Q.

1) What is the port number for POP3

a) 110
b) 90
c) 80
d) 49
Q.2) 10 Base 5 indicates
a) thick wire (0.5 inch diameter) twisted cable with a maximum segment length of 500 m
b) thick wire (0.5 inch diameter) coaxial cable with a maximum segment length of 500 m
c) thick wire (0.5 cm) twisted cable with a maximum segment length of 500 m
d) thick wire (0.5 cm) coaxial cable with a maximum segment length of 500 m
Q.3) ASK, PSk, FSK and QAM are examples of ___ encoding
a) digital to digital
b) digital to analog
c) analog to analog
d) analog to digital
Q.4) Which term is used to describe a hardware or software device that protocol network from outside threats
a) antivirus
b) gateway
c) firewall
d) hubs
Q.5) TCP and UDP protocols are part of the following TCP/IP layers
a) physical and data link layers
b) network layer
c) transport layer
d) application layer
Q.6) Who created the first web browser?
a) Tim Berners Lee
b) Jacobs, Lan
c) Marc Andeersen
d) Mozilla foundation
Q.7) IP address are written in
a) integer notation
b) floating point notation
c) summing notation
d) dotted decimal notation
Q.8) error control refers to the method of
a) transmission and receipt
b) sender and receiver
c) quality of service
d) error detection and correction
Q.9) Address resolution protocol is used for
a) finding the IP address form the DNS
b) finding the IP address of the default gateway
c) find the IP addres that corresponds to a MAC address
d) finding the MAC address that corresponds to an IP address
Q.10) Which of these is a peer-to-peer file sharing protocol
a) FTP
b) TFTP
c) None
d) Bit torrent
Q.11) To create a digest, we can use
a) a hash function
b) a secret key
c) a nonce
d) authentication
Q.12) The maximum size of an IP datagram is
a) 216
b) 232
c) 264
d) 248
Q.13) A___ can forward packets across different networks that may also use different protocols
a) repeater
b) bridge
c) router
d) gateway
Q.14) Encrypt the test “meet me” using Caesar cipher with a shift 3
a) PHHWPH
b) WHHWPH
c) TEETWPH
d) HTTWPG
Q.15) ___ can be used to encrypt any time of data not just email
a) PGP developed by Phil Zimmermann
b) PGP developed by Diffie Hellmann
c) PGP developed by RSA
d) none of the above
Q.16) The 1st popular solution to provide authentication integrity and privacy for web transaction was
a) secure socket layer
b) Transport socket layer-1
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
Q.17) The most common form of a Dos attack is the
a) syn attack
b) Dos attack
c) middle of man attack
d) DDos attack
Q.18) Which protocol that can be used by software and hardware that are designed to monitor various network
system components
a) SNMP
b) SMTP
c) FTP
d) TEELnet
Q.19) ___ used on the Internt to transfer files between different systems
a) FTP
b) SMTP
c) FTP
d) TEELnet
Q.20) Statement 1: Diffie hellman cryptosystem two parties create a symmetric session key to exchange data
without having to remember or store the key for future use
Statement 2: RSA is a publick key cyptosystem that is often used to encrypt and decrypt symmetric keys
a) statement 1 is true and 2 is false
b) only statement 2 is true
c) both statement are true
d) statement 2 is true and 1 is false
Q.21) A ………………… mostly used to take users choice on any option and displays a dialog box with two
buttons Ok and Cancel.
a) Alert dialog box
b) Information dialog box
c) Prompt dialog box
d) Conformation dialog box
Q.22) State whether the following statements are True or False.
i. JavaScript ignores spaces, tabs and newlines that appear in JavaScript program.
ii. Semicolons are necessary while writing JavaScript statements.
iii. JavaScript is a case-sensitive language.
a) i- True, ii- False, iii-True
b) i- False, ii- True, iii-True
c) i-True, ii-True, iii-False
d) i- False, ii- False, iii-True
Q.23) A function literal is an expression that defines unnamed function. The syntax for function literal is ……
a) varvariable_name=function (Argument list){Function Body};
b) variable_name=function (Argument list){Function Body};
c) varvariable_name =new function(Arg1, Arg2, ……,”function body”);
d) variable_name =new function(Arg1, Arg2, ……,”function body”);
Q.24) Match the following JavaScript function with their description.
i. onblur a) script runs when element changes
ii. onmouseup b) script runs when the form is reset
iii. onchange c) script runs when the element lost focus.
iv. onreset d) script runs when mouse button is released.
a) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
b) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
c) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
d) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
Q.25) Cookies are a plain text data record having the following variable length fields.
i. Expires ii. Start iii. Domain iv. Secure
a) i, ii and iii only
b) i, iii and iv only
c) i, ii and iv only
d) All i, ii, iii, and iv
Q.26) ____________ refers to any type of application or presentation that involves more than one type of media,
such as text, graphics, video, animation, and sound.
