cost* C. Life cost D. Project cost

68. What is normally used to compare alternatives that accomplished the same purpose but have unequal lives?
A. Capitalized cost method C. Annual cost method
B. Present worth method D. MARR

69. What method is often used in municipal project evaluations where benefits and costs accrue to different
segments of the community?
A. Annual cost method C. Rate of return method
B. Benefit-cost ratio* D. EUAC

70. What refers to an imaginary cost representing what will not be received if particular strategy is rejected?
A. Opportunity cost* C. Horizon cost
B. Ghost cost D. Null cost

71. What do you call the after-tax present worth of all depreciation effects on the depreciation period of the
asset?
A. Asset recovery C. Period recovery
B. B. Depreciation recovery* D. After-tax recovery

72. What is used to record historical financial transactions?

A. Bookkeeping system* C. Balance check
B. Ledger system D. General journal system

73. What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected?
A. Current ratio B. Quick ratio C. Acid test ratio D. Receivable turnover*

74. Ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales is called _____
A. Current ratio C. Profit margin ratio*
B. Inventory ratio D. Price-earning ratio

75. Gross margin is the ratio of the gross profit to _______

A. net sales* B. owner’s equity C. inventory turnover D. quick assets

76. What is another term for “acid-test ratio”?

A. Current ratio B. Quick ratio C. Profit margin ratio D. Price-earning ratio

77. What is an accounting term that represents an inventory account adjustment?

A. Cost of goods sold* C. Standard cost
B. Cost accounting D. Overheard coat

78. What is the factor name of the formula (1+i)-n?

A. Uniform gradient future worth C. Single payment present worth*
B. Capital recovery D. Single payment compound amount

79. What is the factor name of the formula i(1+i)n

(1+i) n– 1
A. Uniform series sinking fund C. Single payment present worth
B. Capital recovery* D. Uniform gradient future worth

80. What is used when a quick estimate of the doubling time is needed?
A. Rule of 48 B. Rule of 36 C. Rule of 24 D. Rule of 72*
ENGINEERING MATERIALS QUESTIONS

1. What do you call the electrons at the outermost shell of an atom?

A. Holes B. Isotopes C. Valence electrons D. Neutrons

2. The mass of a neutron is approximately how many times greater than the mass of an electron?
A. 1839* B. 1836 C. 1863 D. 1893

3. What is the mass (in grams) of an electron?

A. 9.107 x 10 -28 B. 1.675 x 10 -24 C. 1.672 x 10 -24 D. 1.079 x 10 -28

4. What is the charge of an electron?

A. -1.601 x 10 -19 coulombs C. -1.501 x 10 -19coulombs
B. -1.801 x 10 -19 coulombs D. -1.401 x 10 -19 coulombs

5. What do you call the distinct pattern in space which the atoms of metal arranged themselves when they
combine to produce a substance of recognizable size?
A. Space-lattice* B. Crystal C. Grain D. Unit Cell

6. What are considered as the “building blocks” for engineering materials?

A. Atoms* B. Elements C. Matters D. Compounds
7. What determines the ability of atoms to combine with other atoms?
A. The valence electrons* C. The atomic number
B. The number of electrons D. The atomic weight

8. What is the generally accepted nominal mass of a proton?

A. 1 AMU* B. 10 AMU C. 0.1 AMU D. 5 AMU
9. What is the term used to describe the amount of energy that is given off when an electron moves from one
orbit to a lower orbit?
A. Valency B. Quantum* C. Fusion D. Fission

10.What refers to a metal combined with one or more other elements?

A. Mixture B. Compound C. Alloy* D. Molecule

11. What refers to a physical blend of two or more substances?

A. Molecule B. Mixture* C. Alloy D. Compound

12.What is the smallest part of a compound that still remains the properties of that compound?
A. Alloy B. Element C. Molecule* D. Unit cell

13.When a solid has a crystalline structure, the atoms arranged in repeating structures called ______.
A. lattice B. unit cell* C. crystal D. domain

14.What type of bonding refers to the sharing of electrons?

A. Covalent bonding* C. Metallic bonding
B. Van der Waals D. Ionic bonding

15.What refers to a crystal imperfection characterized by regions of severe atomic misfit where atoms are not
properly surrounded by neighbor atoms?
A. Discrystallization B. Dislocation* C. Slip step D. Dispersion

16.What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber form?
A. Metalloids B. Matrix alloys C. Metal lattices D. Metal matrix composites*

17. What is the usual valence of nonmetallic elements?

 A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. All of the choices

18. Metalloids have a valence of ____.

A. 3 B. 4* C. 5 D. unity

19. What is a combination of one or more metals with nonmetallic element?

A. Metalloid B. Matrix composite C. Inert D. Ceramic*

20. What do you call an atom that has lost or gain an electron?
A. Ion* B. Cation C. Hole D. Neutron

21. Polymers come from Greek words “poly” which means “many” and “meros” which means ________.
A. Metal B. material C. part* D. plastic

22. The engineering materials known as “plastics” are more correctly called ________.
A. Polyvinyl chloride B. Polymers C. Polyethylene D. Mers

23. What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components materials do not
have by themselves?
A. Compound B. Composite* C. Mixture D. Matrix

24. What is a reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering materials?
A. Periodic table* C. Building blocks of Materials
B. Truth table D. Structure Materials

25. Who has been accepted as the author of the periodic table which was developed by chemists in the mid-
nineteenth century?
A. Vickers B. Knoop C. Rockwell D. Mendeleev*

26. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic materials can no
longer be magnetized by outside forces?
A. Melting point C. Thermal expansion
B. Thermal conductivity D. Curie point*

27. What is the ratio of the velocity of light in a vacuum to its velocity in another material?
A. Refractive index* B. Poisson ratio C. Density D. Mach number

28. What is absolute value of the ratio of the transverse strain to the corre4sponding axial strain in a body
subjected to uniaxial stress?
A. Poisson’s ratio* B. Euler’s ratio C. Refractive index D. Dielectric index

29. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference (voltage) that an insulating
material of given thickness can withstand for a specified time without occurrence of electrical breakdown
through its bulk?
A. Thermal expansion C. Dielectric strength*
B. Conductivity D. Electrical resistivity

30. What physical property of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required to raise the same mass of water
to 1 degree?
A. Specific heat* B. Latent heat C. Heat of fusion D. Heat of fission

31. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a specified load
shows a specified amount of deflection?
A. Curie temperature C. Heat distortion temperature*
B. Specific Heat D. Thermal Conductivity
32. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension test at constant
load and constant temperature?
A. Creep strength C. Compressive yield strength
B. Stress rapture strength* D. Hardness

33. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation?
A. Rigidity B. Plasticity C. Ductility D. Hardness*

34. What parameter is defined as the temperature at which the toughness of the material drops below some
predetermined value, usually 15 ft-lb?
A. Nil ductility temperature* C. Thermal conductivity
B. Curie temperature D. Heat distortion

35. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it falls?
A. Elastic limit C. Creep
B. Endurance limits or fatigue strength of material D. All of the choices

36. What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation from edge straightness?
A. Lay B. Out of flat C. Camber* D. Waviness

37. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wavelike variation from a perfect surface, generally much
wider in spacing and higher in amplitude than surface roughness?
A. Lay B. Waviness* C. Surface finish D. Out of flat

