Acmad Ddat - Enplan Mock Exam

EP QUIZ NO.
1
1) Related to Thomas Malthus' concept of 'k' as the population size constrained by whatever resource is in silo rt est supply, this
principle refers to "the maximum population of a given species that can be supported indefinitely in a defined habitat without
causing negative impacts that permanently impair the productivity of that same habitat."
A. Limits to growth
B. Tipping point
C. Range and threshold
D. Carrying capacity
2) In a November 2008 ruling of the Supreme Court upholding RA 9009's amendment of Sec. 450 of RA 7160 LGC, the
statutory requirements for an LGU's elevation to citihood are
A. Contiguous territory of at least 100 km2 except for island/group of islands

B. Minimum annual income of P100 million based on 1991 constant prices
C. Population of at least 150,000
D. All of the choices
3) This type of planning has also been called 'synoptic,' 'static', 'normative,' and 'Utopian', because it assumes a
prior that professional planners have the intellige�nce, noble in�tentions. and expertise to synthesize extensive
data, analyze a relatively predictable world, and decide rightly on crucial questions ,of broader public interest.
A. Equity or activist or advocacy planning

B. Strategic Planning
C. Traditional planning or command planning or imperative planning
D. Rational-Comprehensive Planning
4) Tony Garnier (1917) conceptualized a lush green city of about 35,000 inhabitants where 'man would rule by
h�imself.' thus there would be no police, no churches, no rigid forms of social control in this Utopian place complete
with landscaped homes, factories, trade schools, transport and leisure facilities.
A. Esplanade
B. Axle lndustrielle
C. Post-Industrial Motor City
D. Linear IndustriaI City
5) For his grid-iron design of ancient Greek settlements such as Priene, Piraeus and Rhodes, he is acknowledged as the
Father of Town Planning in Western Civilization
A. Vitruvius of Rome
B. Ptolemy
C. Hippodamus of Miletus
D. Appolodorus of Damascus
6) Which is a major contribution of classical Greek civilization 700-404 BCE to town planning?
A. Polytheism or pantheon of Greek gods which sanctified all elements of Nature as being animated by divine spirit
B. The delineation between religious space & secular civic space as separate but complementary spheres in society
C. The concept of 'polis' or (Latin) 'civitas' which means that only residents of cities can truly be called 'civilized'.
D. The practice of direct democracy and the notion of citizenship which included women, the poor,slaves, and aliens.
7) The New Towns Movement of 1920s might have contributed to scattered and uncontrolled
development in continental America but the main reason for its suburban sprawl after World War II
was__?
A. Rapid fall of real estate prices in the countryside due to financial meltdown from sub-prime
lending
B. Increased value of rural land due to Hoover's Interstate Highway Act of 1956 which funded
federal highways and freeways across many states
C. The widespread use of commuter trains and monorail
D. The popularity of automobile as means of transportation
8) Considered as the "Father of City Planning in America," he prepared plans for the City of Manila and
the City of Baguio from 1903 to 1911 with the assistance of Pierce Andersson.
A. John Hay
B. William Howard Taft
C. Robert Kennon
D. Daniel Hudson Burnham
E. Francis B. Harrison
9) Which principle of Strategic Planning rallies the organization and unifies its members around a
common purpose?
A. Solve major issues at a macro level

B. Avoid excessive inward and short-term thinking
C. Be visionary to convey a desired end-state but be flexible enough to allow and to
accommodate changes
D. Engage stakeholders to pull together behind a single gameplan for execution
E. Establish priorities on what will be accomplished in the future
F. Communicate to everyone what is most important
10) The Garden City Movement in the United Kingdom directly addressed large-scale problems caused
by the __?
A. The Scientific Revolution

B. British-American War of Independence
C. Industrial Revolution
D. World War II and the Holocaust
11) This was an American movement in the 1890s that stressed the design of settlements according to
the principles of "grandeur, exuberance, monumentality, drama and tension, cohesiveness, and
symmetry" as demonstrated in the planning of Washington DC, Paris, Chicago, San Francisco,
among others:
A. City Beautiful Movement

B. City Functional Movement
C. City Efficient Movement
D. New Towns Movement
12) According to Dr. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr in the first comprehensive textbook on urban planning ever
written ( 1965 ), the explicit goals of urban planning are the following, except one:
A. Health & safety

B. Convenience & amenity
C. tolerance & plurality
D. Efficiency & economy
13) Which is not a key feature of 'professional' planning process?
A. Proactive
B. Problem-solving
C. Algorithmic
D. Futuristic
E. People-driven
14) They were considered the earliest regional planners in history (27 BCE -410 AD) because they
planned their cities and settlements with transport network, civil works, utilities, and military
defense, foremost in their minds?
A. Macedonian Greeks under Alexander The Great

B. Romans under the dictatorial Emperors
C. Persians under Cyrus the Great
D. Egyptians under Ramses, Thutrnoses, and Nefertiti
15) The Garden City Movement shaped the British policy of "urban containment", with following
features, except one:
A. Greenbelts, green girdles, and clear edges for all cities

B. Mass transit to link 'mother city' with 'garden cities'
C. Homestead of about one acre per family
D. Preservation of more farmland & open space
16) Built below the Acropolis in the heart of the citystate, the 'marketplace' was the site where ancient
Greeks came together not only for trading and buying of foodstuffs but also for political, social, and
other secular activities
A. 'parthenon'
B. 'gymnasium'
C. 'erechtheum'
D. 'agora'
E. 'sumposion'
17) This pertains to the process wherein large numbers of people, driven by demographic factors, live
together in important locations --a process that is always accompanied by economic
agglomeration, spatial alteration, and socio-cultural change
A. Industrialization
B. Urbanization
C. Social Transformation
D. Modernization
18) Urban planning is "concerned with providing the right place at the right site at the right time" for the
right people.
A. John Ratcliffe
B. Lewis Keeble
C. Brian Mcloughlin
D. George Chadwick
E. Alan Wilson
19) As defined by PD 1517 and by National Statistics Office, 'urban' area has the following
characteristics except one:
A. It exports substantial quantities of processed products

B. Core district's density is at least 500 per square kilometer
C. Overall density of at least 1000 persons per square kilometer in its entirety
D. Exhibits a street pattern
20) Under the Systems Theory of Planning by George Chadwick and Alan Wilson, under which stage do
policy-makers or decision-makers make a firm resolve to pursue a specific course of action?
A. System Description
B. System Modeling
C. System Projection
D. System Synthesis
E. System Control
21) Which of the following is not a feature of Frank Lloyd Wright's 'Broadacre City' ( 1932)?
A. Each person regardless of age has one acre of federal land

B. Food garden or small farm would be right next to the house
C. Manufacture &commerce set up in twelve 15-storey buildings
D. Work within walking distance from the home
E. Railroad and freeway to interconnect cities
F. Densification would preserve much open space
22) 'Allocative' or 'regulatory' or 'policy planning' in the tradition of Herbert Gans and T J Kent is
concerned with solving chronic problems of society by allocating resources efficiently and enacting
laws, rules and standards. I! is therefore
closest to which planning approach?
A. Rational-comprehensive
B. traditional or command planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Communicative planning
23) In the "Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities.Threats" tool as popularized by exponents of

Strategic Planning, the elements, aspects or characteristics that need to be reinforced, are
enumerated under which quadrant?
A. 'S'
B. 'W'
C. 'O'
D. 'T'
24) Recognized as 'father of landscape architecture,' he also began the 'Parks and Conservation
Movement' in the United States which advanced the idea that city parks and greenways can structure
urban space, stimulate mixed uses, dampen class conflict, heighten family and religious values, and
serve as aid to social reform.
A. Frederic Law Olmstead Sr

B. John Muir
C. Gifford Pinchot
D. George Perkins Marsh
25) The following are the stated goals of 'urban development policy' (NUDHF) in the Philippines,
except one:
A. To achieve a more balanced urban-rural interdependence

B. To slow down rural-to-urban movement by means of migration control and population
management
C. To optimally utilize land and resources to meet the requirements of housing and urban
development
D. To undertake a comprehensive and continuing program of urban development which will make
available housing and services at affordable cost
26) The US Supreme Court's decision in 1926 to uphold the power of an LGU to regulate land use
through ordinance in the landmark case of "Village of Euclid vs. Ambler Realty Company is reckoned
as the watershed moment for
A. City Beautiful Movement

B. City Functional Movement
C. City Efficient Movement
D. Regional City Movement
27) Of the Eight-Rungs in the Ladder of Citizen Participation (1969) which 'steps' would require the
planner to perform 'facilitation' role rather than 'advice,' 'direction,' or 'manipulation'?
A. Counseling; therapy
B. Consultation; placation
C. iInform ig
D. Partnership; delegated power; citizen control
28) He proposed the 'neighborhood unit' (1929) as a self-contained 'garden suburb' bounded by major
streets, with shops at intersections and·a school in the middle; its size would be defined by school's
catchment area with a radius of quarter-mile or 402 meters. This incorporated Garden City ideas and
attempted at some kind of social engineering.
A. Clarence Perry
B. Clarence Stein
C. Clarence Thomas
D. Clarence McKay
29) "First we shape our buildings; thereafter, our buildings shape us." This quotation is attributed to
A. Winston Churchill
B. George Washington
C. Theodore Roosevelt
D. Napoleon Bonaparte
30) He wrote the famous book "Garden Cities of Tomorrow"(1902) and became a most influential
thinker with his effort to combine the best features of 'country' as shown in his diagrams of three(3)
magnets.
A. Sir Frederic Osborn

B. Sir Ebenezer Howard
C. Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie
D. Sir Raymond Unwin
31) Which basic principle of 'Sustainable Development' means responsibility and accountability to
future populations?
A. Common Heritage of Humankind

B. Lnter-generational Equity
C. Caring Capacity
D. Parity 0f Compeers
32) The expansion of human populations away from central urban areas into low-density, monofunctional
and usually car-dependent communities, in a process called suburbanization. In addition to
describing a particular form of urbanization, the term also relates to the social and environmental
consequences associated with this development.
A. Decentralization
B. Dispersion
C. Exurbanization
D. Urban Sprawl
33) The concepts of "input-throughput--output-feedback" comes from what school of planning?
A. Communicative Planning
B. Liberal Pluralistic Planning
C. Incremental Planning
D. Systems Theory of Planning
34) In Michael P. Todaro's Labor Migration Model of Urbanization (1976), the central pull factor or main
attraction of Third World cities to rural migrants even when these cities are unprepared to accept
migration, is
A. "bright lights effect" or lure of city life and neon-lit entertainment

B. Possible benefits derived from proximity to seat of power and prestige of central city address
C. Abundance and plenitude in cities versus hunger and famine due to insurgency wars in the
countryside
D. Substantial wage differentials between urban labor and rural labor for the same level of skill,
task, or occupation
35) In Clarence Stein's Six (6) Principles of Regional Planning (1920), which one concerns traffic
congestion caused by roadside parking?
A. Plan Simply,but comprehensively

B. Provide ample Site in the right places for community use
C. Put factories and industrial buildings where they can be used without wasteful transportation
of people and goods
D. Cars should be stored in homes
E. Bring private land and public land into relationship
F. Arrange for the occupancy of houses
36) Under RA7160 Sec 452, what is the minimum population requirement to approve a Highly Urbanized
City?
A. At least 200,000
B. At least 500,000
C. At least 1 million
D. At least 10 million
37) According to Dr Garrett Hardin, in an open access regime without defined property rights,
individuals enjoy free unlimited access to natural resources and right to use without exclusion;
each individual is motivated to maximize his or her own benefit from exploiting the resource.
When no individual has adequate incentive to conserve the public
resource, the resource will likely become overused and overexploited.
A. The Stewardship of Nature

B. Communitarian Paradox
C. Fencesitter's Dilemma
D. Tragedy of the Commons
38) If 'pre-industrial society' was mainly agricultural, kinship-based, self-sufficient, and relatively
parochial, 'industrial society' in contrast
A. Minimizes farming to channel capital into factories

B. Prioritizes mining of minerals and precious stones
C. Aims for mass production thru mechanization & automation
D. Relies on the output of white-collar professionals
39) Due to greater 'division of labor', there is more heterogeneity of population and classes of workers
beginning with
A. Primitive subsistence society

B. Pre-industrial society
C. Industrial society
D. Post-industrial society
40) A 'city' is a significantly-large urban area which has:
A. A cluster of skyscrapers
B. A charter or legal proclamation
C. A rectilinear or orthogonal street design
D. A seaport or an airport
41) Frank Lloyd Wright proposed an alternative (1932) to the congestion in huge metropolis by way of
urban decentralization wherein each American family would be granted at least one acre of federal
land in a self-contained agro-industrial settlement.
A. Eco-city
B. Broadacre city
C. Exurbia
D. Micropolis
E. Suburbia
42) "Make no little plans. They have no magic and probably themselves will not be realized. Make big
plans; aim high in hope and work, remembering that a noble, logical diagram once recorded will
never die ... "
A. Leon Battista Alberti

B. Daniel H. Burnham
C. Baron Georges Eugenes Hausmann
D. Pierre Charles L'Enfant
43) A member of the advocacy/activist/equity school of planning, this planner wrote the classic "Eight
policies, Rungs in the Ladder Citizen Participation" which describes the varying degrees of
people's involvement in policies,plans, and programs.
A. Ralph Nader
B. Susan S. Fainstein
C. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr
D. Sherry Arnstein
44) The main contribution of Norbert Weiner's 'Cybernetics' to the Systems Theory of planning is the
principle that planning should be -
A. Cyclical, iterative, and self-correcting

B. Free-wheeling and open-ended
C. Wide-ranging and exhaustive
D. Rigorous, exact, and mathematical
45) Which is a significant accomplishment of "Advocacy Planning" movement as fathered by Paul

Davidoff (1965)?
A. Single women with children were assisted to find employment.

B. Social planning was moved from 'backroom negotiations' into the open public forum.
C. Documentation of long-lasting environmental changes was intensified
D. Affirmative action and social amelioration were mainstreamed into national policy
E. Businesses were compelled to draw their employees from the ranks of the poor.
46) Presidential Decree 1308 Sec. 2a defines it as referring to 'all activities concerned with the
management and development of land, as well as the preservation, conservation and management of
the human environment
A. Urban Planning
B. Human Ecology
C. Environmental Management
D. Environmental Planning
47) The major objective of Le Corbusier's (Charles-Edouard Jeanneret) cubist "Radiant City' design
( 1923) meant for 3 million people consisting of 'uniform 60-storey tower-blocks set in a huge
park' was to:
A. Use high-rise structures to improve safety of people and security of vital institutions
B. Increase city density by building high on a small part of land
C. Increase the public's enjoyment of environmental amenities and viewscapes from varying
heights
D. Capture the retail market which justifies why prices are necessarily high in central locations or
CBDs
48) In general, this refers to the characteristic of a process or state that can be maintained at a certain
level indefinitely; in particular, it refers to the potential longevity of ecological systems to support
humankind and other species.
A. Resilience
B. Endurance
C. Sustainability
D. Perpetuity
E. Durability
49) Don Arturo Soria y Mata, a Spanish engineer, suggested that the logic of utility connections
(electricity, sewer,concept of telephone lines, gas and water pipes) be the basis of city layout; thus
he considered the impact of technology in his concept of an elongated urban form running from
Cadiz, Spain up to St. Petersburg,Russia
A. Ciudad Conectada
B. Ciudad Alongada
C. Ciudad Lineal
D. Ciudad Larga
50) The most recent re-definition of 'urban' by NSCB (2003) does not include one of the following.
A. If a barangay has more fishery output and shellcraft activities compared to farms, then it is
considered urban
B. If a barangay has population size of 5,000 or more, then it is considered urban;
C. If a barangay has at least one establishment with 100 employees or more, then it is considered
urban
D. If a barangay has 5 or more establishments with a minimum of 10 employees, and 5 or more
facilities within the two-kilometer radius from the barangay hall, then it is considered urban
EP QUIZ NO. 2
1) This School of Thought maintains that cities are 'theaters of capital accumulation',largely a
consequence of class-based struggle among groups for strategic dominance and control surplus.
Such conflict is usually won by the rich and powerful through agents of capital such as multi-
national corporations which use the city to amass wealth by raising property values through
commercialization, gentrification, manipulation, and land speculation.
A. Capital Theoretic Model

B. Political Economy
C. Natural Capitalism
D. David Harvey's Circuit of Capital
Discuss this Question
Correct
2) What is the smallest unit in the 'human settlements planning' or Ekistics by Dr Konstantinos Doxiadis
(1951 )?
A. House
B. Anthropos
C. Organism
D. Neighborhood
E. Hamlet
Incorrect
3) In Walter Christaller's Central Place Theory, The catchment area of a central place takes the
shape of a hexagon rather than a perfect circle. If a particular service or function such as
elementary school enrolment is represented by the formula,"C=2.6r2d," what would be the
catchment area of elementary school if its radius is 0.50km and diameter is one km?
A. 0.65 sq.km
B. 0.75 sq.km
C. 0.85 sq.km
D. 0.95 sq.km
Feedback
C = (2.6) (0.50)squared (1)
= 0.65 sq.km.
Correct
4) If 'Earth Hour' is observed on the last Saturday of March, 'Earth Day USA' is celebrated annually on
April 22, 'World Town Planning Day' falls on November 8, 'World Environment Day' is marked on the
51h day of the month of
A. May
B. June
C. September
D. October
Correct
5) Through Presidential Letter of Instruction 367 in 1950 combining National Urban Planning
Commission, Real Property Board, and Capital City Planning Commission, the government created
this first physical planning body.
A. National Planning Commission

B. National Disaster Coordinating Council
C. National Environmental Protection Agency
D. Human Settlements Regulatory Commission
Incorrect
6) Under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 25, which of the following is not among the types of cities in the Philippines.
A. Highly Urbanized Cities

B. Independent Cities
C. Megacities
D. Component Cities
Correct
7) He led the crafting of the regional 'Greater London Plan of 1944', he designed some of 30 post-war
New Towns approved by the British Parliament, including Doncaster area and East Kent, in which he
used open space as structuring element.
A. Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie

