BJ MEDICAL PUNE CCMP 2018 PSM MCQ

1 psm daily test (b) 12 months

1. BCG is: (c) 15 months

(a) Live attenuated vaccine (d) 18 months

(b) Killed vaccine 3. In measles Koplik spot is seen in:

(c) Toxoid (a) Prodromal stage

(d) Immunosuppressant agent (b) Postmeasles stage

2. Tuberculin positive means: (c) Eruptive stage

(a) Immunodeficient patient (d) None of the above

(b) Resistance to tuberculin protein 4. Measles vaccination campaign between 9-14 years
age for elimination is:
(c) Patient is infected with mycobacterium
(a) Keep up
(d) Patient is suffering from disease
(b) Follow up
3. By WHO best criteria for TB diagnosis is:
(c) Mop up
(a) Sputum + ve
(d) Catch up
(b) Chest pain
3 psm daily test
(c) Cough – 3 weeks
1. MMR vaccine is recommended at the age of:
(d) X-ray finding
(a) 9-12 months
4. TB multidrug regimen is given to:
(b) 15-18 months
(a) Prevent resistance
(c) 2-3 years
(b) Broad spectrum
(d) 10-19 years
(c) Prevent side effects
2. Risk of the damage of fetus by maternal rubella is
(d) None maximum if mother gets infected in
2 psm daily test (a) 6-12 weeks of pregnancy
1. The incubation period of Measles is: (b) 20-24 weeks of pregnancy
(a) 3 days (c) 24-28 weeks of pregnancy
(b) 10 days (d) 32-36 weeks of pregnancy
(c) 21 days 3. Incubation period of swine flu:
(d) 30 days (a) 1-3 days (b) 2-3 weeks
2. Measles vaccine is not given before: (c) 10-15 days
(a) 9 months (d) 5 weeks
 BJ MEDICAL PUNE CCMP 2018 PSM MCQ

4. Most important feature to diagnose severe 5 psm daily test

pneumonia:
1. ORS amount required in first 4 hours in a 1 year
(a) Cyanosis old caseof dehydration is:

(b) Chest indrawing (a) 200-400 ml

(c) Nasal flaring (b) 400-600 ml

(d) Fast breathing (c) 600-800 ml

4 psm daily test (d) 800-1200 ml

1. Which type of sample can be used to isolate 2. In ORS, the concentration of sodium chloride is:
poliovirus earliest?
(a) 3.5 gm
(a) Stool
(b) 2.5 gm
(B) Blood
(c) 2.9 gm
(C) Throat
(d) 1.5 gm
(d) CSF
3. Typhoid oral vaccine is given:
2. Which of the following is not transmitted through
(a) 1, 3, 5 days
sexual route?
(b) 1, 2, 3 days
(a) Hepatitis A

(b) Hepatitis E (c) 1, 2, 4 days

(c) Both Hepatitis A and Hepatitis E (d) 1, 7, 14 days

4. Dehydration in a child with diarrhoea, thirst

(d) Hepatitis D
present,tears absent is:
3. The freshly prepared ORS (Oral Rehydration
Solution) should not be used after: (a) Mild

(a) 6 hours (b) Moderate

(b) 12 hours (c) Severe

(c) 18 hours (d) None

(d) 24 hours 6 psm daily test

1. Dengue shock syndrome is characterized by the

4. The usual incubation period for typhoid fever is:
following except:
(a) 10-14 days
(a) Hepatomegaly
(b) 3-5 days
(b) Pleural effusion
(c) 21-25 days
(c) Thrombocytopenia
(d) less then 3 days
(d) Decreased haemoglobin
 BJ MEDICAL PUNE CCMP 2018 PSM MCQ