a) An executable file
b) Desktop publishing
c) Multimedia
d) Hypertext
Q.27) A compressed audio/video file can be downloaded as a
a) Binary
b) ASCII
c) Frame
d) Text file
Q.28) A ____________ can be added to your presentation and then used to go to a variety of locations ---- for
example, a web address, an e-mail address, a custom show or document, just to name a few.
a) menulink
b) hyperlink
c) toollink
d) slidelink
Q.29) Audio compression can be used for
a) Speech or Music
b) Voice and Data
c) Data and Music
d) Video and Voice
Q.30) ______________is a shorthand representation of music stored in numeric form.
a) Digital Audio
b) MIDI
c) Audio Resolution
d) Mono files
Q.31) To create a combo box (drop down box) which tag will you use?
a) <select>
b) <list>
c) <input type="dropdown">
d) all of above
Q.32) Which of the following is not a pair tag?
a) <p>
b) < u >
c) <i>
d) <img>
Q.33) <SCRIPT> … </SCRIPT> tag can be placed within ________
a) Header
b) Body
c) both A and B
d) none of the above
Q.34) What do I need to get onto the Internet files?
a) Computer
b) Modem
c) Browser
d) All of the above
Q.35) Which HTML tag would be used to display power in expression (A+B)n ?
a) <SUP>
b) <SUB>
c) <B>
d) <P>
Q.36) Comments in XML document is given by:
a) <?-- _ _-->
b) <!_ _ _ _!>
c) <!_ _ _ _>
d) </_ _ _ _>
Q.37) What is the correct syntax in HTML for creating a link on a webpage?
a) <LINK SRC= "mcqsets.html">
b) <BODY LINK = "mcqsets.html">
c) <A SRC = "mcqsets.html" >
d) < A HREF = "mcqsets.html">
Q.38) Which ASP property is used to identify a user?
a) Class
b) An ASP Cookie
c) The Server object
d) Id
Q.39) How do you get information from a form that is submitted using the "get" method?
a) Request.QueryString
b) Request.Form
c) Respond.QueryString
d) Request.get
Q.40) What is the default scripting language in ASP?
a) C#
b) VBScript
c) JavaScript
d) PERL
Q.41) What is \ are the main component \ components of user interface?
a) Presentation language
b) Action language
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Q.42) Monitoring item consumption and increase accountability and prevent shrinkage is
a) Financial accounting
b) Income tax management system
c) Result analysis system
d) Inventory control
Q.43) Revealing financial position as on the data is
a) Revenue accounting
b) Financial accounting
c) Balance sheet
d) Profit and loss account
Q.44) Single \ multi – user environment and user creation and high security settings option available in
a) User interface
b) Financial accounting
c) Result analysis system
d) Fees management system
Q.45) Logical coding is done using Java script which contains main logic of overall system
a) Result analysis system
b) My SQL
c) Fees management system
d) Inventory control
Q.46) Keeping records and use them for reference and further proceedings is
a) Fees management system
b) Admission management
c) Stock record
d) OTP Protection
Q.47) The modern solution supports e – billing and integrates with customer account management to register
receivables
a) Revenue account
b) Financial account
c) Income tax
d) Financial e – billing system
Q.48) _____ Carries out feasibility studies on existing and proposed system to determine the economic viability of
computer processing within them
a) Analyst
b) Chief system analysit
c) System analyst
d) All the above
Q.49) In a relation between the entities the type and condition of the relation should be specified that is called as
___ attribute
a) Descriptive
b) Derived
c) Recursive
d) Relative
Q.50) The function that an entity plays in a relationship is called that entity’s ______
a) Participation
b) Position
c) Role
d) Instance
Q.51) Which of the following statements are true about an SQL Query ?
P: An SQL Query can contain a HAVING clause even if it does not have GROUP by clause
Q: An SQL Query can contain a HAVING clause only if it has a GROUP by clause
R: All attributes used in the GROUP by clause must appear in the SELECT clause
S: Not all attributes used in the GROUP by clause need to appear in the SELECT clause
a) P and R
b) P and S
c) Q and R
d) Q and S
Q.52) The ascending order of a data hierchy is:
a) bit - byte - record – field - file - database
b) byte – bit - field - record - file - database
c) bit - byte - field - record -file - database
d) bit - byte - file- record - field - database
Q.53) Referential integrity controls relationships between :
a) Attributes in a table
b) Operations of an object
c) Instances of a cases
d) Tables in a database
Q.54) Which one of the following statement is false?
a) The dictionary is normally maintained by the database administrator
b) Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary
c) The data dictionary contains the name and description of each data element
d) The data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by the database administration
Q.55) ____ is a system created for rule induction
a) RBS
b) CBS
c) DBS
d) LERS
Q.56) Consider the database table “Persons” having person_ID as the primary key:

What are the constraints violated by the above table?

a) Relationship Integrity
b) Referential Integrity Only
c) Entity and domain integrities
d) Referential and domain integrities
Q.57) Which of the following statements is false with respect to Relational DBMS?
a) A disadvantage of highly normalized tables is that queries may require too many time consuming joins
b) Foreign key constraints are referential integrity constraints
c) A primary key uniquely identifies a row in a table
d) Nulls reduce space requirements in tables.
Q.58) An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a key is termed as :
a) Primary entity set
b) Strong entity set
c) Weak entity set
d) Simple entity set
Q.59) In relational database , the natural join of two tables is:
a) Cartesian Product
b) Combination of Union and Cartesian product
c) Combination of selection and Cartesian product
d) Combination of projection and Cartesian product
Q.60) Which of the following is not Modification of the Database?
a) Deletion
b) Insertion
c) Sorting
d) Updating
Q.61) Which of the following in true regarding Null Value?
a) Null = 0
b) Null < 0
c) Null > 0
d) Null <> 0
Q.62) With SQL, how can you return number of employees does not have applied for a loan, from the given tables

a) SELECT e.empid, e.empname FROM employee e JOIN loan ln on e.empid = ln.empidln.empid WHERE
loanid is NULL
b) SELECT e.empid, e.empname FROM employee e LEFT OUTER JOIN loan ln on e.empid = ln.empid
WHERE loanid is NULL
c) SELECT e.empid, e.empname FROM employee e RIGHT OUTER JOIN loan ln on e.empid = ln.empid
WHERE loanid is NULL
d) SELECT e.empid, e.empname FROM employee e FULL OUTER JOIN loan ln on e.empid = ln.empid
WHERE loanid is NULL
Q.63) In relational database model cardinality of relation means:
a) The number of constraints
b) The number of tuples
c) The number of attributes
d) The number of tables
Q.64) Which of the following set of dependencies is suitable for making a relation R(ABCD) to be in 3NF but not
in BCNF.
a) {AB->CD,C->DA}
b) {AB->CD,C->A,D->B}
c) {A->BCD,B->CD,C->D}
d) {CB->CD,A->C,D->B}