38. Woods is composed of chains of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural polymer called
_____.
A. plastic B. lignin* C. mer D. additive

39. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing two different
monomers?
A. Copolymerization* B. Blending C. Alloying D. Cross-linking

40. What is the generic name of a class of polymer which is commercially known as “nylon”?
A. Polyacetals B. Polyamide* C. Cellulose D. Polyester

41. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a metal die?
A. Calendering B.Thermoforming C. Lithugraphy D. Extrusion*

42. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular materials to form with an ordered, spatial, three-
dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules?
A. Stereospecificity* B. Conductivity C. Retentivity D. Spatial configuration

43. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross-sectional area of the test bar?
A. Tensile strength* B. Yield strength C. Shear strength D. Flexural strength

44. What is the ratio of stress in a material loaded within its elastic range?
A. Poisson’s ratio B. Refractive index C. Modulus of elasticity* D. Percent elongation

45. What is a measure of rigidity?

A. Stiffness B. Hardness C. Strength D. Modulus of elasticity*

46. The greatest stress which a material is capable of withstanding without a deviation from acceptable of stress
to strain is called?
A. elongation B. proportional limit* C. yield point D. elastic limit
47. What is the amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material?
A. Impact strength* B. Endurance limit C. Creep strength D. Stress rupture strength

48. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under stress?
A. Elongation B. Elasticity C. Creep* D. Rupture

49. In tensile testing, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen fractures within the gage
length is called _____.
A. Percent elongation* B. Creep C. Elasticity D. Elongation

50. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron?

A. Conductor B. Semiconductor C. Magnet* D. All of the choices

51. Which of the following is a natural magnet?

A. Steel B. Magnesia C. Lodestone* D. Soft iron

52. What materials has permeabilities slighter greater than that of free space?
A. Paramagnetic materials* C. Ferromagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials

53. Which of the following materials have very high permeabilities?

A. Paramagnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials*
B. Non-magnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials

54. What ASTM test for compression is designated for plastics?

A. D638 B. D695* C. D790 D. D732

55. What ASTM test for shear strength is designated for plastics?
A. D732* B. D790 C. D695 D. D638

56. Some polymetric materials such as epoxies are formed by strong primary chemical bonds called ______.
A. Metallic bond B. Van der Waals bond C. Cross linking* D. Covalent bond

57. A large molecule with two alternating mers is known as?

A. monomer B. elastomer C. mers D.copolymer or interpolymer*

58. What term Is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties?
A. Vulcanizer B. Elasticmer C. Polychloropene D. Elastomer*

59. What is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon, with the carbon being restricted with certain concentration
limits?
A. Steel * B. Wrought iron C. Cast iron D. Tendons

60. In what special refining process of steel where molten metal is poured down a tundish (chute) into an ingot
mold?
A. Elestroslag refining C. Vacuum induction melting
B. Vacuum arc remelting D. Electron beam refining*

61. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent?
A. Alloy steel B. Stainless steel C. Galvanized steel D. Carbon steel*

62. What group of steels are water-hardened tools steels?

A. Group S B. Group W* C. Group O D. Group T
63. What group of steels are molybdenum high-speed steels?
A. Group A B Group D C. Group M D. Group H

64. Steels that are used for axles, gears, and similar parts requiring medium to high strength are known as?
A. Medium-carbon steel* C. Very high-carbon steel
B. Low-carbon steel D. High-carbon steel

65. Galvanized steel are steel products coated with _____.

A. Carbon B. Sulfur C. Zinc* D. Nickel

66. The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot-worked steels is known as _______.
A. Tempering B. Pickling* C. Machining D. Galvanizing

67. The purpose of molybdenum in steel alloying is to?

A. increase brittleness
B. increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and hardness*
C. reduces brittleness, combine with sulfur
D. increase corrosion and resistance

68. Indicate the false statement

A. About 10% of the earth’s crust is iron
B. Pure iron does not have significant industrial use because it Is too weak and soft
C. Steel is an alloy of carbon and iron with limits on the amount of carbon (less than 2%)
D. Steel is made by reducing oxide ore of iron by thermochemical reactions in a blast furnace or direct reduction
vessel.

69. What does AISI stands for?

A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries
B. American Institute of Steel Industries
C. Association of Iron and Steel Industries
D. American Iron and Steel Institute*

70. What does SAE stands for?

A. Society of Automotive Engineers* C. Society of Architects and Engineers
B. Society of American Engineers D. Society of Alloy Engineers

71. What does ASTM stands for?

A. Association of Steel Testing and Materials C. Asian Society for Testing and Materials
B. American Society for Testing and Materials* D. Allied Society for Testing and Materials

72. What prefix in steel identification means composition varies from normal limits?
A. E B. H C. X D. B

73. What prefix in steel identification means it is made in an electric furnace?

A. E B. H C. X D. B

74. What letter suffix in steel identification means that it is steel with boron as an alloying element?
` A. xxLxx B. xxBxx C. xxHxx D. xxKxx

75. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance, high corrosion resistance, and high strength at
red heat temperatures, making It useful in resistance heating?
A. Aluminun bronze B. Nichrome C. Hastelloy D. Alnico

76.A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of chromium?
 A. 10% B. 20% C. 25% D. 5%
77. What do you add to compensate for the remaining high iron oxide content of the steel?
A. Deorizers B. Deoxidizers* C. Deterrent D. Detoxifiers

78.Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon, iron-carbon-silicon alloy?

A. Gray iron* B. Malleable iron C. White iron D. Alloy iron

79.Which of the following cast irons is heat-treated for ductility?

A. Gray iron B. Malleable iron C. White iron D. Ductile iron

80.Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant?

A. Gray iron B. Ductile iron C. White iron* D. Malleable iron

81. What is considered as the general purpose, oldest type and widely used cast iron?
A. Gray iron B. Ductile iron C. Alloy iron D. Malleable iron

82. The effect of manganese in cast iron is to?

A. affects the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form
B. reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above 0.5%
` C. deoxidize molten cast iron
D. Increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature

83. The effect of aluminum in cast iron is to?

A. increase hardness above 0.5%
` B. deoxidize molten cast iron
C. Affect the machinability, ductility, and shrinkage depending on form
D. reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5%

84. The effect of silicon in cast iron is to?

A. reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above 0.5%
B. increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature
C. softens iron and increases ductility below 3.25%, hardens iron above 3.25% and increase acid and corrosion
resistance above 13%
D. deoxidizes molten cast iron

85.What is the advantage of quench hardening?

A. improved strength B. Hardness C. Wear characteristics D. All of the choices

86.Which of the following is a requirement for hardening a steel?

A. Heating to the proper temperature C. Adequate quench
B. sufficient carbon content D. All of the choices*

87. What field of study encompasses the procurement and production of metals?
A. Metallurgy* B. Geology C. Material Science D. Metalgraphy

88. What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides?
A. Hematite B. Magnetite C. Gangue* D. Ore

89. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen-poor environment?
A. Tuyere B. Coke* C. Diamond D. Hematite

90. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?