B. Sir Patrick Geddes
C. Lewis Mumford
D. Charles Abrams
Correct
8) In 2011, which Philippine city had the biggest population,net income and IRA?
A. City of Manila
B. Makati City
C. Quezon City
D. Cebu City
Incorrect
9) The 'hierarchy of settlements' in Walter Christaller's Central Place Theory is characterized by

A. Equally-sized large cities in every region
B. Only one large city, many small settlements
C. Only medium-sized and small settlements
D. A few large cities, some medium cities, many small settlements
Incorrect
10) Which of the following is not part of typology of cities under Ekistics school of Dr Konstantinos
Doxiadis (1951 )?
A. ecumenopolis
B. Megalopolis
C. Metropolis
D. Agropolis
E. Eperopolis
Incorrect
11) Which of the following land-use models describes the pattern of radial or axial growth along lines
of least resistance?
A. Multiple Nuclei
B. Concentric Zone
C. Sector Model
D. Polycentric Model
Correct
12) This was the Spanish spatial strategy of forming dense settlements from scattered dwellings for
purposes of greater, military defense and political control - literally bringing together dispersed
population within hearing distance of church bells -- which policy was applied on most Spanish
colonies from 16th to18th centuries.
A. El Alcance del Campanario

B. Presidio y Fortaleza
C. Reduccion
D. Evangelizacion
Incorrect
13) This School of Thought describes a borderless global economy characterized by free trade and free
movement of capital wherein nation-states would have 'lean and mean' governments which pursue
policies of liberation, deregulation, privatization, de- bureaucratization,'unbundling', 'de-coupling',
and similar structural adjustments.
A. World Systems Theory

B. State Corporatism
C. Neo-Liberalism
D. Liberal Democracy
Incorrect
14) Which theorist of urban land use states categorically that land use follows transport in the same
manner that both population and business follow roads?
A. Ernest Burgess
B. Homer Hoyt
C. Chauncey Harris & Edward Ullman
D. Peirce Lewis
Correct
15) A Scottish biologist who authored the masterpiece entitled "Cities in Evolution" (1915) and who
coined the terms 'folk- work-place', 'city-region' and 'conurbation' is acknowledged as the 'father of
regional planning'
A. Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie

B. Sir Patrick Geddes
C. Lewis Mumford
D. Barry Parker
Incorrect
16) 'Ekistics' or the 'science of human settlements' by Dr Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951) was built upon
the concept of "basic needs," which were later categorized by Johann Galtung into "material survival
& security needs," "social or enabling needs," and non-material "human needs". Which grouping of
needs was elaborated on by Abraham Maslow?
A. Food, water, clothing, shelter, sanitation, health care, energy/fuel, employment, peace and order,
B. Self-expression, sex, procreation, recreation, education, communication, and transportation
C. Physiological needs, physical safety, love and belongingness, esteem, self-actualization/self-
realization
D. Freedom, security, identity, well-being, ecological balance
Correct
17) It in Homer Hoyt's model (1939), where would the elite class place their high-end subdivisions?
A. Section 'A'
B. Section 'B1'
C. Section 'C'
D. Section 'D'
Incorrect
18) In the model of Homer Hoyt, the sections of urban land with the highest values are those:
A. Downtown sections facing seas, lakes & near waterfronts

B. On top of hills and elevated areas called 'uptowns'
C. Immediately around public offices I institutional sector
D. Along major roadways
Incorrect
19) The design of this city by Lucio Costa and Oscar Niemeyer (1957) features large open areas
relating to one other to demonstrate 'freedom' and an overall city layout resembling a 'dove in
flight'.
A. Brasilia
B. Sydney
C. Chandigarh
D. Canberra
E. Islamabad
Incorrect
20) Under the plaza complex pattern described in 'Le yes de las lndias' ( 1573), what would be located
next to each other around a Greco-Roman quadrangle of a Spanish colonial settlement?
A. Garden, fountains, monuments, statues, gallery and promenade

B. Governor's mansion, bishop's palace, general's manor, hacendero's villa, military garrison
C. Church, town hall, school, public market
D. Houses of peninsulares, insulares, creoles, mestizos, principales and ilustrados
Incorrect
21) The following are the basic elements of 'human settlements' according to Dr. Konstantinos
Doxiadis. Which one pertains to the built environment or physical capital?
A. Anthropos
B. Nature
C. Shells and networks
D. Society
E. Social structure
Correct
22) This 1997 document is the Philippines' official response to 1992 'UNCED Earth Summit' and contains
a policy framework that redefines development as the 'drawing out of full human potential' according
to the 'appropriate productivity' of nature, rather than optimal or maximum exploitation of natural
resources to achieve GDP growth.
A. Philippine Strategy for Sustainable Development

B. Philippine Philippine Strategy Covenant for on Total Sustainable Human Development
Development
C. Strategic national Action program
D. Philippine Agenda 21
Correct
23) Presidential Decree No. 01 Integrated Reorganization Plan on September 24, 1972 increased the
number of Philippine regions to 11, regionalized key ministries and line departmerts, and created a
major planning agency of government which is known today as
A. Philippine Economic Zone Authority

B. National Land Use Committee
C. Congressional Planning and Budget Office
D. National Economic and Development Authority
Incorrect
24) This started as a US federal program in 1949 which aimed to rehabilitate the outworn or decaying
sections of any town by extending fund assistance to LGUs to undertake improvements in
streetscapes, parks, green ways, housing, community centers, etc based on anticipation that future
tax revenues from real estate will pay for present costs.
A. Land re-adjustment
B. Urban restructuring
C. Infill and densification
D. Urban renewal
Incorrect
25) In 2012, how many administrative regions does the Philippines have?
A. 13
B. 15
C. 16
D. 17
Incorrect
26) Based on his landmark book, "Design with Nature," 'map overlay' to identify 'ecological constraints'
was a tool devised in 1967 by the first modem environmental planner.
A. Ian L. McHarg
B. Konstantinos Doxiadis
C. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr
D. Erma Bernbeck
Incorrect
27) In 1964, Republic Act 4341 established this center to create a pool of professional planners in the
Philippines.
A. Local Government Academy

B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Institute of Planning
D. UPLB Institute of Environmental Science and Management

Incorrect
28) All of the following are practical applications of Central Place Theory in the Philippines, except one.
A. Location of health centers

B. Location of trial courts
C. Location of beach resorts
D. Location of police stations
Incorrect
29) In Walter Christaller's Central Place Theory (1933), neighborhood store is an example of first-
order services while grocery store, gas station, furniture shop, and post office are examples of
A. Secondary services
B. Tertiary services
C. Quaternary services
D. Quinary services
Correct
30) 'Urban development' tends to occur along major transportation routes because
A. Power/water connections and other utilities are naturally linear

B. Business can not take place without roads and vehicles
C. Migration usually occurs lineally from point A to point B such as in exodus, processions, or
diasporas
D. People tend to locate where exchange, interchange, and access to other land uses are at maximum
Incorrect
31) This School of Thought holds that the settlements form in a balanced manner; they tend to be
spread evenly and symmetrically in isotropic space, displaying both hierarchy and equilibrium
arising from the interdependence between big and small settlements and from the
complementation between their respective scope of functions
A. Galaxy of Settlements Theory

B. Central Place Theory
C. Geographic Determinism
D. Dependency Theory
Incorrect
32) In "Death and Life of Great American Cities" (1961) and "Economy of Cities" (1969), this planner
maintains that 'diversity' promotes innovation among proximate firms and spurs the growth of cities,
thus s/he advocated for heterogeneity, variety, and mixture in the geographic clustering of firms as
well as in the composition of city districts and neighborhoods.
A. Herbert Gans
B. James Howard Kunstler
C. Joel Garreau
D. Jane Jacobs
Incorrect
33) In William Alonso's Bid-Rent Theory (1960), the most appropriate use of the innermost circle in
the diagram is
A. Farming of the most expensive crops

B. Terminal for commuters, central rail station
C. Central park
D. Shopping & retail services
Incorrect
34) As chief planner of New York City, he collaborated with Thomas Adams in crafting the "Regional Plan
of New York and its Environs 1922-1931 ;" he also conceived, and executed public works costing $27
billion between 1324 and 1968 and was responsible for virtually every parkway, expressway, and
public housing project in New York metropolitan area.
A. William Levitt
B. Fiorello La Guardia
C. Robert Murray Haig
D. Robert Moses
E. Warren Buffett
Incorrect
35) In central place theory (1933), this refers to the minimum population required to make a 'service'
viable.
A. Resident population
B. Captive market
C. Threshold population
D. Population explosion
Incorrect
36) All of the following schemes are associated with 'New Urbanism' except:
A. Mixed Use Zoning

B. Neo-Traditional Design
C. Exclusionary Zoning
D. Pedestrianization
Incorrect
37) If 'World Heritage Day' is marked each year on April 18, 'World Biodiversity Day' is observed on
May 22, 'World Ocean Day' on June 8, 'World Indigenous Peoples Day' on August 9, 'World Animal
Day' on October 4, and 'World Food Day' on October 16, when is 'World Water Day' celebrated?
A. January 13
B. March 22
C. June 24
D. October 31
Correct
38) 'Leapfrog development' and 'sprawl' are what you commonly see in what Peirce F. Lewis calls
A. Circumferential City
B. Multi-cellular city
C. Stellar City
D. Galactic City
Incorrect
39) The original concept of 'megalopolis' as an extended or super-sized urban area is attributed to
A. Jean Gettman
B. Konstantinos Doxiadis
C. Dennis Rondinelli
D. Andreas Faludi
Incorrect
40) According to the Chicago school of human ecology, 'Invasion' refers to how pioneers and opportunists
push the 'land frontier' farther out; when immigrants settle in waves, they define new land uses for
themselves in a process called
A. 'evolution'
B. 'co-location'
C. 'succession'
D. 'acclimatization'
E. 'cohabitation'
Incorrect
41) It in 'Ernest Burgess' concentric Model (1925), factories and work-shops would most likely locate
in
A. The innermost circle,

B. The outermost circle
C. The second circle from the center
D. The third circle from the center
Incorrect
42) "When all land is identical and there is perfect competition among profit-maximizing firms, land is
sold to the highest willing bidder. As a firm moves closer to the center of a place, transport costs fall
which increases the amount a firm is willing to pay for land. Thus,land at the center always has has
the highest value.
A. Johann Henreich von Thunen, Walter Christaller, and George Kingsley Zipf
B. William Alonso, Richard E. Muth and Edwin S. Mills
C. Alfred Weber, August Losch, and Walter lsard
D. Roderick D. McKenzie, Amos H. Hawley, Robert Park
Incorrect
43) She was called a 'superwoman' who single handedly sparked environmental activism in the 1960s-
70s with her research ('Silent Spring) on biomagnification of pesticides and chemicals in the
human food chain; her advocacies bore fruit in the creation of US Environmental Protection Agency
and Environmental Impact Assessment system in the 1970s.
A. Gro Harlem Brundtland

B. Catherine Bauer Wurster
C. Rachel Louise Carson
D. Marthc1 C. Nussbaum
Incorrect
44) Because Pre-Spanish aboriginal communities in the Philippines were relatively small and based on
kinship relations, the most common practice of land tenure in pre-colonial society, wherein one
would merely enjoy the 'fruits' of land, was called
A. Primitive communism
B. Islamic feudalism
C. Usufruct
D. Tenancy
E. Swidden slash-and-burn
Incorrect
45) In the model of mono-centric cities, it is assumed that manufacturers locate close to
transport arteries, blue-collar workers locate close to their jobs, while traders and retailers pay
higher for choice locations in city center to have command of the market.This pattern of land use
is explained better by which theory of spatial planning?
A. Urban Bid-Rent by Alonso, Muth, and Mills

B. Cumulative Causation by Gunnar Myrdal
C. Urban Land Nexus Theory by David Harvey
D. City as Growth Machine by John Logan & Harvey Molotch

Correct
46) Johann Heinreich von Thunen's theory of agricultural rent is symbolized as "LR=Y(p-c)-Ytd' where "Y"
is yield or total harvest, "P" is price of crop, "C"is production cost of crop, "t" is transport cost and "D"
is distance to market. If yield of palay is 3,500 kgs,NFA buying price is P17.00 per kilo, distance is
5km., given farmer's gross production cost of 45 cents per square meter per day for unit production
cost of P12.00 per kilo,would palay cultivation be profitable at this specific farm location if transport
cost is P1.00 per kilo of palay?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It depends on the weather
D. It depends on quality of road & capacity of vehicle
Incorrect
47) A chart-like tool to measure 'centrality' of a place particularly its range of economic and social
functions, is called
A. Matrix
B. lsotims
C. Lsodapanes
D. Scalogram
Incorrect
48) An approach in urban planning that puts premium on people and nature by building upon the
historic city or traditional neighborhood in such a way that workplaces, shops, and homes would be
within walking distance of each other.
A. Nee-Populism
B. Eco-Village
C. New Urbanism
D. Dynapolis
E. Transit-Oriented Development
Incorrect
49) What Christallerian principles form the basis why a state university, a consumer mall, a huge
sports stadium, or a tertiary-level hospital can not be established in each and every Philippine
municipality?
A. Spatial equity and bio-geographic equity

B. Specialization and concentration
C. Market range and threshold population
D. Profitability and pecuniary interest
Correct
50) The 'multiple nuclei' model of Harris and Ullmann (1945) posits that
A. Cities have varied natural res.ources that stimulate progress in different locations
B. Diversified economic functions of cities cluster around several points of growth
C. Zoning of cities closely follows the flow or 'circuits of capital'
D. Air transport, sea transport, land transport facilities are the logical growth zones of cities
EP
QUIZ
NO.3
1) According to Walter lsard, firms or industries that are indifferent to the physical attributes of
geographic location to carry out profitable business are called:
A. Vagabond
B. Wanderlust
C. Itinerant
D. Footloose
Incorrect
2) Because land use changes affect a species' ability to migrate, __ are necessary to give species a route
to reach their new habitats.
A. Science Reserves & Ranches

B. Zoos & Botanical Gardens
C. Lifelines
D. Wildlife Corridors
Incorrect
3) Which of the following is not a major Heritage Site in the Philippines as declared by UNESCO?
A. Baroque churches of Manila, Sta. Maria, Paoay & Miag-ao

B. Tubattaha Reef Marine Park
C. Magellan's Cross in Cebu

D. Rice Terraces of the Philippines
E. Puerto Princesa Underground River
F. Historic Town of Vigan
Incorrect
4) The following are illegal and destructive forms of fishing in Philippine marine waters, except one.
A. Use of crude, traditional, or artisanal gadgets

B. use of dynamites and other explosives
C. Use of fine mesh nets
D. Muro-ami
E. Use of cyanide on reef-based or pelagic species
F. Use of beach seine and bottom-scouring trawls
Incorrect
5) The phenomenon of 'urban primacy' mostly in Third World countries wherein a single metropolis
corners a disproportionate share of a country's population, resources, and investments by reason
of historical or political precedence, or as a result of foreign colonial influence, is also called
"Manila imperialism" in the Philippines.
A. It is desirable because of the efficient use of space and economies of scale.

B. It proves that benefits from agglomeration outweigh the disbenefits from congestion and
overconcentration
C. It demonstrates that Third World countries remain as colonies of Western imperialist powers.
D. It shows polarization within a country and siphoning off of economic assets and human talent
from hinterland
Incorrect
6) According to Gunnar Myrdal, 'forward linkage' refers to the 'development of external economies for
an industry's products" while 'backward linkage' refers to
A. Connection with lagging or backward enterprises in the rural countryside

B. Development of auxiliary industries to supply input
C. Attraction of capital and enterprises to exploit expanding demands
D. Expansion of service industries and others serving the local market
Correct
7) Which is not an element of Special Economic Zone or ecozone under PEZA?
A. Free trade zone

B. Financial banking center
C. Export processing zone
D. Industrial park or industrial estate
Correct
8) Despite global economic recession and decline of demand for luxury goods, a watch company decides
to stay put in Switzerland because of its secure market niche and proven track record in producing
Rolex timepieces. What theory of firm location is likely at work here?
A. Comparative Advantage
B. Profit Maximizing Approach
C. Satisficing Theory
D. Behavioral Theory
Incorrect
9) This refers to the totality of cultural properties preserved and developed through time and passed
on for posterity.
A. National patrimony
B. Customs & traditions
C. Patriotic legacy
D. Cultural heritage
E. Bequeaths & bequests
Correct
10) Klaasen enumerates the criteria for creating planning regions as follows. Which criterion pertains to
the role of a leading center or a complex of exporting firms or lead industries?
A. Must be large enough to take investment decisions of an economic size

B. Must be able to supply its own industries with necessary labor
C. Should have a homogenous economic structure
D. Must contain at least one growth point
E. Must have a common approach to and awareness of its own problems
Incorrect
11) Which thrust of regional planning addresses core-periphery, center-hinterland economic exchange
& spatial integration?
A. Enforce urban growth control such as greenbelts or analogous schemes to protect the natural
environment
B. Cultivate a role for each component-settlement such as administrative center, manufacturing
hub, tourism, zone, etc
C. Develop transport corridors in 'hub and spokes design' with major infrastructure reaching out
to population centers
D. Resist development in flood plains or on earthquake fault zones by utilizing these areas as
parks. farms, buffers, etc
Incorrect
12) A Swedish computer company relocates to Silicon Valley, California, where despite high wage costs, IT
companies boast of highest IQ points per square-meter of floorspace, and have vibrant linkages with
topnotch universities to create state-of-the-art technologies. What theory of firm location is
operational here?
A. Theory of Human Capital