2. Dengue fever is transmitted by: (b) 10 days

(a) Cluex fatigans (c) 15 days

(b) Cluex vishnuii (d) 3 weeks

(c) Aedes aegypti 4. Bite of which of the following animals do not

result in human rabies?
(d) Glossina palpalis
(a) Dog
3. Incubation period of plasmodium vivax is:
(b) Mouse
(a) 5-7 days
(c) Horse
(b) 7-10 days
(d) Cat
(c) 10-14 days
8 psm daily test
(d) 15-30 days
1. The most effective method to break transmission
4. Anti malaria month: chain in plague is:
(a) April (a) Early diagnosis and treatment
(b) May (b) Control of fleas
(c) June (c) Control of rodents
(d) September (d) Vaccination
7 psm daily test 2. Three doses of tetanus vaccine provides immunity
1. Pre-exposure prophylaxis for Rabies is given on: for:

(a) Days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90 (a) 1 year

(b) Days 0, 3, 7, 28, 90 (b) 5 years

(c) Days 0, 3 (c) 10 years

(d) Days 0, 7, 28 (d) 15 years

2. Which of the following should be injected in and 3. A person had clean non-penetrating wound four
around the wound in class III rabies bite? hours back. He had a complete course of toxoid
eleven years ago. What treatment is recommended?
(a) Tetanus toxoid
(a) No toxoid is required
(b) Antibiotic solution
(b) Toxoid one dose
(c) Anti rabies serum
(c) Toxoid complete course
(d) None of the above
(d) Toxoid complete course+Human tetanus Ig
3. In the case of dog bite the biting animal should be
observed for at least:

(a) 5 days
 BJ MEDICAL PUNE CCMP 2018 PSM MCQ

4. Most common nerve involved in leprosy: 10 psm daily test

(a) Ulnar N 1. World AIDS day is on:

(b) Common peroneal N (a) 1st May

(c) Median N (b) 31st October

(d) Radial N (c) 1st December

9 psm daily test (d) 29th May

1. Leprosy is not yet eradicated because: 2. The most common mode of HIV transmission in
India is:
(a) No effective vaccine
(a) Blood transfusion
(b) Highly infectious but low pathogenicity
(b) Mother to child transmission
(c) Only humans are reservoir
(c) Sexual transmission
(d) Long incubation period
(d) Use of unsterile syringes and needles
2. “Multibacillary” is a spectrum of disease, seen in:
3. In a HIV infected child which vaccine should not be
(a) Leprosy given:
(b) TB (a) DPT
(c) Tetanus (b) OPV
(d) Trachoma (c) Hepatitis B
3. Erythema nodosum is seen in treatment of which
(d) Typhoid vaccine
type of leprosy?
4. HIV post exposure prophylaxis should be started
(a) Borderline leprosy within:
(b) Lepromatous leprosy (a) 24 hours
(c) Tuberculoid leprosy (b) 48 hours
(d) None of the above (c) 72 hours
4. Treatment of leprosy a/c to WHO is done by all
(d) 6 hours
drugs, except:
11 psm daily test
(a) Dapsone
1. In which of these conditions is post exposure
(b) Clofazimine prophylaxis NOT useful?
(c) Ciprofloxacin (a) Measles
(d) Rifampicin (b) Rabies

(c) Pertussis

(d) Hepatitis B
 BJ MEDICAL PUNE CCMP 2018 PSM MCQ

2. All of the following diseases can be transmitted 3. Animal to man transmission seen in:
during the incubation period except:
(a) Rabies
(a) Measles
(b) HIV
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Mumps
(c) Hepatitis A
(d) Tetanus
(d) Pertussis
4. Mass prophylaxis not done in:
3. In all of the following diseases chronic carriers are
found except: (a) Scabies

(a) Measles (b) Lymphatic filariasis

(b) Typhoid (c) Vitamin A deficiency

(c) Hepatitis B (d) Worm infestation

(d) Gonorrhea 13 psm daily test

4. Epidemic caused by type A arbovirus in India is: 1. Tetracycline is used in the prophylaxis of:

(a) Chikungunya (a) Cholera

(b) KFD (b) Brucellosis

(c) Yellow Fever (c) Leptospirosis

(d) Dengue (d) Meningitis

12 psm daily test 2. Rat is associated with:

1. Which of the following is not administered by (a) Leptospirosis

intradermal route? (b) Measles
(a) BCG (c) Tetanus
(b) Insulin (d) Influenza
(c) Mantoux 3. Incubation period of syphilis:
(d) Drug sensitivity injection (a) 9-90 days
2. Incubation period less than few hours: (b) 9-18 days
(a) Hepatitis – A (c) 80-90 days
(b) Food poisoning (d) 10 days
(c) Influenza

(d) Rabies
 BJ MEDICAL PUNE CCMP 2018 PSM MCQ

4. Scabies is caused by: 15 psm daily test

(a) Trichophyton 1. Drugs are used in AKT-4 kit for TB as:

(b) Dermatophyten (a) Decrease in resistance by mutation

(c) Mycobacterium (b) Decrease in resistance by conjugation

(d) Sarcoptes scabei (c) To cure disease early

14 psm daily test (d) None

1. Multidrug resistance in TB is defined as resistance 2. Pulse polio immunization covers:

to:
(a) 0-5 yrs children
(a) Streptomycin, Rifampicin and Isoniazid
(b) 0-1 yrs children
(b) Streptomycin and Rifampicin
(c) 1-5 yrs children
(c) Isoniazid and Rifampicin
(d) 0-2 yrs children
(d) Streptomycin and Isoniazid
3. Under the National Programme for Control of
2. Only bacteriostatic anti-tubercular drug among the Blindness in India, medical colleges are classified as
following is: eye care centers of:

(a) Isoniazid (a) Primary level

(b) Rifampicin (b) Secondary level

(c) Streptomycin (c) Tertiary level

(d) Ethambutol (d) Intermediate level

3. Anti-tubercular drug contraindicated during 4. All of the following are included in Vision 2020 for
pregnancy is: India except:

(a) Isoniazid (a) Diabetic retinopathy

(b) Rifampicin (b) Glaucoma

(c) Streptomycin (c) Vitamin A deficiency

(d) Ethambutol (d) Refractive errors

4. Ethambutol is associated with: 16 psm daily test

(a) Red-blue colour blindness 1. Birth rate is:

(b) Red-green colour blindness (a) Live birth/1000 mid year population

(c) Blue-green colour blindness (b) Birth/1000 mid year population

(d) Yellow-green colour blindness (c) Live birth/10000 mid year population

(d) Live birth/10,000 population of reproductive age

group (15-45)
 BJ MEDICAL PUNE CCMP 2018 PSM MCQ

2. Census is conducted in every ________ years in (b) Diabetes

India:
(c) PID
(a) 25
(d) Hemorrhage
(b) 15
4. Mala – N oral contraceptive pill differs from Mala–
(c) 10 D, in terms of:

(d) 20 (a) Norgestrol dosage

3. Birth and death registration should be done within (b) Oestradiol dosage
how many days?
(c) Sold under social marketing scheme
(a) 14 and 7 respectively
(d) Supplied free of cost
(b) 7 and 14 respectively
18 psm daily test
(c) 7 and 21 respectively
1. Minipills contain:
(d) 21 and 21 respictively
(a) Only progesterone is small quantity
4. Copper – T is preferably inserted postnatal, after:
(b) Progesterone and estrogen
(a) 2 weeks
(c) Estrogen in small quantity and progesterone in
(b) 4 weeks large

(c) 5 weeks (d) Estrogen

(d) 8 weeks 2. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act does

not protect act of termination of pregnancies after:
17 psm daily test
(a) 30 weeks
1. WHO defines adolescent age between:
(b) 24 weeks
(a) 10-19 years of age
(c) 28 weeks
(b) 10-14 years of age
(d) 20 weeks
(c) 10-25 years of age
3. Most common method of sterilization practiced in
(d) 9-14 years of age India
2. The most common side effect of IUD insertion is: (a) Female sterilization
(a) Bleeding (b) Male sterilization
(b) Pain (c) Both equally common
(c) Pelvic infection (d) None
(d) Ectopic pregnancy