]
Q.65) Find the correct match:

a) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q

b) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
c) A-S, B-Q, C-R, D-P
d) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
Q.66) If abstract class is inherited by derived class, then_______________ .
a) Derived class should provide definition for all the pure virtual functions
b) Derived class also become abstract if fails to implement pure virtual functions
c) Objects of derived class can’t be created if it fails to implement pure virtual functions
d) All of these
Q.67) Which one of the following are essential features of an object-oriented programming language? .
i. Abstraction and encapsulation
ii. Strictly-typedness
iii. Type-safe property coupled with sub-type rule
iv. Polymorphism in the presence of inheritance
Abstraction, Encapsulation, Polymorphism and Inheritance are the essential features of a OOP Language .
a) (i) and (ii) only
b) (i) and (iv) only
c) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
d) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
Q.68)
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
class Base {
private:
int i, j;
public:
Base(int _i = 0, int _j = 0): i(_i), j(_j) { }
};
class Derived: public Base {
public:
void show(){
cout<<" i = "<<i<<" j = "<<j;
}
};
int main(void) {
Derived d;
d.show();
return 0;
}
a) i = 0 j = 0
b) Compiler Error: i and j are private in Base
c) Compiler Error: Could not call constructor of Base
d) None
Q.69)
#include <iostream>
#include <stdlib.h>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
float x = 5.999;
float* y, *z;
y = &x;
z = y;
cout << x << ", " << *(&x) << ", " << *y << ", " << *z << "\n";
return 0;
}
a) 5.999, 5.999, 5.999, 5.999
b) 5.999, 5.9, 5.000, 5.900
c) Address of the elements
d) compilation error
Q.70)
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class X
{
public: void foo()
{
cout << "X::f ";
}
virtual void go()
{
cout << "X::g ";
}
};
class Y: public X
{
public: virtual void foo()
{
cout << "Y::f ";
}
virtual void go()
{
cout << "Y::g ";
}
};