B. Profit Maximizing Approach
C. Satisficing Theory
D. Behavioral Theory
Correct
13) The first export processing zone in the Philippines which became operational in 1972 was
A. Bataan EPZ
B. Mactan EPZ
C. Baguio EPZ
D. Zamboanga de Ayala EPZ
E. Phividec Misamis Oriental
Incorrect
14) In John Friedman's (1966, 1973) taxonomy of regions according to economic condition, which refers
to 'fagging regions'?
A. Core regions
B. Upward transitional areas
C. Resource frontier areas
D. Downward transitional areas
E. Special problem areas
F. Latifundio-minifundio
Incorrect
15) The declared strategy of the national government since the 1980s to promote greater
complementarity between agriculture and industry sectors and between urban and rural places is
called
A. Import Substitution Industrialization

B. Export Oriented Industrialization (EOI)
C. Countrywide urban-Rural Linkages (CURL)
D. Balanced Agro-Industrial Development Strategy (BAIDS)
Correct
16) Which of the following is not among the Philippine government strategies to attain 'concentrated
decentralization'?
A. Regional industrial centers

B. Special economic zones
C. Growth corridors, growth triangles, growth polygons
D. Agora and agurbia
Incorrect
17) As conceptualized in 1989, the private-led "Agro-Industrial Development Area (AIDA)" scheme
analogous to Japan's "One Town One Product" model would cluster several villages to carry out the
following components except:
A. Family farm school or folk school

B. Small-scale agro-processing industries
C. Rural development center
D. Roll-on-roll-off (RORO) port
Incorrect
18) This sub-national development approach of government from the mid-1970s to mid-1990s refers to
the necessary combination of agricultural, industrial, and institutional activities in mutually
reinforcing manner - fostering the growth of viable market towns or mid-size cities that offer broad
services and amenities meant to achieve both stability of population movement and agro-industrial
growth; closely tied to, and integrated with, efficient agricultural production.
A. Autonomous Autarchic Development

B. Integrated Area Development
C. Endogenous Self-Reliant Development
D. Selective Territorial Closure
Incorrect
19) An American car company breaks up its production process because of high wage cost of unionized
Iabor in Detroit and moves its manufacturing plants to China where labor costs are low and
sources of refined metals are close by. What theory of firm location likely underpins this decision?
A. Market-Oriented Approach by August Losch

B. Least Cost Approach by Alfred Weber
C. Profit-Maximizing Approach by Walter lsard
D. Organizational Theory (Segmentation & Mergers)
Incorrect
20) Philippines is one of 18 mega-diverse countries which together contain two-thirds of the world's
biodiversity. Philippines has over 30% of Southeast Asia's coral reef cover, a square kilometer of
which can produce between 30 to 40 metric tons of seafood annually. Which area is considered
among the most serious hotspots in rapid coral reef destruction?
A. Sulu
B. Boracay
C. Palawan
D. Mindoro
Incorrect
21) According to 1997 study on 775 coral formations by Dr Edgardo Gomez, Dr Helen Yap of UP Marine
Science Institute, 30% of total Philippine coral reef cover is dead, 39% dying, 25% in fair condition,
how much remains in excellent condition?
A. approximately 5%
B. Approx. 8%
C. Approx. 26%
D. Approx. 31 %
Incorrect
22) When a firm locates close to sources of natural resources such as Pittsburg or Ruhr valley, it is called
"materials-oriented;" when a firm locates close to where there are large populations such as Shanghai
or Tokyo, it is called --
A. Customer-friendly
B. Client-centered
C. Demographicaily-responsive
D. Market-oriented
Incorrect
23) Under the 'super-region' concept of the PGMA administration, Central Luzon as part of the Mega
Manila 'Extended Urban Region', would focus on
A. Hacienda farming
B. Meat processing
C. Commodity logistics chain
D. Cyber services
E. Tourism
Incorrect
24) 'Residentiary services' refers to domestic living-related services such as housing, grocery, catering,
recreation, etc while 'services that cut across varied types of firms such as security, banking,
insurance, courier services, etc are called
A. Logistical
B. Financial
C. Diagonal
D. Interlocal
E. Messengerial
F. Transborder
Incorrect
25) The 'center-down' paradigm of neo-classical economics of the 1960s assumed that benefits from
the national-level or macro economic growth trend to_____component regions and lower-level
communities.
A. Cascade
B. Sprinkle around in spurts
C. Pour down
D. Trickle down
Incorrect
26) According to RA 10066 National Cultural Heritage Act of 2009, this refers to "historical sites or
structures hallowed and revered for their history or association as declared by the National Historical
Institute"
A. Epochal Landmark
B. National Treasure
C. National Cultural Property
D. Historic Shrine
E. Sacred Place
Incorrect
27) This refers to the part of a seashore which is alternately covered by the ebb and flow of tide,
technically, to a string of land margining a body of water, between the low-water line usually at the
seaward margin of a low tide terrace and the upper limit of wave wash at high tide usually marked
by a beach scarp or berm.
A. Seaside
B. Seaboard
C. Foreshore
D. Seagrass bed
E. Beachfront
Incorrect
28) Under RA 8550 Fisheries Code of 1998, if the total width of water body between two seaside
municipalities is less than 30 km, each one's municipal waters is determined by using
A. Comparative sizes of fishing population

B. A median line on common water body
C. Preponderance of maritime and aquatic activities
D. Ratio and proportion according to length of shoreline
Incorrect
29) The Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species (CITES) on March 3, 1973 has been
helpful in protecting endangered animals and plants, of which the Philippines has over 800, by
A. Listing all species that can be hunted, traded, and used commercially
B. Listing those species and products whose international trade is controlled
C. Funding projects for breeding endangered plants and animals
D. Preventing the hunting of whales and dolphins
E. Specifying prices for certain plant and animal products
Incorrect
30) According to Francois Perroux (1955), this phenomenon in economics refers to a propulsive or
expanding firm/industry, or cluster of such firms/industries, which induces development of other
firms/industries that are technically or functionally related to it, and stimulates prosperity of the
locality or region through the flow of goods and services.
A. Market town
B. Entrepot
C. Axis Mundi
D. Growth Pole
E. Ecozone
Incorrect
31) This process deals with efficient placement of activities and land uses such as farms, settlements,
industries, transport hubs, infrastructure, wilderness etc across a significantly large area broader
than a single city or town.
A. Watershed Planning
B. Area Development Planning
C. Regional Planning
D. Physical Planning
Incorrect
32) A region that is defined by common physical features such as resource base, lake, coast, ecosystem is
called 'natural or ecological region'; while that which is defined by extent of economic connectedness
or market exchange is called a "functional region"; that which is created by law regardless of natural
or economic commonality is called
A. Homogenous region
B. formal region
C. Historic region
D. Virtual region
Incorrect
33) "High-growth regions with expanding economic activity will attract net migration from other parts
of the country, thus favoring them further. Capital investments tend to have a similar effect:
increased demand in expanding centers spur additional investments, which in turn will increase
incomes and demand or cause a further round of investments."
A. Cumulative Causation
B. Positive Reinforcement
C. Economic Modernization
D. Circuits of Capital
Correct
34) RA 8550 Fisheries Code defines it is a band of dry land and adjacent ocean space in which terrestrial
processes and uses, as well as oceanic processes and uses directly affect each other; its geographic
extent has a landmark limit of one (1) kilometer from the shoreline at high tide to a seaward limit of
200 meters isobath.
A. Seashore land
B. Foreshore land
C. Coastal Zone
D. Aqua Marine Zone
Correct
35) Which characteristic of megalopolis descrtbes its tendency to develop a multi-nuclei or multi-nodal
spatial pattern?
A. Is an expansive urban region with over 10 million population (Giles Clarke)

B. Tends to be dependent on food, water, and energy supplies of its neighboring regions
C. Has complex form as 'mother city' breeds smaller offspring-cities in sprawling manner
D. Requires broad type of regional governance beyond the capacity and resources of a single LGU
authority
Incorrect
36) Under Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, what is closest to the meaning of
'inclusive growth'?
A. Compromise
B. Transactional
C. Equality
D. Beneficial to all particularly lagging groups
E. Only for the Yellow Army
Correct
37) Wilson (1992) estimated that 90% habitat loss of an area results in 50% reduction of number of
species Under RA 9174 "Wildlife Resources Conservation & Protection Act", a species or sub-species
that faces high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called
A. Acutely Threatened Species

B. Critically Endangered Species
C. Species Vulnerable to Extinction
D. Rapidly Vanishing Species
Incorrect
38) The following central variables except one were used by Alfred Weber, August Losch, Walter lsard,
Melvin Greenhut and others, in so-called classical theories of industrial location.
A. The costs of distributing and marketing finished goods to the end-user
B. Wages of labor
C. The costs of transporting raw materials to the factory
D. Perks and privileges for managers
Incorrect
39) Presidential Decree 2146 defines 'amenity areas' as those with high aesthetic values such as the
following, except one.
A. Outstanding landscapes, seascapes, and viewscapes

B. Planetarium, space observatory, and science centrum
C. Heritage sites and historic places
D. Municipal plazas and public parks
Incorrect
40) Of the so-called 'super-regions,' which one is being promoted as having the comparative advantage in
'tourism'?
A. North Luzon
B. Central Philippines
C. Baguio & Cordillera Autonomous Region
D. Davao Silicon Gulf
Correct
41) Which is not a method to delineate a region?
A. Force field analysis

B. Gravitational analysis
C. Factor analysis
D. Flow analysis
E. Ethno-lirguistic and socio-cultural profiling
F. Weighted index number method
Incorrect
42) According to RA 7916 Sec 4, this refers to a tract of land of at least 50 contiguous hectares which is
subdivided and developed according to a comprehensive plan under a unified continuous
management and with provisions for basic infrastructure and utilities, with or without pre-built
standard factory buildings (SFBs)
A. Industrial corridor
B. Regional manufacturing hub
C. Export processing zone
D. Industrial estate
Incorrect
43) Although theoretically flawed, "Super-Region" as conceived by the administration of Pres. Gloria
Macapagal Arroyo sought to build upon perceived comparative advantage of a cluster of territories
such as agri-processing, tourism, commodity logistics chain, or cyber-services. Which 'super-
region' ought to focus on 'agri-business'?
A. Northern Luzon Quadrangle

B. Metro Luzon Urban Beltway
C. CALABARZON Industrial Heartland
D. Central Philippines (Visayas, Palawan and parts of Mindanao)
E. Subic - Clark Freeport complex
F. Bangsa Moro Juridical Authority
Incorrect
44) "Development process should be redefine in such a way that urban development promotes rural
development while rural development supports urban development." (John Friedman)
A. Agropolis / agropolitan approach

B. Rurban interlink
C. Agro-based countryside development
D. Michael Lipton model
Incorrect
45) 'Industrial dispersal' began with Memorandum Circular dated Dec 16, 1973 which banned
establishment of additional medium and heavy industries in the national capital within a 50
kilometer radius from
A. Rizal Monument, Luneta

B. Malacariang Palace
C. Bonifacio Monument
D. Quezon Memorial Circle
Incorrect
46) Under RA 8550, what is the extent of municipal waters of a seaside town as measured from its
shoreline?
A. 7 km
B. 10 km
C. 15 km
D. 20 km
47) RA 7916 reiterates Sec. 12, Art XII of Philippine Constitution,"The State shall promote the
preferential use of Filipino labor, domestic materials and locally produced goods and adopt
measures that help make them competitive." What technical planning concept pertains most aptly
to this?
A. Inflow - outflow - backflow

B. Trickle up and trickle down
C. Economic nationalism or Filipinism
D. Forward linkages and backward linkages in production
48) An industrial estate that is established to develop new industries is called "developmental" while an
industrial estate meant to advance, improve or increase the level of industrial activjty particularly in
poor regions is called
A. "specialized"
B. "ancillary"
C. "promotional"
D. "survival"
E. "subsistential"
49) Basic principle of Heritage Conservation which holds that historic structures and treasures should
be utilized by preserving as much of their exteriors as possible while adopting more modern uses
in their interiors.
A. Total Makeover
B. Reconfigurative Renovation
C. Converted Property
D. Adaptive Re-use
50) In 1970, the Presidential Advisory Council on Public Works and Community Development and the UP
Institute of Environmental Planning together drafted the first-ever national physical framework plan
that attempted to address spatial inequity or imbalance among regions using the concept of
A. Integrated area development

B. Growth pole/growth center
C. Selective territorial closure
D. New society
EP QUIZ NO. 4
1) It is a computer system consisting of software and hardware components that are used to organize,
store, process, analyze and display multiple layers of spatially-referenced information about
geographically located features.
A. Geodesy and Geodetics

B. Global Positioning System
C. Electronic Cadastral System
D. Geographic Information System
2) An innovation in land-use regulation in which the right to develop a property can be separated or
severed from ownership of land in a particular zoning district, then sold or passed on to another
property owner, and exercised in connection with the development of land in some other part of the
jurisdiction.
A. Market-based instrument
B. Commutation of Rights
C. Property Conversion
D. Transfer of Oeve!opment Rights
3) PD 1067 Water Code of 1976 Article 51 requires a three-meter easement from the banks of creeks,
canals, and esteros, in urban areas, but MMDA Resolution 3 s. 1996, has expanded the easement for
Metro Manila areas adjoining water bodies as measured from the banks of Pasig River, tributary
streams and the shoreline, to be at least
A. 10 meters
B. 20 meters
C. 40 meters
D. 5 meters
4) Which is not a benefit from having large greenspace in cities?
A. Absorbs air pollution

B. Gives off oxygen
C. Cools the air as water transpires
D. Provides habitat to wild beasts
E. Provides shade with 1ess electricity required
F. Muffles noise and creates an island of peace
5) The recommended map scale for provinces is 1:50,000 while that for town/city CLUP should be at
least
A. 1 :200,000
B. 1:100,000
C. 1:25,000
D. 1:10,000
6) In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the 'economic sector'?
A. Housing
B. Mining
C. ICT and Business Process Outsourcing
D. Mariculture
E. Small Scale Industries
7) Which type of land use is not described as 'urban'?
A. Residential
B. Institutional
C. Industrial
D. Mineral
8) What rational tool do planners use in selecting from alternative land use schemes?
A. Checklist of criteria
B. Linear programming
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Computer simulation
9) This is the scientific term for old-growth forest in tropical countries that is dominated by broad-leaf
trees which form thick canopy thus allowing little sunlight on the forest floor, and includes much-
prized hardwood species such as red lauan, white lauan, red narra, tanguile, tiaong, almon,
bagtikan, apitong, kamagong, yakal, and mayapis.
A. Dipterocarp Forest
B. Deciduous Forest
C. Coniferous or 'Pine' Forest
D. Tropical Scrub Forest
E. Mossy Forest
F. Sub-marginal Forest
G. Mangrove Forest
H. Ever-green Forest
10) This document consists of specific proposals to guide growth in a locality including statements about
community goals, priorities, strategies, and socially-desired mix of resource uses. These are
illustrated by maps,diagrams,charts,tables that show a coherent spatial framework for environment
protection, economic production, settlements, and infrastructure.
A. Charrette
B. Chatroulette
C. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
D. Strategic Plan
E. Framework Plan
11) This concerns the arrangement, appearance and functionality of a whole town or city, in particular
the shape and form of the city blocks, the uses of public space, the articulation of physical features
in three dimensions, so that residents and visitors alike can make high-quality connections
between people, places and buildings.
A. Architectural Master Plan

B. Cityscape and Streetscape
C. Urban Design
D. Form and Style
E. Visual Panorama
12) What is the percent slope of a land parcel that has a change in elevation ('rise') of 8 meters and is
160 meters long?
A. 8%
B. 7%
C. 6%
D. 5%
E. 4%
Feedback
slope= rise/run x 100
13) These are geometric coordinates for designating the location of places on the surface of the Earth;
the First gives the location of a place above or below the equator, expressed by angular
measurements ranging from 0° at the equator to 90° at the poles, while the Second gives the
location of a place east or west of an upright line called the prime meridian, and is measured in
angles ranging from 0° at the prime meridian to 180° at the International Date Line.
A. Landmass and ocean

B. Cartesian x,y, points
C. North pole & south pole
D. Latitude and longitude
14) Under RA 8371, this refers to "all areas generally belonging to ICCs/lPs comprising lands, inland
waters, coastal areas, and natural resources therein, held under a claim of ownership, occupied or
possessed by ICCs/lPs, by themselves or through their ancestors, since time immemorial, continuously
up to the present."
A. Tribal land
B. Cultural heritage
C. Autonomous region
D. Ethnic realm
E. Ancestral domain
15) Which type of land use is most easily reversible or convertible to its original state?
A. Forest land
B. Memorial park
C. Infrastructure land
D. Commercial
16) These are lands capable of intensive use or cultivation over time and can sustain the productivity
levels of crops in a given climatic region without adversely affecting the immediate or adjoining
environment.
A. Agro-industrial estate
B. Prime agricultural land
C. Alluvial fans
D. Icefields or mud paddies
17) Under RA 9175 Chainsaw Act of 2002, one of the following does not possess a chainsaw in a legal
manner.
A. Has a subsisting timber license agreement, production sharing agreement, or a private land
timber permit
B. Is duly elected official of upland barangay
C. Is an orchard and fruit tree farmer
D. Is a licensed wood processor who cuts only timber that has been legally sold
E. Is an industrial tree farmer
18) In a computer graphics/mapping system, this is a data structure for representing point and line data
by means of x,y,z geometric coordinates; it can also be a set of line segments joined end-to-end to
make a curved path in space.
A. Vector
B. Raster
C. Curvature
D. Field
E. Node
19) 'Contour lines' on a topographic map indicate
A. Soil classes
B. Layers of vegetative cover
C. Demarcation lines
D. Elevation intervals
20) All but one of the following are sub-categories of Forest Reserve.
A. Permanent Forest
B. Critical River Watershed
C. Mangrove Forest
D. Military and Civil Reservations
21) Republic Act that provides for "conservation and protection of wildlife resources and their
habitats" is numbered as
A. RA 9147
B. RA 9714
C. RA 4791
D. RA14
7 7
Feedback
RA 9147 is "Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act" (2001)
22) Under Executive Order 23 dated February 1,2011 declaring "moratorium on the cutting and
harvesting of timber," which of the following is exempted from the total log ban until the year 2016?
A. Concessions signed by DENR secretary