3. Absolute contraindication of IUCD is:

(a) Anemia
 BJ MEDICAL PUNE CCMP 2018 PSM MCQ

4. Best contraceptive for a newly married healthy 20 psm daily test

couple:
1. Highest fat content is present in:
(a) Barrier method
(a) Rice
(b) IUCD
(b) Wheat
(c) Oral contraceptive pills
(c) Bajra
(d) Natural methods
(d) Jowar
19 psm daily test
2. Protein content is highest in:
1. Average weight gain during pregnancy in poor
Indian women is about: (a) Bengal gram

(a) 12 kgs (b) Lentils

(b) 10 kgs (c) Pulses

(c) 6.5 kgs (d) Soyabean

3. Dose of vitamin A prophylaxis in 6-11 months old

(d) 2.5 kgs
child is:
2. Additional daily energy requirement during the
(a) 2,00,000 IU
first six months for a lactating woman is:
(b) 30,000 IU
(a) 350 K calories

(b) 450 K calories (c) 60,000 IU

(c) 500 K calories (d) 1,00,000 IU

(d) 600 K calories 4. Niacin deficiency can result in:

3. Under ICDS, caloric supplement for pregnant (a) Pellagra

women (b) Anemia
(a) 300 Kcal, 8-10 grams of proteins (c) Peripheral neuropathy
(b) 200 Kcal, 6-8 grams proteins (d) Beri beri
(c) 600 Kcal, 16-20 grams proteins 21 psm daily test
(d) 500 Kcal, 20-25 grams proteins 1. Which of the following is supposed to prevent
4. Elemental iron supplementation in Iron deficiency congenital neural tube defect:
anemia is: (a) Thiamine
(a) 300 – 400 mg (b) Riboflavin
(b) 150 – 200 mg (c) Pyridoxin
(c) 100 – 150 mg (d) Folic acid
(d) < 100 mg
 BJ MEDICAL PUNE CCMP 2018 PSM MCQ

2. Vitamin D is maximum in (b) 600 mg

(a) Milk (c) 800 mg

(b) Fish fat (d) 1000 mg

(c) Eggs 4. Egg is poor in:

(d) Cod liver oil (a) Proteins

3. Deficiency of folic acid produces: (b) Carbohydrate & Vitamin C

(a) Carcinoma stomach (c) Calcium & Iron

(b) Spinal degeneration (d) Fats

(c) Changes in central nervous system 23 psm daily test

(d) Megaloblastic anaemia 1. Colostrum has in compared to normal milk:

4. Oral iron pills or iron injections must be taken (a) Decreased Vitamin A
along with:
(b) Decreased Na+
(a) High doses of Vitamin A
(c) Increased proteins
(b) High doses of Vitamin C
(d) Increased calories
(c) High doses of Essential fatty acids
2. Milk borne diseases are except
(d) High doses of Vitamin D
(a) Brucellosis
22 psm daily test
(b) Tuberculosis
1. Poor man’s iron source is
(c) Chickenpox
(a) Almond
(d) Leptospirosis
(b) Grapes
3. According to WHO, exclusive breast milk is given
(c) Soya upto

(d) Jaggery (a) 6 months

2. Daily requirement of Iodine in adults is: (b) 4 months

(a) 50 mcg (c) 8 months

(b) 100 mcg [Recent Question 2013] (d) 10 months

(c) 150 mcg 4. A child is exclusively fed on cow’s milk, the

deficiency seen in:
(d) 200 mcg
(a) Iron (b) Riboflavin
3. Adult non-pregnant female requires, calcium per
day (c) Vitamin A