A. Brass B. Zinc* C. Nickle D. Aluminum
91. What refers to the casehardening process by which the carbon content of the steel near the surface of a part is
increased?
A. Carburizing* B. Annealing C. Normalizing D. Martempering

92. What is the most undesirable of all the elements commonly found in steels?
A. Sulfur B. Phosphorus* C. Silicon D. Manganese

93. What impurity in steel can cause “red shortness”, which means the steel becomes unworkable at high
temperature?
A. Sulfur* B. Silicon C. Manganese D. Phosporus

94. What is the most common reinforcement for polymer composites?

A. Boron B. Ceramic C. Graphite D. Glass fiber

95. In electrochemistry, oxidation is a loss of ______?

A. ion B. electron* C. proton D. anode

96. What is the process of putting back the lost electrons to convert the ion back to a metal?
A. Oxidation B. Corrosion C. Reduction D. ionization

97. Oxidation is an electrochemical cell always takes place where?

A. At the anode B. At the cathode C.At the electrode D. At both cathode and anode

98. Reduction in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?

A. At the anode B. At the cathode* C.At the electrode D. At both cathode and anode

99. What is the pH for a neutral solution?

A. 3 B. 5 C. 7* D. 9

100. The solutions with pH values from 1 to 6 are ______.

A. base B. alkaline C. neutral D. acid*

101. The solutions with pH values from 7 to 12 are ______.

A. base B. alkaline* C. neutral D. acid

102. What do you call the removal of zinc from brasses?

A. Dezincification* B. Graphitization C. Stabilization D. Dealloying

103. What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion?
A.Expoliation* B. Corrosion fatigue C. Scaping D. Fretting

104. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines?
A. Stray current corrosion C. Filiform corrosion*
B. Microbiological corrosion D. Fretting corrosion

105. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the ampunt of carbon to less than ___ percent.
A. 2* B. 3 C. 4 D. 1% to 5%

106. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels?
A. iron, chromium, carbon and nickel
B. iron, chromium, zinc and nickel
C. iron, chromium, carbon and zinc
D. iron, chromium, carbon and copper
107. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold?
A. Casting* B. Molding C. Forming D. all of the choices

108. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting?
A. Water-cooled metal activities C. Ejection mechanism
B. Machined metal holding blocks D. Metal mold (maching halves)*
109. What cast iron has nodular or spheroidal graphite?
A. Ductile iron* B. Wrought iron C. Gray iron D. White iron

110. What is natural substance that makes up a significant portion of all plant life?
A. Cellulose* B. Polyacetal C. Polycarbonates D. Polyimides

111. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products of alcohols and
acids?
A. Alkaline B. Alkydes* C. Alcocids D. Aldehyde

112. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for nickel 3:50 alloy?
A. 13XX B. 23XX* C. 25XX D. 31XX

113. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized carbon steel?
A. 13XX B. 31XX C. 23XX D. 12XX*

114. The Group H steels can be used in what temperature range?

A. 600°C to 1100°C* C. 1100°C to 2000°C
B. 1000°C to 1500°C D. 200°C to 800°C

115. The chrome-molybdenum steels contain how many percent of molybdenum?

A. 0.10 B. 0.20* C. 0.30 D. 0.40

116. The chrome- vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadium?
A. 0.15 to 0.30* B. 0.05 to 0.15 C. 0.30 to 0.45 D. 0.45 to 0.60

117. Manganese steel usually contains how many percent of manganese?

A. 1 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 11 to 14* D. 14 to 18

118. What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center in large section?
A. Malleability B. Hardenability* C. Spheroidability D. Rigidity

119. What is the equilibrium temperature of transformation of austenite to pearlite?

A. 1000° F B. 1333° F C. 1666° F D. 1222° F

119. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the knee of the curve?
A. Pearlite* B. Bainite C. Austenite D. Martensite

120. What is the chief ore of tin?

A. Cassiterite* B. Bauxite C. Limanite D. Galena

121. What is the chief ore of zinc?

A. Cassiterite B. Bauxite C. Sphalerite* D.Limanite

122. What is the chief ore of titanium?

` A. Sphalerite B.Limanite* C. Bauxite D. Cassiterite

123. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used. What does the first digit
indicates?
A. The purity of aluminum C. The alloy group*
 B. The identity of the alloy D. The strength of the alloy

124. In the system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, the letter F that follows the number indicates what
condition of the alloy?
A. As fabricated* B. Strain hardened C. Annealed D. Artificially aged

125. The following alloys are the chief alloys that are die-cast except?
A. Zinc alloys B. Magnesium alloys C. Manganese alloys* D. Aluminum alloys
126. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickel?
A. 10% B. 14%* C. 18% D. 22%

127. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60% copper and 40% zinc is called _____.
A. yellow brass B. red brass C. Muntz metal* D. white brass

128. Red brass contains about how many percent of zinc?

A. 10% B. 15%* C. 20% D. 25%

129. What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element?
A. Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting C. Lowers castability
B. Improve conductivity D. Improves machinability

130. What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element?

A. Increases strength up to about 12% C. Improves machinability
B. Reduces shrinkage D. Increases fluidity in casting

131. Which of the following are two well-known nickel alloys with magnetic properties ideal for permanent magnets?
A. Invar and Nilvar C. Elinvar and Invar
B. Nichrome and Constantan D. Alnico and Cunife*

132. The Portland cement is manufacture from the following elements except:
A. lime B. silica C. alumina D. asphalt*

133. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating in the nonlinear region in the stress-strain
diagram?
A. Modulus of elasticity C. Secant modulus*
B. Proportionality limit D. Tangent modulus

134. What is the ratio of the ultimate failure strain to the yielding strain?
A. Poisson’s ratio B. Ductility* C. Resilience D. Fatigue

135. What test determines the hardenability of a steel specimen?

A. Jominy end-quench test C. Gibb’s phase test
B. The lever rule D. Stress relief test

136. What steel relief process is used with hypoeutectoid steels to change martenite to pearlite?
A. Tempering* B. Normalizing C. Annealing D. Spheroidizing

CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS
1. What type of bond results in form the sharing of electrons by two atoms?
B. Atomic bond C. Metallic bond
C. Covalent bond* D. Ionic bond

2. Which of the following statements regarding organic substances is FALSE?

 C. Organic substances generally dissolve in high concentration acids
D. All organic matter contains carbon
E. Organic matter is generally stable at very high temperatures*
F. Organic substances generally do not dissolve in water.

3. What do you call a substance that dissociates in solutions to produce positive and negative ions?
A. Base
B. Acid
C. Electrolyte*
D. Solute

4. Which of the following is most likely to prove that a substance is inorganic?

A. The substance evaporates in room temperature and pressure
B. The substance is heated together with copper oxide and the resulting gases are found to have no effect
on limestone.*
C. Analysis shows that the substance contains hydrogen.
D. The substance floats in the water

5. Which of the following elements and compounds is unstable in its pure form?
A. Helium (He)
B. Neon (Ne)
C. Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
D. Sodium (Na)*

6. What do you call the bonding that occurs in inert gases and other elements with full shells, primarily due to
attraction between dipole structures?
A. Ionic
B. Metallic
C. Covalent
D. Van der Waals *

7. What element is known as the lightest metal?

A. Aluminum
B. Manganese
C. Magnesium
D. Lithium *

8. Halogens falls under what group in the periodic table?

A. Group VIA
B. Group VA
C. Group IVA
D. Group VIIA *

9. Which of the following is added to the drinking water distribution system for disinfection?
A. Soda Ash
B. Chlorine *
C. Lime
D. Iodine

10. Is the attraction between like molecules.

A. Absorption
B. Diffusion
C. Adhesion
D. Cohesion *

11. What do you call a substance that cannot be decomposed any further by a chemical reaction?
 A. Ion
B. Element*
C. Molecule
D. Atom