B. Conversion of mangrove forests
C. Selective or rotational harvesting in industrial and commercial plantations
D. Small-scale tree cutting, 'carabao logging,' and kaingin
23) This refers to aerial photographs that have been rectified to produce an accurate image of the
Earth by removing tilt of planet, relief displacements, and topographic distortions which
occurred when the photo was taken from an airplane
A. Photogrammetry
B. Orthophotography
C. Remote sensing
D. Geomatics
E. Geodetics
Feedback
An orthophoto, orthophotograph or orthoimage is an aerial photograph geometrically corrected
("orthorectified") such that the scale is uniform: the photo has the same lack of distortion as a
map.(Source: Wikipedia)
24) In agricultural land use planning, the soil characteristics of solum depth and clay-silt fraction that
would ensure good plant growth are
A. <50 cm and <80%

B. >100 cm and >80%
C. 50-100 cm and 40-80%
D. 10-50 cm and 10-40%
25) This process defines the physical platform of development at the local level, and proceeds by
systematically evaluating alternative patterns of resource use,choosing that use which meets
specified goals, and drawing-up appropriate policies and programs, directed to the best use of land
in view of accepted objectives, and of environmental and societal opportunities and constraints.
A. Framework Planning
B. Strategic Planning
C. Land Use Planning
D. Development Planning
26) According to RA 8749, this geographic-based document integrates primary data and information on
natural resources and anthropogenic activities on the land as evaluated using various risk assessment
and forecasting methodologies, and evaluates environment quality and carrying capacity of an area in
such a way that enables planners and government decision-makers to anticipate the type of
development control necessary in the planning area.
A. Natural Resources Inventory

B. Environmental Accounting
C. Biogeographic Compendium
D. Eco-Profile
27) This is the legal term for forest at 1,000 meters elevation or more or with steep gradients at 50% or
more, which perform vital ecological functions and must therefore be kept perpetually in natural
state and free from human intrusion.
A. Everlasting Forest
B. Permanent Forest
C. Virginal Fores!
D. Primeval Forest
28) It is an integrated development scheme wherein a defined area is comprehensively planned as a

unitary entity such that innovations in site design and building design are rewarded by government
with some flexibility in zoning, usually relaxation of standards or their replacement with negotiated
agreement between the developer and the LGU.
A. Enterprise Zone
B. Sites and Services model
C. Zonal Improvement Program
D. Planned Unit Development
29) In slope analysis, land with slope 0% to 3% is described as
A. Even and smooth

B. Flat to gently sloping
C. Level to nearly level
D. Gently to moderately undulating
30) Which of those listed below is not a 'thematic' map?
A. Political - administrative boundaries

B. NPAAAD map
C. Slope map
D. Forest cover map
31) An 'analytical' map is a composite or overlay of two or more
A. Base maps
B. Thematic maps
C. Aspect maps
D. Choropleth maps
32) Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for agricultural use?
A. Climate and rainfall

B. Soil quality
C. Geologic fault lines
D. Slope
33) An essential part of land-use planning, this activity occurs after strategic planning but before the
detailed layout of location, and aims to characterize and design a parcel of land or specific section
of town so that it can function effectively in relation to the complexity and scale of proposed
development and the range of land uses around it.
A. Estate Planning
B. Wards and Precincts Planning
C. Parcellary Planning
D. Site Planning
E. Project Planning
34) Under RA 7586, these are identified portions of land and water, remarkable areas, biogeographic
zones, habitats of rare and endangered species- all set aside by reason of their unique physical and
biological significance, to be managed to enhance biological diversity, and to be secured from
destructive human exploitation.
A. National Heritage Parks and Reservations

B. Resource Reserve
C. Ecological Zones
D. Protected Areas
35) This refers to the division of a community into districts or sections according to present and
potential uses of land in order to maximize, regulate, and direct their use and development.
A. Wards & Precincts Planning

B. Subdivision Plats
C. Land Allocation and Apportionment
D. Zoning
36) Prior to the development of computer mapping software in the mid-1970s, spatial analysis was done
manually by overlaying different thematic maps of the same scale, principally to determine
A. Geohazards and physical constraints

B. Areas that are ideal for urban development
C. Critical areas for rehabilitation or intervention
37) According to Prof. Ernesto Serote, this is the process of putting two or more thematic maps on top
of each other to determine areas of convergence of certain features of land contributing to the
suitability of the area to a particular purpose, and conversely, to eliminate or screen out areas that
are not suitable for that purpose.
A. Thematic superimposition
B. Cartographic merging
C. Sieve analysis
D. Spatial modeling
38) A 'drainage basin' is the total land area that contributes runoff to a given stream. What characteristic
of a drainage basin causes it to have an 'efficient' response to rainfall?
A. Sloping topography in bowl-like formation

B. Permeable soils
C. Plasticity of clay bottom
D. Filtration by its wetlands
39) This type of land regulation says that man-made structures should be of such height,bulk, or design
so as not to upstage, play down, or draw attention away from a landmark (e.g. Rizal Monument ),
natural landscape, or character of place
A. Design Aesthetics
B. Architectural Masterplan
C. Cultural Mapping
D. Form-Zoning
40) In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the 'social sector'?
A. Education
B. Tourism
C. Health
D. Police Protective Services
E. Sports and Recreation
41) Under Executive Order 26 series of 2011 which declared the National Greening Program as DA-
DAR-DENR Convergence Initiative, how many tree seedlings should each government employee
plant each year, a requirement that also applies to students identified by DEPED and CHED?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
E. 35
42) PD 705 Revised Forestry Code Section 16 affirms that, after a salvage zone of 40 meters from the
hightide-mark or shoreline, there shall be protective strips of mangroves or swamps along the coast
with width of at least
A. 20 meters
B. 25 meters
C. 30 meters
D. 35 meters
E. 40 meters
43) This broad category refers to land deliberately kept undeveloped for its contribution to the
amenity value of the environment. It offers opportunities for adventure recreation or passive
leisure at low-cost, and at the same time, serves as protection buffer around sensitive areas and
hazardous installations.
A. Wilderness
B. Tourism & Recreation Zone
C. Rangeland
D. Open Space
44) Which is not considered 'production land' in a Philippine LGU?
A. Agro-industrial estate
B. Cropland
C. Orchard
D. Fishpond
E. Fishpen
45) In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning works with Nature by conserving
natural resources.
A. Interconnect open space and greenways to provide corridors and refuge for wildlife
B. Delineate clear town edges or greenbelts to protect surrounding farmland
C. Encourage quarrying near main rivers to generate substantial revenues for the municipality
D. Create neighborhood pocket-parks and urban mini-forests to serve as lungs of the city/town
46) Which of the following soil types has the greatest permeability, and hence has the least nutrient-
holding capacity?
A. Sand
B. Clay
C. Silt
D. Loam
E. Humus
47) Under RA 7586, poor communities occupying sections of forestland continuously for at least 5 years
prior to legal proclamations, who are dependent on the forest for subsistence, are considered
"tenured migrant communities" and are engaged by government to undertake reforestation and
upland management under this specific program.
A. Agro-Forestry
B. Sloping Agricultural Land Technology
C. Integrated Social Forestry
D. Industrial Forestry
48) By taking into account both quantitative values and non-quantitative values, 'Planning Balance Sheet'
is an 'extended' 'multiple-criteria' form of
A. Cost-revenue analysis
B. Cost-benefit analysis
C. Cost-effectiveness analysis
D. Cost-estimate analysis
49) This refers to the wise and prudent use of any resource that is held in trust.
A. Technocracy
B. Shepherding
C. Protectionism
D. Championing
E. Stewardship
50) A 'watershed' is principally a source of
A. Timber for processing into lumber, shelter materials, paper

B. Charcoal for grill requirements of five-star restaurants
C. Food and prey for biodiverse species in rivers, streams
D. Water for humans, animals, plants, and other species
EP QUIZ NO. 5
1) The following data help planners identify the appropriate industrial areas in an LGU, except one.
A. Indicated as Class A in SAFDZ/NPAAAD maps of the Bureau of Soils and Water Management
B. Part of growth area or growth corridor as stated in the Medium-Term National Development
Plan
C. Among sites previously identified in 1970 NPFP national policy on industrial dispersal &
decentralization of development
D. already surveyed and positively evaluated by PEZA under RA 7916
Incorrect
2) Which of the following is not considered a criterion to select industrial estates in the Philippines?
A. Presence of natural resources

B. Physical boundary
C. Availability of labor
D. Existing infrastructure and utilities
E. Logistics or efficient movement of goods and products
Incorrect
3) What document makes possible that funds for priority projects enumerated in LDIP are budgeted
and re:eased yearly?
A. Special Allotment Release Order (SARO)

B. Notice of Cash Availability (NCA)
C. Annual Investment Plan
D. PBBS
E. Memorandum of Undertaking
F. Program of Work and Expenditure Plan
Correct
4) Which of the following is not a basic step in preparing a CLUP?
A. Identify stakeholders and analyze the situation

B. Develop a detailed organizational management profile
C. Formulate goals and translate them into strategies
D. Anticipate economic trends and build scenarios
E. Identify the needed infrastructure and utilities
F. Involve participants in Goals Achievement Matrix
Incorrect
5) One goal of land use planning as stated in the 'National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-
2030' is the utilization of the country's land and water resources in a manner that provides
sufficient and affordable food products to all Filipinos of the present and future generations
through local production and/or importation.
A. "Green Revolution"
B. "Agricultural Development"
C. "Food Security"
D. "Self-Sufficiency in Grains"
Correct
6) The total area of permitted building space expressed as a proportion of the total site is known as:
A. Gross Leasable Area

B. Buildable Site Formula
C. Floor Area Ratio
D. Location Quotient
Incorrect
7) This refers to a kind of ad-hoc or arbitrary zoning that allows a small piece of land to deviate from
the district or zone regulations for reasons not found in the officially-approved CLUP.
A. Flexible zoning
B. Mixed use zoning
C. Euclidean zoning
D. Spot zoning
E. Optional zoning
Incorrect
8) All of the following tools are relevant to land use planning but one is least used in land use
allocation?
A. Land Use Accounting

B. Scenario Analysis
C. Life Cycle Analysis
D. Spatial Modeling
Incorrect
9) A mixed-use building has 6 storeys of 1,000 sq.m each, on a lot area of 2,000 sq.m. What is the
FAR?
A. 2:1
B. 3:1
C. 4:1
D. 5:1
E. 6:1
Feedback
Soln:
6 storeys x 1000 sq.m.=6000 sq.m./2000 sq.m.= 3
Incorrect
10) Under the design elements of Kevin Lynch, 'Quiapo church' would be a landmark while Divisoria
would be termed as
A. Flea Market
B. Icon
C. District
D. Nodule
E. Transshipment
Correct
11) According to Kevin Andrew Lynch (1961), a good 'urban design' is one where residents and visitors
can use a 'cognitive image' or 'mental map' of the city as they navigate through the territory in the
process of 'wayfinding·. He identified the elements of legibility of place as:
A. Circumferentials, arterials, radials, crossroads

B. Skyscrapers, skyways, multi-nodals, junctions
C. Arched gateways, waterfronts, boulevards, anci promenades
D. Paths, edges, nodes, districts, and landmarks
Incorrect
12) UN-FAO standards state that at least 5.7 hectares of aggregate urban land (residential, commercial,
industrial, etc) and 6 hectares of farmland need to be reserved for every 1,000 population. How
much urban land is needed for a town of 22,000?
A. 62.7 hectares
B. 125.4 hectares
C. 220 hectares
D. 11.4 hectares
Feedback
Soln:
5.7 has.(urban land only) x 22=125.4 hectares
Incorrect
13) This spatial strategy deliberately directs growth towards major roadways that emanate from a
center like rays of a star
A. Radial/axial/sectoral
B. Central & nodal
C. Multi-centric & poly-nodal
D. Concentric
E. Bi-polar & tri-polar
Incorrect
14) 'National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030' notes a shift from rural resource-based
environmental problems to urban-based man-made environmental problems. Which of the following
NFPP measures pertains to development control and urban growth management (UGBs)?
A. Delineate land available for or restricted from settlement expansion

B. Identify and manage environmentally critical areas
C. Match land uses and densities with environmental capacities and service capacities of
infrastructure
D. Encourage appropriately planned mixed use developments, transit use, pedestrianization and
cultural/ historical preservation in large urban centers
Incorrect
15) A 'tri-polar' or 'bi-polar' form in municipal CLUP would focus on comprehensively developing new
sections as magnets or complete attractions for population and business, inorder to ease pressure
on· traditional center, and is an example of
A. Simple Dispersion
B. Concentrated Dispersion
C. Simple Concentration
D. Compact Development
Correct
16) UN-FAO standards state that at least 0.60 hectares should be devoted to educational space (public
and private) per thousand population. How much combined area of schools is the minimum for a
town of 40,000 people?
A. 40 hectares
B. 24 hectares
C. 10 hectares
D. 240 hectares
Feedback
Soln:
0.6 has. every 1000 people
0.6 has. x 40= 24 hectares
Incorrect
17) 'Smart Growth USA,' with its ten declared principles, deliberately combats 'amorphic sprawl' by
means of
A. Mixed use zoning rather than conventional exclusionary zoning

B. Design of walkable, bikable, sociable, health-oriented settlements
C. Residential, commercial, institutional uses are integrated & clustered
D. Interconnected modes of transport
E. nCompact development through infill in
F. All of the choices
Incorrect
18) What would be the most suitable land use of geologic fault with buffer strip of at least 5 m on both
sides from the line?
A. Aqueduct or tunnel
B. Floodway
C. Venice-like canals
D. Open space or farm
E. Wildlife refuge
Incorrect
19) What color is used to represent industrial areas in zoning map?
A. Black
B. Gray
C. Violet
D. Yellow
Feedback
I1-Z, I2-Z, I3-Z
Violet (150,0,200)
Reference: HLURB CLUP Vol.3 Annex 1
Incorrect
20) In the National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030,

"Settlements","Production","Protection," and "Infrastructure" are discussed as
A. Key Economic Functions of any Local Government Unit

B. Land Use Zones that exclude one another
C. Land Use Policy Areas whose functional relationships have to be fleshed out at the local level
D. Primary Districts in urban design that have to be delineated in each town or city
Incorrect
21) Floor Area Ratio of 1.5 and below is considered as low density. What FAR is labeled as 'very high
density'?
A. 2 and above
B. 3 and above
C. 4 and above
D. 5 and above

Incorrect
22) Under Kevin Lynch's scheme (1961), what would best describe Rockwell Makati and Ortigas Center?
A. Landmark
B. Cosmopolitan
C. District
D. Downtown
E. Estate
Correct
23) Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for heavy industrial use?
A. Load-bearing capacity
B. Location
C. Slope
D. Soil characteristics
Incorrect
24) What are the elements of 'urban form'?
A. Infill, densification, property conversion, retro-fitting

B. Vertical, horizontal, diagonal, curvilinear
C. Beauty, amenity, safety, convenience, functionality
D. Land use, transport network, layout, building types, density
Incorrect
25) An area within an LGU where the average density is 35 dwelling units per hectare or below. with
majority of lot sizes between 120 to 800 square meters or more, is zoned as·
A. R-1
B. R-2
C. R-3
D. R-4
E. Mixed Use Zone
Incorrect
26) Which of the following steps are common to both CLUP and Comprehensive Development Plan?
A. Urban morphology and physiognomy

B. Data collection, problem analysis, sectoral forecasting, formulation of overall vision, goals,
objectives
C. Investment programming, zero-based budgeting, earmarking and appropriation
D. Community-based monitoring system, local government poverty monitoring system
Incorrect
27) Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings under various legal issuances. Under
AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses, while RA 7160 Local
Government Code Sec. 20 limits it to
A. 15% of the agricultural land in highly urbanized and independent chartered cities
B. 20% of total arable land in any LGU
C. 10% of total cultivable land in any city
D. 25% of total alienable and disposable land
Incorrect
28) Which of the following urban street layout creates the most severe transport congestion?
A. Grid-iron or rectilinear
B. Circumferential & radial
C. Uni-linear or strip development
D. Irregular free pattern
Correct
29) A type of land use control where there may be no possibility of the application of the 'right of
reverter' is called
A. Restrictive covenants
B. Telluric
C. Deed of sale
D. Monolithic
Incorrect
30) An area in certain cities with regional shopping centers, huge consumer malls, sports stadiums,
high-rise hotels, office towers, is zoned as
A. C-1
B. C-2
C. C-3
D. Tourism zone
E. Financial District
Feedback
Reference: PD 1096 National Building Code
C-3 (Commercial Three or Metropolitan Commercial Zone) - means
an area hosting a metropolitan level of commercial use/ occupancy,
characterized mainly as situated in a medium-rise to high-rise
building/ structure for high to very high intensity commercial/ trade,
service and business activities e.g. large to very large shopping
malls, very large office or mixed use/ occupancy buildings and the
like
Incorrect
31) HLURB standards state that at least 2.5 hectares of industrial land needs to be reserved for every
1,000 population. How much total industrial land is needed for an independent chartered city of
200,000 people?
A. 200 hectares
B. 400 hectares
C. 500 hectares
D. 2,500 hectares
Feedback
Soln:
2.5 has every 1000 people
2.5 x 200= 500 hectares
Incorrect
32) Which one is not an innovative element of 'Planned Unit Development'?
A. Cul de sac, horseshoe design, and motorcourt

B. Usable open space
C. Complementarity of building types
D. Preservation of significant natural land features
Incorrect
33) If there are 12 signatures needed to approve construction of a building and 32 signatures needed
to thoroughly develop a parcel of non-agricultural land, whose signature is needed for the
issuance of a development permit?
A. Planning Consultant
B. Real Estate Broker
C. Natural Scientist
D. Head Local Planner
E. Legislator-Sponsor
Incorrect
34) An example of positive easement is one that
A. Preserves a certain habitat