(a) 400 mg (d) Thiamine

 BJ MEDICAL PUNE CCMP 2018 PSM MCQ

24 psm daily test 2. A patient has microcytic Anemia, least likely

diagnosis is:
1. Tomatoes are rich in:
(a) Iron deficiency
(a) Oxalic acid
(b) Thalassemia
(b) Citric acid
(c) Sideroblastic anemia
(c) Acetic acid
(d) B12 deficiency
(d) Formic acid
3. Mid day meal contains proteins and calories in
2. One of the following contains maximum calcium: what proportions:
(a) Rice (a) 1/2 proteins and 1/2 calories
(b) Wheat (b) 1/2 proteins and 1/3rd calories
(c) Ragi (c) 1/3rd proteins and 1/3rd calories
(d) Jowar (d) 2/3rd calories and 1/3rd proteins
3. Lathyrism results due to: 4. Weight of an Indian reference woman is:
(a) Aflatoxin (a) 45 Kg
(b) BOAA (b) 50 Kg
(c) Pyruvic acid (c) 55 Kg
(d) Sanguinarine (d) 60 Kg
4. Lathyrism is due to consumption of: 26 Psm daily test
(a) Red gram dhal 1. Phobia is exaggerated or unnecessary form of:
(b) Contaminated ground nuts (a) Fear
(c) Bengal gram dhal (b) Anger
(d) Khesari dhal (c) Anxiety
25 psm daily test (d) Love
1. Dental caries is due to deficiency of: 2. Nuclear family consists of
(a) Fluorine (a) Husband, wife and son
(b) Zinc (b) Husband, wife and dependent children
(c) Lead (c) Husband and wife only
(d) Calcium (d) Father mother husband and wife
 BJ MEDICAL PUNE CCMP 2018 PSM MCQ

3. Poverty Line can be defined in terms of: 4. Most desired temperature range for drinking
water is:
(a) Daily fat intake
(a) 0-5°C
(b) Daily protein intake
(b) 5-10°C
(c) Daily calorie intake
(c) 10-15°C
(d) Access to health services
(d) 15-20°C
4. The behavioral Science used extensively in PSM is:
28 psm daily test
(a) Anthropology
1. Screening of cervical cancer at PHC level is done
(b) Economics by:
(c) Politics (a) History and clinical examination
(d) Law (b) Colposcopy
27 Psm daily test (c) CT scan
1. Purest water in nature is: (d) PAP smear
(a) River water 2. Most reliable test for screening of diabetes
(b) Rain water mellitus:

(c) Deep well (a) GTT [Recent Question 2012]

(d) Impounding reservoirs (b) Glycosylated hemoglobin

2. One tablet of chlorine is effective to disinfect how (c) Fasting blood sugar
much quantity of water: (d) Urine for sugar
(a) 5 L 3. Most specific screening test for Vitamin D
(b) 10 L deficiency is:

(c) 20 L (a) 7-dehydrocholesterol [NUPGET 2013]

(d) 30 L (b) 1, 25 dihydroxy Vitamin D

3. Most undesirable metal in drinking water is: (c) 25 hydroxy Vitamin D

(a) Iron [AIIMS June 1991] (d) Serum calcium levels

(b) Copper 4. Not a part of National Screening Programmes?

(c) Zinc (a) Diabetes mellitus [AIPGME 2011]

(d) Lead (b) Carcinoma cervix

(c) Refractive errors

(d) Dental caries

 BJ MEDICAL PUNE CCMP 2018 PSM MCQ

29 psm daily test 2. Antisera is obtained from

1. The Most common cause of blindness in India is: (a) Guinea pig

(a) Glaucoma (b) Rabbit

(b) Xerophthalmia (c) Rat

(c) Trachoma (d) Horse

(d) Cataract 3. Healthy carrier seen in:

2. Most common cause of blindness due to easily (a) Diphtheria

preventable cause in children:
(b) Cholera
(a) Diabetes
(c) Typhoid
(b) Trachoma
(d) all of above
(c) Vit. A deficiency
4. ‘Endemic Disease’ means that a disease:
(d) Cataract
(a) Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy
3. In India causing maximum death among the
following is: (b) Is constantly present in a given population group

(a) Drowning (c) Exhibits seasonal pattern

(b) Road traffic accident (d) Is prevalent among animals

(c) Burns

(d) Poisoning

4. Overweight BMI:

(a) 25-29.99

(b) 15-18.5

(c) 18.5-24.99

(d) 30-34.99

30 psm daily test

1. Isolation is useful for:

(a) Hepatitis A

(b) Diphtheria

(c) Typhoid

(d)Poliomyelitis