12. Which of the following is the strongest type of bond?

A. Van de Waals
B. Metallic
C. Covalent*
D. Ionic

13. Sublimation is a direct change from:

A. Solid to liquid phase
B. Solid to gaseous phase *
C. Liquid to gaseous phase
D. Gaseous to liquid phase

14. What do you call hydrocarbons containing carbon to carbon double bonds?
A. Alkanes
B. Alkenes *
C. Alkynes
D. None of these

15. How are materials containing atoms with less than four valence electrons classified?
A. An insulator
B. A semi-conductor
C. A conductor *
D. A compound

16. Which of the following has the characteristics of both metals and non-metals?
A. Conductors
B. Insulators
C. Metalloids *
D. Meteors

17. Which are oxidizing and reducing agents in the following reactions? 2CCI4 + K2C rO4 -> 2CI2CO + CrO2CI2 + 2KCI
A. There are no oxidizing and reducing agents in this reaction*
B. Oxidizing agent : Chromium ; reducing agent : Chlorine
C. Oxidizing agent : Chlorine ; reducing agent : Carbon
D. Oxidizing agent : Oxygen ; reducing agent : Chlorine

18. What type of bonding in which electrostatic attraction is predominant?

A. Ionic bonding*
B. Metallic bonding
C. Covalent bonding
D. Van de Waals bonding

19. When all of the atoms of a molecule are the same, the substance is called ____.
A. A compound *
B. A chemical
C. An element
D. An ion
20. Which of the following refers to the measure of the amount of negative ions in the water?
A. Acidity
B. Alkalinity *
C. Turbidity
D. Molarity

21. What device produces electric current by way of an oxidation-reduction reaction?

A. Generator
B. Galvanic Cell*
C. Metallic friction
D. All of these

22. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the valence shell of an atom?
A. 6
B. 8 *
C. 10
D. 12

23. Reactions generally proceed faster at high temperature because of which of the following?
A. The molecule are less energetic
B. The molecules collide more frequently
C. The activation energy is less
D. The molecules collide more frequently and the activation energy is less *

24. Which component of an atom has no electric charge?

A. Proton
B. Neutron *
C. Coulomb
D. Electron

25. How much is the PH content of an acid?

A. Between 4 and 6
B. Between 2 and 7
C. Between 1 and 5
D. Between 0 and 7 *

26. The condition of a liquid electrolyte is measured in terms of its:

A. Specific gravity *
B. Acid content
C. Voltage output
D. Current value

27. What is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without itself undergoing a chemical change?
A. Ingredients
B. Reactants
C. Solvents
D. Catalyst *

28. How are element numbered 90 to 103 in the periodic table called?
A. Alkali
B. Actinons *
C. Earth metals
D. Transition elements
29. What is defined as a value equal to the number of gram moles of solute per 100 grams of solvent?
A. Molality *
B. Normality
C. Molarity
D. Formality

30. An element maybe define as a substance, all atoms of which have the same:
A. Number of neutrons
B. Radioactivity
C. Atomic weight
D. Atomic number *

31. The device which measures the acid content of the cell is called?
A. Acid meter
B. Hydrometer*
C. Hygrometer
D. Pyrometer

32. What term is used to refer to a negatively charged ion?

A. Anion *
B. Cathode
C. Anode
D. Cation

33. In a copper atom, the valence ring contains:

A. No electron
B. One electron*
C. Two electrons
D. Four electrons

34. A _______ is a cell designed to produce alectric current and can be recharged.
A. Secondary cell *
B. Electrolytic cell
C. Chemical cell
D. Battery

35. Which of the following groups in the periodic table the most strongly electronegative elements?
A. Group IV
B. Group V
C. Group VIIA*
D. Group VIA

36. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. In general, as reaction products are formed, they react with each other and reform reactants.
B. At equilibrium, the net reaction rate is zero.
C. The differential rate is the mathematical expression that shows how the rate of a reaction depends on
volume. *
D. The net rate at which a reaction proceeds from left to right is equal to the forward rate minus the
reverse rate.

37. What is the smallest part of matter?

A. Molecule
 B. Element
C. Particle
D. Atom*

38. The opposite of alkali.

A. Acid*
B. Fluid
C. Substance
D. None of these

39. What type of reaction has two compounds as reactants and two compounds as products?
A. Direct combination or synthesis
B. Decomposition or analysis
C. Single displacement
D. Double displacement *

40. The amount of electricity a battery can produce is controlled by

A. The thickness of the plate
B. The plate surface area
C. The strength of the acid*
D. The discharge load

41. What do you call the electrons in the last orbit or shell of an atom?
A. Bound electrons
B. Free electrons
C. Valence electrons *
D. External electrons

42. Which one is the positively charged ion?

A. Anion
B. Cathode
C. Anode
D. Cation*

43. It is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.

A. Molecular number
B. Proton number
C. Mass number
D. Atomic number *

44. What do you call the elements in the first two groups in the periodic table?
A. Light metals*
B. Noble gas
C. Non-metals
D. Heavy metals

45. What type of bonding is electrostatic attraction most predominant?

A. Ionic*
B. Metallic
C. Covalent
D. Van der Waals

46. When the charge of an atom becomes unbalanced, the charge atom is called ____-
A. An ion*
B. A neutron
C. A proton
 D. An electron

47. What do you call hydrocarbons containing carbon to carbon triple bonds?
A. Alkanes
B. Alkenes
C. Alkynes *
D. None of these

48. If an atom contains more than four valence electrons, the material is classified as ____-?
A. Insulator *
B. Semi-conductor
C. Conductor
D. Any of these

49. The electrolyte is a solution if water and ____

A. Sulfuric acid *
B. Uric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Formic acid

50. Acids will turn blue litmus paper to what color?

A. Gray
B. Yellow
C. Violet
D. Red *

51. A deuteron is
A. A neutron plus two protons
B. A nucleus containing a neutron and a proton *
C. An electron with a positive charge
D. A helium nucleus

52. Which of the following groups in the periodic table the most weakly electronegative elements?
A. Group IIA
B. Group IA *
C. Group IIIA
D. Group IVA

53. What type of bonding that occurs in metals when atoms lose electrons and the metallic ions are attracted to a
“sea” of delocalized electrons?
A. Ionic bonding
B. Metallic bonding *
C. Covalent bonding
D. Van de Waals bonding

54. Which of the following elements is NOT radioactive?

A. Plutonium
B. Californium
C. Uranium
D. Cobalt *

55. Which of the following refers to a nucleic acid that stores genetic information?
A. Cellulose
B. Codon
C. DNA *
D. Buffer
56. What do you call solutions having the same osmotic pressure?
A. Isotonic solutions*
B. Monohydroxic solutions
C. Dihydroxic solutions
D. Toxic solutions

57. The smallest whole unit of an element like Uranium is:

A. Molecule
B. Atom *
C. Ion
D. Electron

58. Bases will turn red litmus paper to what color?

A. Blue *
B. Yellow
C. Violet
D. Green

59. The formula for DiNitrogen Pentoxide is :

A. N2O5 *
B. (NO)5
C. NO
D. None of these

60. Which of the following will occur if a substance is oxidized?

A. It absorb energy
B. It losses electrons *
C. It becomes more negative
D. It gives off heat

61. Dielectric is another name for _____

A. A conductor
B. An element *
C. An insulator
D. A capacitor

62. “at the same pressure and temperature, equal volumes of all gases contain equal number of molecules.” This
is known as
A. Boyle’s law
B. Faraday’s law
C. Avogadro’s law *
D. Charles’ law