int main()
{
X x;
Y y;
X& rx = y;
rx.foo();
rx.go();
return 0;
}
a) X::f Y::g
b) X::f
c) Y::g
d) Compiler Error
Q.71)
#include <iostream>
using std::cout;
int main()
{
int i = 0;
cout << (i = 0 ? 1 : 2 ? 3 : 4);
return 0;
}
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Q.72) What is the output of the following program?
#include <iostream>
using std::cout;
int main()
{
int i = 0, j = 0;
++++j = ++++i + i++;
cout << i;
cout << j;
return 0;
}
a) 12
b) 34
c) 22
d) compile dependent
Q.73)
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
void f2(int p = 30)
{
for (int i = 20; i <= p; i += 5)
cout << i << " ";
}
void f1(int& m)
{
m += 10;
f2(m);
}
int main()
{
int n = 20;
f1(n);
cout << n << " ";
return 0;
}
Option
a) 25 30 35 20
b) 20 25 30 20
c) 25 30 25 30
d) 20 25 30 30
Q.74)
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
void fun(char s[], int n)
{
for (int i = 0; s[i] != '\0'; i++)
if (i % 2 == 0)
s[i] = s[i] - n;
else
s[i] = s[i] + n;
}
int main()
{
char str[] = "Hello_World";
fun(str, 2);
cout << str << endl;
return 0;
}
Option
a) EgjnmaTqpnb
b) FgjnmaUqpnb
c) Fgjnm_Uqpnb
d) EgjnmaTqpnb
Q.75)
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
char* str = "GEEKSFORGEEK";
int* p, arr[] = { 10, 15, 70, 19 };
p = arr;
str++;
p++;
cout << *p << " " << str << endl;
return 0;
}
Option
a) 10 EEKSFORGEEK
b) 15 GEEKSFORGEEK
c) 15 EEKSFORGEEK
d) 10 GEEKSFORGEEK
Q.76)
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int x[] = { 12, 25, 30, 55, 110 };
int* p = x;
 while (*p < 110) {
if (*p % 3 != 0)
*p = *p + 1;
else
*p = *p + 2;
p++;
}
for (int i = 4; i >= 1; i--) {
cout << x[i] << " ";
}
return 0;
}
Option
a) 110 56 32 26
b) 110 57 30 27
c) 110 56 32 25
d) 100 55 30 25
Q.77) Is it fine to call delete twice for a pointer?
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int *ptr = new int;
delete ptr;
delete ptr;
return 0;
}
a) Yes
b) No
c) Compiler Error
d) Yes 0
Q.78) Which function is used to position back from the end of file object?
a) seekg
b) seekp
c) both seekg & seekp
d) none of the mentioned
Q.79)
#include<iostream>
#include<fstream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
ofstream ofile;
ofile.open ("text.txt");
ofile << "All the Best" << endl;
cout << "Data written to file" << endl;
ofile.close();
return 0;
}
a) All the Best
b) Compiler Error
c) Best of Luck
d) None
Q.80)
nameList = ['Harsh', 'Pratik', 'Bob', 'Dhruv']
print nameList[1][-1]
a) P
b) i
c) k
d) none
Q.81)
def addToList(listcontainer):
listcontainer += [10]
mylistContainer = [10, 20, 30, 40]
addToList(mylistContainer)
print len(mylistContainer)
a) 2
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Q.82) What is the output of the following program?
dictionary1 = {'Google' : 1,
'Facebook' : 2,
'Microsoft' : 3
}
dictionary2 = {'GFG' : 1,
'Microsoft' : 2,
'Youtube' : 3
}
dictionary1.update(dictionary2);
for key, values in dictionary1.items():
print(key, values)
a) Compilation error
b) Runtime error
c) (‘Google’, 1)
(‘Facebook’, 2)
(‘Youtube’, 3)
(‘Microsoft’, 2)
(‘GFG’, 1)
d) None of these
Q.83)
<?php
$GfG = "GoodforGood";
echo ltrim(strstr($GfG, "f"),"f");
?>
Options:
a) GoodforGood
b) Good
c) Goodf
d) orGood
Q.84)
<?php
$username = "sagarshUkla785";
if (ereg("([^a-z])",$username))
 echo "Not a valid username!";
else
echo "Valid username!";
?>
a) Error
b) Not a valid username!
c) Valid username!
d) No Output is returned
Q.85)
<?php
$languages = array("C++", "JAVA", "PYTHON", "SCALA");
$language = preg_grep("/^S/", $languages);
print_r($language);
?>
a) Array ( [0] => C++ [1] => JAVA [2] => PYTHON [3] => SCALA )
b) Array ( [3] => SCALA )
c) Array ( [1] => JAVA )
d) Array ( [0] => C++ )
Q.86) Any node is the path from the root to the node is called
a) Successor node
b) Ancestor node
c) Internal node
d) None of the above
Q.87) ………… is very useful in situation when data have to stored and then retrieved in reverse order.
a) Stack
b) Queue
c) List
d) Link list
Q.88) The property of binary tree is
a) The first subset is called left subtree
b) The second subtree is called right subtree
c) The root cannot contain NULL
d) The right subtree can be empty
Q.89) Quick sort is also known as
a) merge sort
b) heap sort
c) both
d) none of these
Q.90) Which if the following is/are the levels of implementation of data structure
a) Abstract level
b) Application level
c) Implementation level
d) All of the above
Q.91) ………………. is not an operation performed on linear list
a) Insertion
b) Insertion & Deletion
c) Deletion & Traversal
d) None of the above
Q.92) Which is/are the application(s) of stack
a) Function calls
b) Large number Arithmetic
c) Evaluation of arithmetic expressions
d) All of the above
Q.93) In Breadth First Search of Graph, which of the following data structure is used?
a) Stack
b) Queue
c) Linked List
d) None of the above
Q.94) The best average behaviour is shown by
a) Quick Sort
b) Merge Sort
c) Insertion Sort
d) Heap Sort
Q.95) What is the postfix form of the following prefix *+ab–cd
a) ab+cd–*
b) abc+*–
c) ab+*cd–
d) ab+*cd–
Q.96) When inorder traversing a tree resulted E A C K F H D B G; the preorder traversal would return
a) FAEKCDBHG
b) FAEKCDHGB
c) EAFKHDCBG
d) FEAKDCHBG
Q.97) ……………. overloaded through a member function take one explicit argument and those which are
overloaded through a friend function take two explicit arguments.
a) Unary operators
b) Binary operators
c) Arithmetic operators
d) Function operator
Q.98) The conversion from a class to any other type or any other class should make use of a ………….. in the
source class.
a) casting operator
b) constructor
c) not applicable
d) operator function
Q.99) What will be the order of execution of base class constructors in the following method of inheritance.
class A: public B, public C {….};
a) B(); C(); A();
b) C(); B(); A();
c) A(); B(); C();
d) B(); A(); C();
Q.100) In ……………….. inheritance, the base classes are constructed in the order in which they appear in the
deceleration of the derived class.
a) Hybrid
b) multiple
c) multilevel
d) hierarchical
Q.101) This technique for data transfer does not involve the processor
a) DMA
b) programmed I/O
c) memory mapped I/O
d) all the above
Q.102) Which type of display device used in calculators
a) nixie tube
b) 7 segment LED/LCD
c) 8 digit display
d) 10 digit display
Q.103) The number of flip flops needed for a counters to count 0 to 32 is
a) 4
b) 5
c) 32
d) 6
Q.104) Reduced form of the Boolean expression (A+B)(A+C) is
a) AB+AC
b) A+B+C
c) AC+B
d) A+BC
Q.105) The Boolean expression for the output of the logic circuit shown below is