B. Protects a certain stream
C. Allows the right to harvest a natural crop
D. Stipulates not to drain a wetland
Correct
35) What kind of use would be most compatible around a huge oil depot and Petrol-LPG gas
depository?
A. Transport terminals
B. Commercial
C. BPO call centers
D. Open space
E. Hospitals
Incorrect
36) A device usually given at the enactment of Zoning Ordinance which grants property owner relief
from certain provisions of ordinance because the application of the same would result in a particular
hardship to the owner.
A. Exceptionality
B. Certificate of Non-Conformance
C. Quasi-judicial relief
D. Variance
Correct
37) In Ernesto Serote's method of estimating land supply, the following are deducted from total, except
one.
A. Environmentally critical areas

B. Grasslands and idle lands
C. High-risk geohazard zones
D. Military and civil reservations
Incorrect
38) In Ernesto Serote's land use accounting, the following measures increase overall land supply for
planning, except one.
A. Reclamation of coastal area

B. Infill and densification
C. Urban renewal and redevelopment
D. NPAAAD
Incorrect
39) What color is used to represent tourism areas in zoning map?
A. Orange
B. Red
C. Purple
D. Fuchsia
Feedback
T-Z
Orange (255,153,0)
Incorrect
40) Under Philippine zoning codes, a family-run commercial-scale piggery with more than 10 heads of
swine should be properly located in
A. General residential zone (R-1)

B. Slaughterhouse and abbatoir zone
C. Agro-industrial zone
D. Rangeland and pastureland
Incorrect
41) Exemptions, special permissions, and relief from provisions of land use and zoning ordinance are
obtained from
A. Office of the Mayor/ Local Chief Executive

B. Planning Commission or Planning & Dev't Office
C. Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustments
D. Office of the Vice Mayor as head of Sanggunian
Correct
42) What are the tools or levers of authority of city/town Local Government Units to implement their
local plans?
A. Clearance, non-conformance, variance, exemptions, licenses, and permits

B. Condemnation, legal expropriation, seizure, confiscation, closure and takeover of property
C. Zoning and regulation, subdivision controls, taxation, public investment, incentives to private
investment
D. Levies, duties, charges, tolls, and tariffs
Incorrect
43) This document serves as basis for adopting land use and physical planning-related guidelines and
standards to guide the formulation of long-term framework plans and particularly city/municipal
land use plans and zoning ordinances.
A. Long-Term Philippine Investment Plan
B. Medium-Term Philippine Development Plan
C. National Framework for Physical Planning
D. Regional Physical Framework Plan
Correct
44) When a proponent of a proposed project applies for 'locational clearance,' which consideration is first
and foremost from the perspective of the approving authority?
A. Community disruption, relocation and the required land acquisition

B. Consistency with local land use plan and with zoning map
C. Likely impacts on town traffic and local parking
D. Carbon Footprint from the use of fossil fuels in power generation, company bus shuttles,
executives' luxury cars
E. Amount of tax and non-tax revenues to be received by the Local Government Unit
F. Consumption of power, water, and other utilities
Correct
45) Under Philippine zoning codes, a mixed-use seven-storey structure with residential condominiums,
offices, gyms, shops and boutiques should be properly located in -
A. General residential zone R-1

B. Commercial zone C-3
C. Tourism recreational zone
D. Special economic zone
Incorrect
46) Which the following indicates good site planning?
A. Best orientation to sun, sea and wind

B. Congruence and compability with its surrounding
C. Proactive features to anticipate possibility of disaster
D. Maximized space
E. Efficient circulation
F. All of the choices
Incorrect
47) What color is used to represent institutional areas in zoning map?
A. Brown
B. Beige
C. Blue
D. Maroon
Feedback
General I-Z, Special I-Z
Blue (0,0,255)
Incorrect
48) Because of public need for salvage zone, how far should a residential property be from the banks of
rivers, streams and waterways in a rural farming area?
A. 5 meters
B. 20 meters
C. 40 meters
D. 100 meters
Feedback
PD 1067 Chapter 4 Article 51 (Water Code of the Philippines)
The banks of rivers and streams and the shores of the seas and lakes throughout their entire length
and within a zone of three (3) meters in urban areas, twenty (20) meters in agricultural areas and
forty (40) meters in forest areas, along their margins are subject to the easement of public use in
the interest of recreation, navigation, floatage, fishing and salvage. No person shall be allowed to
stay in this zone longer than what is necessary for recreation, navigation, floatage, fishing or
salvage or to build structures of any kind.
Correct
49) Like a mould needed to control shape, the spatial strategy in CLUP is the creative physical
arrangement of space- using activities used to influence the shape, direction, and intensity of the
built environment so as to preserve and conserve the unbuilt environment.
A. City Image
B. City Metaphor
C. Spatial Modeling
D. Urban Form
E. Urban Template
Incorrect
50) This refers to the establishment of mini-forests or small nature parks, lining roads and highways with
trees, shrubs, or ornamental plants, and ground landscaping of schools, hospitals, and other
government agencies in order to improve the environment in built-up areas.
A. Reforestation
B. Miniature Forestry
C. Urban Forestry
D. Silvicuture
E. fAgro-forestry
EP QUIZ NO. 6
1) Under the Local Government Code, reclassification of agricultural land in
component cities and to first to third class municipalities shall be limited to:
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 5%
Incorrect
2) A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of a

Zoning ordinance where, because of the specific use would result n a particular
hardship to the owner.
A. Variance
B. Certificate of Non- Conformance
C. Exception
D. Development
Incorrect
3) What are the tools for plan implementation?
A. Zoning ordinance, taxation and eminent domain

B. Zoning, subdivision and building ordinance
C. Zoning ordinance, local investment
D. Urban land reform
Incorrect
4) What does reviews Comprehensive Land Use Plans (CLUPs) of component

cities and municipalities?
A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
D. None of the choices
E. All of the choices except none
Incorrect
5) What projects require an environmental impact statement (EIS)
A. Environmentally critical projects

B. Projects in environmentally critical areas
C. Gold courses, major roads and bridges, infrastructure
D. All of the choices except none
E. None of he choices
Incorrect
6) This law provides for the establishment and management of National Integrated
Protection Areas System:
A. RA 8371
B. RA 7586
C. RA 7279
D. None of the above
Incorrect
7) What Body ratifies CLUPs of Metro Manila Cities and Municipalities?
A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
Incorrect
8) Alarm over increasing world population may be traced to Thomas Malthus'

theory that states
A. Population grows geometrically while food supply grows arithmetically

B. Population grows arithmetically while food supply grows geometrically
C. Population and food grows geometrically
D. Population and food grows arithmetically
Incorrect
9) The law proclaiming certain areas and types of projects as environmentally

critical and within the scope of the EIS system:
A. PD 1586
B. Proclamation No. 2146
C. PD 1152
D. DAO 96-37
Correct
10) Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceiling under various legal
issuances, e.g. Local Government Code. Under the AFMA, only 5% of the
SAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses, while the LGC limits to:
A. 15% of total arable lands on chartered cities and 1st class Municipalities
B. 10% of total arable lands in any town
C. 5% of total arable land in any city
D. All of the above
Incorrect
11) Along with the Network of Protected Areas for Agriculture and Agro-Industrial
Development (NPAAAD), it provides the physical basis for the proper planning
of sustainable agriculture and fishery development and in the identification of
24 suitable crops, livestock for local and international markets without creating
irreversible environmental and human health problems.
A. The watershed areas

B. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
C. Integrated Area Development
D. Strategic Agriculture and Fishery Development Zone
Incorrect
12) The counterpart of Geddes in the University States is Lewis Mumford. Hiss
treatise is entitled:
A. Culture and Cities

B. Cities and Culture
C. The Cities of Culture
D. The Culture of the Cities
Incorrect
13) The 1987 Constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain onti four
categories. Name pf the one that is not among four
A. Agricultural land
B. Mineral land
C. National park
D. Ancestral domain
E. Forest land
Incorrect
14) What is zoning?
A. It is the designation of species areas of a community as functional

land uses of land may be allowed or regulated on accordance with
the development plan.
B. It is a tool to implement the development plan
C. It is a means of redistributing land acquisition and disposition
Incorrect
15) The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the monitoring and inspection of

educational institutions offering courses in environment planning is the
responsibility of the :
A. Commission on Higher Education

B. Philippine Institute of Environmental Planners
C. Board of Environmental Planning
D. School of Urban and Regional Planning
Incorrect
16) Where can we find the highest level policy statements on environmental
protection?
A. Constitution
B. PD 1151
C. All of the choices except none
D. None of the Choices
Correct
17) A consulting firm, partnership, company, corporation, or association may
engage on the practice of environmental planning in the Philippines, provided
that:
A. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the entity shall be registered
environmental planners
B. At least 70% of the total capitalization of the entity is owned by registered environmental
planners
C. At least 70% of the entire membership of the Board is composed of ENPs and 75% of the
capitalization is owned by them
D. At least 75% of the entire membership and 75% of the capitalization is owned by registered
environmental planners
Correct
18) Reclassification of the land highly in urbanized areas, after conducting public
hearings for the purpose, shall be limited to:
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
Incorrect
19) The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest or
planning groups for the purpose of systemizing, harmonizing and facilitating
operations is called:
A. Public hearing
B. Consultation
C. Coordination
D. Scooping
Incorrect
20) The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-sectoral

development plains initiated by their development councils and approved by
their Sanggunian is:
A. PD 399
B. Executive Order No.72
C. RA 7160
D. PD 1517
Incorrect
21) What are the techniques relevant to land use planning?
A. Sieve Mapping
B. Area Ecological Profiling
C. Land Use Accounting
D. Critical and urgent
E. None of the choices
F. All of the choices except none
Incorrect
22) What body reviews CLUPs of provinces?
A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
Correct
23) Any amendment to the provisions of the zoning ordinance for component cities
and municipalities can only take effect approval and authentication by the:
A. Sangguniang Panlalawigan
B. HLURB
C. Local Zoning Review Committee
D. Local Zoning Board of Adjustment and Appeals (LZBAA)
Incorrect
24) Variances and exemptions from the land use plan/zoning map are secured from
the:
A. Zoning Administrator/Officer
B. Municipal Mayor
C. Municipal Planning and Development Coordinator (MPDC)
D. Local Zoning Board of Adjustments and Appeals (LZBAA)
Incorrect
25) A comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP) must meet the following criteria:
A. Technical feasibility
B. Socio-economical and financial possibility
C. Political viability
D. Administrative operability
E. All of the choices
Incorrect
26) What kind of project requires an environmental compliance certificate?
A. Environmentally critical projects

B. Projects in environmentally critical areas
Incorrect
27) This document is a series of written statements accompanied by maps,

illustrations and diagrams which describes what the community wants to
become and how it wants to develop. It is essentially composed of community
goals, objectives, policies, programs and physical development plan which
translates the various sectoral plan:
A. Land Use Plan

B. Action Plan
C. Strategic Plan
D. Development Plan

Correct
28) Traditional location theory analyzes the location of industries by considering
A. The cost of marketing and advertising

B. Labor wages
C. The cost of transporting raw materials to the factory and finished goods to the market
D. The costs of transporting consumers to market centers
Correct
29) What higher level plans guides Local Government Units (LGUs) in preparing
their own comprehensive land use plans (CLUPs)?
A. National Physical Framework Plans and Medium-Term Development Plans

B. Regional Physical Framework Plans and Regional Development Plans
C. Provincial Physical Framework and Provincial Development Plans
Incorrect
30) What is the highest planning body at the regional level?
A. NEDA
B. The Regional Development Council
C. HLURB
Incorrect
31) Ancestral domains refer to areas that:
A. Belong to ICCs/iPPs compromising lands. Inland waters, coastal areas and natural resources
therein
B. Bare within protected areas which have actually been occupied by
communities for 5 years before the designation of the same as protected areas in accordance
with the NIPAS Act.
C. Are set aside to allow the way of life of societies living in harmony with the environment adapt
to modern technology at their pace
D. Are extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited, are normally with difficult access.
Incorrect
32) What body ratifies CLUPs of highly urbanized cities?
A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
Incorrect
33) Many industries want to locate near urban cities because they want to be
A. Close to large market

B. Close to a major transportation hub
C. Avail of urban services and facilities
Incorrect
34) What are the legal basis for the state's regulation of land use?
A. Police power
B. Laws against nuisance and pollution
C. The policy that property has social function
D. The rule that a person must not do wrong to another person
Correct
35) What law lays down the mandates and functions of the Housing and Land Use
Regulatory Board?
A. EO 949
B. EO 90
C. PD 933
D. PD 957
Incorrect
36) Based on the principle of devolution of powers to local government units, the
National Government transfers these funds to LGUs for their administrative,
public order and safety operations
A. Internal Revenue Allotments

B. Budgetary Allocation
C. Local Development Allotment
D. LGU Budgetary Allotment
Incorrect
37) In general, an Economic Base ration or Economic Base Multiplier expressed in

terms of employment indicates:
A. A total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a number of jobs created in an industry
B. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of number of jobs created in the entire
country
C. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a number of jobs created in the
entire region
D. The total number of jobs created in a set of industries as a result of a number of jobs created in
an industry.
Incorrect
38) As provided for in the Water Code and the HLURB zoning guidelines, the
required easement in urban areas from the banks of rivers/streams, seas and
lakes is:
A. 3 meters
B. 20 meters
C. 40 meters
D. 100 meters
Incorrect
39) The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policies
of Government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource is:
A. NEDA
B. DAR
C. HLURB
D. DPWH
Correct
40) A special locational clearance which grants a property owner relief from certain
provisions of the zoning ordinance where, because of the particular physical
surrounding, shape or topographical conditions of the property, compliance with
height, area, bulk, setback and/or density would result in particular hardship
upon the owner is called:
A. Certified of Non-Conformance
B. Exception
C. Variance
D. None of the choieces
Incorrect
41) What body reviews CLUPs of independent component cities?
A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
Correct
42) The new law regulating the practice of environmental planning is:
A. RA 10587
B. PD 1517
C. PD 957
Incorrect
43) The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may not be followed
is called.
A. Consultation
B. Coordination
C. Public hearing
D. Citizen participation
Correct
44) This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion and
other built-up areas including the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said areas
and whereat least 50% of the population area engaged in non-agricultural
activities:
A. Central business district

B. Urban area
C. City center
D. Suburban area
Incorrect
45) Choose the relevant criteria for he best strategic option
A. Sustainability
B. Feasibility
C. Desirability
Incorrect
46) A kind of ad-hoc zoning that allows a small piece of land to deviate from the
approved zone of the area for certain reason is called:
A. Spot zoning
B. Flexible zoning
C. Euclidean zoning
D. Large lot zoning
Incorrect
47) RA 8435 or the Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Act (AFMA) of 1997
strives to provide full and adequate support to the sustainable development of a
highlt modernized agriculture and fishery industry in the Philippines. Under
AFMA, one of the following has been d-prioritized
A. Identification and establishment of model farm

B. On-farm production enhancement technologies
C. Small-scale irrigation systems
D. Research, development and training facilities
Incorrect
48) What technique is useful for determining strategies?
A. Situational analysis
B. SWOT analysis
C. Land use survey
Incorrect
49) The advocates of the systems view planning does not include one of the
following:
A. G. Wilson
B. George Chadwick
C. J.B. McLoughlin
D. Stuart Chapin
E. Andreas Faludi
Incorrect
50) A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting land use is:
A. Comprehensive Land Use Plan

B. Zoning Ordinance
C. Cadastral Survey
D. Tax Declaration
EP QUIZ NO. 7
1) A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent is authorized to finance, construct, own, operate
and maintain an infrastructure or development facility from which the proponent is allowed to recover its
total investment, operating and maintenance costs plus a reasonable return thereon by collecting tools, fees,
rentals and other charges from facility users.
A. Build and transfer

B. Build own and operate
C. Build transfer and operate
D. Develop, operate and transfer
Correct
2) The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest or planning groups for the purpose of
systematizing, harmonizing and facilitating operations is called
A. Public hearing
B. Consultation
C. Coordination
D. Scoping
Correct
3) Which of these projects require an EIS?
A. Golf courses and residential subdivision above 10 hectares

B. Drugstore and backyard piggery
C. Projects under Kalakalan 20
Incorrect
4) A contractual arrangement whereby the public sector contracts out the building of an infrastructures facility
to private entity such that the contractor builds the facility on a turn-key basis, assuming cost overrun, delay
and specified performance risks.