63. The galvanic cell is not dependent of which factor?

A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Volume *
D. Chemical substance

64. One of the following statements is wrong. Which one is it?

A. Electron is an elementary quantity of negative electricity
B. Proton is an elementary quantity of positive electricity
 C. An atom is composed of a central nucleus and orbital electrons
D. The mass of an electron is heavier than that of a proton *

65. During chemical reactions, bonds between atoms are broken and new bonds are usually formed. The ending
substance is called ______
A. Products*
B. Reactants
C. Catalyst
D. Ingredients

66. What is the smallest subdivision of an element or compound that can exist in a natural state?
A. Atom
B. Molecule*
C. Ion
D. element

FLUID MECHANICS QUESTIONS

1. What do you call the pressure which the fluid exerts on an immersed object or container walls?
A. Normal pressure
B. Standard liquid pressure
C. Hydrostatic pressure *
D. Gage pressure

2. Viscosity for a fluid is define as the constant of proportionality between shear stress and what other variable?
A. The spatial derivative of velocity *
B. The time derivative of pressure
C. The time derivative of density
D. The spatial derivative of density

3. Which of the following refers to the measure of a fluid’s sensitivity to changes in viscosity with changes in
temperature?
A. Viscosity index *
B. Coefficient of viscosity
C. Viscosity ratio
D. Viscosity factor

4. If the Mach number is greater than 1 but lesser than 5, what is the standard classification of the travel?
A. Transonic travel
B. Subsonic travel
C. Hypersonic travel
D. Supersonic travel *

5. What is measured by a Pitot tube?

A. Volumetric discharge
B. Mass flow
C. Pressure
D. Velocity *

6. In tubes having very small diameter, liquids are observe to rise and fall relative to the level of the surrounding
liquid. What do you call this phenomenon?
A. Fluidity
B. Capillarity *
C. Surface tension
 D. Viscosity

7. The continuity equation of fluid flow is applicable to which of the following condition?
I. The flow of fluid is one dimensional
II. The flow of fluid is steady
III. The velocity of the flow is uniform over the cross section
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III *

8. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A. Steady flow do not change with time at any point
B. Bernoulli’s equation only holds on the same streamline
C. The Reynolds number is the ratio of viscous force to the inertial force *
D. For a fluid at rest, the pressure is equal in all directions

9. On a stationary floating object, the buoyant force act upward through the centroid of the displaced volume.
What do you call this centroid?
A. Center of pressure
B. Center of volume
C. Center of buoyancy *
D. Center of mass

10. In an orifice, what do you call the product of the coefficients of velocity and contraction?
A. Effective head
B. Theoretical discharge
C. Vena contracta
D. Coefficient discharge *

11. This principle states that where the velocity of a fluid is high, the pressure is low, and where the velocity is
low, the pressure is high. Which one?
A. Bernoulli’s principle *
B. Stoke’s principle
C. Archimedes principle
D. Torricelli’s principle

12. If the water of a turbine moves along the vanes towards the axis of rotation of the runner, what is the
classification of the said turbine?
A. Radial flow turbine *
B. Mixed flow turbine
C. Axial flow turbine
D. Parallel flow turbine

13. The negative sign for a gage reading is called

A. Transmission of pressure
B. Vapor pressure
C. Vacuum pressure *
D. Pressure head

14. What do call the volume occupied by a unit mass of fluid?

A. Specific volume *
B. Density
C. Specific weight
D. Specific gravity
15. This type of turbine has the water entering the runner possessing kinetic energy as well as pressure. Which
one?
I. Reaction type II. Impulse type III. Propeller type
A. I only *
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II and III

16. In hydraulic machines, what is the head required to overcome resistance to flow in pipe, fittings,
valveentrances and exits?
A. Velocity head
B. Static suction head
C. Friction head *
D. Static discharge head

17. Which of the following refers to the measure of fluid’s resistance to flow when acted upon by an external
force?
A. Specific gravity
B. Specific volume
C. Coefficient of resistance
D. Viscosity *

18. What do you call the input power delivered by the motor to the pump?
A. Nameplate power
B. Brake horsepower *
C. Hydraulic power
D. Effective power

19. If one end of the manometer opens to the air, what do you call this manometer?
A. Continuous manometer
B. Open manometer *
C. Free end manometer
D. Differential manometer

20. An instrument use to measure small pressure.

A. Venturi
B. Orifice
C. Aneroid
D. Manometer *

21. Which of the following ratios describes Reynolds number?

A. Inertial forces / viscous forces *
B. Drag forces / buoyant forces
C. Buoyant forces / inertial forces
D. Viscous forces / drag forces

22. The following valves are used for shut-off services. Which one is NOT included?
A. Gate valve
B. Plug cock
C. Ball valve
D. Butterfly valve *

23. Which of the following statements is TRUE about a fluid?

A. It has a very regular molecular structure
B. It is a liquid only
C. It cannot sustain a shear force at rest *
 D. It can strain

24. What do you call the vertical distance above the centerline of the pump next to the free level of the fluid
source?
A. Static suction head *
B. Static discharge head
C. Velocity head
D. Friction head

25. Which of the following is an example of a Newtonian fluid?

A. Motor oils
B. Gas *
C. Paints
D. Clay slurries

26. An instrument which is used to determine the specific gravity of a substance?

A. Hydrometer *
B. Throttling calorimeter
C. Odometer
D. None of these

27. The following are the basic components of a fluid element in motion. Which one is NOT included?
A. Translation
B. Twist *
C. Rotation
D. Volume distortion

28. What is the ratio of the object’s speed to the speed of sound in the medium through which it is travelling?
A. Subsonic travel
B. Hypersonic travel
C. Decibel
D. Mach number *

29. In an orifice, what is the ratio of the area of the vena contracta to the orifice area?
A. Torricelli’s coefficient
B. Coefficient of velocity
C. Coefficient of contraction *
D. Coefficient of discharge

30. Which of the following fluid flow is characterized by erratic, small whirlpool-like circles?
A. Steady flow
B. Laminar flow
C. Uniform flow
D. Turbulent flow *

31. Which of the following is assumed in Bernoulli’s equation?

I. There is no friction
II. The fluid is incompressible
III. Changes in thermal energy are neglible
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III *

32. Hydrometer scale for measuring the relative density (specific gravity) of fluids.
A. Beckman scale
 B. Baume scale *
C. Beaufort scale
D. Buckley scale

33. Which of the following refers to the velocity head?

A. Pressure head *
B. Friction head
C. Energy head
D. Flow head

34. This law state that the pressure applied at any point of a confined fluid is transmitted equally to all other
points. What law is this?
A. Newton’s law
B. Boyle’s law
C. Pascal’s law *
D. Charles’ law

35. In a floating object, what do you call the distance between the center of gravity and the metacenter?
A. Metacenteric height *
B. Metacentric head
C. Buoyancy head
D. Submerged height

36. If the Mach number is lesser than 1, what is the standard classification of the travel?
A. Supersonic travel
B. Transonic travel
C. Subsonic travel *
D. Hypersonic travel