a) AB+ ̅ +
b) AB+ ̅ + ̅
c) A + ̅ +
d) AB+ ̅ + ̅
Q.106) The 2’s complement of binary number 010111 is
a) 101001
b) 101000
c) 010111
d) 101011
Q.107) The m bit parallel adder consists of
a) (m+1) full adder
b) m/2 full adder
c) (m-1) full adder
d) m full adder
Q.108) The number of switching functions of 4 variables is
a) 8
b)16
c) 4
d) 64
Q.109) The characteristic equation of the T flip flop is
a) = +
b) = +
c) =
d) =
Q.110) The logical expression Y=A+ ̅ is equivalent to
a) AB
b) A
c) ̅ +
d) A+B

Q.111) How many address lines required to design 1024x8 bit RAM
a) 1024
b) 8
c) 11
d) 10
Q.112) The number of MOS transistors required to implement a typical dynamic RAM cell is
a) 6
b) 5
c) 1
d) 2
Q.113) Four memory chips of 16x4 size have their address bus connected together. The system will be of size
a) 64x64
b) 16x16
c) 32x8
d) 256x4
Q.114) The basic memory cell of a dynamic RAM consists of
a) a capacitor
b) transistor
c) flipflop
d) a transistor acting as a capacitor
Q.115) The capacity of 2Kx16 PROM is to be expanded to 16Kx16. find the number of PROM chips required and
the number of address lines in the expanded memory
a) 16 chips,16 address
b) 4 chips,16 address
c) 8 chips,14 address
d) 8 chips,16 address
Q.116) The correct instruction execution sequence is
a) fetch, decode, execute
b) decode, execute, fetch
c) execute, fetch, decode
d) fetch, execute, decode
Q.117) Program counter holds
a) address of next instruction to be executed
b) instructions to be executed
c) data
d) none
Q.118) What converts data from electrical to other form of energy in an I/O module
a) converter
b) transformer
c) transducer
d) arbiter
Q.119) This layer of the firewire bus controls the data transmission priority and fairness protocols
a) Link layer
b) Isochronous layer
c) Transaction layer
d) none
Q.120) A processor is fetching instructions at the rate of 1 MIPS. A DMA module is used to transfer characters to
RAM from a device transmitting at 9600bps. How much time will the processor be slowed down due to DMA
activity.
a) 1.2ms
b) 2.4ms
c) 2.2ms
d) 4.2ms
OS Unit -2
Q.121) Which combination of the following features will suffice to characterize an OS as a multi-programmed OS?
a. More than one program may be loaded into main memory at the same time for execution.
b. If a program waits for certain events such as I/O, another program is immediately scheduled for execution.
c. If the execution of program terminates, another program is immediately scheduled for execution.
a) a
b) a and b
c) a and c
d) a, b and c
Q.122) The process state transition diagram of an operating system is as given below.
Which of the following must be FALSE about the above operating system?