B. Build own and operate
C. Build transfer and operate
Incorrect
5) How many commissioners comprise the National Commission on Indigenous Peoples?
A. Five
B. Seven
C. Nine
D. Eleven
Incorrect
6) Which of the following is not a factor in determining the suitability of land for an industrial estate?
A. Load-nearing capacity
B. Soil fertility
C. Drainage
D. Slope
E. Location
Incorrect
7) This refers to a little formally recognizing the rights of possession and ownership of ICCs/IPs over their
ancestral domains identified in accordance with the law.
A. Torres Title
B. Cultural minority
C. Land Title
D. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Title
Incorrect
8) This is the process of appraising the feasibility, credibility and probable impacts or consequences of
alternative schemes of development or specific environmental conditions.
A. Environmental impact assessment

B. Evaluation
C. Diagnostic survey
D. Feasibility study
Incorrect
9) The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may or not be followed is called
A. Consultation
B. Coordination
C. Public hearing
D. Citizen participation
Correct
10) Consensus of all members of the ICCs/IPs determined in accordance with their respective customary laws
and practices, free from any external manipulation and coercion
A. Indigenous consensus
B. Rights of indigenous people
C. Free and informed consent
Incorrect
11) The use of scientific methods and information to define the probability and magnitude of potentially adverse
effects which can result from exposure to hazardous materials or situations.
A. Environmental impact statement

B. Environmental risk assessment
C. Scoping
Incorrect
12) In the identification of needs and the planning of social welfare programs and services, the planner is
expected to
A. Involve the clientele

B. Involve the national and local governments
C. Involve the private sector
Incorrect
13) The National Commission on Indigenous Peoples shall protect the rights of Indigenous peoples, except those
of
A. Children and youth

B. Elders
C. Women
Incorrect
14) Standards for firefighting services prescribe that municipalities with 10,000 or more population but below
50,000 should provide at least one fire truck. Adjoining municipalities, however, are allowed to share one fire
truck provided that the distance is within prescribed limits. In such cases, the maximum travel time between
municipalities should be
A. 10 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Correct
15) This type of plan shows the allocation of land into broad functional classes, e.g., development areas,
conservation/preservation areas; agricultural area and forest areas.
A. Structure Plan
B. General Land Use Plan
C. Development Plan
D. Comprehensive Plan
Incorrect
16) A single detached dwelling units is defined as a house
A. Good for one household

B. Intended for ownership
C. Completely surrounded by yards
D. With one or more of its sides abutting the property line
Incorrect
17) The law that authorizes the establishment and promulgation of different levels of standards of economic and
socialized housing in urban and rural areas provided under the Subdivision and Condominium Buyers
Protective Decree and the National Building Code is
A. BP 220
B. RA 7279
C. PD 957
D. PD 1216
Incorrect
18) The minimum lot area under PD 957 is
A. 100 sq. m.
B. 72 sq. m.
C. 150 sq. m.
D. 120 sq. m.
Incorrect
19) Which of the maps listed below is not a thematic map?
A. Base map
B. Land use map
C. Slope map
D. Geologic map
E. Physical constraint map
Incorrect
20) Agricultural land in its generic synonymous with that basic land classification?
A. Timberland
B. Unclassified public forest
C. Alienable and disposable
D. Ancestral domain
E. Critical watershed
Correct
21) These are lands that are capable of sustaining the economic productivity levels of crops/land use over time in
a given climatic region without adversely affecting the immediate and adjoining environment.
A. Indigenous areas
B. Prime agricultural
C. Environmentally critical areas
D. Agro-industrial zones
Incorrect
22) The main regulatory tool for implementing land use plans in the Philippines is
A. Capital investment programs

B. Special assessments
C. Expropriation
D. Zoning
Incorrect
23) Ebenezer Howard envisioned a new town deliberately outside normal commuter range of the old city. It
would be fairly small. Its population size shall be:
A. Ten thousand
B. Twenty thousand
C. Twenty-two thousand
D. Thirty thousand
Incorrect
24) The 1987 constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain into four categories. Name the one that
is not among the four
A. Agricultural land
B. Mineral land
C. National park
D. Ancestral domain
E. Forest land
Incorrect
25) The primary government agency to implement the policies for the IPs is
A. Office of the Cultural Affairs

B. National Commission for the Cultural Communities
C. Commission for the Philippine Minorities
D. National Commission for Indigenous Peoples
Incorrect
26) It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a project or
undertaking and designing appropriate preventive, mitigating and enhancement measures.
A. Scoping
B. Initial environmental examination
C. Environmental impact assessment
D. Environmental risk assessment
Incorrect
27) The difference between a census and a survey is that
A. Census makes use of questionnaires while surveys make use of interviews for data gathering
B. Census involves complete enumeration while survey involves sampling
C. Census is done only every 10 years while survey can be done anytime
D. Only the NSO can conduct a census but anybody can conduct a survey
Correct
28) One of these plans is not required under AFMA
A. Regional Agro-Industrial Development Plan

B. The SAFDZ Integrated Development Plan
C. The Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Plan
Correct
29) The first new town built following Ebenezer Howard's idea is known as:
A. Letchworth
B. Soltaire
C. Sterenage
D. Welwyn
Correct
30) The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policies of Government with regard
to optimizing the use of land as a resource is
A. NEDA
B. DAR
C. HLURB
D. DPWH
Correct
31) This law provides a liberalized environment more conducive to private sector investment.
A. RA 6657 and RA 7718 (BOT LAW)
B. Retail Trade Liberalization Act
C. Urban Development and Housing Act
Incorrect
32) Ebenezer Howard's ideas were adopted by the British Governments in the enactment of the New Towns Act
of 1947. The new towns concept, according to historians, has been illustrated by Howard on a paper napkin,
This famous diagram consists of :
A. One Magnet
B. Two Magnets
C. Three Magnets
D. Four Magnets
Incorrect
33) The following operating principles are adhered to under the Indigenous People's Right Act, except
A. Biodiversity
B. Career Development of IPs
C. Protection of the Environment
D. Cultural Diversity and Integrity, Consensus and Peace Building and Human Dignity
Incorrect
34) Areas generally belonging to ICCs/IPs subject to property rights within ancestral domain
A. Indigenous areas
B. Cultural minority
C. Ancestral areas
D. Ancestral domains
Correct
35) Those persons who may be significantly affected by the project or undertaking are called
A. Indigenous people
B. Stakeholders
C. Squatters
D. Proponent
Incorrect
36) This document is a series of written statements accompanied by maps, illustration and diagrams which
describes what the community wants to develop. It is essentially composed of community goals; objectives,
policies, programs and a physical development plan with translate the various sectoral plans.
A. Land Use Plan

B. Action Plan
C. Strategic Plan
D. Development Plan
Incorrect
37) It consists or resource flows provided by bilateral sources and multilateral institutions with the objective of
promoting the economic development and welfare of the recipient country.
A. World Bank
B. Official Development Assistance
C. Internal Revenue Allotment
D. Development
Incorrect
38) What ratio between sealable and non-saleable portions of the subdivision is required for projects developed
under BP 220 standards?
A. No fixed ratio
B. 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable
C. 40% saleable and 60% non-saleable
D. Minimum of 50% open space
Incorrect
39) This is a method of trip assignment which takes into account congestion on the transportation system. It is
the process of determining a pattern of traffic flow for a known set of interzonal movements so that the
relationship between journey time and flow in every link in the network should be in accordance with that
specified for the link.
A. Diversion curves
B. All-or-nothing assignment
C. Capacity resistant
Incorrect
40) The agency responsible for coordinating the housing program is
A. NHA
B. HUDCC
C. HLURB
D. MMDA
Incorrect
41) Which land use type is normally not classified as urban?
A. Institutional
B. Residential
C. Mining and quarrying
D. Industrial
E. Commercial
Incorrect
42) A study which includes all the units in the population is called
A. Holistic study
B. Phenomenological
C. Survey
D. Census
Incorrect
43) In transportation planning, the collection of data is undertaken through different types of surveys. The
manual counting and classifying, by type of vehicle and direction of travel, all passing each station during
specified periods, supplemented by automation traffic recorder counts extending over longer periods is
called
A. Travel time surveys

B. Roadside survey
C. Network inventories
D. Zoning
Incorrect
44) The rights of the IPs to cultural integrity shall include
A. Protection of indigenous culture, traditions and institutions

B. Right to establish and control educational and learning systems
C. Right to science and technology
Incorrect
45) This is one of the methods of trip generation modeling, which is concerned with finding the best functional
relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables. This relationship is
usually assumed to be linear.
A. Analysis of variance
B. Multiple regression
C. Category analysis
D. Situational analysis
Incorrect
46) RA No. 8371 is also known as the
A. NIPAS LAW
B. Conservation and biodiversity
C. Agenda 21
D. Indigenous People Rights Act (IPRA)
Correct
47) Ebenezer Howard is regarded as the most influential among the Great Thinkers in modern urban and
regional planning. His famous book, first published in 1898, the revised was titled:
A. Garden Cities
B. Garden Cities of To-morrow
C. Tomorrow’s Cities
D. To-morrow: A Peaceful Path for Real Reform
Feedback
The only publication he wrote in his life was titled To-Morrow: A Peaceful Path to Real Reform (1898),
which was significantly revised in 1902 as Garden Cities of To-morrow. (Source:Wikipedia)
Incorrect
48) Systems, institutions, mechanics and technologies compromising a unique body of knowledge enclave
through time
A. Cultural practices
B. Cultural way of life
C. Indigenous culture
D. Indigenous knowledge systems and practices
Incorrect
49) What class of road is not part of a hierarchy?
A. Arterial
B. Collector
C. Distributor
D. Gravel surfaced
E. Local
Incorrect
50) Those suffering from restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range
considered normal for a human being as a result of mental, physical or sensory impairment.
A. Physically challenged
B. Impaired
C. Disabled
D. Disadvantaged
EP NO. 8
1) The four in typical economic cycle are recession ______, recovery and boom.
A. Slump
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Sustainable growth
Incorrect
2) Under the 1998 Evolutionary Soil Classification System, the classification level
depicted in the Bureau of Soils and Water Management is the
A. Soil order
B. Soil type
C. Soil great group
D. Soil series
Incorrect
3) The Philippine forest type that is adapted to growing in steep slopes and in
places with a distinct wet and dry season is the
A. Pine/saleng
B. Diptrocarp
C. Molave/molawin
D. Mangrove
Incorrect
4) As per RA7279 of 1992,the acquisition of land at values based on existing use inadvance of actual need to
promote planned development and socialized housing programs is called
A. Land banking
B. Land assembly or consolidation
C. Land swapping
D. Land promotion
Feedback
RA7279 of 1992 Sec.3
Incorrect
5) A project with negative Net Present Value(NPV) means;
A. Benefit cost ration is higher that 1

B. Present value of benefits is higher than present value of roots
C. IRR is higher than prevailing interest rate
D. Discount rate used is higher that IRR
Incorrect
6) A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting the land use is
A. Comprehensive Land Use Plan

B. Zoning Ordinance
C. Cadastral Survey
D. Tax Declaration
Incorrect
7) The elevation reserved for protection land use is
A. Above 500
B. Above 100
C. Above 2,000
D. Above 1,000 mtrs.
Incorrect
8) What was the most important factor in designing settlement patterns during the
Spanish Period in the Philippines?
A. Plaza
B. Economy
C. Transportation
D. Religion
Incorrect
9) The Local Government Solid Management Plan shall include, but not limited to
the following components:
A. City or Municipal profile

B. Waste characterization
C. Collection and transfer
D. Source reduction
Incorrect
10) Each establishment protected area shall be administered by:
A. Office of the Mayor

B. Sanggunian Bayan
C. Planning Officer
D. Protected Area Management Board
Incorrect
11) Areas with high biodiversity value which shall be closed to all human activity
except for scientific studies and/or ceremonial or religious use by indigenous
communities
A. Restoration Zone
B. Habitat Management Zone
C. Bypass Zone
D. Strict Protection Zone
Correct
12) Under RA 9003, LGUs are required to divert at least 25% of their solid wastes
from existing disposal facilities within a period of:
A. 10 years
B. 2 years
C. 5 years
D. 1 year
Correct
13) Rectangular streets are examples of the
A. Grid Iron Pattern

B. Axial
C. Radial
D. Ribbon-Type
Correct
14) Cities with a minimum population of 200,000 inhabitants as certified by the

National Statistics Office and with latest annual income of at least P 50,000,000
based on 1996 constant prices as certified by the City Treasurer are called
A. Independent Component Cities

B. Regional Centers
C. Highly Urbanized Cities
D. Component Cities
Correct
15) He theorized that physical planning could not improved urban living conditions
unless it was integrated with social and economic planning in a context od
environmental concerns.
A. William Penn
B. Patrick Geddes
C. Peirre L’ Enfant
D. None of the Choices
E. Allan Carreon
Incorrect
16) A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of a
Zoning ordinance where, because of the specific use would result in a particular
hardship to the owner
A. Variance
B. Certificate of Non-Conformance
C. Exception
D. Development
Feedback
CERTIFICATE OF NON-CONFORMANCE - Certificate issued to owners of all uses existing prior to the
approval of the Zoning Ordinance which do not conform in a zone as per provision of the said Ordinance.
VARIANCE- A special locational clearance which grants a property owners relief from certain provisions of
the zoning ordinance where, because of the particular physical surrounding, shape or topographical
conditions of the property, compliance with height, area bulk, setback and/or density would result in a
particular hardship to the owner
Correct
17) The Garden City as a solution to urban planning problems
A. Malthus
B. Ebenezer Howard
C. Nicodemus
D. Adam Smith
Incorrect
18) Republic Act 9003, otherwise known as the National Ecological Solid Waste
Management Program seeks to:
A. Promote public health and environment protection

B. Encourage greater private sector participation while retaining the primary enforcement and
responsibility with the LGUs
C. Mandates all LGUs to divert at least 25% of all solid wastes from disposal facilities through reuse,
recycling, composting and other resource recovery activities
Incorrect
19) The Architect Planner who designed Luneta, Tagaytay and Baguio
A. Burnham
B. Concio
C. Faithful
E. Lynch
Incorrect
20) Millenium Development Goals (2000-2015) except:
A. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger

B. Promote gender equality and empower women
C. Reduce Child mortality
D. Minimize Government Corruption
E. Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and other diseases
Incorrect
21) At the national level, RA 9003 mandates the creation of National Solid Waste
Management Commission under the office of:
A. President
B. DENR
C. DILG
D. NEDA
Incorrect
22) This is an organizational process for determining systematically and objectively

the relevance, efficiency, effectiveness and impact of activities in the light of their
objectives
A. Planning
B. Project Identification
C. Resource Generation
D. Evaluation
Incorrect
23) Guidelines for identification of common solid waste management problems and
are appropriate for clustered solid waste management services shall be based on
the following:
A. Available means of cording local government planning between and among LGUs and for the integrated
of such with the national plan
B. Size and location of areas which should be included
C. Volume of solid waste which should be generated
D. Possible life span of the disposal facilities
Incorrect
24) The law regulating the practice of environmental planning is
A. PD 1308
B. PD 1517
C. PD 957
E. PD1096
Correct
25) The following are the minimum criteria siting of sanitary land fills
A. The site selected must be consistent with the overall land use plan of the LGU
B. The site must be accessible from major roadways or thoroughfares
C. The site should have adequate quantity of earth cover material that is easily handled and compacted
D. All of the Choices except none
Incorrect
26) This is undertaken at full development, i.e. some years after project completion
when full project benefits and impact are expected to have been realized.
A. Terminal Evaluation
B. On-going Evaluation
C. Ex-post Evaluation
D. Pre-Evaluation
Incorrect
27) The tourist market can be classified into business, mass holiday, and _____
markets.
A. Eco-tourism
B. Historical
C. Location specific natural and cultural
E. Global
Incorrect
28) In formulating its industrial program, the government should consider equity,
technical efficiency and ______
A. Allocative efficiency
B. Comparative advantages
C. Resource collection
D. Availability of skilled labor
Incorrect
29) It refers to the discipline associated with the control of generations, storage,
collection, transfer and transport, processing and disposal of solid wastes in a
manner that is in accord with the best principles of public health, economies,
engineering, conservation, aesthetics, and other environmental considerations and
which is also responsive to public attitudes
A. Environmental Impact Assessment

B. Development Planning
C. Waste Segregation
D. Solid Waste Management
Correct
30) The Law proclaiming of land certain areas and types of projects as
environmentally critical and within the scope of the EIS system
A. PD 1586
B. Proclamation No. 2146
C. PD 1152
D. DAO 96-37
Correct
31) Money is more valuable now that tomorrow not because of
A. Uncertainty of risk
B. Income opportunities now
C. Better prospects in the future
D. Present consumption
Incorrect
32) The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-sectoral

development plan initiated by their development councils and approved by their
Sanggunians is:
A. PD 399
B. Executive Order No. 72
C. RA 7160
D. PD 1517
Incorrect
33) This indicate the number of years it would take to recoup the investments in he
project
A. Payback Period
B. Retention Period
C. Return on Investment
D. Profit Margin
Incorrect
34) Tourist may create the type of employment opportunities in the area. These are
direct, indirect and ____ jobs.
A. Multiplier
B. Induced
C. Locational
D. Service
Incorrect
35) The Monitoring & Evaluation (M&E) strategy should carefully examine
A. The contents, i.e. the date and indicators used

B. The format
C. The frequency of existing reports
Incorrect
36) The National Solid Waste Management Framework shall be formulated and
shall include the following:
A. Analysis and evaluate of the current state, trends, projections of solid waste management on the
national, provincial, ad municipal levels
B. Characteristics and conditions of collection, storage, processing, disposal, operating methods, techniques
and practices are conducted, taking into account the nature of the waste
Incorrect
37) Aside from volume and growth, what is the other key point that a tourism analyst
should consider in analyzing tourist arrivals?
A. Qualitative changes in tourist arrivals

B. Socio-cultural changes
C. Political changes
E. Tourist Comfort
Correct
38) A Philippine climatic type characterized by rainfall evenly distributed throughout

the years refers to:
A. Type III
B. Type II
C. Type IV
D. Type I
Incorrect
39) The slope range that is prescribed as production land use is
A. 0-18%
B. Above 50%
C. 16-50%
D. 0-8%
Incorrect
40) Article 2, Sec 21 of RA9003 provides for the mandatory segregation of solid
wastes. Specifically, the LGUs shall promulgate regulations, requiring the owner
or person in charge of premises containing:______________
to provide for the residents a designated area and containers in which to
accumulate source separated recyclable materials to be collected by the municipal or
private center.
A. Five residential units
B. Six residential units
C. Six or more residential units
D. At least ten residential units
Incorrect
41) It was during this period that the concept of urban design was established
A. Renaissance
B. Bronze Age
C. Medieval Period
D. Atomic Age
Incorrect
42) Reclassification of land in highly urbanized areas, after conducting public

hearing for the purpose, shall be limited to
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
Incorrect
43) This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion and
other built-up areas including the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said areas
and whereat least 50% of the population area engaged in non-agricultural
activities:
A. Central business district