37. When a fluid flows through a pipe of cross sectional area A and a velocity V, the flow of discharge is
A. AV2
B. AV *
C. A2V
D. A2/2V

38. What is a check valve?

A. A valve used to check the pressure of fluid
B. A valve that allows the fluid to flow in either direction
C. A valve designed to release the excess pressure
D. A valve designed to allow the fluid to flow in one direction only *

39. What do you call the travel in the transition region between subsonic and supersonic travels?
A. Shock wave
B. Transonic travel *
C. Sonic boom
D. Hypersonic travel

40. What is the reciprocal of absolute viscosity?

A. Viscosity gradient
B. Compressibility
C. Fluidity *
D. Viscosity index

41. The following statements must be satisfied by the flow of any fluid. Which one is NOT included?
A. Newton’s second law of motion
B. The principle of conservation of energy
 C. Newton’s law of viscosity *
D. The continuity equation

42. Which of the following fluids exhibits viscosities that decrease with an increasing velocity gradient?
A. Dilatants fluids
B. Pseudoplastic fluids *
C. Bingham fluids
D. Newtonian fluid

43. What do you call the pressure measured with respect to a true zero pressure reference?
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. Gage pressure
C. Absolute pressure *
D. Meter pressure

44. Viscosities can change with time assuming all other conditions to be constant. If viscosities decrease with
time, what do you call the fluid?
A. Pseudoplastic fluid
B. Colloidal fluid
C. Rheopectic fluid
D. Thixotropic fluid *

45. What is the name of the pipe that conducts water to the turbine in a hydroelectric plant?
A. Tailrace
B. Forebay
C. Penstock *
D. Runner

46. What do you call the manometer if both ends are connected to pressure sources?
A. Open manometer
B. Differential manometer *
C. Cumulative manometer
D. Distributive manometer

47. If the water of a turbine flows parallel towards the axis of rotation from the runner, what is the classification
of the said turbine?
A. Radial flow turbine
B. Mixed flow turbine
C. Axial flow turbine *
D. Inward flow turbine

48. Which of the following adds energy to the fluid flowing through it?
A. Pipe
B. Pump *
C. Sink
D. Turbine

49. Which of the following is a dimensionless ratio of a fluid’s density to some standard reference density?
A. Specific weight
B. Specific gravity *
C. Specific volume
D. Coefficient of resistance

50. Summation of all heads in another section.

A. Boyle’s law
B. Bernoulli’s principle *
 C. Archimedes’ principle
D. Torrecelli’s principle

51. Poise is a unit of viscosity derived from which of the following?

A. Dyne-second per square centimeter *
B. Pound-second per square foot
C. Slugs-second per square foot
D. Gram-second per square centimeter

52. What is the velocity of a fluid particle at the center of the pipe?
A. Minimum
B. Maximum *
C. Between minimum and maximum
D. Zero

53. It refers to weight of the fluid per unit volume. Which one?
A. Absolute weight
B. Mass
C. Specific weight *
D. Gravitational acceleration

54. Bernoulli’s law of fluid flow is based on which of the following principles?
A. Conservation of mass
B. Conservation of energy *
C. Newton’s second law of motion
D. Continuity equation

55. Which of the following is NOT a reaction tuebine?

A. Francis turbine
B. Thomson turbine
C. Pelton wheel turbine *
D. Kaplan turbine

56. How do you classify liquids that vaporized easily?

A. Ideal liquid
B. Saturated liquid
C. Volatile liquid *
D. Osmotic liquid

57. A load from a faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the following is the main cause of the
phenomenon?
A. Gravity
B. Viscosity of the fluid
C. Surface tension *
D. Air tension

58. The following valves are used for throttle services. Which one is NOT included?
A. Angle valve
B. Globe valve
C. Check valve *
D. Butterfly valve

59. If the Mach number is greater than 5, what is standard classification of the travel?
A. Supersonic travel
B. Transonic travel
C. Subsonic travel
 D. Hypersonic travel *

60. Total energy in a compressible or incompressible fluid flowing across any section in a pipeline is a function of
A. Pressure and velocity
B. Flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum and internal energy *
C. Pressure, density and velocity
D. Pressure, velocity, density and velocity

61. To determine the frictional energy loss for fluids experiencing laminar flow, this equation is used. Which one?
A. Darcy equation *
B. Hazen- Williams equation
C. Maxwell’s equation
D. Bernoulli’s equation

62. In an orifice, what is the ratio of the actual velocity of discharge to the theoretical velocity of discharge?
A. Velocity factor
B. Coefficient of utilization
C. Coefficient of discharge
D. Coefficient of velocity *

63. If the Reynolds number is less than 4000, what is the classification of the fluid flow?
A. Laminar flow
B. Critical flow
C. Turbulent flow *
D. Uniform flow

64. What do you call the vertical distance above the centerline of the pump inlet to the point of free discharge
level of the discharge tank?
A. Velocity head
B. Elevation head
C. Static suction head
D. Static discharge head *

65. For partially submerged objects to be stable, where does the center be located?
A. Above the center of gravity *
B. Below the center of gravity
C. To the left of the center of gravity
D. To the right of the center of gravity

66. Which of the following turbines are generally employed where the available head is very high, typically above
800 to 1600 ft?
A. Reaction turbine
B. Propeller type turbine
C. Francis turbine
D. Impulse turbine *

67. Absolute viscosity of a fluid varies with the pressure and temperature and is define as a function of
A. Density and angular deformation rate
B. Density and shear stress
C. Shear stress and angular deformation rate *
D. Density, shear stress and angular deformation rate

68. If the Reynolds number is between 2100 and 4000, what is the classification of the fluid flow?
A. Laminar flow
B. Critical flow *
C. Turbulent flow
 D. Uniform flow

69. What do you call the power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid against a given head with no losses in
the pump?
A. Wheel power
B. Brake power
C. Hydraulic power *
D. Specific power

70. The conservation of energy equation used in any fluid analysis is based on which of the following laws?
A. First law of Thermodynamics *
B. Second law of Thermodynamics
C. Newton’s second law of motion
D. Coulomb’s first law of electrostatics

Mechanics of Materials Questions

1. Momentum is a property related to the object’s _____.
A. Motion and mass *
B. Mass and acceleration
C. Motion and velocity
D. Weight and velocity

2. Momentum is the product of mass and _____.

A. Acceleration
B. Velocity*
C. Force
D. Time

3. The action of a force is characterized by:

A. Its magnitude
B. The direction of its action
C. Point if application
D. All of the above *

4. For a system to be in equilibrium:

A. The force polygon must close.
B. All forces must be concurrent, if not acting parallel
C. It must satisfy the 3 static equations
D. All of the above.*

5. The ______ exerted by a force on a body is the measure of its effectiveness in turning the body about a
certain pivot.
A. Couple
B. Torque*
C. Moment arm
D. All of the above

6. A body is said to be in “rotational equilibrium” when;

A. No net torque acts on it*
B. No net force acts on it
C. Its vector sum of the forces is zero
D. The forces acting on the body are non-concurrent
7. The ______ of the body or system is the point about with the product of the mass and moment arm sums up
to zero.
A. Center of gravity
B. Center of mass *
C. Centroid
D. All of the above

8. If an object exerts a normal force on a surface, then its normal force is;
A. Equal to the weight of the object
B. Less than the frictional force
C. Parallel to the surface
D. Perpendicular to the surface *