a) It is a multiprogrammed operating system

b) It uses preemptive scheduling
c) It uses non-preemptive scheduling
d) It is a multi-user operating system
Q.123) The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is / are
a) Virtual page number
b) Page frame number
c) Both virtual page number and page frame number
d) Access right information
Q.124) A CPU generally handles an interrupt by executing an interrupt service routine
a) As soon as an interrupt is raised
b) By checking the interrupt register at the end of fetch cycle.
c) By checking the interrupt register after finishing the execution of the current instruction.
d) By checking the interrupt register at fixed time intervals.
Q.125) Consider a system with 4 types of resources R1 (3 units), R2 (2 units), R3 (3 units), R4 (2 units). A non-
preemptive resource allocation policy is used. At any given instance, a request is not entertained if it cannot be
completely satisfied. Three processes P1, P2, P3 request the sources as follows if executed independently.
Process P1:
t=0: requests 2 units of R2
t=1: requests 1 unit of R3
t=3: requests 2 units of R1
t=5: releases 1 unit of R2
and 1 unit of R1.
t=7: releases 1 unit of R3
t=8: requests 2 units of R4
t=10: Finishes

Process P2:
t=0: requests 2 units of R3
t=2: requests 1 unit of R4
t=4: requests 1 unit of R1
t=6: releases 1 unit of R3
t=8: Finishes