B. Urban area
C. City center
D. Suburban area
Correct
44) A special locational clearance which grants a property owners relief from certain
provisions of the zoning ordinance where, because of the particular physical
surrounding, shape or topographical conditions of the property, compliance with
height, area bulk, setback and/or density would result in a particular hardship to the
owner
A. Certificate of Non-Conformance
B. Exception
C. Variance
E. Zoning Clearance
Feedback
EXCEPTION - A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of the Zoning
Ordinance because the specific use would result in a particular hardship upon the owner, as distinguished
from a mere inconvenience or a desire to make more money.
CERTIFICATE OF NON-CONFORMANCE - Certificate issued to owners of all uses existing prior to the
approval of the Zoning Ordinance which do not conform in a zone as per provision of the said Ordinance.
Incorrect
45) They understood the importance of transportation and thus emerges as the first
regional planners of the world.
A. Greeks
B. Romans
C. Sumerians
D. Egyptians
Correct
46) Urbanization began around 4,000 B.C. in the area known as the
A. Fertile Crescent
B. Mediterranean
C. Babylon
D. Asia
Incorrect
47) He developed the first theoretical basis for physical planning
A. Hippodamus
B. Nicodemus
C. Nostradamus
D. Aristotle
Incorrect
48) The primary factor/s in the location of cities during the Bronze Age along the
Indus Valley is/are:
A. Transport
B. Agriculture
C. Defense
Incorrect
49) The LGU shall impose fees in amounts sufficient to pay the cost preparing,
Adopting, and implementing a solid waste management plan. Such fees shall be
based on the following minimum factors:
A. Type of solid waste

B. Amount/volume of solid waste
C. Distance of transfer station to the waste management facility
Incorrect
50) When projecting market demand for a project, which of the following
combination of techniques is not advisable:
A. Survey/planning standards
B. Market testing/time series analysis
C. Experts’ opinion/census
D. Statistical demand analysis/time series analysis
Clup 2 part 1
1) Refers tofertility (births), mortality (deaths), and migration.these affects the population
outcomes.
A. Population processes
B. Population outcome
C. Development processes
D. Environment processes
Feedback
(1) Population Processes – refers to fertility (births), mortality (deaths), and migration
(movements). affects the population outcomes.
Correct
2) Are the results of any change in the population processes – size of the population, its age and
sex composition and its distribution in space.these affect development and environment
processes
A. Population Processes
B. Population Outcomes
C. Development Outcomes
D. Environment Processes
Feedback
(2) Population Outcomes – are the results of any change in the population processes – size of the
population, its age and sex composition and its distribution in space.these affect development and
environment processes.*##**##*
Incorrect
3) Sectoral studies are basically diagnostic in approach. They are geared towards the following
except:
A. it shows the relationship among population, environment and development factors of

sustainable development
B. Identifying the issues prevailing in the sector, and analyzing their causes and effects and/or
implications
C. Establishing the potentials and development needs of the sector
D. Determining the spatial requirements of the sector
Feedback
Sectoral studies are basically diagnostic in approach. They are geared towards the following:
• Identifying the issues prevailing in the sector, and analyzing their causes and effects and/or
implications
• Establishing the potentials and development needs of the sector
• Determining the spatial requirements of the sector
*##**##*
Correct
4) What Kind of framework is shown as mentioned in CLUP vol 2?
A. Population, Development & Environment Framework
B. Medim Term Population & Development Framework
C. Projected Sustainable Development Framework
D. CLUP population framework
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
5) May include consumption of goods and services such as food, health, education, and
housing: savings and investment behavior, public expenditure patterns, utilization of
human and natural resources, etc. These affect the development outcomes (goals and
objectives).
A. Development Processes
B. Environment Processes
C. Population Processes
D. Sustainable Development Outcomes
Feedback
(3) Development Processes – may include consumption of goods and services such as food,
health, education, and housing: savings and investment behavior, public expenditure patterns,
utilization of human and natural resources, etc. These affect the development outcomes (goals
and objectives).*##**##*
Incorrect
6) are expressed as vision, goals and objectives of a plan that will contribute to the attainment of well- being for
both present and future generations. pertain to the level of income or its distribution, levels of employment,
educational, health and nutritional status, environmental quality & quantity and such other amenities. These outcomes
or results, in turn affect the population processes at the beginning of planning exercise.
A. 4-Both 1 & 2
B. 3-None of the above
C. 1-Development Outcomes
D. 2-Sustainable Development Outcomes
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
7) provides planners and users of the Comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP) a backgrounder and
general information on the population composition and distribution of the city/ municipality.
A. Demographic profile
B. Ecological Profile
C. Physical Profile
D. Infrastructure profiles
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
8) Includes the characteristics of the population in terms of age groupings and sex ratios. It provides
the basis for social and economic planning considerations. Economic dependency ratios and
participation measures as in labor force participation ratios are derived from this data. School age
population and the enrollment participation ratios are also derived from this data and its
characteristics.
A. Population composition
B. Population distribution
C. Population growth rate
D. Population
Feedback
Population composition includes the characteristics of the population in terms of age groupings
and sex ratios. It provides the basis for social and economic planning considerations. Economic
dependency ratios and participation measures as in labor force participation ratios are derived
from this data. School age population and the enrollment participation ratios are also derived from
this data and its characteristics(page 6 vol 2)*##**##*
Correct
9) The geographic pattern of the location of people, is important in determining centers of
population, hierarchy of settlements, and growth points in the city/ municipality
A. Population composition
B. Population distribution
C. Population infrastructure
D. Physical Infrastructures
Feedback
Population distribution which is the geographic pattern of the location of people, is important in
determining centers of population, hierarchy of settlements, and growth points in the city/
municipality. Urbanization trends and density levels are also derived from population
distribution patterns.(page 6 vol 2)*##**##*
Incorrect
10) Does the following population data such as marital status, ethnic origin and dialect spoken;
religious affiliation; literacy rate and number of disabled persons affect the total size of the
population?
A. Yes
B. Maybe
C. No
D. It depends
Feedback
It is essential to take into account population projections, its size and characteristics, at city and
municipal levels, which would serve as basis for estimating future needs and potentials in short and
long-range planning.
Other population data include marital status, ethnic origin and dialect spoken; religious affiliation;
literacy rate and number of disabled persons. the information do not affect the total size of the
population but are also determinants of the structure and composition of the population.(page 6
vol 2)
*##**##*
Incorrect
11) The most important set of information for planning. It is the basis for determining the level of
needs for public services like schools, health centers, recreational facilities, power, water,
protective services,
A. Population
B. Roads
C. Land area
D. Land suitability
Feedback
It should be understood that population is the most important set of information for planning. It
is the basis for determining the level of needs for public services like schools, health centers,
recreational facilities, power, water, protective services, etc. Population creates local demand for
goods and services affecting the level of economic activities in sustaining their viable existence in
an area.
The present and projected size of the population is an equally important input in assessing
housing and other basic needs adequacy as well as calculating future demand. It also serves as a
guide for allocating land for various uses(page 7)
*##**##*
Incorrect
12) Forest lands that are proclaimed by the President for a specific purpose
A. Civil reservations
B. Mangrove
C. Fare reservation
D. Protected areas
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
13) Is the degree to which a system is susceptible to, or unable to cope with, adverse effects of
climate change, including climate variability and extremes
A. Climate change vulnerability

B. Climate change
C. Climate change risk
D. Climate change variability
Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
14) Is the degree to which a fishing with passive or active gear utilizing fishing vessels of 3.1 gross tons
(GT) up to twenty (20) GT
A. Small scale commercial fishing
B. Medium scale commercial fishing
C. Large scale commercial fishing
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
15)
fishing utilizing active gears and vessels of 20.1 GT up to one hundred fifty (150) GT

Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
16)
fishing utilizing active gears and vessels of more than one hundred fifty (150) GT.

Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
17) Refers to a tract of forest land set aside by the Secretary of the DENR upon the recommendation
of the concerned LGU for the use of the residents of a municipality/city. Said residents may cut,
collect and remove forest products for their personal use in accordance with existing laws and
regulations and subject to the provision that utilization of resources therein shall be in
accordance with sustainable development. For this purpose, the concerned LGU with the
assistance of the DENR shall prepare sustainable operations plan prior to any utilization. (DENR-
DILG JMC 98-01
A. Communal forest
B. National reserve
C. Civil reserve
D. Idle lands
Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
18) The DENR Office, headed by this Officer Appointed by the Secretary of DENR, which is responsible
for the implementation of DENR policies, programs, project and activities and the enforcement of
ENR laws and regulations in the community level. (DENR-DILG JMC 98-01)
A. Community Environment and Natural Resources Office

B. City Environment and Natural Resources Office
C. Barangay Environment and Natural Resources Office
D. Cultural Environment and Natural Resources Office
Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
19) The program involving local communities which integrates and unites the Integrated Social
Forestry Program (ISFP), Forestry Sector Program, Forestry Sector Project, Forest Land
Management Agreement Program (FLMP), Community Forestry Program (CFP), and other
people oriented forestry projects. (DENR-DILG JMC 98-01)
A. Community-Based Forest Management (CBFM) Program

B. Community-Based Disaster Risk Reduction and Management or CBDRRM
C. City-Based Disaster Risk Reduction and Management or CBDRRM
Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
20) A process of disaster risk reduction and management in which at risk communities are actively
engaged in the identification, analysis, treatment, monitoring and evaluation of disaster risks in
order to reduce their vulnerabilities and enhance their capacities, and where the people are at the
heart of decislon-making and implementation of disaster risk reduction and management activities.
(RA 10121)
A. Community-Based Forest Management (CBFM) Program

B. Community-Based Disaster Risk Reduction and Management or CBDRRM
C. City-Based Disaster Risk Reduction and Management or CBDRRM
Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
21) Shall refer to all the processes and measures of maintaining the cultural significance of a cultural
property, including but not limited to, preservation, restoration, reconstruction, protection,
adaptive re-use or any combination thereof
A. Conservation
B. Preservation
C. Restoration
D. Renovation
Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
22) Shall refer to all products of human creativity by which a people and a nation reveal their identity,
including architecture and sites or human activity [churches, mosques and other places of religious
worship, schools] and natural history specimens and sites, whether public or privately owned,
movable or immovable, and tangible or intangible
A. Cultural Property
B. National Heritage
C. Cultural Products
D. Heritage Artifacts
Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
23) No commercial fishing be allowed in municipal waters with depth less than ____fathoms as
certified by the appropriate agency
A. 7
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
Feedback
Demarcation, as defined here, makes reference to Section 18 of the Philippine Fisheries Code of
1998 (RA 8550), where a municipal or city government may, through its local chief executive and
acting pursuant to an appropriate ordinance, authorize or permit small and medium-scale
commercial fishing vessels to operate within the 10.1-15 km area from the shoreline in
municipal waters provided that no commercial fishing be allowed in municipal waters with
depth less than seven (7) fathoms as certified bythe appropriate agency.(CLUP VOL 2 )mentioned
in definition of terms
*##**##*
Incorrect
24) Is the general name for a procedure to take information known at large scales to make predictions
at local scales. It refers to techniques that take output from the model and add information at scales
smaller than the grid spacing. (Climate Change in the Philippines)
A. Downscaling
B. Upscaling
C. Local scaling
D. Unit scaling
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
25) An accumulation of sand in ridges or mounds landward of the beach formed by natural processes
and usually parallel to the shoreline
A. Dunes
B. Sand pile
C. Earth bem
D. Shore bed
Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
26) An accumulation of sand in ridges or mounds landward of the beach formed by natural processes
and usually parallel to the shoreline
A. Dunes
B. Sand pile
C. Earth bem
D. Shore bed
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
27) Aquatic plants, animals, including some varieties of corals and sea shells in danger of extinction
as provided for in existing fishery laws, rules and regulations or in the Protected Areas and
Wildlife Bureau of the Department of Environment and Natural Resources (DENR) and in the
Convention on the International Trade of Endangered Species of Flora and Fauna (CITES)
A. Threatened
B. Rare
C. Endangered
E. Endangered only
Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
28) A water body where sea water of oceanic origin is diluted by freshwater from land drainage areas.
Areas influenced by this include deltas, tidal marshes, and river mouth, among others
A. Estuary
B. Non meandered water bodies
C. Mangroves
D. Sea bed
E. Seagrass bed
Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
29) Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) –an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea which shall
not extend beyond ________ from the baselines as defined under existing laws
A. 200 Nautical Miles
B. 200 miles
C. 200 kilometer from sea
D. 400 nautical miles
E. 400 Miles
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
30) Shall refer to historical, anthropological, archeological, artistic, geographical areas, center district,
and settings that are culturally significant to the country, as declared by the National Museum
and/or the National Historical Commission of the Philippines
A. Heritage Zone
B. Heritage site
C. Heritage area
D. Heritage property
Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
31) Historical Street Name refer to a street name which has been in existence for at least _____ has
been considered historic.
A. Fifty (50) years and over time

B. 75 yrs and over time
C. 100 yrs
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
32) Shall refer to the peoples' learned processes along with knowledge, skills and creativity that inform
and are developed by them, the products and other manifestations that they create and the
resources, spaces and other aspects of social and natural context necessary for their sustainability
A. Intangible cultural property

B. Intangible cultural heritage
C. Cultural property
D. Historical sites
Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
33) Is based on the Hadley Centre's regional climate modelling system. It has been ported to run on a
PC (under Linux) with a simple user interface, so that experiments can easily be set up over any
region.Developed in order to help generate high-resolution climate change information for as
many regions of the world as possible.
A. PRECIS
B. GIS
C. GPS
D. MATRIX
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
34) The status or condition of a forest subsequent to commercial logging and which there is more or
less sufficient or adequate volume of residuals of the desired species of trees for future harvest. (EO
318)
A. 1-Residual Growth Forest

B. 2.-Second Growth Forest
C. 3-both 1 & 2
D. 4- 2 only
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
35) The difference between the values of the products produced from harvesting a publicly owned
resource less the cost of producing it, where cost includes the normal return to capital and
normal return to labor
A. Resource Rent
B. Product cost
C. Consumer marginal cost
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
36) is a coherent, internally consistent and plausible description of a possible future state of the world.
It is not a forecast; rather,is one alternative image of how the future can unfold. (Climate Change in
the Philippines)
A. Scenario
B. Forecast
C. Predictions
D. All of the above
Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
37) Vegetation dominated by flowering grasses which grow best in sandy- muddy portions of the
intertidal zone. They are highly productive habitats which serve as the transition zone between
coral reefs and mangroves
A. Vegetation dominated by flowering grasses which grow best in sandy- muddy portions of the
intertidal zone. They sea board
B. Seagrass bed
C. Seashore
D. Foreshore
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
38) Any process, activity or mechanism which removes a greenhouse gas from the atmosphere
A. Sink
B. CFC restoration
C. Greenhouse rejuvenation
D. Spat
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
39) Information pertaining to a place linked to coordinates or other positional information
A. Spatial data
B. Linkages
C. Process
D. Records
Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
40) Shall refer to cultural property with historical, archival, anthropological, archeological, artistic,
and/or architectural value and with exceptional or traditional production, whether of Philippine
origin or not, including antiques and natural history specimens with significant value
A. Tangible cultural property

B. Intangible cultural property
C. Heritage
D. National cultural property
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
41) A mature tropical cyclone that develops in the western part of the North Pacific Ocean between
180° and 100°E (119 to 200 KPH near the center)
A. Typhoon
B. Tropical depression
C. Convergence zone
D. All of the above
Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
42) arose from increasing international concern about the implications of climate change and
recognition that no one country can solve this global environmental problem alone. The ultimate
objective is to achieve stabilization of greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level
that would prevent dangerous human-induced interference with the climate system. ()
A. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
B. Climate Change in the Philippines(CCP)
C. UNESCO Framework on Climate Change(UFCC)
Feedback
*##**##*
Incorrect
43) Is a land area drained by a stream or fixed body of water and its tributaries having a common
outlet for surface run-off. It is synonymous with a catchment area or drainage basin. (PD 1559 &
PD 705)
A. Watershed
B. Run off water bed
C. Street gutter
D. Storm drain
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
44) Refers to a defined area in the forestlands that has been proclaimed by law as such, primarily to
establish adequate vegetative cover that would prevent erosion, conserve water and nurture
wildlife
A. All of the choices

B. Watershed reservation
C. forest reserve
D. watershed forest reserve
Feedback
*##**##*
Correct
45) These occur behind the beach and dune on the older beach areas. In the coastal zone, these consist
essentially of a tangle of low stunted trees or shrubs. Examples are botong, pandan, and the taller
agoho and coconut palms
A. Woodlands
B. Mangrooves
C. Swamp groove
D. none of the above
EP No. 11
1) A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent undertakes the financing of construction of a given
infrastructure or development facility and after its completion turns it over to the government agency or local
government unit concerned, which shall pay the proponent on an agreed schedule its total investments expended on
the project, plus a reasonable rate of return thereon.