9. The moment of inertia of the circle with respect to its tangent is _____ times its centroidal moment of inertia.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5 *

10. The moment of inertia of a rectangle with respect to the base is _____ times its inertia with respect to the
centroid.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4 *
D. 5

11. Given a cylinder of radius r, altitude h, and mass m. what is its mass moment of inertia?
A. 1/2mr2*
B. 1/3 mr2
C. ¼ mr2
D. 2/5 mr2

12. A structure is called ______ if at least one of its individual member is a multiforce member.
A. Truss
B. Frame*
C. Three-hinged arch
D. Bridge

13. What is another term of moment of inertia?

A. Moment of area
B. Moment of mass
C. Second moment of area*
D. All of the above

14. Which of the following BEST describe d’Alembert’s principle?

A. F=ma *
B. Stress is directly proportional to strain
C. First law of motion
D. F=kx

15. Which of the following closely related to d’Alembert’s theorem?

A. Newton’s first law of motion
B. Newton’s second law of motion *
C. Newton’s third law of motion
D. Bernoulli’s theorem
16. What do you call the force on a rigid body caused by other bodies?
A. Internal force
B. External force *
C. Vector
D. Natural force

17. How many reactions are their in a fixed or built-in support?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3 *
D. 4

18. All supports have only one reaction except:

A. Roller
B. Link
C. Frictionless guide
D. Pin connection *

19. The ratio of the applied force lever arm to the load lever arm is known as ____
A. Efficiency
B. Mechanical advantage *
C. Determinacy
D. Indeterminacy

20. What is the term used to describe the process of determining member forces by considering loads one at a
time?
A. Superposition *
B. Traverse loading
C. Cut-and-sum method
D. Method of joints

21. What is used to determine the reactions of a continuous beam?

A. Method of section
B. Method of joints
C. Superposition method
D. Three-moment equation *

22. Is the change in shape of any materials when subjected to the action of a force.
A. Moment of inertia
B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Strain *
D. Stress

23. Which of the following forces can a roller support hold?

A. Only horizontal forces
B. Both horizontal and vertical forces simultaneously
C. Only vertical forces
D. Wither vertical or horizontal forces but not both *

24. What do you call the inelastic (plastic) failure of the beam?
A. Moment
B. Rotation *
C. Buckling
 D. Crippling

25. What loading occurs when the load is not applied through the centroid
A. Axial loading
B. Local loading
C. Neutral loading
D. Eccentric loading *

26. Which of the following stresses has an area perpendicular to the force?
A. Normal stress *
B. Shear stress
C. Flexural stress
D. Torsional stress

27. It is a quantity which measures the resistance of the mass to being revolved about the line.
A. Modules of elasticity
B. Strain
C. Stress
D. Moment is inertia *

28. What do you call an overload condition that occurs near large concentrated loads?
A. Web crippling
B. Local buckling *
C. Vertical buckling
D. Lateral buckling

29. Which of the following moment occurs where the shear is zero.
A. Statistical moment
B. One-way moment
C. Resisting moment
D. Maximum moment *

30. Which of the following forces can a pinned support hold?

A. Only horizontal forces
B. Both horizontal and vertical forces simultaneously *
C. Only vertical forces
D. Either vertical or horizontal forces but not both

31. When all forces are acting on the same point, the force system is known as ______
A. Concurrent force system *
B. Collinear force system
C. Coplanar force system
D. Parallel force system

32. The change in length per degree rise in temperature.

A. Volume expansivity
B. Ideal gas temperature
C. Linear expansivity *
D. Temperature scale

33. Which of the following refers to the stress at failure?

A. Working stress
B. Allowable stress
C. Rupture strength *
D. Ultimate strength
34. If al load is applied through the centroid of a tension or compression member’s section, what type of loading
is it?
A. Local loading
B. Neutral loading
C. Eccentric loading
D. Axial loading *

35. Which of the following refers to the ratio of the unit lateral deformation to the unit longitudinal deformation?
A. Mohr’s ratio
B. Young’s ratio
C. Poisson’s ratio *
D. Slenderness ratio

36. What is the ratio of stress to strain below the proportional limit?
A. Poisson’s ratio
B. Young’s ratio *
C. Hooke’s constant
D. Modulus of rigidity

37. In the linear elastic region of the stress-strain diagram, what do you call the slope of the curve?
A. Elastic limit
B. Modulus of elasticity *
C. Ultimate strength
D. Proportional limit

38. What is the highest ordinate of the stress-strain diagram?

A. Rapture strength
B. Ultimate strength *
C. Yield strength
D. Elastic strength

39. Which of the following beams has two or more spans (i.e. three or more supports) and is statistically
indeterminate?
A. Continuous beam *
B. Cantilever beam
C. Propped beam
D. Fixed-end beam

40. What is another term for modulus of elasticity?

A. Bulk modulus
B. Shear strain
C. Constant of elongation
D. Young’s modulus *

41. What do you call a set of pin-connected axial members?

A. Gable end
B. Structural cell
C. Truss *
D. Trestle

42. What force system combines the non-concurrent, non-parallel and non-coplanar forces?
A. General three-dimensional system *
B. Polar force system
C. Dark force system
D. Parallel force system
 43. Which one of the choices below refers to an overload condition that occurs when a long, unsupported
members rolls out of its normal plane?
A. Web crippling
B. Local buckling
C. Vertical buckling
D. Lateral buckling *

44. For the shear stress, what is the constant of proportionality?

A. Shark modulus
B. Shape modulus
C. Shout modulus
D. Shear modulus *

45. Which of the following stresses has an area parallel to the forces?
A. Normal stress
B. Shear stress *
C. Flexural stress
D. Longitudinal stress

46. It is the internal moment of a beam. It is opposite in the sense to the bending moment but of the same
magnitude.
A. Strain
B. Elastic limit
C. Moment of resistance *
D. Modulus of elasticity

47. To prevent translation while permitting rotation, a structure must be added with;
A. Rivet
B. Bearing
C. Hinge *
D. Roller

48. The sum of the individual forces in a linear force system is called;
A. Total force
B. Axial force
C. Concentrated force
D. Equivalent resultant forces *

49. What is the ratio of the ultimate stress to the allowable stress?
A. Yield factor
B. Safety stress
C. Factor of safety *
D. Design factor

50. If an object is continuously loaded over a portion of its length, it is subjected to which type of loading?
A. Dead load
B. Concentrated load
C. Distributed load *
D. Moving load

THERMODYNAMICS QUESTIONS
1. How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous
compound?
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2* D. 1

2. In an ideal gas mixture of constituents I and j, what is the mole fraction is equal to?
𝑃 𝑃₁𝑉 𝑇 𝑍
A. 𝑃−𝑃₁
* B. 𝑅𝑇
C. 𝑇−𝑇₁ D. 𝑍−𝑍₁

3. Which of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)?

A. 0 degree Celsius and one atmosphere * C. 0 degree Kelvin and one atmosphere
B. 32 degree Farenheit and zero pressure D. 0 degree Farenheit and zero pressure

4. In heat engine operating between two temperatures (T2>T1), what is the maximum efficiency attainable?
𝑇₁ 𝑇₂ 𝑇₁
A. 1 - 𝑇₂
* B. 𝑇₁ C. 𝑇 1 − 𝑇₂ D. 1- 𝑇₂
5. What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible isometric system?
A. zero* B. positive C. negative D. positive or negative

6. Which of the following statements is TRUE for an ideal gas, but not for a real gas?
A. PV= nRT *
B. An increase in temperature causes an increase in the kinetic energy of the gas
C. The total volume of molecules on a gas is nearly the same as the volume of the gas as a whole
D. No attractive force exists between the molecules of a gas

7. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?