Process P3:
t=0: requests 1 unit of R4
t=2: requests 2 units of R1
t=5: releases 2 units of R1
t=7: requests 1 unit of R2
t=8: requests 1 unit of R3
t=9: Finishes
Which one of the following statements is TRUE if all three processes run concurrently starting at time t=0?
a) All processes will finish without any deadlock
b) Only P1 and P2 will be in deadlock.
c) Only P1 and P3 will be in a deadlock.
d) All three processes will be in deadlock
Q.126) The enter_CS() and leave_CS() functions to implement critical section of a process are realized using test-
and-set instruction as follows:
void enter_CS(X)
{
while test-and-set(X) ;
}
void leave_CS(X)
{
X = 0;
}
In the above solution, X is a memory location associated with the CS and is initialized to 0. Now consider the
following statements:
I. The above solution to CS problem is deadlock-free
II. The solution is starvation free.
III. The processes enter CS in FIFO order.
IV. More than one process can enter CS at the same time.
Which of the above statements is TRUE?
a) I only
b) I and II
c) II and III
d) IV only
Q.127) A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for translating virtual address
to physical address because
a) It reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location.
b) It helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a process.
d) It is required by the translation lookaside buffer.
d) It helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms.
Q.128) The P and V operations on counting semaphores, where s is a counting semaphore, are defined as follows:
P(s) : s = s - 1;
 if (s < 0) then wait;
V(s) : s = s + 1;
if (s <= 0) then wakeup a process waiting on s;
Assume that Pb and Vb the wait and signal operations on binary semaphores are provided. Two binary semaphores
Xb and Yb are used to implement the semaphore operations P(s) and V(s) as follows:
P(s) : Pb(Xb);
s = s - 1;
if (s < 0) {
Vb(Xb) ;
Pb(Yb) ;
}
else Vb(Xb);
V(s) : Pb(Xb) ;
s = s + 1;
if (s <= 0) Vb(Yb) ;
Vb(Xb) ;
The initial values of Xb and Yb are respectively
a) 0 and 0
b) 0 and 1
c) 1 and 0
d) 1 and 1
Q.129) Group 1 contains some CPU scheduling algorithms and Group 2 contains some applications. Match entries
in Group 1 to entries in Group 2.
Group I Group II
P. Gang Scheduling (1) Guaranteed Scheduling
Q. Rate Monotonic Scheduling (2) Real-time Scheduling
R. Fair Share Scheduling (3) Thread Scheduling
a) P – 3 Q – 2 R – 1
b) P – 1 Q – 2 R – 3
c) P – 2 Q – 3 R – 1
d) P – 1 Q – 3 R – 2
Q.130) Processes P1 and P2 use critical_flag in the following routine to achieve mutual exclusion. Assume that
critical_flag is initialized to FALSE in the main program.
get_exclusive_access ( )
{
if (critical _flag == FALSE) {
critical_flag = TRUE ;
critical_region () ;
critical_flag = FALSE;
}
}
Consider the following statements.
i. It is possible for both P1 and P2 to access critical_region concurrently.
ii. This may lead to a deadlock.
Which of the following holds?
a) (i) is false and (ii) is true
b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
c) (i) is true and (ii) is false
d) Both (i) and (ii) are true
Q.131) Where was National institute of visually handicapped located?
a) Kolkata
b) Dehradun
c) Mumbai
d) Hyderabad
Q.132) Who among the following is associated with logical atomism?
a) John Deway
b) Russell
c) Carl jung
d) Thorndike
Q.133) Which among the following psychologist gave language communication model?
a) Chomsky
b) Vygoisky
c) Roger and Thoemaker
d) Falingar
Q.134) Which among the following psychologist is known as father of experimental learning?
a) Wilhelm Wundt
b) Freud
c) Tharndike
d) Parton
Q.135) MOOC stands for
a) Massive online open course
b) Massive open online course
c) Masachu chats online open course
d) Mass open online course
Q.136) Which of the following is not a role of NCTE?
a) Coordinate and monitor teacher education
b) Promote and conduct innovative research in teacher education
c) To prevent commercialization of teacher education
d) Giving recognition to schools
Q.137) Match the following
A. Mathegenics - i Robert mager
B. CAI - ii Norbert weiner
C. LCJ - iii Roth kopt
D. Cybernatics - iv Robert stolurow
a) III IV I II
b) I II III IV
c) III IV II I
d) III IV II I
Q.138) Which among the following psychologist associated with competency motivation?
a) Maslow
b) Macdougal
c) Robert White
d) Atkinson
Q.139) Which artide says about “No Religion instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholey
maintained by state fuids”?
a) 28 (1)
b) 28 (2)
c) 29
d)30
Q.140) In which of the following piage’s stage object permance comes?
a) Sensory motor stage
b) Preoperational stage
c) Concrete operational stage
d) Formal operational stage
Q.141) The comptroller and auditor general of India is
a) Venkatesh Mohan
b) Antia Pattanayak
c) Vinod Rai
d) Rajiv Mehrishi
Q.142) On which day Jawaherlal Nehru hoisted the tricolor of Indian Independence on the banks of the
River Ravi at Lahore?
a) 1 January 1930
b) 26 January 1931
c) 15 August 1947
d) 26 January 1950
Q.143) How many recognized political parties were in India during 1952 elections?
a) 4
b) 12
c) 14
d) 16
Q.144) Who is the chairman of NITI Aayog?
a) V.K. Saraswat
b) Narendra Modi
c) Arvind Panagariya
d) Bibek Debroy
Q.145) The International Day of Peace Day is observed around the world each year on ---------?
a) September 20
b) September 23
c) September 21
d) September 22
Q.146) Which Delhi Sultan is called as ‘A slave of a slave’?
a) Balban
b) Kuth-ud-din Aibak
c) Raziya
d) Iltumish
Q.147) The Second Edition of the Tamilnadu Global investors meet (GIM) held on
a) 23rd and 24th January 2018
b) 23rd and 24th January 2017
c) 23rd and 24th January 2015
d) 23rd and 24th January 2019
Q.148) India’s first Microprocessor was designed by Whom ------
a) IITM - Indian Institute of Technology madras
b) IITD - Indian Institute of Technology Delhi
c) IITK - Indian Institute of Technology Korakpur
d) IITC - Indian Institute of Technology Calcutta
Q.149) Match the following:
a. Individual Satyagraha 1.1942
b. Quit India Resolution 2.1940
c. Cabinet Mission 3.1947
d. Mountbatten Plan 4.1946
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 3 4 2 1
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 4 3 1 2
Q.150) BSLVC 44 lifted off with microsat – Rand Kalam saton
a) 24th January 2018
b) 24th January 2019
c) 24th January 2017
d) 24th January 2019