B. Build, own and operate
C. Build, transfer and operate
Feedback
Reference: RA7188 (BOT Law) Sec.2c
Incorrect
2) Which of the following is unethical practice of a registered environmental planner?
A. Falsely injures the practice of other environmental planners

B. Provides unjust compensation to colleagues and subordinates
C. Affixes signature on plans he did not prepare or supervise
D. Enters competitions where s/he has direct involvement in program formulation
E. All of the above
Incorrect
3) Which of the following ethical principles directly pertains to a planner's responsibility to his/her private client?
A. Do not plagiarize.
B. Do not accept work that cannot be performed in a timely fashion
C. Do not coerce others to reach findings which are not supported by evidence
D. Do not disclose, without sufficient legal cause, privileged information clearly kept restricted by concerned party
E. When in authority and facilitating public hearings, do not make secret deals with participants.
Correct
4) All of these projects, except one, need not submit Project Description, or Environmental Impact Statement but need
only to comply with registration and documentary requirements of city, town or barangay.
A. Municipal waterworks system

B. Sari-sari or neighborhood variety store
C. Backyard fowl-raising of less than 10 heads
D. Private-practice office in home garage with 5 employees
Incorrect
5) Which act of the planner is not enumerated as punishable under PD 1308 of 1978, "Regulating the Practice of
Environmental Planning in the Philippines"?
A. Having his/her professional seal done by informal businesses along CM Recto Ave., Manila
B. Engaging in tha practice of environmental planning in the Philippines without having been registered
C. Assuming, using or advertising any title or description tending to convey the impression that he is an
environmental planner without holding a valid certificate of registration
D. Environmental planner without holding a valid certificate of registration
Correct
6) In a case of sexual harassment in a planning consulting company, the following ethical principles apply except one.
A. A planner should not be penalized for sexual urges that have nothing to do with his/her profession.
B. A planner must not commit a deliberately wrongful act, which reflects adversely on the planner's professional
fitness
C. A planner must respect the rights of others and must not discriminate.
D. A planner must have special concern for the long-range consequences of present actions.
Incorrect
7) Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, the Bids and Awards Committee with five to seven
members has to be headed by
A. Chief of procuring entity

B. Resident Ombudsman
C. Resident auditor detailed by COA
D. At least third ranking permanent official
Correct
8) Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, what is the most preferred manner of government
procurement of goods and services?
A. Selective bidding or limited source bidding

B. Negotiated procurement
C. Single source procurement or direct contracting
D. Competitive bidding
Incorrect
9) According .to RA 9003, which three 'environmentally sensitive resources' should a Sanitary Landfill be most
concerned about?
A. Bionetwork, germplasm, and wildlife habitats

B. Aquifer, groundwater reservoir, watershed area
C. Flora, fauna, and biota
D. Landscapes, seascapes, and viewscapes
Incorrect
10) Which project in a declared tribal land does not require a full-blown Environmental Impact Assessment?
A. Mining
B. Dam for reservoir & hydroelectric power
C. Sericulture & vermi-composting
D. National highway
Incorrect
11) Under RA 7160 Sec. 107, who should prepare the multi-sectoral development plan at the village level?
A. Sangguniang Barangay
B. Lupong Tagapamayapa ng Pook
C. Federation of Village Neighborhood and Homeowners Associations
D. Barangay Development Council
Feedback
Reference: RA 7160 Sec. 107b
Barangay Development Council is composed of members of Sangguniang Barangay, Representative of Congressman,
Representative or NGOs operating in the Barangay not less than 1/4 of the members of the Council.
Correct
12) What type of bond guarantees payment on all obligations arising from a contract?
A. Surety
B. Assurance
C. Performance
D. Warranty
E. Reparation
Correct
13) As in the case of the ZTE-National Broadband Network deal, when a joint venture or negotiated contract at the national
level exceeds the value of PhP 300M, the approving government body is
A. Cabinet of the President

B. Council of State
C. Investment Coordination Committee
D. NEDA Board
Correct
14) Under PD 1308, a consulting firm, partnership, or company of registered environmental planners should have
A. At least 75% of entire membership and 75% of capitalization owned by registered environmental planners
B. At least 50% of entire membership and 50% of capitalization owned by registered environmental planners
C. The fifty-plus-one rule of membership and capitalization
D. 60%-40% combination of licensed planners and unlicensed planners.
Feedback
Reference: PD1308 Sec.20a
Incorrect
15) You are the Local Planning and Development Coordinator of an LGU. Which of the following does NOT constitute a
conflict of interest?
A. Accepting a monetary gift from a local building firm

B. Working for a developer who has an action before the Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustment
C. Applying for business permit and health clearance to operate a private fruit stand in Farmers' Market
D. Processing a rezoning application of your own property
Correct
16) These projects need not submit an Environmental Impact Statement but one has to submit a simple Project
Description.
A. An urban grocery store of around 2,500 sq.m. total area

B. Cluster of stalls selling goto, lugaw, arrozcaldo, and pares in historic lntramuros, Manila
C. Palay marketing warehouse of Samahang Nayon or rural farmers' cooperative
D. Home-based aquaculture using drums, metal tanks, and concrete ponds
Feedback
as per PD2146, B. Environmental Critical Areas, No. 2 & 4.
Keyword = "Historic"
Incorrect
17) A part of BOT, it is a contractual arrangement whereby the supplier of equipment and machinery for a given
infrastructure facility, if the interest of the Government so requires, operates the facility providing in the process
technology transfer and training to Filipino nationals .
A. Purchase and activate

B. Supply and operate
C. Canvass, Procure and Install
D. PBAC - prequalify, bid-out and award
Incorrect
18) According to the 1997 Code of Ethics for Environmental Planners in the Philippines, Sec.11, the "primary obligation of
the Environmental Planner is to"
A. Contribute to the incessant development of the profession by sharing and improving knowledge.
B. Strive for high standards of professional integrity, proficiency, and knowledge
C. Develop and enhance a healthy professional relationship with colleagues and other professionals
D. Serve the country and in so doing safeguard public interest
E. Maintain a harmonious working relationship with client or partner in a noble undertaking.
Incorrect
19) If excessive amounts of hot water are discharged into a lake in a case of 'thermal pollution', the immediate result will
most likely be
A. An increase in the sewage content of the lake

B. A decrease in amount of dissolved oxygen in the lake
C. An increase in the amount of PCB pollution in the lake
D. A decrease in the amount of phospates in the lake
Incorrect
20) Under the rule cited in immediately-preceding question, which of the following should not chair the Bids and Awards
Committee?
A. Chief of Administrative Division

B. Audio-Visual Technician
C. Head of Engineering Section
D. Planning Officer V
Incorrect
21) A reduction in overall water quality due to an increase in the concentration of chemical nutrients in a waterbody
would be an example of
A. Osmosis
B. Hypoalimentation
C. Eutrophication
D. Fertilization
E. Denitrofication
Incorrect
22) A housing developer contacts you with an opportunity to use your expertise as a paid consultant in a matter not
pertaining to your employer's jurisdiction. You would work only on your off-days and holidays. You should
A. Report the housing developer for unethical behavior

B. Make courtesy notification to your immediate supervisor
C. Decline the offer
D. Keep quiet about it
Correct
23) Except one, the following are considered environmentally-critical areas where all major projects are subject to IEE
A. Tubattaha Reef
B. Chocolate Hills
C. Mount Banahaw
D. Tawi-tawi Seaweed Farms
Incorrect
24) RA 8749 Clean Air Act, Sec. 20, generally bans burning which results in poisonous and and toxic fumes, but with a few
exceptions. What agency oversees cremation and incineration of pathological, biological, contagious wastes?
A. Bureau of Fire Protection

B. Department of Interior and Local Government
C. Philippine Hospitals Association
D. Department of Health
Incorrect
25) What are the proper sections of a Project Description for projects seeking Certificate of Non-Coverage?
A. Proponent, Goals, Key Result Areas, Project Mechanics, Resources Needed, Loans to be contracted, Expected ROI
B. Rationale, Location & Area, Development Plan & Phases, Alternatives, Manpower Requirements, Cost, Duration &
Schedule
C. Description of Land, Capital, Machines, Materials, Manpower, Management. and Marketing
D. Objectives, Scope, Methodology, Program of Work, Resource Requirements, Participating Entitites
Incorrect
26) Which of the following is most useful in an EIA study?
A. Performance standards
B. 'LOS' or 'accommodation' standards
C. Design standards
D. Convenience standards
Correct
27) The use of a set of scientific methods to define the probability and magnitude of potentially adverse effects which can
result from exposure to toxic and hazardous materials, compounds, and substances is called
A. Chemical Containment and Control

B. Toxic Prevention Protocol
C. Environmental Risk Assessment
D. Strategic Environmental Assessment
Incorrect
28) The acceptable form of security furnished by a contractor of a public project as a guarantee of good faith on his/her
part to execute the contracted work in accordance with the terms of the approved contract.
A. Insurance
B. Collateral
C. Performance Bond
D. Retention or Retained Earnings
E. Surety Bond
F. Completion Guarrantee
Incorrect
29) According to RA 9003, segregation of 'solid wastes' into bio-degradable and non-biodegradable should be done
A. At the factory level

B. At source
C. At the end of production/consumption
D. At the option of family concerned
Correct
30) Which of these projects should submit a full-blown Environmental Impact Statement?
A. Tree planting on urban parks by 6,000 students

B. High-end residential subdivision of more than 10 hectares with additional area for golf course
C. Rain-fed farming of around 50 hectares
D. Hydroponic and aeroponic farming inside greenhouse tents and cages
Incorrect
31) It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a project or undertaking and
then designing appropriate preventive, protective, mitigating, and enhancement measures.
A. Environmental Risk Assessment

B. Environmental Impact Assessment
C. Environmental Accounting and Audit
Incorrect
32) This principle encourages shared responsibility between government and the private sector in infrastructure
development and management through joint venture schemes such as BOT, BTO, BLT, BOO, and the like.
A. GO-NGO Cooptation
B. Rapprochement
C. Detente
D. Public-Private Partnership
E. State & Non-State Collaboration
Correct
33) A Highly-Urbanized City (HUG) bids out in transparent manner the revision of its CLUP-ZO for an approved budget of
contract (ABC) of 6 million. Four companies participated in open bidding. In the BAC evaluation of
technical proposals, Company A got 89 points, Company B earned 64 points, Company C, 78 points, and Company D,
42 points as the last company missed out on the required GIS-RS component. After technical examination, the
sealed financial proposals were opened and the bid amounts were revealed as follows: Company A = 6.3 million;
Company B = 6.2 million; Company C = 5.9 million; and Company D = 4.5 million. Overall, which company offered the
"most
responsive bid" or "lowest calculated complying bid" and should receive the Notice of Award of Contract from the
head of agency.
A. Company A
B. Company B
C. Company C
D. Company D
Feedback
RA9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002 Art.10 Sec. 34.
Interpretation: 6 Million Contract
Company A =89 pts (Highest Rated Bid=OK)/6.8M (Bid exceed=DQ); Company B= 64 pts/6.2M (Bid exceed=DQ);
Company C= 78pts(Rate OK)/5.9M (Bid OK); Company D= 42 pts (requirement not met=DQ)/ 4.2 M (Lowest
Calculated Bid=OK)
Therefore, Project to be awarded to Company C for not having DQs.
Incorrect
34) This is a garbage recycling center in a village, or for a cluster of villages, which also serves as drop-off center for
sorted wastes, composting center, and processing center to consolidate segregated recyclables for remanufacturing.
A. Barangay Waste Recycling Center

B. Community Junk Shop
C. Waste Exchange Facility
D. Materials Recovery Facility
Incorrect
35) You are the Local Planning and Development Coordinator of an LGU. Your wedded spouse runs the recreational
Country Club and applies for a permit to construct an Olympic size swimming pool that would utilize water from a
public spring. What is the most rational action for you to do?
A. Hire an independent consultant for an objective analysis of the application

B. Ask for job transfer or reassignment
C. Just keep quiet about it.
D. File for divorce.
Correct
36) As per RA 7718 BOT Law, a Build-Operate-Transfer undertaking at the local level with value between PhP 200M- 300M
has to be approved by what government body?
A. Local Development Council

B. Regional Development Council
C. Cabinet Committee or Cabinet Cluster
D. Investment Coordination Committee
Incorrect
37) In cases where open public biddings have failed on two (2) consecutive occasions and no suppliers have qualified to
eparticipate or win in the bidding, LGUs, through the local chief executive with the approval of the Sanggunian may
undertake procurement of supplies and services without public bidding through:
A. Selective bidding or limited source bidding

B. Negotiated procurement
C. Single source procurement or direct contracting
D. Competitive bidding
Incorrect
38) Which of the following conditions requires the most serious consideration in the EIA of a major Sanitary Landfill for
any city or urban LGU?
A. Around 20 kilometers from the city

B. Has an in-take capacity of 6 years only
C. About 100 meters from a river used for water supply
D. About 1000 meters from an active geologic fault line
Incorrect
39) The following are all examples of environmentally-critical projects (ECPs) except one:
A. Laiban Dam, Kaliwa River, Tanay, Rizal

B. Ring Dike - Circumferential around Laguna de Bay
C. Petrol Refineries & Oil Depots in Batangas City
D. Perimeter work on centuries-old Plazu Miranda
Correct
40) Which would not be a priority for EIA investigation of a proposed limestone quarrying-cement production complex?
A. Environmental Justice, impacts on sensitive communities, critical habitats, heritage sites, and endangered species
B. Management of water quality, air quality, noise, traffic, common industrial wastes, and toxic/hazardous wastes
C. Consumption of electricity, water, and other utilities
D. Company policies on 'hiring and firing' and management training
Correct
41) Which environment assessment methodology addresses long-term frameworks, policies, and regulatory regimes more
substantively than project impacts and activity outcomes?
A. Environmental Risk Assessment

B. Environmental Impact Assessment
C. Environmental Accounting and Audit
Incorrect
42) Which of these projects should be subjected to Initial Environmental Examination (IEE) by DEN R's regional field
units?
A. 30 sq.m. DOST field instruments station on the slopes of Mount Apo national park
B. 5,000 sq.m. viewdeck for tourists and watchers of migratory birds in Candaba swamps, Pampanga
C. Six-classroom extension of an existing public elementary school
D. Beach house measuring 400 sq.m near world-famous Pagudpud, Ilocos Norte
Incorrect
43) In emergency cases such as typhoon or earthquake damage where the need for supplies and services is exceptionally
urgent or absolutely indispensable and inorder to prevent imminent danger to, or loss of, life or property, LGUs may
make emergency purchases or place repair orders, without open public bidding, provided
A. Public safety and vital public services, infrastructure and utilities, would be endangered if contracts are
rescinded, abandoned, terminated, or not taken over,
B. It is the best offer and most advantageous price among quotations submitted by at least three pre-selected
suppliers kept in the database of the government agency as having reliable, positive track record
C. Amount is within the range of 50,000-250,000 or even higher according to ceilings previously approved by the
Government Procurement Policy Board
D. Goods and commodities of any amount are procured from another government agency under LOI 755 and
E0359
Correct
44) According to RA 9367 Renewable Energy Act of 2006, what are the 'additives' to gasoline that are harmful to
both people and nature?
A. Methyl tertiary butyl ether

B. Isooctane and heptane
C. Molybdenum oxide
D. tetraethyl
Incorrect
45) Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act, Sec 5i, government may hire Consulting Services for the
following functions, broadly matching the competencies of Registered EnPs. For which function are Environmental
Planners generally least prepared?
A. Advisory and review services

B. Pre-investment or feasibility studies, special studies
C. Design
D. Construction supervision
E. eManagement-related service and technical services

Incorrect
46) Which category of industries tend to be generally 'non-pollutive and non-hazardous'?
A. Transient and fleeting

B. Light
C. Cyber-spatial
D. Medium
E. Heavy
Correct
47) Which of the following is the best example of 'environmental remediation'?
A. A species of trout becomes extinct in a eutrophic lake.

B. The annual volume of sewage flowing into a stream is decreased by one half.
C. The height of a factory smokestack is increased.
D. PCB-consuming bacteria are sprayed on an area that has soil contaminated with PCBs.
E. A parcel of forest land is declared a state park.
Incorrect
48) The following are generally non-pollutive and non-hazardous except one.
A. Manufacture of bread, pastries, cakes, donuts, biscuits, hopia, and noodles

B. Assembly and repair of personal computers, home electronic devices, appliances, and appurtenances
C. Manufacture of paints, paint removers, solvents, lacquers, varnishes, shellac, coating materials
D. Manufacture of small leather goods such as handbags, luggage, wallets, belts, shoes, and sandals
E. Publishing and printing of school books, pamphlets, flyers, receipts, greeting cards, social communications
Incorrect
49) Which of the following is an actual conflict of interest?
A. Voting in a public election on an environmental issue that directly affects your consulting services
B. Making official government recommendations on a site plan that you developed when previously employed in the
private sector
C. Accepting souvenir gifts from a housing developer at the vendors' and sponsors' area of a planners' convention
D. Reporting to PRC an act of dishonesty by a planner about his supposed work experience in a job originally
occupied by you.
Incorrect
50) What are the basic elements of an EIA study?
A. Market Aspect, Technical Aspect, Social Aspect, Financial Aspect, Economic Aspect, and Institutional Aspect
B. Problem, Objectives, Review of Lit, Conceptual Framework, Methods, Analysis of Data, Conclusions,
Recommendations
C. Location & Area, Characteristics of Project Undertaking, Magnitude of Impact, Spatial Extant. Duration, and
Complexity
D. Baseline Data, Mid-stream Data, Operational Conditions, Control Interventions, Post Implementation

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EP QUIZ NO.

A. Contiguous territory of at least 100 km2 except for island/group of islands

A. Equity or activist or advocacy planning

A. Solve major issues at a macro level

A. The Scientific Revolution

A. City Beautiful Movement

A. Health & safety

13) Which is not a key feature of 'professional' planning process?

A. Macedonian Greeks under Alexander The Great

A. Greenbelts, green girdles, and clear edges for all cities

A. It exports substantial quantities of processed products

A. Each person regardless of age has one acre of federal land

23) In the "Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities.Threats" tool as popularized by exponents of

A. Frederic Law Olmstead Sr

A. To achieve a more balanced urban-rural interdependence

A. City Beautiful Movement

A. Sir Frederic Osborn

A. Common Heritage of Humankind

33) The concepts of "input-throughput--output-feedback" comes from what school of planning?

A. "bright lights effect" or lure of city life and neon-lit entertainment

A. Plan Simply,but comprehensively

A. The Stewardship of Nature

A. Minimizes farming to channel capital into factories

A. Primitive subsistence society

A. Leon Battista Alberti

A. Cyclical, iterative, and self-correcting

45) Which is a significant accomplishment of "Advocacy Planning" movement as fathered by Paul

A. Single women with children were assisted to find employment.

A. Capital Theoretic Model

Discuss this Question

A. National Planning Commission

A. Highly Urbanized Cities

A. Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie

9) The 'hierarchy of settlements' in Walter Christaller's Central Place Theory is characterized by

Discuss this Question

Discuss this Question

A. El Alcance del Campanario

A. World Systems Theory

Discuss this Question

A. Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie

A. Downtown sections facing seas, lakes & near waterfronts

Discuss this Question

A. Garden, fountains, monuments, statues, gallery and promenade

Discuss this Question

A. Philippine Strategy for Sustainable Development

A. Philippine Economic Zone Authority

Discuss this Question

A. Local Government Academy

Discuss this Question

A. Location of health centers

Discuss this Question

A. Power/water connections and other utilities are naturally linear

A. Galaxy of Settlements Theory

A. Farming of the most expensive crops

Discuss this Question

Discuss this Question

Discuss this Question

A. Mixed Use Zoning