A. Conservation of mass C. Action and reaction
B. Conservation of energy * D. The entropy- temperature relationship

8. Which of the following cycle is used in vapor cycle power plant?

A. Brayton cycle B. Diesel cycle C. Ericson cycle D. Rankine cycle *

9. Which of the following is not a thermodynamic property?

A. Pressure B. Temperature C. Volume D. Phase*

10. What is the measure of the energy that is no longer available to perform useful work within the current
environment? It is also known as the measure of the randomness of the molecules.
A. Entropy* B. Enthalpy C. Internal Energy D. Flow work

11. What is the temperature when water and vapor are in equilibrium with the atmospheric pressure?
A. Ice point B. Steam point* C. Critical point D. Freezing point

12. What is the unique state at which solid, liquid and gaseous phases can co-exist in equilibrium?
A. triple point* B. Critical point C. Boiling point D. Pour point

13. What refers to the state at which liquid and gaseous phases are indistinguishable?
A. triple point B. Critical point* C. Boiling point D. Pour point

14. What refers to the heat needed to change the temperature of the substance without changing its phase?
A. Latent heat B. Sensible heat* C. Specific heat D. Entropy

15. What is defined as the quantity of heat needed to raise the temperature of one kilogram of water by one degree
Celsius?
A. Kilojoule B. Btu C. Kilocalorie* D. Latent heat

16. The mechanical equivalent heat is ______.

A. joule* B. calorie C. Btu D. specific heat
17. The phenomenon of melting under pressure and freezing again when the pressure is reduced is known as:
A. sublimation B. condensation C. deposition D. regelation

18. What is the entropy of a pure substance at a temperature of absolute zero?

A. Unity B. Zero* C. Infinity D. Undefined

19. What is the area under the curve on a temperature-entropy diagram?

A. Heat* B. Work C. Entropy D. Volume

20. What happens to the internal energy of water at reference temperature where enthalpy is zero?
A. Becomes negative* B. Becomes positive C. Remains constant D. Cannot be defined

21. Which of the following equations is the definition of enthalpy?

𝑃 𝑈
A. h= U + PV* C. h= 𝑉 ÷ 𝑇
𝑃
B. h= U + D. h= U – PV
𝑉

22. Which of the following is the work done for a closed reversible isometric system?
A. Negative B. Positive C. Zero* D. Undefined

23. Which of the following is the value of n for a perfect gas undergoing an isobaric process?
A. n > 0 B. n= 0* C. n = 1 D. n → ∞

24. If an initial volume of an ideal gas is compressed to one-half its original volume and to twice its original volume
and to twice its original temperature, the pressure:
A. doubles B. halves C. quadruples* D. triples

25. The convergent section of a nozzle increases the velocity of the flow of the gas. What does it has to do on its
pressure?
A. Pressure becomes constant C. it increases the pressure*
B. Pressure equals the velocity D. it decreases the pressure

26. In two-phase system, 30% moisture means

A. 70% liquid and 30% vapor C. 30% liquid and 100% vapor
B. 70% vapor and 30% liquid* D. 30% vapor and 100% liquid

27. The thermal efficiency of gas-vapor cycle is ______ the thermal efficiency of a steam turbine or gas turbine.
A. greater than* B. less than C. not comparable D. equal

28. A property that indicates the natural direction of a process was first described by a German physicist. This
property is called entropy. Who coined the word entropy.
A. Rudolf Clausius B. Lord Kelvin C. Gabriel Volks D. Rudolf Diesel

29. What is the temperature when water and vapor are in equilibrium with the atmospheric pressure?
A. Ice point B. Steam point* C. Critical point D. Freezing point

30. When the expansion or compression of gas takes place “without transfer of heat” to or from the gas, the process
is called:
A. reversible B. adiabatic* C. polytropic D. isothermal

31. Which of the following occurs in a reversible polytropic process?

A. Enthalpy remains constant C. Some heat transfer occurs*
B. Internal energy does not change D. Entropy remains constant

32. The change that the system that undergoes from one equilibrium state to another in known as _____
A. path B. process* C. enthalpy change D. entropy change
33. What refers to the series of states through which a system passes during the process?
A. Path* B. Quasi-static steps C. reversibility moves D. irreversibility moves

34. What system in which neither mass nor energy cross the boundaries and it is not influenced by the surroundings?
A. closed system B. open system C. isolated system* D. all of these

35. What is referred to by control volume?

A. An isolated system C. Fixed region in space*
B. closed system D. Reversible process only

36. Which of the following is used in thermal power plant?

A. Brayton cycle B. Reversed Carnot cycle C. Rankine cycle* D. Otto cycle

37. The elongation and compression of a helical spring is an example of which process?
A. Irreversible Process C. Isothermal process
B. Reversible process* D. Adiabatic process

38. An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. The enthalpy change is:

A. always negative B. always positive C. zero* D. undefined

39. The state of a thermodynamic system is always defined by its:

A. absolute temperature B. process C. properties* D. temperature and pressure

40. Which one of the choices below refers to a system that is completely impervious to its surrounding or neither
mass nor energy cross its boundaries?
A. open system B. closed system C. isolated system* D. nonflow system

41. What refers to a system in which there is a flow of mass across its boundaries?
A. open system B. closed system C. isolated system* D. steady flow system

42. At equal volume, at the same temperature and pressure conditions, the gases contain the same number of
molecules. This refers to which of the following laws?
A. Boyle’s law B. Charles’s law C. Dalton’s law D. Avogadro’s number*

43. Which of the following property of a gas?

A. Density B. Pressure C. Viscosity* D. Temperature

44. During adiabatic process, which of the following is the change in enthalpy?
A. Zero* B. Greater than zero C. Less than zero D. infinity

45. Which of the following engines is least efficient?

A. Gas turbine B. Diesel engine C. Carnot engine* D. Gasoline engine

46. Which of the following is the process that cannot be found in a Carnot engine cycle?
A. Isobaric expansion* C. Adiabatic expansion
B. Adiabatic compression D. Isothermal expansion

47. Who coined the word energy?

A. James Joule B. Thomas Young* C. Rodulf Diesel D. Lord Kelvin

48. Which of the following is the value of n ( from PVn= C ) for a perfect gas undergoing isothermal process?
A. 0 B. 1* C. infinity D. n > 1

49. What is used for predicting the behavior of non-ideal gases?

A. Compressibility factor* B. Expansivity factor C. Emissivity factor D. Vann-d’ Whal’s factor
50. Which of the following processes where the equation dQ = Tds is applicable?
A. Irreversible B. Isometric C. Reversible* D. Isothermal

51. Which of the following thermodynamics devices operates the reverse of the heat engine?
A. Thermal pump* B. Thermal evaporator C. Thermal condenser D. Thermal equlibrant

52. What is another term used for isometric processes?

A. Isochoric process* B. Iolytropic process C. Isothermal process D. Reverssible process

53. Which of the following engines was introduced by a German engineer Nickolas Otto?
A. Gasoline Engine* B. Diesel Engine C. Gas tubine D. Thermal Engine